Chapter 18: Intraoperative Nursing Management

Nursing students are reviewing information about agents used for anesthesia. The students demonstrate understanding when they identify which of the following as an inhalation anesthetic?

Correct response: Halothane Explanation: Halothane is an example of an inhalation anesthetic. Fentanyl, succinylcholine, and propofol are commonly used intravenous agents for anesthesia.

After teaching a class about agents commonly associated with the development of malignant hyperthermia, the instructor determines that additional teaching is needed when the students identify which drug as a possible cause?

Correct response: Morphine Explanation: Morphine is not associated with malignant hyperthermia. Agents such as halothane, succinylcholine, and epinephrine can induce malignant hyperthermia.

Which of the following is the appropriate response to the statement, "I'm so nervous about my surgery"?

You seem nervous about your surgery." Explanation: Use of the communication technique of "restating" is recommended as a way to encourage the patient to expand his or her thoughts and feelings. Reference:

After teaching a patient scheduled for ambulatory surgery using moderate sedation, the nurse determines that the patient has understood the teaching based on which of the following statements?

Correct response: "I'll be sleepy but able to respond to your questions." Explanation: With moderate sedation, the patient can maintain a patent airway (i.e., doesn't need a tube to help breathing), retain protective airway reflexes, and respond to verbal and physical stimuli. The patient is not unconscious with moderate sedation. Local anesthesia involves anesthetizing or numbing the area of the surgery.

Question 13 See full question17sReport this Question A 78-year-old client is undergoing surgery to repair a right hip fracture. What nursing action is appropriate during the intraoperative phase?

Correct response: Appropriately position the client using adequate padding and support. Explanation: Adequate padding and support should be used to prevent positioning injuries. Older adults have lower bone mass, which increases the risk of intraoperative positioning injuries. Pain medication can still be used, just in smaller doses, due to decreased liver and kidney function. For the same reason, lower doses of anesthetic agents are used with older adults. The operating room is usually maintained from 20°C to 24°C; 18°C is lower than the recommended temperature and can promote hypothermia in an older adult who already has impaired thermoregulation and is prone to hypothermia.

A patient is in the operating room for surgery. Which individual would be responsible for ensuring that procedure and site verification occurs and is documented?

Correct response: Circulating nurse Explanation: The circulating nurse is responsible for ensuring that the second verification of the surgical procedure and site takes place and is documented. Each member of the surgical team verifies the patient's name, procedure, and surgical site using objective documentation and data before beginning the surgery.

What is the priority action by the scrub nurse when the surgeon begins to close the surgical wound?

Correct response: Count the sponges. Explanation: Standards call for the scrub nurse and the circulating nurse to count the sponges at the beginning of the surgery, when the surgical wound is being sutured, and when the skin is being sutured. Tissue specimens should be labeled when obtained. The sutures should be ready before the surgeon needs them. Although the scrub nurse does hand equipment to the surgeon, the sponge count is a higher priority action.

What medication should the nurse prepare to administer in the event the client has malignant hyperthermia?

Correct response: Dantrolene sodium Explanation: Anesthesia and surgery should be postponed. However, if end-tidal carbon dioxide (CO2) monitoring and dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) are available and the anesthesiologist is experienced in managing malignant hyperthermia, the surgery may continue using a different anesthetic agent.

A 70-year-old patient who is to undergo surgery arrives at the operating room (OR). The nurse, when reviewing the patient's medical record, understands that this patient will require a lower dose of anesthetic agent because of which of the following?

Correct response: Decreased lean tissue mass Explanation: Elderly patients require lower doses of anesthetic agents because of decreased tissue elasticity and reduced lean tissue mass. An increased amount of anesthetic would be needed with an increased anxiety level. Impaired thermoregulation increases the patient's susceptibility to hypothermia.

The anesthesiologist administered a transsacral conduction block. Which documentation by the nurse is consistent with the anesthesia being administered?

Correct response: Denies sensation to perineum and lower abdomen Explanation: A transsacral block anesthetizes the perineum and occasionally the lower abdomen. Yelling and pulling at equipment can be related to the excitement phase of general anesthesia. Lack of response to verbal or tactile stimuli and no movement in the right lower leg are not consistent with a transsacral conduction block.

A medical student scheduled to observe surgery enters the unrestricted surgical zone wearing jeans, a t-shirt, and tennis shoes. What is the best action by the nurse?

Correct response: Educate the medical student on required attire for each surgical zone. Explanation: It would be best to educate the medical student on the required attire for each surgical zone. Because the student will be observing a surgery, he or she will need to dress appropriately in each zone to decrease the risk of introducing pathogens. The unrestricted zone allows for street clothes; therefore, the student does not need to be removed. If no action is taken by the nurse, the student could enter the semi-restricted or restricted zone without appropriate attire. Providing a cap and mask does not address the need to change out of the street clothes to observe the surgery. Reference

A nurse is caring for a postoperative client who started shivering. What is the best action for the nurse?

Correct response: Ensure that the room temperature is set at 25°C to 26.6°C (78°F to 80°F). Explanation: The room temperature should be set 25°C to 26.6°C (78°F to 80°F). Providing the client with warm food and fluids will not control shivering. If the client is shivering, the nurse should cover the client with a light dry blanket. Wet materials promote heat loss. The client is covered with a hypothermia blanket if the temperature rises to 105ºF 40.6ºC. Reference:

Which stage of surgical anesthesia is also known as excitement?

Correct response: II Explanation: Stage II is the excitement stage, which is characterized by struggling, shouting, and laughing. Stage II is often avoided if the anesthetic is administered smoothly and quickly. Stage I is the beginning of anesthesia, during which the client breathes in the anesthetic mixture and feelings of warmth, dizziness, and detachment occur. Stage III is surgical anesthesia, which is achieved by continued administration of anesthetic vapor and gas. Stage IV is medullary depression, in which the client is unconscious and lies quietly on the table.

A client is receiving general anesthesia. The nurse anesthetist starts to administer the anesthesia. The client begins giggling and kicking her legs. What stage of anesthesia would the nurse document related to the findings?

Correct response: II Explanation: Stage II is the excitement stage, which is characterized by struggling, shouting, and laughing. Stage I is the beginning of anesthesia, during which the client breathes in the anesthetic mixture and feelings of warmth, dizziness, and detachment occur. Stage III is surgical anesthesia characterized by unconsciousness and quietness. Surgical anesthesia is achieved by continued administration of anesthetic vapor and gas. Stage IV is medullary depression. Reference:

An obese client is undergoing abdominal surgery. During the procedure a surgical resident states, "The amount of fat we have to cut through is disgusting." What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct response: Inform the resident that all communication needs to remain professional. Explanation: The nurse must advocate for the client, especially when the client cannot speak for themselves. By informing the resident that all communication needs to be professional, the nurse is addressing the comment at that moment in time, advocating for the client. Ignoring the comment is not appropriate. The nurse may need to address the concerns of unprofessional communication with the attending surgeon or the charge nurse if the behavior continues. The best action is to address the behavior when it happens.

A student nurse is scheduled to observe a surgical procedure. The nurse provides the student nurse with education on the dress policy and provides all attire needed to enter a restricted surgical zone. Which observation by the nurse requires immediate intervention?

Correct response: Mask is placed over nose and extends to bottom lip. Explanation: The mask should fit tightly, covering the nose and mouth. The mask should extend down past the chin. The mask may not effectively cover the mouth if extended only to the bottom lip. The hair, scrub top, drawstring, and shoe covering are all appropriate and do not require intervention.

An OR nurse needs to assist a patient to the Trendelenburg position. Which of the following is the correct position?:

Correct response: On his back, with his head lowered, so that the plane of his body meets the horizontal on an angle Explanation: The Trendelenburg position usually is used for surgery on the lower abdomen and pelvis to obtain good exposure by displacing the intestines into the upper abdomen. In this position, the head and body are lowered. The patient is held in position by padded shoulder braces.

Fentanyl is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent?

Correct response: Opioid Explanation: Fentanyl is 75 to 100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV). Examples of tranquilizers include midazolam and diazepam. Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

A nurse is monitoring a client recovering from moderate sedation that was administered during a colonoscopy. Which finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct response: Oxygen saturation (SaO2) of 85% Explanation: Normal SaO2 is 95% to 100%. Oxygen saturation of 85% indicates inadequate oxygenation, which may be a consequence of the moderate sedation. Appropriate nursing actions include rousing the client, if necessary, assisting the client with coughing and deep breathing, and evaluating the need for additional oxygen. A heart rate of 84 beats/minute is within normal limits. Colonoscopy doesn't affect cough and gag reflexes, although these reflexes may be slightly decreased from the administration of sedation. These findings don't require immediate intervention. Blood-tinged stools are a normal finding after colonoscopy, especially if the client had a biopsy.

The scrub nurse is responsible for:

Correct response: Preparing the sterile instruments for the surgical procedure Explanation: The scrub nurse is responsible for preparing the sterile instruments for the surgical procedure.

The circulating nurse is unsure whether proper technique was followed when an object was placed in the sterile field during a surgical procedure. What is the best action by the nurse?

Correct response: Remove the entire sterile field from use. Explanation: If any doubt exists about the maintenance of sterility, the field should be considered not sterile. Because the object in question was placed in the sterile field, the sterile field must be removed from use. Removing the individual item is not appropriate, as the entire field was potentially contaminated. Reviewing the client's chart at a later date does not decrease the chance of infection. Although another nurse could observe the technique used to put objects in a sterile field, it does not resolve the immediate concern.

A client is placed on the operating room table for the surgical procedure. Which surgical team member is responsible for handing sterile instruments to the surgeon and assistants?

Correct response: Scrub nurse Explanation: The scrub nurse is sterile and assists the surgical team by handing instruments to the surgeon, preparing sutures, receiving specimens to be sent to the lab, and counting sponges and needles. The circulating nurse is not sterile and obtains and opens sterile equipment, adjusts lights, and keeps records. The first assistant is involved with the client's preoperative care. The certified registered nurse anesthetist assists in the client's anesthesia.

A nurse who is part of the surgical team is involved in setting up the sterile tables. The nurse is functioning in which role?

Correct response: Scrub role Explanation: The scrub role includes performing a surgical hand scrub, setting up the sterile tables, and preparing sutures, ligatures, and special equipment. The circulating nurse manages the operating room and protects patient safety. The registered nurse first assistant functions under the direct supervision of the surgeon. Responsibilities may include handling tissue, providing exposure of the operative field, suturing, and maintaining hemostasis. The anesthetist administers the anesthetic medications.

There are four stages of general anesthesia. Select the stage during which the OR nurse knows not to touch the patient (except for safety reasons) because of possible uncontrolled movements.

Correct response: Stage II: excitement Explanation: The excitement stage, characterized variously by struggling, shouting, talking, singing, laughing, or crying, is often avoided if the anesthetic is administered smoothly and quickly. Because of the possibility of uncontrolled movements, the patient should not be touched except for purposes of restraint.

The surgical client has been intubated and general anesthesia has been administered. The client exhibits cyanosis, shallow respirations, and a weak, thready pulse. The nurse recognizes that the client is in which stage of general anesthesia?

Correct response: Stage IV Explanation: Stage IV: medullary depression is characterized by shallow respirations, a weak, thready pulse, dilated pupils that do not react to light, and cyanosis.

A nurse is working as a registered nurse first assistant as defined by the state's nurse practice act. This nurse practices under the direct supervision of which surgical team member?

Correct response: Surgeon Explanation: The registered nurse first assistant practices under the direct supervision of the surgeon. The circulating nurse works in collaboration with other members of the health care team to plan the best course of action for each patient. The scrub nurse assists the surgeon during the procedure as well as setting up sterile tables and preparing equipment. The anesthetist administers the anesthetic medications.

Which clinical manifestation is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia?

Correct response: Tachycardia (heart rate >150 beats per minute) Explanation: Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia. Hypotension is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia. The rise in temperature is actually a late sign that develops quickly. Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.

The nurse recognizes older adults require lower doses of anesthetic agents due to:

Correct response: decreased lean tissue mass. Explanation: Lower doses of anesthetic agents are required in older adults, as they have decreased lean tissue mass, decreased tissue elasticity, and decreased liver mass. Bone mass is unrelated to doses of anesthesia.

The nurse recognizes the client has reached stage III of general anesthesia when the client:

Correct response: lies quietly on the table Explanation: Understanding the stages of anesthesia is necessary for nurses because of the emotional support that the client may need. Stage III or surgical anesthesia is reached when the patient is unconscious and lies quietly on the table. The pupils are small but constrict when exposed to light. Respirations are regular, the pulse rate and volume are normal, and the skin is pink or slightly flushed. Clients in stage I of anesthesia may have a ringing, roaring, or buzzing in the ears and, although still conscious, may sense an inability to move the extremities easily. These sensations can result in agitation. Stage II of anesthesia is characterized variously by struggling, shouting, talking, singing, laughing, or crying, and is often avoided if IV anesthetic agents are given smoothly and quickly. Stage IV is reached if too much anesthesia is given. Respirations become shallow, the pulse is weak and thready, and the pupils become widely dilated and no longer constrict when exposed to light. Cyanosis develops and, without prompt intervention, death rapidly follows. If this stage develops, the anesthetic agent is discontinued immediately and respiratory and circulatory support is initiated to prevent death.

A client is to receive general anesthesia with sevoflurane. What does the nurse anticipate would be given with the inhaled anesthesia?

Correct response: oxygen Explanation: Sevoflurane is an inhalation anesthetic always combined with oxygen to decrease the risk of coughing and laryngospasm. It would not be combined with alfentanil, rocuronium, or lidocaine. Alfentanil and rocuronium are intravenous anesthetics. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic. Reference:

The nurse is working in the preoperative area with a client going to surgery for a cholecystectomy. The client has histamine2-receptor antagonists ordered preoperatively. The client asks the nurse why these medications are needed. What would be the nurse's best answer?

You Selected: "These medications decrease gastric acidity and volume." Correct response: "These medications decrease gastric acidity and volume." Explanation: The anesthesiologist frequently orders preoperative medications. Common preoperative medications include the following: anticholinergics, which decrease respiratory tract secretions, dry mucous membranes, and interrupt vagal stimulation; anti anxiety drugs, which reduce preoperative anxiety, slow motor activity, and promote induction of anesthesia; histamine2-receptor antagonists, which decrease gastric acidity and volume; narcotics, which decrease the amount of anesthesia needed, help reduce anxiety and pain, and promote sleep; sedatives, which promote sleep, decrease anxiety, and reduce the amount of anesthesia needed; and tranquilizers, which reduce nausea, prevent emesis, and enhance preoperative sedation. Refe

A client is brought to the operating room for an elective surgery. What is the priority action by the circulating nurse?

You Selected: Acquire ordered blood products. Correct response: Verify consent. Explanation: Surgery cannot be performed without consent. Documentation of the start of surgery can only happen once the surgery has started. Blood products must be administered within an allotted time frame and therefore should not be acquired unless needed. The sponge and syringe count is a safety issue that should be completed before surgery and while the wound is being sutured, but if the client has not consented, the surgery should not take place.

A patient is to undergo surgery on his kidney. The patient would be placed in which position for the surgery?

You Selected: Correct response: Explanation: The Sims' or lateral position as shown in Option D would be used for renal surgery. The dorsal recumbent position (Option A) is used for most abdominal surgeries, except those for the gallbladder or pelvis. The Trendelenburg position (Option B) is used for surgery on the lower abdomen and pelvis. The lithotomy position (Option C) is used for nearly all perineal, rectal, and vaginal surgical procedures. Reference:

The circulating nurse must be vigilant in monitoring the surgical environment. Which of the following actions by the nurse is inappropriate?

Correct response: Allow unnecessary personnel to enter the OR environment. Explanation: The circulating nurse restricts the admittance of unnecessary personnel in the OR environment. Reference:

The nurse understands that the purpose of the "time out" is to:

Correct response: maintain the safety of the client. Explanation: Verification of the identification of the client, procedure, and operative site are essential to maintain the safety of the client.:

Which of the following is a duty of the registered nurse first assistant? Select all that apply.

You Selected: Handling tissue Providing exposure at the operative field Maintaining hemostasis Correct response: Handling tissue Suturing Maintaining hemostasis Providing exposure at the operative field Explanation: Handling tissue, suturing, maintaining hemostasis, and providing exposure at the operative field are responsibilities of the registered nurse first assistant. Specimen management is a duty of the circulating nurse. Reference:

question42sReport this Question The nurse is caring for a client during an intra operative procedure. When assessing vital signs, which result indicates a need to alert the anesthesiologist immediately?

You Selected: Temperature of 102.5°F (39°C) Correct response: Temperature of 102.5°F (39°C) Explanation: Intra operative hyperthermia can indicate a life-threatening condition called malignant hyperthermia. The circulating nurse closely monitors the client for signs of hyperthermia. The pulse rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure did not indicate a significant concern. Referen