Chapter 29: Orthopaedic Injuries
A 21-year-old male was thrown over the handlebars of his motorcycle when he rear-ended a car that was stopped at a red light. He was wearing a helmet, which he removed prior to your arrival. He is conscious, but restless, and has closed deformities to both of his femurs. His skin is pale, his heart rate is rapid and weak, and his respirations are rapid and shallow. In addition to applying high-flow oxygen and protecting his spine, you should: A. bind his legs together on the backboard, keep him warm, and transport without delay. B. apply traction splints to both of his legs, keep him warm, and transport without delay. C. splint each of his deformed femurs with long board splints and transport immediately. D. apply the PASG to stabilize his femurs and transport at once.
A
A 31-year-old male fell and landed on his left elbow. Your assessment reveals that the elbow is grossly deformed, his forearm is cool and pale, and the distal pulse on the side of the injury is barely palpable. His vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries. Your transport time to the closest appropriate hospital is approximately 15 minutes. You should: A. splint the elbow in the position found and transport. B. gently manipulate the elbow to improve circulation. C. gently straighten the elbow and apply an air splint. D. apply a heat pack to the elbow to reduce swelling.
A
A _______ is a stretching or tearing of the muscle. A. strain B. sprain C. torn ligament D. split
A
A(n) _______ fracture is an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone but many still cause severe angulation. A. greenstick B. comminuted C. pathologic D. epiphyseal
A
A(n) _______ fractures the bone at the point of impact. A. direct blow B. indirect force C. twisting force D. high-energy injury
A
Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by: A. swelling. B. guarding. C. crepitus. D. ecchymosis.
A
Fracture of the tibia and fibula are often associated with _______ as a result of the distorted positions of the limb following injury. A. vascular injury B. muscular injury C. tendon injury D. ligament injury
A
In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: A. articular cartilage. B. synovial tendons. C. muscular fascia. D. gliding cartilage.
A
Of the following musculoskeletal injuries, which is considered to be the LEAST severe? A. nondisplaced pelvic fracture B. open fractures of a long bone C. an amputation of an extremity D. multiple closed long bone fractures
A
The MOST common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is: A. neurovascular compromise. B. internal bleeding and shock. C. ligament and cartilage damage. D. total depletion of synovial fluid.
A
The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: A. traction. B. reduction. C. stabilization. D. immobilization.
A
The musculoskeletal system refers to the: A. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. B. nervous system's control over the muscles. C. connective tissue that supports the skeleton. D. involuntary muscles of the nervous system.
A
The pectoral girdle consists of the: A. scapulae and clavicles. B. clavicles and rib cage. C. sternum and scapulae. D. acromion and clavicles.
A
The primary purpose for splinting a musculoskeletal injury is to: A. prevent further injury. B. maximize distal circulation. C. make the patient comfortable. D. facilitate ambulance transport.
A
To effectively immobilize a fractured clavicle, you should apply a(n): A. sling and swathe. B. air splint over the entire arm. C. rigid splint to the upper arm, then a sling. D. traction splint to the arm of the injured side.
A
When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: A. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. B. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back. C. assume that minimal force was applied to the back. D. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening.
A
Which of the following joints allows no motion? A. skull sutures B. sacroiliac joint C. shoulder joint D. sternoclavicular joint
A
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries has the GREATEST risk for shock due to blood loss? A. pelvic fracture B. posterior hip dislocation C. unilateral femur fracture D. proximal humerus fracture
A
Which of the following scenarios is an example of a direct injury? A. A passenger fractures her patella after it strikes the dashboard. B. A skier dislocates his knee after a twisting injury to the ankle. C. A person lands on his or her feet and fractures the lumbar spine. D. A child dislocates his elbow after falling on his outstretched arm.
A
Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? A. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. B. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity. C. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. D. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis.
A
Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of an amputation is FALSE? A. You should sever any partial amputation, because this will aid in the reattachment process. B. In some areas, wrapping the amputated part in a dry sterile dressing is appropriate. C. In some areas, wrapping the amputated part in dressings moistened with sterile saline is appropriate. D. After wrapping the amputated part, place it in a plastic bag.
A
While transporting a patient, you continue to recheck the splint you applied. You know that improperly applying a splint can cause all of the following EXCEPT: A. increase of distal circulation if the splint is too tight. B. delay in transport of a patient with a life-threatening injury. C. aggravation of the distal circulation. D. compression of nerves, tissues, and blood vessels.
A
You receive a call to a local gymnasium for a basketball player with a dislocated shoulder. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 17-year-old male, sitting on the ground. He is holding his left arm in a fixed position away from his body. There is an obvious anterior bulge to the area of injury. You should: A. assess distal pulse, motor, and sensory functions. B. gently attempt to move his arm toward his body. C. place a pillow under his arm and apply a swathe. D. flex his arm at the elbow and then apply a sling.
A
You respond to a 19-year-old woman who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. She is alert and oriented. Her airway is open, and respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. Pulse is 94 beats/min and is strong and regular. Distal pulses are present. Her upper arm has obvious deformity. You splint the upper arm. You know that splinting will do all of the following EXCEPT: A. prevent the need for surgery. B. reduce shock. C. minimize compromised circulation. D. reduce pain.
A
You respond to a 19-year-old woman who was kicked in the leg by a horse. She is alert and oriented. Respirations are 20 breaths/min, regular and unlabored. Pulse is 110 beats/min and regular. Distal pulses are present. She has point tenderness at the site of the injury. You should compare the limb to: A. the opposite uninjured limb. B. one of your limbs or one of your partner's limbs. C. an injury chart. D. none of the above.
A
A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert, but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be MOST suspicious for: A. anterior hip dislocation. B. posterior hip dislocation. C. a thoracic spine fracture. D. fracture of the tibia or fibula.
B
A Colles fracture involves a fracture of the: A. distal ulna. B. distal radius. C. proximal radius. D. radius and ulna.
B
A _______ is a disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact. A. torn ligament B. dislocation C. fracture dislocation D. sprain
B
A ____________ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments. A. strain B. sprain C. fracture D. dislocation
B
A fracture caused by minimal force that is associated with diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a __________ fracture. A. greenstick B. pathologic C. transverse D. comminuted
B
A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A. total loss of function in a bone. B. break in the continuity of the bone. C. disruption in the midshaft of a bone. D. abnormality in the structure of a bone.
B
A patient injured her knee while riding a bicycle. She is lying on the ground, has her left leg flexed, is in severe pain, and cannot move her leg. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to her left knee. Distal pulses are present and strong. The MOST appropriate treatment for her injury involves: A. wrapping her entire knee area with a pillow. B. splinting the leg in the position in which it was found. C. straightening her leg and applying two rigid board splints. D. straightening her leg and applying and inflating an air splint.
B
A patient tripped, fell, and landed on her elbow. She is in severe pain and has obvious deformity to her elbow. You should: A. assess distal pulses. B. manually stabilize her injury. C. assess her elbow for crepitus. D. apply rigid board splints to her arm.
B
A person who experiences a calcaneus fracture after jumping and landing on his or her feet would MOST likely experience an accompanying fracture of the: A. thoracic spine. B. lumbar spine. C. coccygeal spine. D. symphysis pubis.
B
A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: A. radial head. B. distal humerus. C. proximal radius. D. olecranon process.
B
A(n) _______ is a fracture in which the bone is broken into two or more fragments. A. greenstick B. comminuted C. pathologic D. epiphyseal
B
A(n) _______ may cause a fracture or discoloration at a distant point. A. direct blow B. indirect force C. twisting force D. high-energy injury
B
Applying ice to and elevating an injured extremity are performed in order to: A. prevent further injury. B. reduce pain and swelling. C. enhance tissue circulation. D. maintain extremity perfusion.
B
Because of local tenderness and swelling, it is easy to confuse a nondisplaced or minimally displaced fracture at the knee with a: A. tendon injury. B. ligament injury. C. dislocation. D. fracture-dislocation.
B
Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. swelling. B. deformity. C. ecchymosis. D. point tenderness.
B
During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: A. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. B. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse. C. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints. D. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow.
B
During your rapid secondary assessment of a 19-year-old female with multiple trauma, you note bilateral humeral deformities and a deformity to the left midshaft femur. Her skin is diaphoretic and her pulse is rapid and weak. Your partner has appropriately managed her airway and is maintaining manual stabilization of her head. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. applying and inflating the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) and transporting. B. immobilizing her to a backboard and rapidly transporting. C. applying a traction splint to immobilize her femur. D. carefully splinting each of her deformed extremities.
B
Skeletal muscle is also referred to as __________ muscle. A. smooth B. striated C. connective D. involuntary
B
Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called: A. fascia. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments.
B
The PASG is absolutely contraindicated in patients who have: A. pelvic fractures. B. pulmonary edema. C. bilateral femur fractures. D. any trauma below the pelvis.
B
The _______ is one of the most commonly fractured bones in the body. A. scapula B. clavicle C. humerus D. radius
B
The knee is especially susceptible to _______ injuries, which occur when abnormal bending or twisting forces are applied to the joint. A. tendon B. ligament C. dislocation D. fracture-dislocation
B
The purpose of splinting a fracture is to: A. reduce the fracture if possible. B. prevent motion of bony fragments. C. reduce swelling in adjacent soft tissues. D. force the bony fragments back into anatomic alignment.
B
What joint is frequently separated during football and hockey when a player falls and lands on the point of the shoulder? A. Glenohumeral joint B. Acromioclavicular joint C. Sternoclavicular joint D. None of the above
B
When assessing a patient with a possible fracture of the leg, the EMT should: A. assess proximal circulation. B. compare it to the uninjured leg. C. carefully move it to elicit crepitus. D. ask the patient to move the injured leg.
B
When treating an open extremity fracture, you should: A. apply a splint and then dress the wound. B. dress the wound before applying a splint. C. irrigate the wound before applying a dressing. D. allow the material that secures the splint to serve as the dressing.
B
Which of the following injuries would be appropriate to treat with a traction splint? A. Injuries of the pelvis B. An isolated femur fracture C. Partial amputation or avulsions with bone separation D. Lower leg or ankle injury
B
Which of the following statements about compartment syndrome is FALSE? A. It occurs 6 to 12 hours after an injury. B. It most commonly occurs with a fractured femur. C. It is usually a result of excessive bleeding, a severely crushed extremity, or the rapid return of blood to an ischemic limb. D. It is characterized by pain that is out of proportion to the injury.
B
Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. smooth D. autonomic
B
_______ are held together in a tough fibrous structure known as a capsule. A. Tendons B. Joints C. Ligaments D. Bones
B
A 17-year-old football player collided with another player and has pain to his left clavicular area. He is holding his arm against his chest and refuses to move it. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to the midshaft clavicle. After assessing distal pulse, sensory, and motor functions, you should: A. perform a rapid secondary assessment. B. straighten his arm and apply a board splint. C. immobilize the injury with a sling and swathe. D. place a pillow under his arm and apply a sling.
C
A 76-year-old male experienced sudden pain to his left thigh when he was standing in line at the grocery store. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis and deformity to the distal aspect of his left femur, just above the knee. Distal circulation and sensory and motor functions are intact. The MOST appropriate method of splinting this injury involves: A. applying a traction splint to realign the deformity. B. applying and fully inflating the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG). C. applying padded board splints to both sides of the leg. D. binding the legs together and elevating them 6″ to 8″.
C
A 77-year-old woman slipped and fell on a throw rug and landed on her left hip. She denies striking her head or losing consciousness. Assessment of her left leg reveals that it is shortened and externally rotated. Distal pulses, sensory, and motor functions are intact. You should: A. manually stabilize her left leg, apply a traction splint, and then secure her to a long backboard or scoop. B. carefully slide a long backboard underneath her, keep her in a supine position, and apply a splint to her leg. C. place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps. D. bind both of her legs together with triangular bandages and carefully secure her onto the ambulance stretcher.
C
A _______ is an injury to the ligaments, the articular capsule, the synovial membrane, and the tendons crossing the joint. A. dislocation B. strain C. sprain D. torn ligament
C
A motorcyclist crashed his bike and has closed deformities to both of his midshaft femurs. He is conscious, but restless; his skin is cool and clammy; and his radial pulses are rapid and weak. The MOST appropriate splinting technique for this patient involves: A. applying rigid board splints. B. applying two traction splints. C. securing him to a long backboard. D. immobilizing his femurs with air splints.
C
A subluxation occurs when: A. ligaments are partially severed. B. a fracture and a dislocation exist. C. a joint is incompletely dislocated. D. a bone develops a hairline fracture.
C
A(n) _______ is also known as a hairline fracture. A. closed fracture. B. open fracture. C. nondisplaced fracture. D. displaced fracture.
C
A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities. A. greenstick B. diaphyseal C. epiphyseal D. metaphyseal
C
Although substantial ligament damage always occurs with a knee dislocation, the more urgent injury is to the _______ artery, which is often lacerated or compressed by the displaced tibia. A. tibial B. femoral C. popliteal D. dorsalis pedis
C
Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: A. increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength. B. the tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured. C. muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma. D. carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle.
C
During your rapid secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25′, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: A. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center. B. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. C. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine. D. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once
C
In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? A. when distal circulation and neurological functions are absent B. if transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes C. if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain D. if a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity
C
In-line _______ is the act of exerting a pulling force on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment. A. stabilization B. immobilization C. traction D. direction
C
Signs and symptoms of sprains include all of the following EXCEPT: A. point tenderness. B. pain preventing the patient from moving or using the limb normally. C. marked deformity. D. instability of the joint indicated by increased motion.
C
The _______ is one of the most commonly injured joints. A. knee B. elbow C. ankle D. hip
C
There is often a significant amount of blood loss, as much as _______ mL, after a fracture of the shaft of the femur. A. 100 to 250 B. 250 to 500 C. 500 to 1,000 D. 100 to 1,500
C
Traction splints are used primarily to immobilize and secure fractures of the: A. hip. B. pelvis. C. femur. D. humerus.
C
When caring for patients who have fallen, you must identify the _______ and the mechanism of injury so that you will not overlook associated injuries. A. site of injury B. height of fall C. point of contact D. twisting forces
C
Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock? A. hip B. femur C. pelvis D. humerus
C
Which of the following statements regarding shoulder dislocations is MOST correct? A. Posterior dislocations are most common. B. They are caused by forced arm adduction. C. Most shoulder dislocations occur anteriorly. D. They involve the acromion process and humerus.
C
With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: A. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. B. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted. C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury. D. part of the body that sustained secondary injury.
C
You are called to the local assisted living facility where a 94-year-old man has fallen. He is alert and oriented and denies passing out. His respirations are 18 breaths/min and regular. Pulse is 106 beats/min, regular, and strong. Distal pulses are present. He states that he was walking and heard a pop and fell to the floor. You suspect a(n): A. greenstick B. comminuted C. pathologic D. epiphyseal
C
You respond to a soccer game for a 16-year-old male with severe ankle pain. When you deliver him to the hospital, the physician tells you that he suspects a sprain. This means that: A. there is a disruption of the joint and the bone ends are no longer in contact. B. the patient has an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the bone. C. stretching or tearing of the ligaments with partial or temporary dislocation of the bone ends has occurred. D. the muscles of the ankle have been severely stretched, resulting in displacement of the bones from the joint.
C
Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss. A. 1,000 B. 1,500 C. 2,000 D. 4,000
A
Bone marrow produces: A. platelets. B. blood cells. C. lymphocytes. D. electrolytes.
B
Regardless of the extent and severity of the damage to the skin, you should treat any injury that breaks the skin as a possible: A. closed fracture. B. open fracture. C. nondisplaced fracture. D. displaced fracture.
B
Assessing a person's neurovascular status following a musculoskeletal injury includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. assessing motor function. B. assessing sensory function. C. evaluating proximal pulses. D. determining capillary refill.
C
Crepitus and false motion are: A. indicators of a severe sprain. B. only seen with open fractures. C. positive indicators of a fracture. D. most common with dislocations.
C
A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: A. pelvic girdle. B. femoral shaft. C. pubic symphysis. D. proximal femur.
D
A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: A. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. B. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. C. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. D. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.
D
If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting: A. distal circulation. B. the patient history. C. bruising to the shoulder. D. the presence of deformity.
B
When splinting a possible fracture of the foot, it is MOST important for the EMT to: A. use a pillow as a splint. B. leave the toes exposed. C. apply a pneumatic splint. D. observe for tissue swelling.
B
Which of the following is a basic type of splint? A. Rigid B. Formable C. Traction D. All of the above
D
The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is the: A. clavicle. B. scapula. C. radius and ulna. D. midshaft femur.
A
The bones in the skeleton produce _______ in the bone marrow. A. blood cells B. minerals C. electrolytes D. hormones
A
Your 24-year-old patient fell off a balance beam and landed on his arm. He is complaining of pain in the upper arm, and there is obvious swelling. You know that swelling is a sign of: A. bleeding. B. laceration. C. a locked joint. D. compartment syndrome.
A
Joints are bathed and lubricated by _______ fluid. A. cartilaginous B. articular C. synovial D. cerebrospinal
C
Which of the following structures is regulated by smooth muscle? A. heart B. skeleton C. blood vessels D. diaphragm
C
The zone of injury includes the: A. adjacent nerves. B. adjacent blood vessels. C. surrounding soft tissue. D. all of the above.
D
What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. striated D. smooth
D
Blood in the urine is known as: A. hematuria. B. hemotysis. C. hematocrit. D. hemoglobin.
A
In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: A. the patient is in severe pain. B. the patient is clinically unstable. C. deformity and swelling are present. D. transport time is less than 15 minutes.
B
Smooth muscle is found in the: A. back. B. blood vessels. C. heart. D. all of the above.
B
Fractures are almost always associated with _______ of the surrounding soft tissue. A. laceration B. crepitus C. ecchymosis D. swelling
C
You have applied a zippered air splint to a patient's left arm. During transport, the patient complains of increased numbness and tingling in his left hand. You reassess distal circulation and note that it remains present. Your MOST appropriate action should be to: A. elevate the injured arm and reassess distal sensory function. B. inflate the splint with more air until the patient is comfortable. C. assess the amount of air in the splint and let air out as necessary. D. remove the air splint and reimmobilize with padded board splints.
C
_______ is the most reliable indicator of an underlying fracture. A. Crepitus B. Deformity C. Point tenderness D. Absence of distal pulse
C
A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: A. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. B. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury. C. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates. D. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
D
Always check neurovascular function: A. after any manipulation of the limb. B. before applying a splint. C. after applying a splint. D. all of the above.
D
Signs and symptoms of a dislocated joint include all of the following EXCEPT: A. marked deformity. B. tenderness on palpation. C. locked joint. D. ecchymosis.
D
The MOST reliable indicator of an underlying fracture is: A. guarding. B. severe swelling. C. obvious bruising. D. point tenderness.
D
A young male has a musculoskeletal injury and is unresponsive. You will NOT be able to assess: A. false motion. B. distal pulses. C. capillary refill. D. sensory and motor functions.
D
A(n) _______ fracture occurs in a growth section of a child's bone, which may prematurely stop growth if not properly treated. A. greenstick B. comminuted C. pathologic D. epiphyseal
D
A(n) _______ fracture produces actual deformity, or distortion, of the limb by shortening, rotating, or angulating it. A. closed fracture. B. open fracture. C. nondisplaced fracture. D. displaced fracture.
D
An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: A. bone ends protrude through the skin. B. a large laceration overlies the fracture. C. a bullet shatters the underlying bone. D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.
D
Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: A. bursa. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments.
D
Following direct trauma to the left upper back, a 44-year-old male presents with diaphoresis and restlessness. His blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and weak, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Your assessment reveals abrasions and contusions over the left scapula. You should: A. hyperventilate him with a bag-mask device and monitor his oxygen saturation. B. apply high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport. C. focus your assessment on his scapulae and clavicles and apply high-flow oxygen. D. apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport without delay.
D
Signs and symptoms associated with hip dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT: A. severe pain in the hip. B. lateral and posterior aspects of the hip region will be tender on palpation. C. being able to palpate the femoral head deep within the muscles of the buttock. D. decreased resistance to any movement of the joint.
D
Signs and symptoms of knee ligament injury include: A. swelling. B. point tenderness. C. joint effusion. D. all of the above.
D
The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: A. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. B. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. C. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. D. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.
D
The disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact is called a: A. strain. B. sprain. C. fracture. D. dislocation.
D
When splinting an injury of the wrist, the hand should be placed: A. into a fist. B. in a straight position. C. in an extended position. D. in a functional position.
D
Which of the following is not considered one of the "6 Ps" of the musculoskeletal assessment? A. Pain B. Pulselessness C. Pressure D. Peristalsis
D
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? A. severe strain B. moderate sprain C. hairline fracture D. displaced fracture
D
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? A. an amputated extremity B. bilateral femur fractures C. nondisplaced long bone fractures D. pelvic fracture with hypotension
D
Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct? A. Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it. B. Most of the body's striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels. C. Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage. D. It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.
D
_______ produce severe damage to the skeleton, surrounding soft tissues, and vital internal organs. A. Direct blow B. Indirect force C. Twisting force D. High-energy injury
D
