Chapter 25: Management of Patients with Complications of Heart Disease

A nurse is caring for a client with left-sided heart failure. During the nurse's assessment, the client is wheezing, restless, tachycardic, and has severe apprehension. The clients reports that these symptoms came on suddenly. The nurse knows that these are symptoms of what condition? Pulmonary hypertension Cardiogenic shock Progressive heart failure Acute pulmonary edema

Acute pulmonary edema Clients with acute pulmonary edema exhibit sudden dyspnea, wheezing, orthopnea, restlessness, cough (often productive of pink, frothy sputum), cyanosis, tachycardia, and severe apprehension. These symptoms do not indicate progressive heart failure, pulmonary hypertension, or cardiogenic shock.

A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with left-sided heart failure. What clinical manifestations does the nurse anticipate finding when performing an assessment? (Select all that apply.) Ascites Jugular vein distention Cough Dyspnea Pulmonary crackles

Cough Dyspnea Pulmonary crackles The clinical manifestations of pulmonary congestion associated with left-sided heart failure include dyspnea, cough, pulmonary crackles, and low oxygen saturation levels, but not ascites or jugular vein distention.

Which particular area(s) should be examined to assess peripheral edema? Under the sacrum Lips, earlobes Feet, ankles Upper arms

Feet, ankles When right-sided heart failure occurs, blood accumulates in the vessels and backs up in peripheral veins, and the extra fluid enters the tissues. Particular areas for examination are the dependent parts of the body, such as the feet and ankles. Other prominent areas prone to edema are the fingers, hands, and over the sacrum. Cyanosis can be detected by noting color changes in the lips and earlobes.

Which New York Heart Association classification of heart failure has a poor prognosis and includes symptoms of cardiac insufficiency at rest? I II III IV

IV Symptoms of cardiac insufficiency at rest are classified as IV, according to the New York Heart Association Classification of Heart Failure. In class I, ordinary activity does not cause undue fatigue, dyspnea, palpitations, or chest pain. In class II, ADLs are slightly limited. In class III, ADLs are markedly limited.

A client in the hospital informs the nurse he "feels like his heart is racing and can't catch his breath." What does the nurse understand occurs as a result of a tachyarrhythmia? It causes a loss of elasticity in the myocardium. It increases preload. It increases afterload. It reduces ventricular ejection volume.

It reduces ventricular ejection volume. Reducing ventricular ejection volume because diastole, during which the ventricle fills with blood (preload), is shortened as a result of a tachyarrhythmia. Causing a loss of elasticity in the muscle is a result of cardiomyopathy. Afterload is decreased not increased.

A new client has been admitted with right-sided heart failure. When assessing this client, the nurse knows to look for which finding? Jugular venous distention Cough Pulmonary congestion Dyspnea

Jugular venous distention When the right ventricle cannot effectively pump blood from the ventricle into the pulmonary artery, the blood backs up into the venous system and causes jugular venous distention and congestion in the peripheral tissues and viscera. All the other choices are symptoms of left-sided heart failure.

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure that has developed pulmonary edema. The client has become very anxious. What medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to assist this client's breathing and anxiety? Calcium channel blockers Intropin Morphine sulfate Lasix

Morphine sulfate IV morphine sulfate often is given to lessen anxiety. Morphine seems to help relieve respiratory symptoms by depressing higher cerebral centers, thus relieving anxiety and slowing respiratory rate. Morphine also promotes muscle relaxation and reduces the work of breathing.

A client has been diagnosed with heart failure. What is the major nursing outcome for the client? Sleep 8 hours per night. Reduce the workload on the heart. Walk 30 minutes three times a week. Maintain a healthy diet.

Reduce the workload on the heart. Specific objectives of medical management of heart failure include reducing the workload on the heart by reducing preload and afterload. The other choices are objectives that may be supportive of a healthy lifestyle, but are not specific to a client with heart failure.

Which is a potassium-sparing diuretic used in the treatment of heart failure? Chlorothiazide Ethacrynic acid Bumetanide Spironolactone

Spironolactone Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Chlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic. Bumetanide and ethacrynic acid are loop diuretics.

A client has been diagnosed with congestive heart failure. This client's cardiac function has been compromised since the client suffered a myocardial infarction 3 years ago. Heart failure is classified by: length of disability post-MI. amount of activity restriction the failure imposes. using the New York Heart Association scale. severity of the MI.

amount of activity restriction the failure imposes. Chronic heart failure is classified based on the amount of activity restriction it imposes. Although organizations that develop the classifications may have varying stages, they are all based on the level of activity restriction.

The nurse is admitting a client with frothy pink sputum. What does the nurse suspect is the primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema? increased right atrial resistance increased left atrial contractility decreased right ventricular elasticity decreased left ventricular pumping

decreased left ventricular pumping Pulmonary edema is an acute event that results from heart failure. Myocardial scarring, resulting from ischemia, limits the distensibility of the ventricle, making it vulnerable to demands for increased workload. When the demand on the heart increases, there is resistance to left ventricular filling and blood backs up into the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary edema quickly develops.

Frequently, what is the earliest symptom of left-sided heart failure? dyspnea on exertion chest pain confusion anxiety

dyspnea on exertion Dyspnea on exertion is often the earliest symptom of left-sided heart failure.

A client has been having cardiac symptoms for several months and is seeing a cardiologist for diagnostics to determine the cause. How will the client's ejection fraction be measured? echocardiogram electrocardiogram cardiac ultrasound cardiac catheterization

echocardiogram The heart's ejection fraction is measured using an echocardiogram or multiple gated acquisition scan, not an electrocardiogram or cardiac ultrasound. Cardiac catheterization is not the diagnostic tool for this measurement.

A nurse reviews the client's medical record and reads in the progress notes that the client has decreased left ventricular function. What assessment will validate the diagnosis? resting bradycardia orthopnea bibasilar rales cleared with coughing increased appetite

orthopnea Decreased left ventricular function would be characterized by orthopnea, dyspnea, anorexia, bibasilar rales not cleared with coughing, and resting tachycardia.

When a client has increased difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the client is demonstrating orthopnea. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. hyperpnea. dyspnea upon exertion.

orthopnea. Clients with orthopnea prefer not to lie flat and will need to maintain their beds in a semi- to high Fowler position. Dyspnea upon exertion refers to difficulty breathing with activity. Hyperpnea refers to increased rate and depth of respiration. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea refers to orthopnea that occurs only at night.

A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. The nurse knows that the client has left-sided heart failure when the client makes which statement? "My pants don't fit around my waist." "I don't have the same appetite I used to." "I sleep on three pillows each night." "My feet are bigger than normal."

"I sleep on three pillows each night." Orthopnea is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. The client commonly sleeps on several pillows at night to help facilitate breathing. Swollen feet, ascites, and anorexia are signs of right-sided heart failure.

A client has been diagnosed with systolic heart failure. What percentage will the nurse expect the patient's ejection fraction to be? 55% 30% 65% 5%

30% The ejection fraction is normal in diastolic heart failure, but severely reduced in systolic heart failure. The normal EF is 55%-65%. An EF of 5% is not life sustaining and an EF of 30% is about half the normal percentage.

A client in the emergency room is in cardiac arrest and exhibiting pulseless electrical activity (PEA) on the cardiac monitor. What will be the nurse's next action? Administer epinephrine. Change oxygen delivery to a mask. Analyze the arterial blood gas. Stop all emergency measures.

Administer epinephrine. PEA can be caused by hypovolemia, hypoxia, hypothermia, hyperkalemia, massive pulmonary embolism, myocardial infarction, and medication overdose (beta blockers, calcium channel blockers). PEA is treated with epinephrine according to advanced life support protocol. Applying oxygen or analyzing an arterial blood gas will not change the client's heart rhythm. PEA is treated until there is no change in the client's rhythm after treatments.

The nurse is administering sublingual nitroglycerin to a client with chest pain. What action will the nurse take after administering two sublingual tablets if the client continues with chest pain and has a blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg? Administer the third sublingual nitroglycerin tablet. Notify the health care provider of the chest pain. Hold any further treatment until the client's blood pressure increases. Wait ten minutes after the second tablet to assess pain.

Administer the third sublingual nitroglycerin tablet. The nurse will need to administer the third sublingual nitroglycerin tablet. Nitroglycerin is given as three doses for chest pain as the client's blood pressure can tolerate it. The health care provider will be notified after three tablets. The nurse should not hold any further treatment if the client has chest pain. The dosing of nitroglycerin is a five-minute wait.

A 70-year-old man has been living with a diagnosis of heart failure (HF) for several years and has been vigilant about monitoring the trajectory of disease and adhering to his prescribed treatment regimen. The man has scheduled an appointment with his primary care provider because he has noted a weight gain of 6 pounds over the past week. The nurse should anticipate that this patient may benefit from which of the following treatment measures? An increase in the dose of his prescribed diuretic A further reduction in his dietary sodium intake A decrease in his daily activity level Thoracentesis

An increase in the dose of his prescribed diuretic If a patient with HF experiences a significant change in weight (i.e., 2- to 3-lb increase in a day or 5-lb increase in a week), the patient is instructed to notify his or her provider or to adjust the medications (e.g., increase the diuretic dose) per provider's directions. Thoracentesis is not relevant, and decreased activity may exacerbate the patient's condition. Decreased sodium intake may be of some benefit, but diuretics will have a greater effect.

The nurse understands that a client with which cardiac arrhythmia is most at risk for developing heart failure? Supraventricular tachycardia Atrial fibrillation Sinus tachycardia First-degree heart block

Atrial fibrillation Cardiac dysrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation may either cause or result from heart failure; in both instances, the altered electrical stimulation impairs myocardial contraction and decreases the overall efficiency of myocardial function.

A client with pulmonary edema has been admitted to the ICU. What would be the standard care for this client? Intubation of the airway Insertion of a central venous catheter Hourly administration of a fluid bolus BP and pulse measurements every 15 to 30 minutes

BP and pulse measurements every 15 to 30 minutes Bedside ECG monitoring is standard, as are continuous pulse oximetry, automatic BP, and pulse measurements approximately every 15 to 30 minutes.

A patient in severe pulmonary edema is being intubated by the respiratory therapist. What priority action by the nurse will assist in the confirmation of tube placement in the proper position in the trachea? Observe for mist in the endotracheal tube. Attach a pulse oximeter probe and obtain values. Listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium. Call for a chest x-ray.

Call for a chest x-ray. A chest x-ray is always obtained after ET tube placement to confirm that the tube is in the proper position within the trachea.

A client has been prescribed furosemide 80 mg twice daily. The asymptomatic client begins to have rare premature ventricular contractions followed by runs of bigeminy with stable signs. What action will the nurse perform next? Check the client's potassium level. Administer potassium. Calculate the client's intake and output. Notify the health care provider.

Check the client's potassium level. The client is asymptomatic but has had a change in heart rhythm. More information is needed before calling the health care provider. Because the client is taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, the next action would be to check the client's potassium level. The nurse would then call the health care provider with a more complete database. The health care provider will need to be notified after the nurse checks the latest potassium level. The intake and output will not change the heart rhythm. Administering potassium requires a health care provider's order.

A client with chronic heart failure is able to continue with his regular physical activity and does not have any limitations as to what he can do. According to the New York Heart Association (NYHA), what classification of chronic heart failure does this client have? Class III (Moderate) Class I (Mild) Class IV (Severe) Class II (Mild)

Class I (Mild) Class I is when ordinary physical activity does not cause undue fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea. The client does not experience any limitation of activity. Class II (Mild) is when the client is comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, heart palpitations, or dyspnea. Class III (Moderate) is when there is marked limitation of physical activity. The client is comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, heart palpitations, or dyspnea. Class IV (Severe), the client is unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of cardiac insufficiency occur at rest. Discomfort is increased if any physical activity is undertaken.

The nurse has completed a head-to-toe assessment of a patient who was admitted for the treatment of heart failure (HF). Which of the following assessment findings should signal to the nurse a possible exacerbation of the patient's condition? The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 144/99. Blood glucose testing reveals a glucose level of 158 mg/dL. Crackles are audible on chest auscultation. The patient has put out 600 mL of dilute urine over the past 8 hours.

Crackles are audible on chest auscultation. Patients with HF often exhibit crackles, which are produced by the sudden opening of edematous small airways and alveoli that have adhered together by exudate. These may be heard at the end of inspiration and are not cleared with coughing. A widened pulse pressure, increased BP, and production of dilute urine are not characteristic of HF. Changes in blood glucose levels are not normally symptomatic of HF.

Which medication reverses digitalis toxicity? Ibuprofen Warfarin Digoxin immune FAB Amlodipine

Digoxin immune FAB Digoxin immune FAB binds with digoxin and makes it unavailable for use. The dosage is based on the digoxin concentration and the client's weight. Ibuprofen, warfarin, and amlodipine are not used to reverse the effects of digoxin.

The nurse assessing a client with an exacerbation of heart failure identifies which symptom as a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure (HF)? Ascites Dizziness Tachycardia Nocturia

Dizziness Cerebrovascular manifestations of heart failure stemming from decreased brain perfusion include dizziness, lightheadedness, confusion, restlessness, and anxiety due to decreased oxygenation and blood flow.

The nurse is obtaining data on an older adult client. What finding may indicate to the nurse the early symptom of heart failure? Decreased urinary output Hypotension Tachycardia Dyspnea on exertion

Dyspnea on exertion Left-sided heart failure produces hypoxemia as a result of reduced cardiac output of arterial blood and respiratory symptoms. Many clients notice unusual fatigue with activity. Some find exertional dyspnea to be the first symptom. An increase in urinary output may be seen later as fluid accumulates. Hypotension would be a later sign of decompensating heart failure as well as tachycardia.

Which diagnostic study is usually performed to confirm the diagnosis of heart failure? Echocardiogram Electrocardiogram (ECG) Serum electrolytes Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Echocardiogram An echocardiogram is usually performed to confirm the diagnosis of heart failure. ECG, serum electrolytes, and a BUN are usually completed during the initial workup.

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure and a sudden onset of tachypnea. What is the nurse's priority action? Notify the family of a change in condition. Assess pulse oximetry reading. Report a decrease in urine output. Elevate the head of the bed.

Elevate the head of the bed. The nurse's priority action is to elevate the head of bed to help with breathing. The pulse oximetry reading provides more data, but is not the priority intervention. Reporting a decrease urine output is not a priority for the client. Notification of the family is not a priority to help with breathing.

A client with acute pericarditis is exhibiting distended jugular veins, tachycardia, tachypnea, and muffled heart sounds. The nurse recognizes these as symptoms of what occurrence? Fibrin accumulation on the visceral pericardium infiltrates into the myocardium, creating generalized myocardial dysfunction. Excess pericardial fluid compresses the heart and prevents adequate diastolic filling. The pericardial space is eliminated with scar tissue and thickened pericardium. The parietal and visceral pericardial membranes adhere to each other, preventing normal myocardial contraction.

Excess pericardial fluid compresses the heart and prevents adequate diastolic filling. The cardinal signs of cardiac tamponade are falling systolic blood pressure, narrowing pulse pressure, rising venous pressure (increased JVD), and distant (muffled) heart sounds. Increased pericardial pressure, reduced venous return to the heart, and decreased carbon dioxide result in cardiac tamponade (e.g., compression of the heart).

The nurse is caring for a client with suspected right-sided heart failure. What would the nurse know that clients with suspected right-sided heart failure may experience? Increased urine output Gradual unexplained weight gain Sleeping in a chair or recliner Increased perspiration

Gradual unexplained weight gain Clients with right-sided heart failure may have a history of gradual, unexplained weight gain from fluid retention. Left-sided heart failure produces paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, which may prompt the client to use several pillows in bed or to sleep in a chair or recliner. Right-sided heart failure does not cause increased perspiration or increased urine output.

A client with congestive heart failure is admitted to the hospital after reporting shortness of breath. How should the nurse position the client in order to decrease preload? Supine with arms elevated on pillows above the level of the heart Head of the bed elevated 45 degrees and lower arms supported by pillows Head of the bed elevated 30 degrees and legs elevated on pillows Prone with legs elevated on pillows

Head of the bed elevated 45 degrees and lower arms supported by pillows Preload refers to the degree of stretch of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole. The client is positioned or taught how to assume a position that facilitates breathing. The number of pillows may be increased, the head of the bed may be elevated, or the client may sit in a recliner. In these positions, the venous return to the heart (preload) is reduced, pulmonary congestion is alleviated, and pressure on the diaphragm is minimized. The lower arms are supported with pillows to eliminate the fatigue caused by the pull of the client's weight on the shoulder muscles.

The nurse is assessing a patient who reports no symptoms of heart failure at rest but is symptomatic with ordinary physical activity. Under what classification does the nurse understand this patient would be categorized? IV I III II

II Classification II of heart failure is indicated by the patient being comfortable at rest, but experiencing fatigue, palpitation, or dyspnea during ordinary physical activity.

A nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure for jugular vein distension (JVD). Which observation is important to report to the physician? JVD is noted 2 cm above the sternal angle. JVD is noted 4 cm above the sternal angle. No JVD is present. JVD is noted at the level of the sternal angle.

JVD is noted 4 cm above the sternal angle. JVD is assessed with the client sitting at a 45° angle. Jugular vein distention greater than 4 cm above the sternal angle is considered abnormal and is indicative of right ventricular failure.

Which feature is the hallmark of systolic heart failure? Low ejection fraction (EF) Basilar crackles Limited activities of daily living (ADLs) Pulmonary congestion

Low ejection fraction (EF) A low EF is a hallmark of systolic heart failure (HF); the severity of HF is frequently classified according to the client's symptoms.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) who is receiving milrinone? Teach the client about safe home use of the medication Encourage the client to ambulate in room Monitor blood pressure frequently Titrate milrinone rate slowly before discontinuing

Monitor blood pressure frequently Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that delays the release of calcium from intracellular reservoirs and prevents the uptake of extracellular calcium by the cells. This promotes vasodilation, resulting in decreased preload and afterload and reduced cardiac workload. Milrinone is administered intravenously to clients with severe HF, including those who are waiting for a heart transplant. Because the drug causes vasodilation, the client's blood pressure is monitored before administration because if the client is hypovolemic the blood pressure could drop quickly. The major side effects are hypotension and increased ventricular dysrhythmias. Blood pressure and the electrocardiogram (ECG) are monitored closely during and after infusions of milrinone.

A nurse is teaching clients newly diagnosed with coronary heart disease (CHD) about the disease process and risk factors for heart failure. Which problem can cause left-sided heart failure (HF)? Ineffective right ventricular contraction Myocardial ischemia Pulmonary embolus Cystic fibrosis

Myocardial ischemia Myocardial dysfunction and HF can be caused by a number of conditions, including coronary artery disease, hypertension, cardiomyopathy, valvular disorders, and renal dysfunction with volume overload. Atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries is a primary cause of HF, and coronary artery disease is found in the majority of clients with HF. Ischemia causes myocardial dysfunction because it deprives heart cells of oxygen and causes cellular damage. MI causes focal heart muscle necrosis, myocardial cell death, and a loss of contractility; the extent of the infarction correlates with the severity of HF. Left-sided heart failure is caused by myocardial ischemia. Ineffective right ventricular contraction, pulmonary embolus, and cystic fibrosis cause right-sided heart failure.

The nurse is working in a long-term care facility with a group of older adults with cardiac disorders. Why would it be important for the nurse to closely monitor an older adult receiving digitalis preparations for cardiac disorders? Older adults are at increased risk for asthma. Older adults are at increased risk for cardiac arrests. Older adults are at increased risk for toxicity. Older adults are at increased risk for hyperthyroidism.

Older adults are at increased risk for toxicity. Older adults receiving digitalis preparations are at increased risk for toxicity because of the decreased ability of the kidneys to excrete the drug due to age-related changes. The margin between a therapeutic and toxic effect of digitalis preparations is narrow. Using digitalis preparations does not increase the risk of cardiac arrests, hyperthyroidism, or asthma.

The client with cardiac failure is taught to report which symptom to the health care provider or clinic immediately? Ability to sleep through the night Weight loss Persistent cough Increased appetite

Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-sided heart failure. Loss of appetite, weight gain, interrupted sleep, unusual shortness of breath, and increased swelling should also be reported immediately.

Which term describes the degree of stretch of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole? Ejection fraction Stroke volume Afterload Preload

Preload Preload is the degree of stretch of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole. Afterload is the amount of resistance to ejection of blood from a ventricle. The ejection fraction is the percentage of blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole that is ejected during systole. Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each contraction.

The nurse recognizes which symptom as a classic sign of cardiogenic shock? Increased urinary output High blood pressure Hyperactive bowel sounds Restlessness and confusion

Restlessness and confusion Cardiogenic shock occurs when decreased cardiac output leads to inadequate tissue perfusion and initiation of the shock syndrome. Inadequate tissue perfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation).

The nurse is discussing the cardiac system with a client admitted with heart failure. The client asks "What determines the heart rate?" What is the nurse's best response? Stroke volume controls the heart rate. Preload controls the heart rate. Force of contractility controls the heart rate. The autonomic nervous system controls the heart rate.

The autonomic nervous system controls the heart rate. The autonomic nervous system primarily controls the heart rate. When the sympathetic branch is stimulated, heart rate increases. When the parasympathetic branch is stimulated, heart rate decreases. Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each contraction and depends on three factors: preload, afterload, and contractility.

Assessment of a client on a medical surgical unit finds a regular heart rate of 120 beats per minute, audible third and fourth heart sounds, blood pressure of 84/64 mm Hg, bibasilar crackles on lung auscultation, and a urine output of 5 mL over the past hour. What is the reason the nurse anticipates transferring the client to the intensive care unit? The client shows signs of aneurysm rupture. The client is going into cardiogenic shock. The client is experiencing heart failure. The client is in the early stage of right-sided heart failure.

The client is going into cardiogenic shock. This client's findings indicate cardiogenic shock, which occurs when the heart fails to pump properly, impeding blood supply and oxygen flow to vital organs. Cardiogenic shock also may cause cold, clammy skin and generalized weakness, fatigue, and muscle pain as poor blood flow causes lactic acid to accumulate and prevents waste removal. Left-sided and right-sided heart failure eventually cause venous congestion with jugular vein distention and edema as the heart fails to pump blood forward. A ruptured aneurysm causes severe hypotension and a quickly deteriorating clinical status from blood loss and circulatory collapse; this client has low but not severely decreased blood pressure. Also, in ruptured aneurysm, deterioration is more rapid and full cardiac arrest is common.

A client with right-sided heart failure is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. What information obtained from the client may indicate the presence of edema? The client says his rings have become tight and are difficult to remove. The client says he is short of breath when ambulating. The client says he has been hungry in the evening. The client says that he has been urinating less frequently at night.

The client says his rings have become tight and are difficult to remove. Clients may observe that rings, shoes, or clothing have become tight. The client would most likely be urinating more frequently in the evening. Accumulation of blood in abdominal organs may cause anorexia, nausea, flatulence, and a decrease in hunger. Shortness of breath with ambulation would occur most often in left-sided heart failure.

A client has a myocardial infarction in the left ventricle and develops crackles bilaterally; 3-pillow orthopnea; an S3 heart sound; and a cough with pink, frothy sputum. The nurse obtains a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What do these signs and symptoms indicate for this client? The development of cor pulmonale The development of right-sided heart failure The development of left-sided heart failure The development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) SUBMIT ANSWER

The development of left-sided heart failure When the left ventricle fails, the heart muscle cannot contract forcefully enough to expel blood into the systemic circulation. Blood subsequently becomes congested in the left ventricle, left atrium, and finally the pulmonary vasculature. Symptoms of left-sided failure include fatigue; paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea; orthopnea; hypoxia; crackles; cyanosis; S3 heart sound; cough with pink, frothy sputum; and elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure. COPD develops over many years and does not develop after a myocardial infarction. The development of right-sided heart failure would generally occur after a right ventricle myocardial infarction or after the development of left-sided heart failure. Cor pulmonale is a condition in which the heart is affected secondarily by lung damage.

The nurse is conducting a morning assessment of an 80-year-old female patient who has a longstanding diagnosis of heart failure (HF). The nurse notes an elevation in jugular venous pressure (JVP) greater than 4 cm above the woman's sternal angle, a finding that did not exist the day before. What conclusion should the nurse draw from this assessment finding? The woman has left-sided heart failure. The woman is demonstrating the early signs of cardiogenic shock. The woman may be experiencing an exacerbation of right-sided HF. The woman is also likely to experience shortness of breath.

The woman may be experiencing an exacerbation of right-sided HF. Increased JVP is associated with right-sided HF. Dyspnea may or may not be present, but is more closely associated with left-sided HF. Increased JVP is not necessarily indicative of impending shock.

The physician writes orders for a patient to receive an angiotensin II receptor blocker for treatment of heart failure. What medication does the nurse administer? Valsartan (Diovan) Metolazone (Zaroxolyn) Digoxin (Lanoxin) Carvedilol (Coreg)

Valsartan (Diovan) Valsartan (Diovan) is the only angiotensin receptor blocker listed. Digitalis/digoxin (Lanoxin) is a cardiac glycoside. Metolazone (Zaroxolyn) is a thiazide diuretic. Carvedilol (Coreg) is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent (beta-blocker).

A client is awaiting the availability of a heart for transplant. What option may be available to the client as a bridge to transplant? Ventricular assist device (VAD) Pacemaker Implanted cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) Intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)

Ventricular assist device (VAD) VADs may be used for one of three purposes:(1) a bridge to recovery, (2) a bridge to transplant, or (2) destination therapy (mechanical circulatory support when there is no option for a heart transplant). An implanted cardioverter-defibrillator or pacemaker is not a bridge to transplant and will only correct the conduction disturbance and not the pumping efficiency. An IABP is a temporary, secondary mechanical circulatory pump to supplement the ineffectual contraction of the left ventricle. The IABP is intended for only a few days

While auscultating the heart sounds of a client with heart failure, the nurse hears an extra heart sound immediately after the second heart sound (S2). How should the nurse document this sound? a first heart sound (S1). a third heart sound (S3). a fourth heart sound (S4). a murmur.

a third heart sound (S3). An S3 is heard following an S2, which commonly occurs in clients experiencing heart failure and results from increased filling pressures. An S1 is a normal heart sound made by the closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves. An S4 is heard before an S1 and is caused by resistance to ventricular filling. A murmur is heard when there is turbulent blood flow across the valves.

The nurse is admitting a client with heart failure. What factor will worsen the client's myocardial function? blood urea nitrogen 22 mg/dL potassium 3.9 mEq/L hemoglobin 11.9 g/dL arterial pH 7.28

arterial pH 7.28 Hypoxia, acidosis, renal failure, and electrolyte imbalance will decrease myocardial function for clients with heart failure. The pH of 7.28 is an acidosis. The BUN is normal at 22 mg/dL. The potassium of 3.9 mEq/L is within the normal range. A hemoglobin of 11.9 g/dL will not decrease myocardial function.

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. What sign will lead the nurse to suspect right-sided and left-sided heart failure? warm extremities resting bradycardia ascites weight loss

ascites Right-sided heart failure is characterized by signs of circulatory congestion, such as leg edema, jugular vein distention, ascites, and hepatomegaly. Left-sided heart failure is characterized by circumoral cyanosis, crackles, and a productive cough. Mixed heart failures can have all symptoms of right and left plus cool extremities, resting tachycardia, and weight gain.

A nurse caring for a client recently admitted to the ICU observes the client coughing up large amounts of pink, frothy sputum. Lung auscultation reveals coarse crackles in the lower lobes bilaterally. Based on this assessment, the nurse recognizes this client is developing tuberculosis. bilateral pneumonia. acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema.

decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema. The production of large quantities of frothy sputum, which is sometimes pink or tan (blood tinged), indicates acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema. These signs can be confused with those of pneumonia and tuberculosis. However, auscultation reveals coarse crackles, which indicate pulmonary edema. A patient with acute COPD would have diminished lung sounds bilaterally.

The nurse is assessing a newly admitted client with chest pain. What medical disorder is most likely causing the client to have jugular vein distention? myocardial infarction (MI) heart failure abdominal aortic aneurysm pneumothorax

heart failure Elevated venous pressure, exhibited as jugular vein distention, indicates the heart's failure to pump. Jugular vein distention isn't a symptom of abdominal aortic aneurysm or pneumothorax. If severe enough, an MI can progress to heart failure, but an MI alone doesn't cause jugular vein distention.

The nurse is caring for a client with advanced heart failure. What treatment will be considered after all other therapies have failed? ventricular access device implantable cardiac defibrillator (ICD) heart transplant cardiac resynchronization therapy

heart transplant Heart transplantation involves replacing a person's diseased heart with a donor heart. This is an option for advanced HF patients when all other therapies have failed. A ventricular access device, ICD, and cardiac resynchronization therapy would be tried prior to a heart transplant.

The nurse is receiving a client from the emergency in cardiogenic shock. What mechanical device does the nurse anticipate will be inserted into the client? cardiac pacemaker defibrillator intra-aortic balloon pump hypothermia-hyperthermia machine

intra-aortic balloon pump Counterpulsation with an intra-aortic balloon pump may be indicated for temporary circulatory assistance in clients with cardiogenic shock. The intra-aortic balloon pump increases coronary perfusion and cardiac output and decreases myocardial workload and oxygen consumption in a client with cardiogenic shock. Cardiac pacemakers are used to maintain the heartbeat at a predetermined rate. Hypothermia-hyperthermia machines are used to cool or warm clients with abnormalities in temperature regulation. The defibrillator is commonly used for termination of life-threatening ventricular rhythms.

The nurse is assigned to care for a client with heart failure. What medication does the nurse anticipate administering that will improve client symptoms as well as increase survival? lisinopril cholestyramine bumetanide diltiazem

lisinopril Several medications are routinely prescribed for heart failure (HF), including angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors such as lisinopril, beta-blockers, and diuretics such as bumetanide. Many of these medications, particularly ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers, improve symptoms and extend survival. Others, such as diuretics, improve symptoms but may not affect survival. Calcium channel blockers such as diltiazem are no longer recommended for patients with HF because they are associated with worsening failure. Cholestyramine is used to lower cholesterol.

A client is prescribed digitalis medication. Which condition should the nurse closely monitor when caring for the client? nausea and vomiting Flexion contractures Vasculitis Enlargement of joints

nausea and vomiting Digitalis medications are potent and may cause various toxic effects. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of digitalis toxicity, not just during the initial period of therapy, but throughout care management. The most common signs and symptoms include nausea and vomiting which can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Symptoms of toxicity do not include vasculitis, flexion contractures, or enlargement of joints.

A client is receiving captopril for heart failure. During the nurse's assessment, what sign indicates that the medication therapy is ineffective? bradycardia postural hypotension skin rash peripheral edema

peripheral edema Peripheral edema is a sign of fluid volume excess and worsening heart failure. A skin rash and postural hypotension are adverse reactions to captopril, but they don't indicate that therapy is ineffective. The individual will also most like experience trachycardia instead of bradycardia if the heart failure is worsening ang not responding to captopril.

The nurse is administering digoxin to a client with heart failure. What laboratory value may predispose the client to digoxin toxicity? potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L magnesium level of 2.5 mg/dL sodium level of 152 mEq/L calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL

potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L Conditions that may predispose a client to digoxin toxicity include hypokalemia (evidenced by a potassium level less than 3.5 mEq/L), hypomagnesemia (evidenced by a magnesium level less than 1.5 mEq/L), hypothyroidism, hypoxemia, advanced myocardial disease, active myocardial ischemia, and altered autonomic tone. Hypermagnesemia (evidenced by a magnesium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L), hypercalcemia (evidenced by an ionized calcium level greater than 5.3 mg/dl), and hypernatremia (evidenced by a sodium level greater than 145 mEq/L) aren't associated with a risk of digoxin toxicity.

A client with a history of an anterior wall myocardial infarction is being transferred from the coronary care unit (CCU) to the cardiac step-down unit (CSU). While giving a report to the CSU nurse, the CCU nurse says, "His pulmonary artery wedge pressures have been in the high normal range." What additional assessment information would be important for the CSU nurse to obtain? dry mucous membranes hypertension high urine output pulmonary crackles

pulmonary crackles High pulmonary artery wedge pressures are diagnostic for left-sided heart failure. With left-sided heart failure, pulmonary edema can develop causing pulmonary crackles. In left-sided heart failure, hypotension may result and urine output will decline. Dry mucous membranes aren't directly associated with elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressures.

A client who was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly reports chest pain and shortness of breath and is visibly anxious. The nurse immediately assesses the client for other signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism. pneumonia. pulmonary edema. myocardial infarction.

pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a potentially life-threatening disorder typically caused by blood clots in the lungs. This disorder poses a particular threat to people with cardiovascular disease. Blood clots that form in the deep veins of the legs and embolize to the lungs can cause a pulmonary infarction, whereby emboli mechanically obstruct the pulmonary vessels, cutting off the blood supply to sections of the lung. Clinical indicators of pulmonary embolism can vary but typically include dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachypnea.