Chapter 30: Medical-Surgical Disorders Lowdermilk: Maternity & Women's Health Care, 11th Edition, Chapter 34: Nursing Care of the High Risk Newborn (Lowdermilk), Chapter 35: Acquired Problems of the Newborn, Chapter 36: Hemolytic Disorders & Congenit...
A major nursing intervention for an infant born with myelomeningocele is to: A. Protect the sac from injury B. Prepare the parents for the child's paralysis from the waist down C. Prepare the parents for closure of the sac at around 2 years of age D. Assess for cyanosis
A A. Correct: A major preoperative nursing intervention for a neonate with a myelomeningocele is protection of the protruding sac from injury to prevent its rupture and the resultant risk of CNS infection. B. Incorrect: The long-term prognosis in an affected infant can be determined to a large extent at birth, with the degree of neurologic dysfunction related to the level of the lesion, which determines the nerves involved. C. Incorrect: A myelomeningocele should be surgically closed within 24 hours. D. Incorrect: Although the nurse would assess for multiple potential problems in this infant, the major nursing intervention would be to protect the sac from injury. p. 1036
The abuse of which of the following substances during pregnancy is the leading cause of mental retardation in the United States? A. Alcohol B. Tobacco C. Marijuana D. Heroin
A A. Correct: Alcohol abuse during pregnancy is recognized as one of the leading causes of mental retardation in the United States. B. Incorrect: Alcohol abuse during pregnancy is recognized as one of the leading causes of mental retardation in the United States. C. Incorrect: Alcohol abuse during pregnancy is recognized as one of the leading causes of mental retardation in the United States. D. Incorrect: Alcohol abuse during pregnancy is recognized as one of the leading causes of mental retardation in the United States. p. 1013
A careful review of the literature on the various recreational and illicit drugs reveals that: A. More, longer term studies are needed to assess the lasting effects on infants when mothers have taken or are taking illegal drugs. B. Heroin and methadone cross the placenta; marijuana, cocaine, and PCP do not. C. Mothers should get off heroin (detox) any time they can during pregnancy. D. Methadone withdrawal for infants is less severe and shorter than heroin withdrawal.
A A. Correct: Studies on the effects of marijuana and cocaine use by mothers are somewhat contradictory. More, longer range studies are needed. B. Incorrect: Just about all of these drugs cross the placenta, including marijuana, cocaine, and PCP. C. Incorrect: Drug withdrawal is accompanied by fetal withdrawal, which can lead to fetal death. Therefore, detoxification from heroin is not recommended, particularly later, in pregnancy. D. Incorrect: Methadone withdrawal is more severe and more prolonged than heroin withdrawal. p. 1015
Which TORCH infection could be contracted by the infant because the mother owned a cat? A. Toxoplasmosis B. Varicella zoster (chicken pox) C. Parvovirus B19 D. Rubella
A A. Correct: Cats that eat birds infected with the Toxoplasma gondii protozoan excrete infective oocysts. Humans (including pregnant women) can become infected if they fail to wash their hands after cleaning the litter box. The infection is passed through the placenta. B. Incorrect: Cats that eat birds infected with the Toxoplasma gondii protozoan excrete infective oocysts. Humans (including pregnant women) can become infected if they fail to wash their hands after cleaning the litter box. The infection is passed through the placenta. C. Incorrect: Cats that eat birds infected with the Toxoplasma gondii protozoan excrete infective oocysts. Humans (including pregnant women) can become infected if they fail to wash their hands after cleaning the litter box. The infection is passed through the placenta. D. Incorrect: Cats that eat birds infected with the Toxoplasma gondii protozoan excrete infective oocysts. Humans (including pregnant women) can become infected if they fail to wash their hands after cleaning the litter box. The infection is passed through the placenta. p. 1004
With regard to injuries to the infant's plexus during labor and birth, nurses should be aware that: A. If the nerves are stretched with no avulsion, they should recover completely in 3 to 6 months. B. Erb palsy is damage to the lower plexus. C. Parents of children with brachial palsy are taught to pick up the child from under the axillae. D. Breastfeeding is not recommended for infants with facial nerve paralysis until the condition resolves.
A A. Correct: However, if the ganglia are disconnected completely from the spinal cord, the damage is permanent. B. Incorrect: Erb palsy is damage to the upper plexus and is less serious than brachial palsy. C. Incorrect: Parents of children with brachial palsy are taught to avoid picking up the child under the axillae or by pulling on the arms. D. Incorrect: Breastfeeding is not contraindicated, but both the mother and infant will need help from the nurse at the start. p. 994
Which infant would be more likely to have Rh incompatibility? A. Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor B. Infant who is Rh negative and whose mother is Rh negative C. Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and heterozygous for the Rh factor D. Infant who is Rh positive and whose mother is Rh positive
A A. Correct: If the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor, all the offspring will be Rh positive. Only Rh-positive offspring of an Rh-negative mother are at risk for Rh incompatibility. B. Incorrect: Only the Rh-positive offspring of an Rh-negative mother are at risk. C. Incorrect: If the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive and heterozygous for the factor, there is a 50% chance that each infant born of the union will be Rh positive and a 50% chance that each will be born Rh negative. D. Incorrect: Only the Rh-positive offspring of an Rh-negative mother are at risk. p. 1026
A 3.8-kg infant was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks after a 30-minute second stage. There was a nuchal cord. After birth, the infant is noted to have petechiae over the face and upper back. Information given to the infant's parents should be based on the knowledge that petechiae: A. Are benign if they disappear within 48 hours of birth B. Result from increased blood volume C. Should always be further investigated D. Usually occur with forceps delivery
A A. Correct: Petechiae, or pinpoint hemorrhagic areas, acquired during birth may extend over the upper portion of the trunk and face. These lesions are benign if they disappear within 2 days of birth and no new lesions appear. B. Incorrect: Petechiae may result from decreased platelet formation. C. Incorrect: In this situation, the presence of petechiae is most likely a soft-tissue injury resulting from the nuchal cord at birth. Unless they do not dissipate in 2 days, there is no reason to alarm the family. D. Incorrect: Petechiae usually occur with a breech presentation vaginal birth. p. 993
With regard to congenital anomalies of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, nurses should be aware that: A. Cardiac disease may be manifested by respiratory signs and symptoms. B. Screening for congenital anomalies of the respiratory system need only be done for infants having respiratory distress. C. Choanal atresia can be corrected by a suction catheter. D. Congenital diaphragmatic hernias are diagnosed and treated after birth.
A A. Correct: The cardiac and respiratory systems function together. B. Incorrect: Screening for congenital respiratory system anomalies is necessary even for infants who appear normal at birth. C. Incorrect: Choanal atresia requires emergency surgery. D. Incorrect: Congenital diaphragmatic hernias are discovered prenatally on ultrasound. p. 1033
A pregnant woman presents in labor at term, having had no prenatal care. After birth, her infant is noted to be small for gestational age with small eyes and a thin upper lip. The infant also is microcephalic. Based on her infant's physical findings, this woman should be questioned about her use of which substance during pregnancy? A. Alcohol B. Cocaine C. Heroin D. Marijuana
A A. Correct: The description of the infant suggests fetal alcohol syndrome, which is consistent with maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. B. Incorrect: Fetal brain, kidney, and urogenital system malformations have been associated with maternal cocaine ingestions. C. Incorrect: Heroin use in pregnancy frequently results in IUGR. The infant may have a shrill cry and sleep cycle disturbances and may present with poor feeding, tachypnea, vomiting, diarrhea, hypothermia or hyperthermia, and sweating. D. Incorrect: Studies have found a higher incidence of meconium staining in infants born of mothers who used marijuana during pregnancy. p. 1013
During a prenatal examination, the woman reports having two cats at home. The nurse informs her that she should not be cleaning the litter box while she is pregnant. When the woman questions the nurse as to why, the nurse's best response would be: A. "Your cats could be carrying toxoplasmosis. This is a zoonotic parasite that can infect you and have severe effects on your unborn child." B. "You and your baby can be exposed to the HIV virus in your cats' feces." C. "It's just gross. You should make your husband clean the litter boxes." D. "Cat feces are known to carry E. coli, which can cause a severe infection in both you and your baby."
A A. Correct: Toxoplasmosis is a multisystem disease caused by the protozoal Toxoplasma gondii parasite, commonly found in cats, dogs, pigs, sheep, and cattle. About 30% of women who contract toxoplasmosis during gestation transmit the disease to their offspring. Clinical features ascribed to toxoplasmosis include hydrocephalus or microcephaly, chorioretinitis, seizures, or cerebral calcifications. B. Incorrect: HIV is not transmitted by cats. C. Incorrect: Although this may be a valid statement, it is not appropriate, does not answer the client's question, and is not the nurse's best response. D. Incorrect: E. coli is found in normal human fecal flora. It is not transmitted by cats. p. 1004
The most important nursing action in preventing neonatal infection is: A. Good handwashing B. Isolation of infected infants C. Separate gown technique D. Standard Precautions
A A. Correct: Virtually all controlled clinical trials have demonstrated that effective handwashing is responsible for the prevention of nosocomial infection in nursery units. B. Incorrect: Measures to be taken include Standard Precautions, careful and thorough cleaning, frequent replacement of used equipment, and disposal of excrement and linens in an appropriate manner. Overcrowding must be avoided in nurseries. However, the most important nursing action for preventing neonatal infection is effective handwashing. C. Incorrect: Measures to be taken include Standard Precautions, careful and thorough cleaning, frequent replacement of used equipment, and disposal of excrement and linens in an appropriate manner. Overcrowding must be avoided in nurseries. However, the most important nursing action for preventing neonatal infection is effective handwashing. D. Incorrect: Measures to be taken include Standard Precautions, careful and thorough cleaning, frequent replacement of used equipment, and disposal of excrement and linens in an appropriate manner. Overcrowding must be avoided in nurseries. However, the most important nursing action for preventing neonatal infection is effective handwashing. p. 1002
Many common drugs of abuse cause significant physiologic and behavioral problems in infants who are breastfed by mothers currently using (choose all that apply): A. Amphetamine B. Heroin C. Nicotine D. PCP E. Morphine
A, B, C, D These drugs of abuse are contraindicated during breastfeeding because of the reported effects on the infant. Morphine is a medication that often is used to treat neonatal abstinence syndrome. p. 1019
Cleft lip or palate is a common congenital midline fissure, or opening, in the lip or palate resulting from failure of the primary palate to fuse. Multiple genetic and, to a lesser extent, environmental factors may lead to the development of a cleft lip or palate. Such factors include (choose all that apply): A. Alcohol consumption B. Female gender C. Use of some antiepileptics D. Maternal cigarette smoking E. Antibiotic use in pregnancy
A, C, D Factors that are associated with the potential development of cleft lip or palate are maternal infections, radiation exposure, corticosteroids, anticonvulsants, male gender, Native American or Asian descent, and smoking during pregnancy. Cleft lip is more common in male infants. Antibiotic use in pregnancy is not associated with the development of cleft lip or palate. p. 1039
A probable cause for increasing infertility is the societal delay in pregnancy until later in life. What are the natural reasons for the decrease in female fertility? (Select all that apply.) a.Ovulation dysfunction b.Endocrine dysfunction c.Organ damage from toxins d.Endometriosis e.Tubal infections
ANS: A, C, D, E All of these factors may result in a cumulative effect, decreasing fertility in women. Male infertility is more often caused by unfavorable sperm production attributable to endocrine dysfunction or cumulative metabolic disease.
The corrected age of an infant who was born at 25 1/7 weeks and is preparing for discharge 124 days past delivery is ______________.
ANS: 42 6/7 weeks The age of a preterm newborn is corrected by adding the gestational age and the postnatal age. For example, an infant born at 32 weeks of gestation 4 weeks ago would now be considered 36 weeks of age. (32 + 4 = 36).
The practice of the calendar rhythm method is based on the number of days in each menstrual cycle. The fertile period is determined after monitoring each cycle for 6 months. The beginning of the fertile period is estimated by subtracting 18 days from the longest cycle and 11 days from the shortest. If the woman's cycles vary in length from 24 to 30 days, then her fertile period would be day _____ through day ______.
ANS: 6; 19 To avoid pregnancy, the couple must abstain from intercourse on days 6 through 19. Ovulation occurs on day 12 (plus or minus 2 days either way).
In vitro fertilization-embryo transfer (IVF-ET) is a common approach for women with blocked fallopian tubes or with unexplained infertility and for men with very low sperm counts. A husband and wife have arrived for their preprocedural interview. Which explanation regarding the procedure is most accurate? a."The procedure begins with collecting eggs from your wife's ovaries." b."A donor embryo will be transferred into your wife's uterus." c."Donor sperm will be used to inseminate your wife." d."Don't worry about the technical stuff; that's what we are here for."
ANS: A A woman's eggs are collected from her ovaries, fertilized in the laboratory with the partner's sperm, and transferred to her uterus after normal embryonic development has occurred. Transferring a donor embryo to the woman's uterus describes the procedure for a donor embryo. Inseminating the woman with donor sperm describes therapeutic donor insemination. Telling the client not to worry discredits the client's need for teaching and is not the most appropriate response.
A woman is 16 weeks pregnant and has elected to terminate her pregnancy. Which is the mostcommon technique used for the termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester? a.Dilation and evacuation (D&E) b.Methotrexate administration c.Prostaglandin administration d.Vacuum aspiration
ANS: A D&E can be performed at any point up to 20 weeks of gestation. It is more commonly performed between 13 and 16 weeks of gestation. Methotrexate is a cytotoxic drug that causes early abortion by preventing fetal cell division. Prostaglandins are also used for early abortion and work by dilating the cervix and initiating uterine wall contractions. Vacuum aspiration is used for abortions in the first trimester.
Which statement regarding emergency contraception is correct? a.Emergency contraception requires that the first dose be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. b.Emergency contraception may be taken right after ovulation. c.Emergency contraception has an effectiveness rate in preventing pregnancy of approximately 50%. d.Emergency contraception is commonly associated with the side effect of menorrhagia.
ANS: A Emergency contraception should be taken as soon as possible or within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy. If taken before ovulation, follicular development is inhibited, which prevents ovulation. The risk of pregnancy is reduced by as much as 75%. The most common side effect of postcoital contraception is nausea.
Which term best describes the conscious decision concerning when to conceive or avoid pregnancy as opposed to the intentional prevention of pregnancy during intercourse? a.Family planning b.Birth control c.Contraception d.Assisted reproductive therapy
ANS: A Family planning is the process of deciding when and if to have children. Birth control is the device and/or practice used to reduce the risk of conceiving or bearing children. Contraception is the intentional prevention of pregnancy during sexual intercourse. Assisted reproductive therapyis one of several possible treatments for infertility.
An infant at 26 weeks of gestation arrives intubated from the delivery room. The nurse weighs the infant, places him under the radiant warmer, and attaches him to the ventilator at the prescribed settings. A pulse oximeter and cardiorespiratory monitor are placed. The pulse oximeter is recording oxygen saturations of 80%. The prescribed saturations are 92%. What is the nurse's most appropriate action at this time? a.Listening to breath sounds, and ensuring the patency of the endotracheal tube, increasing oxygen, and notifying a physician b.Continuing to observe and making no changes until the saturations are 75% c.Continuing with the admission process to ensure that a thorough assessment is completed d.Notifying the parents that their infant is not doing well
ANS: A Listening to breath sounds and ensuring the patency of the endotracheal tube, increasing oxygen, and notifying a physician are appropriate nursing interventions to assist in optimal oxygen saturation of the infant. Oxygen saturation should be maintained above 92%, and oxygenation status of the infant is crucial. The nurse should delay other tasks to stabilize the infant. Notifying the parents that the infant is not doing well is not an appropriate action. Further assessment and intervention are warranted before determining fetal status.
An infant at 26 weeks of gestation arrives intubated from the delivery room. The nurse weighs the infant, places him under the radiant warmer, and attaches him to the ventilator at the prescribed settings. A pulse oximeter and cardiorespiratory monitor are placed. The pulse oximeter is recording oxygen saturations of 80%. The prescribed saturations are 92%. What is the nurse's most appropriate action at this time? a.Listening to breath sounds, and ensuring the patency of the endotracheal tube, increasing oxygen, and notifying a physician b.Continuing to observe and making no changes until the saturations are 75% c.Continuing with the admission process to ensure that a thorough assessment is completed d.Notifying the parents that their infant is not doing well
ANS: A Listening to breath sounds and ensuring the patency of the endotracheal tube, increasing oxygen, and notifying a physician are appropriate nursing interventions to assist in optimal oxygen saturation of the infant. Oxygen saturation should be maintained above 92%, and oxygenation status of the infant is crucial. The nurse should delay other tasks to stabilize the infant. Notifying the parents that the infant is not doing well is not an appropriate action. Further assessment and intervention are warranted before determining fetal status.
An infertile woman is about to begin pharmacologic treatment. As part of the regimen, she will take purified FSH (Metrodin). The nurse instructs her that this medication is administered in the form of what? a.Intranasal spray b.Vaginal suppository c.Intramuscular (IM) injection d.Tablet
ANS: C Metrodin is only administered by IM injection, and the dose may vary. An intranasal spray or a vaginal suppository are not appropriate routes for Metrodin, nor can Metrodin be given by mouth in tablet form.
A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates. A nonstress test (NST) in the obstetrician's office revealed a nonreactive tracing. On artificial rupture of membranes, thick meconium-stained fluid was noted. What should the nurse caring for the infant after birth anticipate? a.Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin b.Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and RDS c.Golden yellow to green-stained skin and nails, absence of scalp hair, and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat d.Hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, and an alert, wide-eyed appearance
ANS: A Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin are consistent with a postmature infant. Excessive vernix caseosa, lethargy, and RDS are consistent with a very premature infant. The skin may be meconium stained, but the infant will most likely have long hair and decreased amounts of subcutaneous fat. Postmaturity with a nonreactive NST is indicative of hypoxia. Signs and symptoms associated with fetal hypoxia are hypoglycemia, temperature instability, and lethargy.
During the assessment of a preterm infant, the nurse notices continued respiratory distress even though oxygen and ventilation have been provided. In this situation, which condition should the nurse suspect? a.Hypovolemia and/or shock b.Excessively cool environment c.Central nervous system (CNS) injury d.Pending renal failure
ANS: A Other symptoms might include hypotension, prolonged capillary refill, and tachycardia, followed by bradycardia. Intervention is necessary. Preterm infants are susceptible to temperature instability. The goal of thermoregulation is to provide a neutral thermal environment. Hypoglycemia is likely to occur if the infant is attempting to conserve heat. CNS injury is manifested by hyperirritability, seizures, and abnormal movements of the extremities. Urine output and testing of specific gravity are appropriate interventions for the infant with suspected renal failure. This neonate is unlikely to be delivered with respiratory distress.
During the assessment of a preterm infant, the nurse notices continued respiratory distress even though oxygen and ventilation have been provided. In this situation, which condition should the nurse suspect? a.Hypovolemia and/or shock b.Excessively cool environment c.Central nervous system (CNS) injury d.Pending renal failure
ANS: A Other symptoms might include hypotension, prolonged capillary refill, and tachycardia, followed by bradycardia. Intervention is necessary. Preterm infants are susceptible to temperature instability. The goal of thermoregulation is to provide a neutral thermal environment. Hypoglycemia is likely to occur if the infant is attempting to conserve heat. CNS injury is manifested by hyperirritability, seizures, and abnormal movements of the extremities. Urine output and testing of specific gravity are appropriate interventions for the infant with suspected renal failure. This neonate is unlikely to be delivered with respiratory distress.
A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents? a."Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide." b."The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation." c."Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea." d."Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection."
ANS: A Surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy. With the administration of an artificial surfactant, respiratory compliance is improved until the infant can generate enough surfactant on his or her own. Surfactant has no bearing on the sedation needs of the infant. Surfactant is used to improve respiratory compliance, including the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. The goal of surfactant therapy in an infant with RDS is to stimulate the production of surfactant in the type 2 cells of the alveoli. The clinical presentation of RDS and neonatal pneumonia may be similar. The infant may be started on broad-spectrum antibiotics to treat infection.
Which condition would be inappropriate to treat with exogenous progesterone (human chorionic gonadotropin)? a.Thyroid dysfunction b.Recent miscarriage c.PCOD d.Oocyte retrieval
ANS: A Synthroid is administered for anovulation associated with hypothyroidism. For women with polycystic ovulation syndrome or a history of miscarriage, oocyte retrieval may have insufficient progesterone and require exogenous progesterone until placental production is sufficient.
A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control. Which is the most important action the nurse should perform during the assessment process? a.Obtain a history of the woman's menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months. b.Determine the client's weight gain and loss pattern for the previous year. c.Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal changes. d.Explore the client's previous experiences with conception control.
ANS: A The calendar method of conception control is based on the number of days in each cycle, counting from the first day of menses. The fertile period is determined after the lengths of menstrual cycles have been accurately recorded for 6 months. Weight gain or loss may be partly related to hormonal fluctuations, but it has no bearing on the use of the calendar method. Integumentary changes may be related to hormonal changes, but they are not indicators for use of the calendar method. Exploring previous experiences with conception control may demonstrate client understanding and compliancy, but these experiences are not the most important aspect to assess for the discussion of the calendar method.
An infertility specialist prescribes clomiphene citrate (Clomid, Serophene) for a woman experiencing infertility. She is very concerned about the risk of multiple pregnancies. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? a."This is a legitimate concern. Would you like to discuss further the chances of multiple pregnancies before your treatment begins?" b."No one has ever had more than triplets with Clomid." c."Ovulation will be monitored with ultrasound to ensure that multiple pregnancies will not happen." d."Ten percent is a very low risk, so you don't need to worry too much."
ANS: A The incidence of multiple pregnancies with the use of these medications is higher than 25%. The client's concern is legitimate and should be discussed so that she can make an informed decision. Stating that no one has ever had more than triplets with Clomid is inaccurate and negates the client's concerns. Ultrasound cannot ensure that a multiple pregnancy will not occur, and 10% is inaccurate. Furthermore, the client's concern is discredited with a statement such as, "...don't worry."
Although reported in small numbers, toxic shock syndrome (TSS) can occur with the use of a diaphragm. If a client is interested in this form of conception control, then the nurse must instruct the woman on how best to reduce her risk of TSS. Which comment by the nurse would be mosthelpful in achieving this goal? a."You should always remove your diaphragm 6 to 8 hours after intercourse. Don't use the diaphragm during menses, and watch for danger signs of TSS, including a sudden onset of fever over 38.4° C, hypotension, and a rash." b."You should remove your diaphragm right after intercourse to prevent TSS." c."It's okay to use your diaphragm during your menstrual cycle. Just be sure to wash it thoroughly first to prevent TSS." d."Make sure you don't leave your diaphragm in for longer than 24 hours, or you may get TSS."
ANS: A The nurse should instruct the client on the proper use and removal of the diaphragm and include the danger signs of TSS. The diaphragm must remain against the cervix for 6 to 8 hours to prevent pregnancy, but it should not remain in place longer than 8 hours to avoid the risk of TSS. The diaphragm should not be used during menses.
Which nonpharmacologic contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%? a.Standard days' variation b.Periodic abstinence c.Postovulation d.Coitus interruptus
ANS: A The standard days' variation on the calendar method has a failure rate of 12% and is a variation of the calendar rhythm method with a fixed number of days for fertility in each cycle. The periodic abstinence method has a failure rate of 25% or higher. The postovulation method has a failure rate of 25% or higher. The coitus interruptus method has a failure rate of 27% or higher.
What is the most important nursing action in preventing neonatal infection? a.Good handwashing b.Isolation of infected infants c.Separate gown technique d.Standard Precautions
ANS: A Virtually all controlled clinical trials have demonstrated that effective handwashing is responsible for the prevention of nosocomial infection in nursery units. Measures to be taken include Standard Precautions, careful and thorough cleaning, frequent replacement of used equipment, and disposal of excrement and linens in an appropriate manner. Overcrowding must be avoided in nurseries. However, the most important nursing action for preventing neonatal infection is effective handwashing.
What is the most important nursing action in preventing neonatal infection? a.Good handwashing b.Isolation of infected infants c.Separate gown technique d.Standard Precautions
ANS: A Virtually all controlled clinical trials have demonstrated that effective handwashing is responsible for the prevention of nosocomial infection in nursery units. Measures to be taken include Standard Precautions, careful and thorough cleaning, frequent replacement of used equipment, and disposal of excrement and linens in an appropriate manner. Overcrowding must be avoided in nurseries. However, the most important nursing action for preventing neonatal infection is effective handwashing.
To provide adequate care, the nurse should be cognitive of which important information regarding infertility? a.Is perceived differently by women and men. b.Has a relatively stable prevalence among the overall population and throughout a woman's potential reproductive years. c.Is more likely the result of a physical flaw in the woman than in her male partner. d.Is the same thing as sterility.
ANS: A Women tend to be more stressed about infertility tests and to place more importance on having children. The prevalence of infertility is stable among the overall population, but it increases with a woman's age, especially after age 40 years. Of cases with an identifiable cause, approximately 40% are related to female factors, 40% to male factors, and 20% to both partners. Sterility is the inability to conceive. Infertility or subfertility is a state of requiring a prolonged time to conceive.
Which risk factors are associated with NEC (Necrotizing enterocolitis)? (Select all that apply.) a.Polycythemia b.Anemia c.Congenital heart disease d.Bronchopulmonary dysphasia e.Retinopathy
ANS: A, B, C Risk factors for NEC include asphyxia, RDS, umbilical artery catheterization, exchange transfusion, early enteral feedings, patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), congenital heart disease, polycythemia, anemia, shock, and gastrointestinal infection. Bronchopulmonary dysphasia and retinopathy are not associated with NEC
Which risk factors are associated with NEC? (Select all that apply.) a.Polycythemia b.Anemia c.Congenital heart disease d.Bronchopulmonary dysphasia e.Retinopathy
ANS: A, B, C Risk factors for NEC include asphyxia, RDS, umbilical artery catheterization, exchange transfusion, early enteral feedings, patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), congenital heart disease, polycythemia, anemia, shock, and gastrointestinal infection. Bronchopulmonary dysphasia and retinopathy are not associated with NEC
Many factors, male and female, contribute to normal fertility. Approximately 40% of cases of infertility are related to the female partner. Which factors are possible causes for female infertility? (Select all that apply.) a.Congenital or developmental b.Hormonal or ovulatory c.Tubal or peritoneal d.Uterine e.Emotional or psychologic
ANS: A, B, C, D Female infertility can be attributed to alterations in any one of these systems along with possible vaginal-cervical factors. Although the diagnosis and treatment of infertility require considerable emotional investment and may cause psychologic stress, these are not considered factors associated with infertility. Feelings connected with infertility are many and complex. Resolve is an organization that provides support, advocacy, and education for both clients and health care providers.
The nurse is responsible for providing health teaching regarding the side effects of COCs. These side effects are attributed to estrogen, progesterone, or both. Which side effects are related to the use of COCs? (Select all that apply.) a.Gallbladder disease b.Myocardial infarction and stroke c.Hypotension d.Breast tenderness and fluid retention e.Dry skin and scalp
ANS: A, B, D Serious side effects include stroke, myocardial infarction, hypertension, gallbladder disease, and liver tumors. More common side effects include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, increased appetite, oily skin and scalp, and chloasma.
Infants born between 34 0/7 and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation are called late-preterm infants because they have many needs similar to those of preterm infants. Because they are more stable than early-preterm infants, they may receive care that is similar to that of a full-term baby. These infants are at increased risk for which conditions? (Select all that apply.) a.Problems with thermoregulation b.Cardiac distress c.Hyperbilirubinemia d.Sepsis e.Hyperglycemia
ANS: A, C, D Thermoregulation problems, hyperbilirubinemia, and sepsis are all conditions related to immaturity and warrant close observation. After discharge, the infant is at risk for rehospitalization related to these problems. Association of Women's Health, Obstetric and Neonatal Nurses (AWHONN) launched the Near-Term Infant Initiative to study the problem and ways to ensure that these infants receive adequate care. The nurse should ensure that this infant is adequately feeding before discharge and that parents are taught the signs and symptoms of these complications. Late-preterm infants are also at increased risk for respiratory distress and hypoglycemia.
Infants born between 34 0/7 and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation are called late-preterm infants because they have many needs similar to those of preterm infants. Because they are more stable than early-preterm infants, they may receive care that is similar to that of a full-term baby. These infants are at increased risk for which conditions? (Select all that apply.) a.Problems with thermoregulation b.Cardiac distress c.Hyperbilirubinemia d.Sepsis e.Hyperglycemia
ANS: A, C, D Thermoregulation problems, hyperbilirubinemia, and sepsis are all conditions related to immaturity and warrant close observation. After discharge, the infant is at risk for rehospitalization related to these problems. Association of Women's Health, Obstetric and Neonatal Nurses (AWHONN) launched the Near-Term Infant Initiative to study the problem and ways to ensure that these infants receive adequate care. The nurse should ensure that this infant is adequately feeding before discharge and that parents are taught the signs and symptoms of these complications. Late-preterm infants are also at increased risk for respiratory distress and hypoglycemia.
The nurse is reviewing the educational packet provided to a client about tubal ligation. Which information regarding this procedure is important for the nurse to share? (Select all that apply.) a."It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure." b."Tubal ligation is an effective form of 100% permanent sterilization. You won't be able to get pregnant." c."Sterilization offers some form of protection against STIs." d."Sterilization offers no protection against STIs." e."Your menstrual cycle will greatly increase after your sterilization."
ANS: A, D A woman is unlikely to become pregnant after tubal ligation. However, sterilization offers no protection against STIs and is not 100% effective. Typically, the menstrual cycle remains the same after a tubal ligation.
A premature infant never seems to sleep longer than an hour at a time. Each time a light is turned on, an incubator closes, or people talk near her crib, she wakes up and inconsolably cries until held. What is the correct nursing diagnosis beginning with "ineffective coping, related to"? a.Severe immaturity b.Environmental stress c.Physiologic distress d.Behavioral responses
ANS: B "Ineffective coping, related to environmental stress" is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this infant. Light and sound are known adverse stimuli that add to an already stressed premature infant. The nurse must closely monitor the environment for sources of overstimulation. Although the infant may be severely immature in this case, she is responding to environmental stress. Physiologic distress is the response to environmental stress. The result is stress cues such as increased metabolic rate, increased oxygen and caloric use, and depression of the immune system. The infant's behavioral response to the environmental stress is crying. The appropriate nursing diagnosis reflects the cause of this response.
NEC is an acute inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa that can progress to perforation of the bowel. Approximately 2% to 5% of premature infants succumb to this fatal disease. Care is supportive; however, known interventions may decrease the risk of NEC. Which intervention has the greatest effect on lowering the risk of NEC? a.Early enteral feedings b.Breastfeeding c.Exchange transfusion d.Prophylactic probiotics
ANS: B A decrease in the incidence of NEC is directly correlated with exclusive breastfeeding. Breast milk enhances the maturation of the gastrointestinal tract and contains immune factors that contribute to a lower incidence or severity of NEC, Crohn disease, and celiac illness. The NICU nurse can be very supportive of the mother in terms of providing her with equipment to pump breast milk, ensuring privacy, and encouraging skin-to-skin contact with the infant. Early enteral feedings of formula or hyperosmolar feedings are a risk factor known to contribute to the development of NEC. The mother should be encouraged to pump or feed breast milk exclusively. Exchange transfusion may be necessary; however, it is a known risk factor for the development of NEC. Although still early, a study in 2005 found that the introduction of prophylactic probiotics appeared to enhance the normal flora of the bowel and therefore decrease the severity of NEC when it did occur. This treatment modality is not as widespread as encouraging breastfeeding; however, it is another strategy that the care providers of these extremely fragile infants may have at their disposal.
Which contraceptive method best protects against STIs and the HIV? a.Periodic abstinence b.Barrier methods c.Hormonal methods d.Same protection with all methods
ANS: B Barrier methods, such as condoms, protect against STIs and the HIV the best of all contraceptive methods. Periodic abstinence and hormonal methods, such as birth control pills, offer no protection against STIs or the HIV.
A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. What is the nurse's best response? a."Oral contraceptives are a highly effective method, but they have some side effects." b."Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill." c."Oral contraceptives will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication." d."The pill is a good choice for a woman of your age and with your personal history."
ANS: B Because the liver metabolizes oral contraceptives, their effectiveness is reduced when they are simultaneously taken with anticonvulsants. Stating that the pill is an effective birth control method with side effects is a true statement, but this response is not the most appropriate. The anticonvulsant reduces the effectiveness of the pill, not the other way around. Stating that the pill is a good choice for a woman of her age and personal history does not teach the client that the effectiveness of the pill may be reduced because of her anticonvulsant therapy.
In appraising the growth and development potential of a preterm infant, the nurse should be cognizant of the information that is best described in which statement? a.Tell the parents that their child will not catch up until approximately age 10 years (for girls) to age 12 years (for boys). b.Correct for milestones, such as motor competencies and vocalizations, until the child is approximately 2 years of age. c.Know that the greatest catch-up period is between 9 and 15 months postconceptual age. d.Know that the length and breadth of the trunk is the first part of the infant to experience catch-up growth.
ANS: B Corrections are made with a formula that adds gestational age and postnatal age. Whether a girl or boy, the infant experiences catch-up body growth during the first 2 to 3 years of life. Maximum catch-up growth occurs between 36 and 40 weeks of postconceptual age. The head is the first to experience catch-up growth.
In appraising the growth and development potential of a preterm infant, the nurse should be cognizant of the information that is best described in which statement? a.Tell the parents that their child will not catch up until approximately age 10 years (for girls) to age 12 years (for boys). b.Correct for milestones, such as motor competencies and vocalizations, until the child is approximately 2 years of age. c.Know that the greatest catch-up period is between 9 and 15 months postconceptual age. d.Know that the length and breadth of the trunk is the first part of the infant to experience catch-up growth.
ANS: B Corrections are made with a formula that adds gestational age and postnatal age. Whether a girl or boy, the infant experiences catch-up body growth during the first 2 to 3 years of life. Maximum catch-up growth occurs between 36 and 40 weeks of postconceptual age. The head is the first to experience catch-up growth.
Because of the premature infant's decreased immune functioning, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in a plan of care for a premature infant? a.Delayed growth and development b.Ineffective thermoregulation c.Ineffective infant feeding pattern d.Risk for infection
ANS: D The nurse needs to understand that decreased immune functioning increases the risk for infection. Growth and development, thermoregulation, and feeding may be affected, although only indirectly.
Nurses, certified nurse-midwives, and other advanced practice nurses have the knowledge and expertise to assist women in making informed choices regarding contraception. A multidisciplinary approach should ensure that the woman's social, cultural, and interpersonal needs are met. Which action should the nurse first take when meeting with a new client to discuss contraception? a.Obtain data about the frequency of coitus. b.Determine the woman's level of knowledge concerning contraception and her commitment to any particular method. c.Assess the woman's willingness to touch her genitals and cervical mucus. d.Evaluate the woman's contraceptive life plan.
ANS: B Determining the woman's level of knowledge concerning contraception and her commitment to any particular method is the primary step of this nursing assessment and necessary before completing the process and moving on to a nursing diagnosis. Once the client's level of knowledge is determined, the nurse can interact with the woman to compare options, reliability, cost, comfort level, protection from STIs, and her partner's willingness to participate. Although important, obtaining data about the frequency of coitus is not the first action that the nurse should undertake when completing an assessment. Data should include not only the frequency of coitus but also the number of sexual partners, level of contraceptive involvement, and the partner's objections. Assessing the woman's willingness to touch herself is a key factor for the nurse to discuss should the client express an interest in using one of the fertility awareness methods of contraception. The nurse must be aware of the client's plan regarding whether she is attempting to prevent conception, delay conception, or conceive.
An unmarried young woman describes her sex life as "active" and involving "many" partners. She wants a contraceptive method that is reliable and does not interfere with sex. She requests an intrauterine device (IUD). Which information is most important for the nurse to share? a."The IUD does not interfere with sex." b."The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease will be higher with the IUD." c."The IUD will protect you from sexually transmitted infections." d."Pregnancy rates are high with the IUD."
ANS: B Disadvantages of IUDs include an increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in the first 20 days after insertion, as well as the risks of bacterial vaginosis and uterine perforation. The IUD offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) or the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), as does a barrier method. Because this woman has multiple sex partners, she is at higher risk of developing an STI. Stating that an IUD does not interfere with sex may be correct; however, it is not the most appropriate response. The typical failure rate of the IUD is approximately 1%.
Parents have asked the nurse about organ donation after that infant's death. Which information regarding organ donation is important for the nurse to understand? a.Federal law requires the medical staff to ask the parents about organ donation and then to contact their state's organ procurement organization (OPO) to handle the procedure if the parents agree. b.Organ donation can aid grieving by giving the family an opportunity to see something positive about the experience. c.Most common donation is the infant's kidneys. d.Corneas can be donated if the infant was either stillborn or alive as long as the pregnancy went full term.
ANS: B Evidence indicates that organ donation can promote healing among the surviving family members. The federal Gift of Life Act made state OPOs responsible for deciding whether to request a donation and for making that request. The most common donation is the cornea. For cornea donation, the infant must have been born alive at 36 weeks of gestation or later.
A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs). Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a."They're not very effective, and it is very likely that you'll get pregnant." b."FAMs can be effective for many couples; however, they require motivation." c."These methods have a few advantages and several health risks." d."You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry."
ANS: B FAMs are effective with proper vigilance about ovulatory changes in the body and with adherence to coitus intervals. FAMs are effective if correctly used by a woman with a regular menstrual cycle. The typical failure rate for all FAMs is 24% during the first year of use. FAMs have no associated health risks. The use of birth control has associated health risks. In addition, taking a pill daily requires compliance on the client's part.
With regard to the assessment of female, male, or couple infertility, the nurse should be aware of which important information? a.The couple's religious, cultural, and ethnic backgrounds provide emotional clutter that does not affect the clinical scientific diagnosis. b.The investigation will take several months and can be very costly. c.The woman is assessed first; if she is not the problem, then the male partner is analyzed. d.Semen analysis is for men; the postcoital test is for women.
ANS: B Fertility assessment and diagnosis take time, money, and commitment from the couple. Religious, cultural, and ethnic-bred attitudes about fertility and related issues always have an effect on diagnosis and assessment. Both partners are systematically and simultaneously assessed, first as individuals and then as a couple. Semen analysis is for men; however, the postcoital test is for the couple.
With regard to infants who are SGA (small for gestational age) and intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), the nurse should be aware of which information? a.In the first trimester, diseases or abnormalities result in asymmetric IUGR. b.Infants with asymmetric IUGR have the potential for normal growth and development. c.In asymmetric IUGR, weight is slightly larger than SGA, whereas length and head circumference are somewhat less than SGA. d.Symmetric IUGR occurs in the later stages of pregnancy.
ANS: B IUGR is either symmetric or asymmetric. The symmetric form occurs in the first trimester; infants who are SGA have reduced brain capacity. The asymmetric form occurs in the later stages of pregnancy. Weight is less than the 10th percentile; head circumference is greater than the 10th percentile. Infants with asymmetric IUGR have the potential for normal growth and development.
With regard to infants who are SGA and intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), the nurse should be aware of which information? a.In the first trimester, diseases or abnormalities result in asymmetric IUGR. b.Infants with asymmetric IUGR have the potential for normal growth and development. c.In asymmetric IUGR, weight is slightly larger than SGA, whereas length and head circumference are somewhat less than SGA. d.Symmetric IUGR occurs in the later stages of pregnancy.
ANS: B IUGR is either symmetric or asymmetric. The symmetric form occurs in the first trimester; infants who are SGA have reduced brain capacity. The asymmetric form occurs in the later stages of pregnancy. Weight is less than the 10th percentile; head circumference is greater than the 10th percentile. Infants with asymmetric IUGR have the potential for normal growth and development.
The nurse working with clients who have infertility concerns should be aware of the use of leuprolide acetate (Lupron) as a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist. For which condition would this medication be prescribed? a.Anovulatory cycles b.Uterine fibroids c.Polycystic ovary disease (PCOD) d.Luteal phase inadequacy
ANS: B Leuprolide acetate is used to treat endometriosis and uterine fibroids. Anovulatory cycles are treated with Clomid, Serophene, Pergonal, or Profasi, all of which stimulate ovulation induction. Metrodin is used to treat PCOD. Progesterone is used to treat luteal phase inadequacy.
Which finding would indicate to the nurse that the grieving parents have progressed to the reorganization phase of grieving? a.The parents say that they "feel no pain." b.The parents are discussing sex and a future pregnancy, even if they have not yet sorted out their feelings. c.The parents have abandoned those moments of "bittersweet grief." d.The parents' questions have progressed from "Why?" to "Why us?"
ANS: B Many couples have conflicting feelings about sexuality and future pregnancies. A little pain is always present, certainly beyond the first year when recovery begins to peak. Bittersweet grief describes the brief grief response that occurs with reminders of a loss, such as anniversary dates. Most couples never abandon these reminders. Recovery is ongoing. Typically, a couple's search for meaning progresses from "Why?" in the acute phase to "Why me?" in the intense phase to "What does this loss mean to my life?" in the reorganizational phase.
A male client asks the nurse why it is better to purchase condoms that are not lubricated with nonoxynol-9 (a common spermicide). Which response by the nurse is the most accurate? a."The lubricant prevents vaginal irritation." b."Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against STIs as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of the HIV and can cause genital lesions." c."The additional lubrication improves sex." d."Nonoxynol-9 improves penile sensitivity."
ANS: B Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against STIs as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of the HIV and can cause genital lesions. Nonoxynol-9 may cause vaginal irritation, has no effect on the quality of sexual activity, and has no effect on penile sensitivity.
A woman inquires about herbal alternative methods for improving fertility. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate when informing the client on which herbal preparations may improve ovulation induction therapy? a."You should avoid nettle leaf, dong quai, and vitamin E while you are trying to get pregnant." b."You may want to try black cohosh or phytoestrogens." c."You should take vitamins E and C, selenium, and zinc." d."Herbs have no bearing on fertility."
ANS: B Ovulation therapy may have better outcomes when supplemented by black cohosh, progesterone, or plant estrogens. Antioxidant vitamins E and C, selenium, zinc, coenzyme 10, and ginseng have been shown to improve male fertility. Although most herbal remedies have not been clinically proven, many women find them helpful. They should be prescribed by a health care provider who has knowledge of herbalism.
Significant advances have been made with most reproductive technologies. Which improvement has resulted in increased success related to preimplantation genetic diagnosis? a.Embryos are transferred at the cleavage stage. b.Embryos are transferred at the blastocyst stage. c.More than two embryos can be transferred at a time. d.Two cells are removed from each embryo.
ANS: B Preimplantation genetic diagnosis can be performed on a single cell removed from each embryo after 3 to 4 days. With the availability of extended culture mediums, embryos are transferred at the blastocyst stage (day 5), which increases the chance of a live birth, compared with the older practice of transferring embryos at the cleavage stage (day 3). No more than two embryos should be transferred at a time.
In caring for the preterm infant, what complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level? a.NEC b.ROP c.BPD d.Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
ANS: B ROP is thought to occur as a result of high levels of oxygen in the blood. NEC is caused by the interference of blood supply to the intestinal mucosa. Necrotic lesions occur at that site. BPD is caused by the use of positive pressure ventilation against the immature lung tissue. IVH results from the rupture of the fragile blood vessels in the ventricles of the brain and is most often associated with hypoxic injury, increased blood pressure, and fluctuating cerebral blood flow.
Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa. The signs of NEC are nonspecific. What are generalized signs and symptoms of this condition? a.Hypertonia, tachycardia, and metabolic alkalosis b.Abdominal distention, temperature instability, and grossly bloody stools c.Hypertension, absence of apnea, and ruddy skin color d.Scaphoid abdomen, no residual with feedings, and increased urinary output
ANS: B Some generalized signs of NEC include decreased activity, hypotonia, pallor, recurrent apnea and bradycardia, decreased oxygen saturation values, respiratory distress, metabolic acidosis, oliguria, hypotension, decreased perfusion, temperature instability, cyanosis, abdominal distention, residual gastric aspirates, vomiting, grossly bloody stools, abdominal tenderness, and erythema of the abdominal wall. The infant may display hypotonia, bradycardia, and metabolic acidosis.
Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa. The signs of NEC are nonspecific. What are generalized signs and symptoms of this condition? a.Hypertonia, tachycardia, and metabolic alkalosis b.Abdominal distention, temperature instability, and grossly bloody stools c.Hypertension, absence of apnea, and ruddy skin color d.Scaphoid abdomen, no residual with feedings, and increased urinary output
ANS: B Some generalized signs of NEC include decreased activity, hypotonia, pallor, recurrent apnea and bradycardia, decreased oxygen saturation values, respiratory distress, metabolic acidosis, oliguria, hypotension, decreased perfusion, temperature instability, cyanosis, abdominal distention, residual gastric aspirates, vomiting, grossly bloody stools, abdominal tenderness, and erythema of the abdominal wall. The infant may display hypotonia, bradycardia, and metabolic acidosis.
The lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) of birth control is popular in developing countries and has had limited use in the United States. As breastfeeding rates increase, more women may rely upon this method for birth control. Which information is most important to provide to the client interested in using the LAM for contraception? a.LAM is effective until the infant is 9 months of age. b.This popular method of birth control works best if the mother is exclusively breastfeeding. c.Its typical failure rate is 5%. d.Feeding intervals should be 6 hours during the day.
ANS: B The LAM works best if the mother is exclusively or almost exclusively breastfeeding. Disruption of the breastfeeding pattern increases the risk of pregnancy. After the infant is 6 months of age or menstrual flow has resumed, effectiveness decreases. The typical failure rate is 1% to 2%. Feeding intervals should be no greater than 4 hours during the day and 6 hours at night.
Which benefit regarding FAMs makes it an appealing choice for some women? a.Adherence to strict recordkeeping b.Absence of chemicals and hormones c.Decreased involvement and intimacy of partner d.Increased spontaneity of coitus
ANS: B The absence of chemicals or hormones to alter the natural menstrual flow is extremely important to some women. The strict recordkeeping with FAMs may be difficult and creates a potential risk for failure. These methods require increased involvement by the partner; however, they also reduce the spontaneity of coitus.
A client is diagnosed with having a stillborn infant. At first, she appears stunned by the news, cries a little, and then asks the nurse to call her mother. What is the proper term for the phase of bereavement that this client is experiencing? a.Anticipatory grief b.Acute distress c.Intense grief d.Reorganization
ANS: B The immediate reaction to news of a perinatal loss or infant death encompasses a period of acute distress. Disbelief and denial can occur. However, parents also feel very sad and depressed. Intense outbursts of emotion and crying are normal. However, a lack of affect, euphoria, and calmness may occur and may reflect numbness, denial, or personal ways of coping with stress. Anticipatory grief applies to the grief related to a potential loss of an infant. The parent grieves in preparation of the infant's possible death, although he or she clings to the hope that the child will survive. Intense grief occurs in the first few months after the death of the infant. This phase encompasses many different emotions, including loneliness, emptiness, yearning, guilt, anger, and fear. Reorganization occurs after a long and intense search for meaning. Parents are better able to function at work and home, experience a return of self-esteem and confidence, can cope with new challenges, and have placed the loss in perspective.
A newborn was admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) after being delivered at 29 weeks of gestation to a 28-year-old multiparous, married, Caucasian woman whose pregnancy was uncomplicated until the premature rupture of membranes and preterm birth. The newborn's parents arrive for their first visit after the birth. The parents walk toward the bedside but remain approximately 5 feet away from the bed. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? a.Wait quietly at the newborn's bedside until the parents come closer. b.Go to the parents, introduce him or herself, and gently encourage them to meet their infant. Explain the equipment first, and then focus on the newborn. c.Leave the parents at the bedside while they are visiting so that they have some privacy. d.Tell the parents only about the newborn's physical condition and caution them to avoid touching their baby.
ANS: B The nurse is instrumental in the initial interactions with the infant. The nurse can help the parents see the infant rather than focus on the equipment. The importance and purpose of the apparatus that surrounds their infant also should be explained to them. Parents often need encouragement and recognition from the nurse to acknowledge the reality of the infant's condition. Parents need to see and touch their infant as soon as possible to acknowledge the reality of the birth and the infant's appearance and condition. Encouragement from the nurse is instrumental in this process. Telling the parents to avoid touching their baby is inappropriate and unhelpful.
A newborn in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) is dying as a result of a massive infection. The parents speak to the neonatologist, who informs them of their son's prognosis. When the father sees his son, he says, "He looks just fine to me. I can't understand what all this is about." What is the most appropriate response or reaction by the nurse at this time? a."Didn't the physician tell you about your son's problems?" b."This must be a difficult time for you. Tell me how you're doing." c.Quietly stand beside the infant's father. d."You'll have to face up to the fact that he is going to die sooner or later."
ANS: B The phase of intense grief can be very difficult, especially for fathers. Parents should be encouraged to share their feelings during the initial steps in the grieving process. This father is in a phase of acute distress and is reaching out to the nurse as a source of direction in his grieving process. Shifting the focus is not in the best interest of the parent. Nursing actions may help the parents actualize the loss of their infant through a sharing and verbalization of their feelings of grief. Telling the father that his son is going to die sooner or later is dispassionate and an inappropriate statement on the part of the nurse.
During a follow-up home visit, the nurse plans to evaluate whether parents have progressed to the second stage of grieving (phase of intense grief). Which behavior would the nurse not anticipate finding? a.Guilt, particularly in the mother b.Numbness or lack of response c.Bitterness or irritability d.Fear and anxiety, especially about getting pregnant again
ANS: B The second phase of grieving encompasses a wide range of intense emotions, including guilt, anger, bitterness, fear, and anxiety. What the nurse would hope not to see is numbness or unresponsiveness, which indicates that the parents are still in denial or shock.
Importantly, the nurse must be aware of which information related to the use of IUDs? a.Return to fertility can take several weeks after the device is removed. b.IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse. c.IUDs offer the same protection against STIs as the diaphragm. d.Consent forms are not needed for IUD insertion.
ANS: B The woman has up to 5 days to insert the IUD after unprotected sex. The return to fertility is immediate after the removal of the IUD. IUDs offer no protection against STIs. A consent form is required for insertion, as is a negative pregnancy test.
Women who have undergone an oophorectomy, have ovarian failure, or a genetic defect may be eligible to receive donor oocytes (eggs). Which statements regarding oocyte donation are accurate? (Select all that apply.) a.Donor is inseminated with semen from the parent. b.Donor eggs are fertilized with the male partner's sperm. c.Donors are under 35 years of age. d.Recipient undergoes hormonal stimulation. e.Ovum is placed into a surrogate.
ANS: B, C, D Oocyte donation is usually provided by healthy women under the age of 35 years, who are recruited and paid to undergo ovarian stimulation and oocyte retrieval. The donor eggs are fertilized in a laboratory with the male partner's sperm. The woman undergoes hormonal stimulation to allow the development of the uterine lining. Embryos are then transferred. A donor that is inseminated with the male partner's semen or receives the fertilized ovum and then carries it to gestation is known as a surrogate mother.
Postabortion instructions may differ among providers regarding tampon use and the resumption of intercourse. However, education should be provided regarding serious complications. When should the woman who has undergone an induced abortion be instructed to return to the emergency department? (Select all that apply.) a.Fever higher than 39° C b.Chills c.Foul-smelling vaginal discharge d.Bleeding greater than four pads in 2 hours e.Severe abdominal pain
ANS: B, C, E The client should report to a health care facility for any of the following symptoms: fever higher than 38° C, chills, bleeding more than two saturated pads in 2 hours or heavy bleeding lasting for days, foul-smelling discharge, abdominal tenderness or pain, and cramping or backache.
The client and her partner are considering male sterilization as a form of permanent birth control. While educating the client regarding the risks and benefits of the procedure, which information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a.Sterilization should be performed under general anesthesia. b.Pain, bleeding, and infection are possible complications. c.Pregnancy may still be possible. d.Vasectomy may affect potency. e.Secondary sex characteristics are unaffected.
ANS: B, C, E Vasectomy is the most commonly used procedure for male sterilization and is performed on an outpatient basis under local anesthesia. Pain, bleeding, swelling, and infection are considered complications. Reversal is generally unsuccessful; however, it may take several weeks to months for all sperm to be cleared from the sperm ducts. Another form of contraception is necessary until the sperm counts are zero. Vasectomy has no effect on potency, and secondary sex characteristics are not affected.
Which client would be an ideal candidate for injectable progestins such as Depo-Provera (DMPA) as a contraceptive choice? a.The ideal candidate for DMPA wants menstrual regularity and predictability. b.The client has a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer. c.The ideal candidate has difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily. d.The client is homeless or mobile and rarely receives health care.
ANS: C Advantages of DMPA include its contraceptive effectiveness, compared with the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives, and the requirement of only four injections a year. The disadvantages of injectable progestins are prolonged amenorrhea and uterine bleeding. The use of injectable progestin carries an increased risk of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism. To be effective, DMPA injections must be administered every 11 to 13 weeks. Access to health care is necessary to prevent pregnancy or potential complications.
The nurse is having her first meeting with a couple experiencing infertility. The nurse has formulated the nursing diagnosis, "Deficient knowledge, related to lack of understanding of the reproductive process with regard to conception." Which nursing intervention does not apply to this diagnosis? a.Assess the current level of factors promoting conception. b.Provide information regarding conception in a supportive manner. c.Evaluate the couple's support system. d.Identify and describe the basic infertility tests.
ANS: C Evaluating the couple's support system would be a nursing action more suitable to the diagnosis, "Ineffective individual coping, related to the ability to conceive."
An infant is to receive gastrostomy feedings. Which intervention should the nurse institute to prevent bloating, gastrointestinal reflux into the esophagus, vomiting, and respiratory compromise? a.Rapid bolusing of the entire amount in 15 minutes b.Warm cloths to the abdomen for the first 10 minutes c.Slow, small, warm bolus feedings over 30 minutes d.Cold, medium bolus feedings over 20 minutes
ANS: C Feedings by gravity are slowly accomplished over 20- to 30-minute periods to prevent adverse reactions. Rapid bolusing would most likely lead to the adverse reactions listed. Temperature stability in the newborn is critical. Applying warm cloths to the abdomen would not be appropriate because the environment is not thermoregulated. In addition, abdominal warming is not indicated with feedings of any kind. Small feedings at room temperature are recommended to prevent adverse reactions.
If consistently and correctly used, which of the barrier methods of contraception has the lowest failure rate? a.Spermicides b.Female condoms c.Male condoms d.Diaphragms
ANS: C For typical users, the failure rate for male condoms may approach 18%. Spermicide failure rates are approximately 28%. The failure rate for female condoms is approximately 21%. The failure rate for diaphragms with spermicides is 12%.
With regard to an eventual discharge of the high-risk newborn or the transfer of the newborn to a different facility, which information is essential to provide to the parents? a.Infants stay in the NICU until they are ready to go home. b.Once discharged to go home, the high-risk infant should be treated like any healthy term newborn. c.Parents of high-risk infants need special support and detailed contact information. d.If a high-risk infant and mother need to be transferred to a specialized regional center, then waiting until after the birth and until the infant is stabilized is best.
ANS: C High-risk infants can cause profound parental stress and emotional turmoil. Parents need support, special teaching, and quick access to various resources available to help them care for their baby. Parents and their high-risk infant should get to spend a night or two in a predischarge room, where care for the infant is provided away from the NICU. Simply because high-risk infants are eventually discharged does not mean they are normal, healthy babies. Follow-up by specialized practitioners is essential. Ideally, the mother and baby are transported with the fetus in utero; this reduces neonatal morbidity and mortality.
With regard to an eventual discharge of the high-risk newborn or the transfer of the newborn to a different facility, which information is essential to provide to the parents? a.Infants stay in the NICU until they are ready to go home. b.Once discharged to go home, the high-risk infant should be treated like any healthy term newborn. c.Parents of high-risk infants need special support and detailed contact information. d.If a high-risk infant and mother need to be transferred to a specialized regional center, then waiting until after the birth and until the infant is stabilized is best.
ANS: C High-risk infants can cause profound parental stress and emotional turmoil. Parents need support, special teaching, and quick access to various resources available to help them care for their baby. Parents and their high-risk infant should get to spend a night or two in a predischarge room, where care for the infant is provided away from the NICU. Simply because high-risk infants are eventually discharged does not mean they are normal, healthy babies. Follow-up by specialized practitioners is essential. Ideally, the mother and baby are transported with the fetus in utero; this reduces neonatal morbidity and mortality.
A woman who has just undergone a first-trimester abortion will be using oral contraceptives. To protect against pregnancy, the client should be advised to do what? a.Avoid sexual contact for at least 10 days after starting the pill. b.Use condoms and foam for the first few weeks as a backup. c.Use another method of contraception for 1 week after starting the pill. d.Begin sexual relations once vaginal bleeding has ended.
ANS: C If oral contraceptives are to be started within 3 weeks after an abortion, additional forms of contraception should be used throughout the first week to avoid the risk of pregnancy.
In the acronym BRAIDED, which letter is used to identify the key components of informed consent that the nurse must document? a.B stands for birth control. b.R stands for reproduction. c.A stands for alternatives. d.I stands for ineffective.
ANS: C In the acronym BRAIDED, A stands for alternatives and information about other viable methods. B stands for benefits and information about the advantages of a particular birth control method and its success rates. Rstands for risks and information about the disadvantages of a particular method and its failure rates. I stands for inquiries and the opportunity to ask questions.
A nurse practicing in the perinatal setting should promote kangaroo care regardless of an infant's gestational age. Which statement regarding this intervention is most appropriate? a.Kangaroo care was adopted from classical British nursing traditions. b.This intervention helps infants with motor and CNS impairments. c.Kangaroo care helps infants interact directly with their parents and enhances their temperature regulation. d.This intervention gets infants ready for breastfeeding.
ANS: C Kangaroo care is skin-to-skin holding in which the infant, dressed only in a diaper, is placed directly on the parent's bare chest and then covered. The procedure helps infants interact with their parents and regulates their temperature, among other developmental benefits. Kangaroo care was established in Bogota, Colombia, assists the infant in maintaining an organized state, and decreases pain perception during heelsticks. Even premature infants who are unable to suckle benefit from kangaroo care. This practice fosters increased vigor and an enhanced breastfeeding experience as the infant matures.
A nurse practicing in the perinatal setting should promote kangaroo care regardless of an infant's gestational age. Which statement regarding this intervention is most appropriate? a.Kangaroo care was adopted from classical British nursing traditions. b.This intervention helps infants with motor and CNS impairments. c.Kangaroo care helps infants interact directly with their parents and enhances their temperature regulation. d.This intervention gets infants ready for breastfeeding.
ANS: C Kangaroo care is skin-to-skin holding in which the infant, dressed only in a diaper, is placed directly on the parent's bare chest and then covered. The procedure helps infants interact with their parents and regulates their temperature, among other developmental benefits. Kangaroo care was established in Bogota, Colombia, assists the infant in maintaining an organized state, and decreases pain perception during heelsticks. Even premature infants who are unable to suckle benefit from kangaroo care. This practice fosters increased vigor and an enhanced breastfeeding experience as the infant matures.
Which options for saying "good-bye" would the nurse want to discuss with a woman who is diagnosed with having a stillborn girl? a.The nurse should not discuss any options at this time; plenty of time will be available after the baby is born. b."Would you like a picture taken of your baby after birth?" c."When your baby is born, would you like to see and hold her?" d."What funeral home do you want notified after the baby is born?"
ANS: C Mothers and fathers may find it helpful to see their infant after delivery. The parents' wishes should be respected. Interventions and support from the nursing and medical staff after a prenatal loss are extremely important in the healing of the parents. The initial intervention should be directly related to the parents' wishes concerning seeing or holding their dead infant. Although information about funeral home notification may be relevant, this information is not the most appropriate option at this time. Burial arrangements can be discussed after the infant is born.
The nurse is providing contraceptive instruction to a young couple who are eager to learn. The nurse should be cognizant of which information regarding the natural family planning method? a.The natural family planning method is the same as coitus interruptus or "pulling out." b.This contraception method uses the calendar method to align the woman's cycle with the natural phases of the moon. c.This practice is the only contraceptive method acceptable to the Roman Catholic Church. d.The natural family planning method relies on barrier methods during the fertility phases.
ANS: C Natural family planning is the only contraceptive practice acceptable to the Roman Catholic Church. "Pulling out" is not the same as periodic abstinence, another name for natural family planning. The phases of the moon are not part of the calendar method or any method. Natural family planning is another name for periodic abstinence, which is the accepted way to pass safely through the fertility phases without relying on chemical or physical barriers.
Which statement most accurately describes complicated grief? a.Occurs when, in multiple births, one child dies and the other or others live b.Is a state during which the parents are ambivalent, as with an abortion c.Is an extremely intense grief reaction that persists for a long time d.Is felt by the family of adolescent mothers who lose their babies
ANS: C Parents showing signs of complicated grief should be referred for counseling. Multiple births, in which not all of the babies survive, create a complicated parenting situation but not complicated bereavement. Abortion can generate complicated emotional responses, but these responses do not constitute complicated bereavement. Families of lost adolescent pregnancies may have to deal with complicated issues, but these issues are not complicated bereavement.
When assisting the mother, father, and other family members to actualize the loss of an infant, which action is most helpful? a.Using the words lost or gone rather than dead or died b.Making sure the family understands that naming the baby is important c.Ensuring the baby is clothed or wrapped if the parents choose to visit with the baby d.Setting a firm time for ending the visit with the baby so that the parents know when to let go
ANS: C Presenting the baby as nicely as possible stimulates the parents' senses and provides pleasant memories of their baby. Baby lotion or powder can be applied, and the baby should be wrapped in a soft blanket, clothed, and have a cap placed on his or her head. Nurses must use the words dead and died to assist the bereaved in accepting the reality. Although naming the baby can be helpful, creating the sense that the parents have to name the baby is not important. In fact, some cultural taboos and religious rules prohibit the naming of an infant who has died. Parents need different times with their baby to say "good-bye." Nurses need to be careful not to rush the process.
For clinical purposes, the most accurate definition of preterm and post-term infants is defined as what? a.Preterm: Before 34 weeks of gestation if the infant is appropriate for gestational age (AGA); before 37 weeks if the infant is small for gestational age (SGA) b.Postterm: After 40 weeks of gestation if the infant is large for gestational age (LGA); beyond 42 weeks if the infant is AGA c.Preterm: Before 37 weeks of gestation and postterm beyond 42 weeks of gestation; no matter the size for gestational age at birth d.Preterm: Before 38 to 40 weeks of gestation if the infant is SGA; postterm, beyond 40 to 42 weeks gestation if the infant is LGA
ANS: C Preterm and postterm are strictly measures of time—before 37 weeks and beyond 42 weeks, respectively—regardless of the size for gestational age.
For clinical purposes, the most accurate definition of preterm and postterm infants is defined as what? a.Preterm: Before 34 weeks of gestation if the infant is appropriate for gestational age (AGA); before 37 weeks if the infant is small for gestational age (SGA) b.Postterm: After 40 weeks of gestation if the infant is large for gestational age (LGA); beyond 42 weeks if the infant is AGA c.Preterm: Before 37 weeks of gestation and postterm beyond 42 weeks of gestation; no matter the size for gestational age at birth d.Preterm: Before 38 to 40 weeks of gestation if the infant is SGA; postterm, beyond 40 to 42 weeks gestation if the infant is LGA
ANS: C Preterm and postterm are strictly measures of time—before 37 weeks and beyond 42 weeks, respectively—regardless of the size for gestational age.
A couple arrives for their first appointment at an infertility center. Which of the following is a noninvasive test performed during the initial diagnostic phase of testing? a.Hysterosalpingogram b.Endometrial biopsy c.Sperm analysis d.Laparoscopy
ANS: C Sperm analysis is the basic noninvasive test performed during initial diagnostic phase of testing for male infertility. Radiographic film examination allows visualization of the uterine cavity after the instillation of a radiopaque contrast medium through the cervix. The endometrial biopsy is an invasive procedure, during which a small cannula is introduced into the uterus and a portion of the endometrium is removed for histologic examination. Laparoscopy is useful to view the pelvic structures intraperitoneally and is an invasive procedure.
An infant is being discharged from the NICU after 70 days of hospitalization. The infant was born at 30 weeks of gestation with several conditions associated with prematurity, including RDS, mild bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD), and retinopathy of prematurity (ROP), requiring surgical treatment. During discharge teaching, the infant's mother asks the nurse if her baby will meet developmental milestones on time, as did her son who was born at term. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? a."Your baby will develop exactly like your first child." b."Your baby does not appear to have any problems at this time." c."Your baby will need to be corrected for prematurity." d."Your baby will need to be followed very closely."
ANS: C The age of a preterm newborn is corrected by adding the gestational age and the postnatal age. The infant's responses are accordingly evaluated against the norm expected for the corrected age of the infant. The baby is currently 40 weeks of postconceptional age and can be expected to be doing what a 40-week-old infant would be doing. Although predicting with complete accuracy the growth and development potential of each preterm infant is impossible, certain measurable factors predict normal growth and development. The preterm infant experiences catch-up body growth during the first 2 to 3 years of life. Development needs to be evaluated over time. The growth and developmental milestones are corrected for gestational age until the child is approximately years old.
By understanding the four mechanisms of heat transfer (convection, conduction, radiation, and evaporation), the nurse can create an environment for the infant that prevents temperature instability. Which significant symptoms will the infant display when experiencing cold stress? a.Decreased respiratory rate b.Bradycardia, followed by an increased heart rate c.Mottled skin with acrocyanosis d.Increased physical activity
ANS: C The infant has minimal-to-no fat stores. During times of cold stress, the skin becomes mottled and acrocyanosis develops, progressing to cyanosis. Even if the infant is being cared for on a radiant warmer or in an isolette, the nurse's role is to observe the infant frequently to prevent heat loss and to respond quickly if signs and symptoms of cold stress occur. The respiratory rate increases, followed by periods of apnea. The infant initially tries to conserve heat and burns more calories, after which the metabolic system goes into overdrive. In the preterm infant who is experiencing heat loss, the heart rate initially increases, followed by periods of bradycardia. In the term infant, increased physical activity is the natural response to heat loss. However, in a term infant who is experiencing respiratory distress or in a preterm infant, physical activity is decreased.
By understanding the four mechanisms of heat transfer (convection, conduction, radiation, and evaporation), the nurse can create an environment for the infant that prevents temperature instability. Which significant symptoms will the infant display when experiencing cold stress? a.Decreased respiratory rate b.Bradycardia, followed by an increased heart rate c.Mottled skin with acrocyanosis d.Increased physical activity
ANS: C The infant has minimal-to-no fat stores. During times of cold stress, the skin becomes mottled and acrocyanosis develops, progressing to cyanosis. Even if the infant is being cared for on a radiant warmer or in an isolette, the nurse's role is to observe the infant frequently to prevent heat loss and to respond quickly if signs and symptoms of cold stress occur. The respiratory rate increases, followed by periods of apnea. The infant initially tries to conserve heat and burns more calories, after which the metabolic system goes into overdrive. In the preterm infant who is experiencing heat loss, the heart rate initially increases, followed by periods of bradycardia. In the term infant, increased physical activity is the natural response to heat loss. However, in a term infant who is experiencing respiratory distress or in a preterm infant, physical activity is decreased.
An infant at 36 weeks of gestation has increasing respirations (80 to 100 breaths per minute with significant substernal retractions). The infant is given oxygen by continuous nasal positive airway pressure (CPAP). What level of partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) indicates hypoxia? a.67 mm Hg b.89 mm Hg c.45 mm Hg d.73 mm Hg
ANS: C The laboratory value of PaO2 of 45 mm Hg is below the range for a normal neonate and indicates hypoxia in this infant. The normal range for PaO2 is 60 to 80 mm Hg; therefore, PaO2 levels of 67 and 73 mm Hg fall within the normal range, and a PaO2 of 89 mm Hg is higher than the normal range.
During the initial acute distress phase of grieving, parents still must make unexpected and unwanted decisions about funeral arrangements and even naming the baby. What is the nurse's role at this time? a.To take over as much as possible to relieve the pressure b.To encourage the grandparents to take over c.To ensure that the parents, themselves, approve the final decisions d.To leave them alone to work things out
ANS: C The nurse is always the client's advocate. Nurses can offer support and guidance and yet leave room for the same from grandparents. In the end, however, nurses should let the parents make the final decisions. For the nurse to be able to present options regarding burial and autopsy, among other issues, in a sensitive and respectful manner is essential. The nurse should assist the parents in any way possible; however, taking over all arrangements is not the nurse's role. Grandparents are often called on to help make the difficult decisions regarding funeral arrangements or the disposition of the body because they have more life experiences with taking care of these painful, yet required arrangements. Some well-meaning relatives may try to take over all decision-making responsibilities. The nurse must remember that the parents, themselves, should approve all of the final decisions. During this time of acute distress, the nurse should be present to provide quiet support, answer questions, obtain information, and act as a client advocate.
A couple comes in for an infertility workup, having attempted to achieve pregnancy for 2 years. The woman, 37 years of age, has always had irregular menstrual cycles but is otherwise healthy. The man has fathered two children from a previous marriage and had a vasectomy reversal 2 years ago. The man has had two normal semen analyses, but the sperm seem to be clumped together. What additional testing is needed? a.Testicular biopsy b.Antisperm antibodies c.FSH level d.Examination for testicular infection
ANS: C This scenario does not indicate that the woman has had any testing related to her irregular menstrual cycles. Hormone analysis is performed to assess endocrine function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis when menstrual cycles are absent or irregular. Determining the blood levels of prolactin, FSH, luteinizing hormone (LH), estradiol, progesterone, and thyroid hormones may be necessary to diagnose the cause of the woman's irregular menstrual cycles. A testicular biopsy is indicated only in cases of azoospermia (no sperm cells) or severe oligospermia (low number of sperm cells). Although unlikely to be the case because the husband has already produced children, antisperm antibodies may be produced by the man against his own sperm. Examination for testicular infection would be performed before semen analysis. Furthermore, infection would affect spermatogenesis.
A woman will be taking oral contraceptives using a 28-day pack. What advice should the nurse provide to protect this client from an unintended pregnancy? a.Limit sexual contact for one cycle after starting the pill. b.Use condoms and foam instead of the pill for as long as the client takes an antibiotic. c.Take one pill at the same time every day. d.Throw away the pack and use a backup method if two pills are missed during week 1 of her cycle.
ANS: C To maintain adequate hormone levels for contraception and to enhance compliance, clients should take oral contraceptives at the same time each day. If contraceptives are to be started at any time other than during normal menses or within 3 weeks after birth or an abortion, then another method of contraception should be used through the first week to prevent the risk of pregnancy. Taken exactly as directed, oral contraceptives prevent ovulation, and pregnancy cannot occur. No strong pharmacokinetic evidence indicates a link between the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics and altered hormonal levels in oral contraceptive users. If the client misses two pills during week 1, then she should take two pills a day for 2 days and finish the package and use a backup contraceptive method for the next 7 consecutive days.
A couple is attempting to cope with an infertility problem. They want to know what they can do to preserve their emotional equilibrium. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? a."Tell your friends and family so that they can help you." b."Talk only to other friends who are infertile, because only they can help." c."Get involved with a support group. I'll give you some names." d."Start adoption proceedings immediately, because adopting an infant can be very difficult."
ANS: C Venting negative feelings may unburden the couple. A support group may provide a safe haven for the couple to share their experiences and gain insight from others' experiences. Although talking about their feelings may unburden them of negative feelings, infertility can be a major stressor that affects the couple's relationships with family and friends. Limiting their interactions to other infertile couples may be a beginning point for addressing psychosocial needs. However, depending on where the other couple is in their own recovery process, limiting their interactions may not be of assistance to them. Telling the couple to start adoption proceedings immediately is not supportive of the psychosocial needs of this couple and may be detrimental to their well-being.
Which procedure falls into the category of micromanipulation techniques of the follicle? (Select all that apply.) a.Intrauterine insemination b.Preimplantation genetic diagnosis c.Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ISCI) d.Assisted hatching e.IVF-ET
ANS: C, D ISCI makes it possible to achieve fertilization even with a few or poor quality sperm by introducing sperm beneath the zone pellucid into the egg. Another micromanipulation technique is assisted hatching. An infrared laser breaks through the thick or tough zone pellucid, enabling the blastocyst to hatch.
A family is visiting two surviving triplets. The third triplet died 2 days ago. What action indicates that the family has begun to grieve for the dead infant? a.Refers to the two live infants as twins b.Asks about the dead triplet's current status c.Brings in play clothes for all three infants d.Refers to the dead infant in the past tense
ANS: D Accepting that the infant is dead (in the past tense of the word) demonstrates an acceptance of the reality and that the family has begun to grieve. Parents of multiples are challenged with the task of parenting and grieving at the same time. Referring to the two live infants as twins does not acknowledge an acceptance of the existence of their third child. Bringing in play clothes for all three infants indicates that the parents are still in denial regarding the death of the third triplet. The death of the third infant has imposed a confusing and ambivalent induction into parenthood for this couple. If the two live infants are referred to as twins and/or if play clothes for all three infants are still considered, then the family is clearly still in denial regarding the death of one of the triplets.
Which statement is the most appropriate for the nurse to make when caring for bereaved parents? a."This happened for the best." b."You have an angel in heaven." c."I know how you feel." d."What can I do for you?"
ANS: D Acknowledging the loss and being open to listening is the best action that the nurse can do. No bereaved parent would find the statement "This has happened for the best" to be comforting in any way, and it may sound judgmental. Nurses must resist the impulse to speak about the afterlife to people in pain. They should also resist the temptation to give advice or to use clichés. Unless the nurse has lost a child, he or she does not understand how the parents feel.
Although remarkable developments have occurred in reproductive medicine, assisted reproductive therapies are associated with numerous legal and ethical issues. Nurses can provide accurate information about the risks and benefits of treatment alternatives to enable couples to make informed decisions about their choice of treatment. Which concern is unnecessary for the nurse to address before treatment? a.Risks of multiple gestation b.Whether or how to disclose the facts of conception to offspring c.Freezing embryos for later use d.Financial ability to cover the cost of treatment
ANS: D Although the method of payment is important, obtaining this information is not the responsibility of the nurse. Many states have mandated some form of insurance to assist couples with coverage for infertility. Multiple gestation is a risk of treatment of which the couple needs to be aware. To minimize the chance of multiple gestation, generally only three or fewer embryos are transferred. The couple should be informed that multifetal reduction may be needed. Nurses can provide anticipatory guidance on this matter. Depending on the therapy chosen, donor oocytes, sperm, embryos, or a surrogate mother may be needed. Couples who have excess embryos frozen for later transfer must be fully informed before consenting to the procedure. A decision must be made regarding the disposal of embryos in the event of death or divorce or if the couple no longer wants the embryos at a future time.
What is the importance of obtaining informed consent for a number of contraceptive methods? a.Contraception is an invasive procedure that requires hospitalization. b.The method may require a surgical procedure to insert a device. c.The contraception method chosen may be unreliable. d.The method chosen has potentially dangerous side effects.
ANS: D Being aware of the potential side effects is important for couples who are making an informed decision about the use of contraceptives. The only contraceptive method that is a surgical procedure and requires hospitalization is sterilization. Some methods have greater efficacy than others, and this efficacy should be included in the teaching.
Which condition might premature infants who exhibit 5 to 10 seconds of respiratory pauses, followed by 10 to 15 seconds of compensatory rapid respiration, be experiencing? a.Suffering from sleep or wakeful apnea b. Experiencing severe swings in blood pressure c.Trying to maintain a neutral thermal environment d.Breathing in a respiratory pattern common to premature infants
ANS: D Breathing in a respiratory pattern is called periodic breathing and is common to premature infants. This pattern may still require nursing intervention of oxygen and/or ventilation. Apnea is the cessation of respirations for 20 seconds or longer and should not be confused with periodic breathing.
Which condition might premature infants who exhibit 5 to 10 seconds of respiratory pauses, followed by 10 to 15 seconds of compensatory rapid respiration, be experiencing? a.Suffering from sleep or wakeful apnea b. Experiencing severe swings in blood pressure c.Trying to maintain a neutral thermal environment d.Breathing in a respiratory pattern common to premature infants
ANS: D Breathing in a respiratory pattern is called periodic breathing and is common to premature infants. This pattern may still require nursing intervention of oxygen and/or ventilation. Apnea is the cessation of respirations for 20 seconds or longer and should not be confused with periodic breathing.
A man smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. He wants to know if smoking is contributing to the difficulty he and his wife are having getting pregnant. Which guidance should the nurse provide? a."Your sperm count seems to be okay in the first semen analysis." b."Only marijuana cigarettes affect sperm count." c."Although smoking has no effect on sperm count, it can give you lung cancer." d."Smoking can reduce the quality of your sperm."
ANS: D Cigarette smoking has detrimental effects on sperm and has been associated with abnormal sperm, a decreased number of sperm, and chromosomal damage. The nurse may suggest a smoking cessation program to increase the fertility of the male partner. Sperm counts vary from day to day and are dependent on emotional and physical status and sexual activity. Therefore, a single analysis may be inconclusive. A minimum of two analyses must be performed several weeks apart to assess male fertility. Marijuana use may depress the number and motility of sperm. Smoking is indeed a causative agent for lung cancer.
Which statement regarding the term contraceptive failure rate is the most accurate? a.The contraceptive failure rate refers to the percentage of users expected to have an accidental pregnancy over a 5-year span. b.It refers to the minimum rate that must be achieved to receive a government license. c.The contraceptive failure rate increases over time as couples become more careless. d.It varies from couple to couple, depending on the method and the users.
ANS: D Contraceptive effectiveness varies from couple to couple, depending on how well a contraceptive method is used and how well it suits the couple. The contraceptive failure rate measures the likelihood of accidental pregnancy in the first year only. Failure rates decline over time because users gain experience.
Which clinical findings would alert the nurse that the neonate is expressing pain? a.Low-pitched crying; tachycardia; eyelids open wide b.Cry face; flaccid limbs; closed mouth c.High-pitched, shrill cry; withdrawal; change in heart rate d.Cry face; eyes squeezed; increase in blood pressure
ANS: D Crying and an increased heart rate are manifestations indicative of pain in the neonate. Typically, infants tightly close their eyes when in pain, not open them wide. In addition, infants may display a rigid posture with the mouth open and may also withdraw limbs and become tachycardic with pain. A high-pitched, shrill cry is associated with genetic or neurologic anomalies.
When providing an infant with a gavage feeding, which infant assessment should be documented each time? a.Abdominal circumference after the feeding b.Heart rate and respirations before feeding c.Suck and swallow coordination d.Response to the feeding
ANS: D Documentation of a gavage feeding should include the size of the feeding tube, the amount and quality of the residual from the previous feeding, the type and quantity of the fluid instilled, and the infant's response to the procedure. Abdominal circumference is not measured after a gavage feeding. Although vital signs may be obtained before feeding, the infant's response to the feeding is more important. Similarly, some older infants may be learning to suck; the most important factor to document would still be the infant's response to the feeding, including the attempts to suck.
When providing an infant with a gavage feeding, which infant assessment should be documented each time? a.Abdominal circumference after the feeding b.Heart rate and respirations before feeding c.Suck and swallow coordination d.Response to the feeding
ANS: D Documentation of a gavage feeding should include the size of the feeding tube, the amount and quality of the residual from the previous feeding, the type and quantity of the fluid instilled, and the infant's response to the procedure. Abdominal circumference is not measured after a gavage feeding. Although vital signs may be obtained before feeding, the infant's response to the feeding is more important. Similarly, some older infants may be learning to suck; the most important factor to document would still be the infant's response to the feeding, including the attempts to suck.
Which statement is the most complete and accurate description of medical abortions? a.Medical abortions are performed only for maternal health. b.They can be achieved through surgical procedures or with drugs. c.Medical abortions are mostly performed in the second trimester. d.They can be either elective or therapeutic.
ANS: D Medical abortions can be either elective (the woman's choice) or therapeutic (for reasons of maternal or fetal health) and are performed through the use of medications rather than surgical procedures. Medical abortions are usually performed in the first trimester.
Male fertility declines slowly after age 40 years; however, no cessation of sperm production analogous to menopause in women occurs in men. What condition is not associated with advanced paternal age? a.Autosomal dominant disorder b.Schizophrenia c.Autism spectrum disorder d.Down syndrome
ANS: D Paternal age older than 40 years is associated with an increased risk for autosomal dominant disorder, schizophrenia, and autism spectrum disorder in their offspring. Although Down syndrome can occur in any pregnancy, it is often associated with advanced maternal age.
On day 3 of life, a newborn continues to require 100% oxygen by nasal cannula. The parents ask if they may hold their infant during his next gavage feeding. Considering that this newborn is physiologically stable, what response should the nurse provide? a."Parents are not allowed to hold their infants who are dependent on oxygen." b."You may only hold your baby's hand during the feeding." c."Feedings cause more physiologic stress; therefore, the baby must be closely monitored. I don't think you should hold the baby." d."You may hold your baby during the feeding."
ANS: D Physical contact with the infant is important to establish early bonding. The nurse as the support person and teacher is responsible for shaping the environment and making the caregiving responsive to the needs of both the parents and the infant. Allowing the parents to hold their baby is the most appropriate response by the nurse. Parental interaction by holding should be encouraged during gavage feedings; nasal cannula oxygen therapy allows for easy feedings and psychosocial interactions. The parent can swaddle the infant or provide kangaroo care while gavage feeding their infant. Both swaddling and kangaroo care during feedings provide positive interactions for the infant and help the infant associate feedings with positive interactions.
When evaluating the preterm infant, the nurse understands that compared with the term infant, what information is important for the nurse to understand? a.Few blood vessels visible through the skin b.More subcutaneous fat c.Well-developed flexor muscles d.Greater surface area in proportion to weight
ANS: D Preterm infants have greater surface area in proportion to their weight. More subcutaneous fat and well-developed muscles are indications of a more mature infant.
When evaluating the preterm infant, the nurse understands that compared with the term infant, what information is important for the nurse to understand? a.Few blood vessels visible through the skin b.More subcutaneous fat c.Well-developed flexor muscles d.Greater surface area in proportion to weight
ANS: D Preterm infants have greater surface area in proportion to their weight. More subcutaneous fat and well-developed muscles are indications of a more mature infant.
Which statement regarding gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is most accurate? a.Semen is collected after laparoscopy. b.Women must have two normal fallopian tubes. c.Ovulation spontaneously occurs. d.Ova and sperm are transferred to one tube.
ANS: D Similar to in vitro fertilization (IVF), GIFT requires the woman to have at least one normal tube. Ovulation is induced, and the oocytes are aspirated during laparoscopy. Semen is collected before laparoscopy. The ova and sperm are then transferred to one uterine tube, permitting natural fertilization and cleavage.
Parents are often asked if they would like to have an autopsy performed on their infant. Nurses who are assisting parents with this decision should be aware of which information? a.Autopsies are usually covered by insurance. b.Autopsies must be performed within a few hours after the infant's death. c.In the current litigious society, more autopsies are performed than in the past. d.Some religions prohibit autopsy.
ANS: D Some religions prohibit autopsies or limit the choice to the times when it may help prevent further loss. The cost of the autopsy must be considered; it is not covered by insurance and can be very expensive. There is no rush to perform an autopsy unless evidence of a contagious disease or maternal infection is present at the time of death. The rate of autopsies is declining, in part because of a fear by medical facilities that errors by the staff might be revealed, resulting in litigation.
A nurse caring for a family during a loss might notice that a family member is experiencing survivor guilt. Which family member is most likely to exhibit this guilt? a.Siblings b.Mother c.Father d.Grandparents
ANS: D Survivor guilt is sometimes felt by grandparents because they feel that the death is out of order; they are still alive, while their grandchild has died. They may express anger that they are alive and their grandchild is not. The siblings of the expired infant may also experience a profound loss. A young child will respond to the reactions of the parents and may act out. Older children have a more complete understanding of the loss. School-age children are likely to be frightened, whereas teenagers are at a loss on how to react. The mother of the infant is experiencing intense grief at this time. She may be dealing with questions such as, "Why me?" or "Why my baby?" and is unlikely to be experiencing survival guilt. Realizing that fathers can be experiencing deep pain beneath their calm and quiet appearance and may need help acknowledging these feelings is important. This need, however, is not the same as survivor guilt.
A woman is using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of contraception. She calls the clinic and tells the nurse, "My period is due in a few days, and my temperature has not gone up." What is the nurse's mostappropriate response? a."This probably means that you're pregnant." b."Don't worry; it's probably nothing." c."Have you been sick this month?" d."You probably didn't ovulate during this cycle."
ANS: D The absence of a temperature decrease most likely is the result of a lack of ovulation. Pregnancy cannot occur without ovulation, which is being measured using the BBT method. A comment such as, "Don't worry; it's probably nothing," discredits the client's concerns. Illness is most likely the cause of an increase in BBT.
A client currently uses a diaphragm and spermicide for contraception. She asks the nurse to explain the major differences between the cervical cap and the diaphragm. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? a."No spermicide is used with the cervical cap, so it's less messy." b."The diaphragm can be left in place longer after intercourse." c."Repeated intercourse with the diaphragm is more convenient." d."The cervical cap can be safely used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later."
ANS: D The cervical cap can be inserted hours before sexual intercourse without the need for additional spermicide later. Spermicide should be used inside the cap as an additional chemical barrier. The cervical cap should remain in place for 6 hours after the last act of intercourse. Repeated intercourse with the cervical cap is more convenient because no additional spermicide is needed.
Nurses should be cognizant of what information with regard to the noncontraceptive medical effects of combination oral contraceptives (COCs)? a.COCs can cause TSS if the prescription is wrong. b.Hormonal withdrawal bleeding is usually a little more profuse than in normal menstruation and lasts a week for those who use COCs. c.COCs increase the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancers. d.Effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements.
ANS: D The effectiveness of COCs can be altered by some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements. TSS can occur in some who use the diaphragm, but it is not a consequence of taking oral contraceptive pills. Hormonal withdrawal bleeding usually is lighter than in normal menstruation and lasts a couple of days. Oral contraceptive pills offer protection against the risk of endometrial and ovarian cancers.
Because of the premature infant's decreased immune functioning, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in a plan of care for a premature infant? a.Delayed growth and development b.Ineffective thermoregulation c.Ineffective infant feeding pattern d.Risk for infection
ANS: D The nurse needs to understand that decreased immune functioning increases the risk for infection. Growth and development, thermoregulation, and feeding may be affected, although only indirectly.
After giving birth to a stillborn infant, the woman turns to the nurse and says, "I just finished painting the baby's room. Do you think that caused my baby to die?" What is the nurse's most appropriate response? a."That's an old wives' tale; lots of women are around paint during pregnancy, and this doesn't happen to them." b."That's not likely. Paint is associated with elevated pediatric lead levels." c.Silence. d."I can understand your need to find an answer to what caused this. What else are you thinking about?"
ANS: D The statement "I can understand your need to find an answer to what caused this. What else are you thinking about?" is very appropriate for the nurse. It demonstrates caring and compassion and allows the mother to vent her thoughts and feelings, which is therapeutic in the process of grieving. The nurse should resist the temptation to give advice or to use clichés in offering support to the bereaved. In addition, trying to give bereaved parents answers when no clear answers exist or trying to squelch their guilt feeling does not help the process of grieving. Silence would probably increase the mother's feelings of guilt. One of the most important goals of the nurse is to validate the experience and feelings of the parents by encouraging them to tell their stories and then listening with care. The nurse should encourage the mother to express her thoughts.
With regard to skeletal injuries sustained by a neonate during labor or birth, nurses should be aware that: A. A newborn's skull is still forming and fractures fairly easily. B. Unless a blood vessel is involved, linear skull fractures heal without special treatment. C. Clavicle fractures often need to be set with an inserted pin for stability. D. Other than the skull, the most common skeletal injuries are to leg bones.
B A. Incorrect: Because the newborn skull is flexible, considerable force is required to fracture it. B. Correct: About 70% of neonatal skull fractures are linear. C. Incorrect: Clavicle fractures need no special treatment. D. Incorrect: The clavicle is the bone most often fractured during birth. p. 993
With regard to the classification of neonatal bacterial infection, nurses should be aware that: A. Congenital infection progresses slower than nosocomial infection. B. Nosocomial infection can be prevented by effective handwashing; early onset cannot. C. Infections occur with about the same frequency in boy and girl infants, although female mortality is higher. D. The clinical sign of a rapid, high fever makes infection easier to diagnose.
B A. Incorrect: Congenital (early onset) infections progress more rapidly than nosocomial (late onset) infections. B. Correct: Handwashing is an effective preventative measure for late onset (nosocomial) infections, because these infections come from the environment around the infant. Early onset, or congenital, infections are caused by the normal flora at the maternal vaginal tract. Congenital (early onset) infections progress more rapidly than nosocomial (late onset) infections. C. Incorrect: Infection occurs about twice as often in boys and results in higher mortality. Congenital (early onset) infections progress more rapidly than nosocomial (late onset) infections. D. Incorrect: Clinical signs of neonatal infection are nonspecific and similar to noninfectious problems, making diagnosis difficult. Congenital (early onset) infections progress more rapidly than nosocomial (late onset) infections. p. 1002
An infant diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis would characteristically exhibit: A. Edema B. Immature red blood cells C. Enlargement of the heart D. Ascites
B A. Incorrect: Edema would occur with hydrops fetalis, a more severe form of erythroblastosis fetalis. B. Correct: Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when the fetus compensates for the anemia associated with Rh incompatibility by producing large numbers of immature erythrocytes to replace those hemolyzed. C. Incorrect: The fetus with hydrops fetalis may exhibit effusions into the peritoneal, pericardial, and pleural spaces. D. Incorrect: The infant with hydrops fetalis displays signs of ascites. p. 1026
When planning care for an infant with a fractured clavicle, the nurse should recognize that in addition to gentle handling: A. Prone positioning will facilitate bone alignment. B. No special treatment is necessary. C. Parents should be taught range of motion exercises. D. The shoulder should be immobilized with a splint.
B A. Incorrect: Fractures in newborns generally heal rapidly. Except for gentle handling, no accepted treatment for a fractured clavicle exists. B. Correct: Fractures in newborns generally heal rapidly. Except for gentle handling, no accepted treatment for a fractured clavicle exists. C. Incorrect: Movement should be limited, and the infant should be gently handled. It is not necessary to perform range of motion exercises on the infant. D. Incorrect: A fractured clavicle does not require immobilization with a splint. p. 994
The most common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia is: A. Hepatic disease B. Hemolytic disorders in the newborn C. Postmaturity D. Congenital heart defect
B A. Incorrect: Hepatic damage may be a cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia, but it is not the most common cause. B. Correct: Hemolytic disorders in the newborn are the most common cause of pathologic jaundice. C. Incorrect: Prematurity would be a potential cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia in neonates, but it is not the most common cause. D. Incorrect: Congenital heart defect is not a common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia in neonates. p. 1025
With regard to the understanding and treatment of infants born to mothers who are substance abusers, nurses should be aware that: A. Infants born to addicted mothers are also addicted. B. Mothers who abuse one substance likely will use or abuse another, compounding the infant's difficulties. C. The NICU Network Neurobehavioral Scale (NNNS) is designed to assess the damage the mother has done to herself. D. No laboratory procedures are available that can identify the intrauterine drug exposure of the infant.
B A. Incorrect: Infants of substance-abusing mothers may have some of the physiologic signs but are not addicted in the behavioral sense. "Drug-exposed newborn" is a more accurate description than "addict." B. Correct: Multiple substance use (even just alcohol and tobacco) makes it difficult to assess the problems of the exposed infant, particularly with regard to withdrawal manifestations. C. Incorrect: The NNNS is designed to assess the neurologic, behavioral, and stress/abstinence function of the neonate. D. Incorrect: Newborn urine, hair, or meconium sampling may be used to identify an infant's intrauterine drug exposure. p. 1017
A primigravida has just delivered a healthy infant girl. The nurse is about to administer erythromycin ointment in the infant's eyes when the mother asks, "What is that medicine for?" The nurse responds: A. "It is an eye ointment to help your baby see you better." B. "It is to protect your baby from contracting herpes from your vaginal tract." C. "Erythromycin is given prophylactically to prevent a gonorrheal infection." D. "This medicine will protect your baby's eyes from drying out over the next few days."
C A. Incorrect: Erythromycin has no bearing on enhancing vision. B. Incorrect: Erythromycin is used to prevent an infection caused by gonorrhea, not herpes. C. Correct: With the prophylactic use of erythromycin, the incidence of gonococcal conjunctivitis has declined to less than 0.5%. Eye prophylaxis is administered at or shortly after birth to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. D. Incorrect: Erythromycin is given to prevent infection, not for lubrication. p. 1004
With regard to central nervous system injuries to the infant during labor and birth, nurses should be aware that: A. Intracranial hemorrhage (ICH) as a result of birth trauma is more likely to occur in the preterm, low-birth-weight infant. B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (the most common form of ICH) occurs in term infants as a result of hypoxia. C. In many infants, signs of hemorrhage in a full-term infant are absent and diagnosed only through laboratory tests. D. Spinal cord injuries almost always result from forceps-assisted deliveries.
C A. Incorrect: ICH as a result of birth trauma is more likely to occur in the full-term, large infant. B. Incorrect: Subarachnoid hemorrhage in term infants is a result of trauma; in preterm infants, it is a result of hypoxia. C. Correct: Abnormalities in lumbar punctures or red blood cell counts, for instance, or in visuals on CT scan might reveal a hemorrhage. D. Incorrect: Spinal cord injuries are almost always from breech births; they are rare today because cesarean birth often is used for breech presentation. p. 995
Infants of mothers with diabetes are at higher risk for developing: A. Anemia B. Hyponatremia C. Respiratory distress syndrome D. Sepsis
C A. Incorrect: Infants of diabetic mothers (IDMs) are not at risk for anemia. They are at risk for polycythemia. B. Incorrect: IDMs are not at risk for hyponatremia. They are at risk for hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia. C. Correct: IDMs are at risk for macrosomia, birth trauma, perinatal asphyxia, respiratory distress syndrome, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, cardiomyopathy, hyperbilirubinemia, and polycythemia. D. Incorrect: IDMs are not at risk for sepsis. p. 996
With regard to congenital abnormalities involving the central nervous system, nurses should be aware that: A. Although the death rate from most congenital anomalies has decreased over the past several decades, neural tube defects (NTDs) have gone up in the last few years. B. Spina bifida cystica usually is asymptomatic and may not be diagnosed unless associated problems are present. C. A major preoperative nursing intervention for a neonate with myelomeningocele is to protect the protruding sac from injury. D. Microcephaly can be corrected with timely surgery.
C A. Incorrect: Most congenital anomalies have had a stable neonatal death rate since the 1930s; NTDs are declining because of mandatory food fortification with folic acid. B. Incorrect: Spina bifida occulta often is asymptomatic; spina bifida cystica has a visible sac. C. Correct: The nurse protects the infant by laying the baby on his or her side. D. Incorrect: Microcephaly is a tiny head; there is no treatment. p. 1036
Providing care for the neonate born to a mother who abuses substances can present a challenge for the health care team. Nursing care for this infant requires a multisystem approach. The first step in the provision of this care is: A. Pharmacologic treatment B. Reduction of environmental stimuli C. Neonatal abstinence syndrome scoring D. Adequate nutrition and maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance
C A. Incorrect: Pharmacologic treatment is based on the severity of withdrawal symptoms. Symptoms are determined by using a standard assessment tool. Medications of choice are morphine, phenobarbital, diazepam, or diluted tincture of opium. B. Incorrect: Swaddling, holding, and reducing environmental stimuli are essential in providing care to the infant who is experiencing withdrawal. These nursing interventions are appropriate for the infant who displays central nervous system disturbances. C. Correct: Neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) is the term used to describe the cohort of symptoms associated with drug withdrawal in the neonate. The Neonatal Abstinence Scoring System evaluates CNS, metabolic, vasomotor, respiratory, and gastrointestinal disturbances. This evaluation tool enables the care team to develop an appropriate plan of care. The infant is scored throughout the length of stay and the treatment plan is adjusted accordingly. D. Incorrect: Poor feeding is one of the GI symptoms common to this client population. Fluid and electrolyte balance must be maintained and adequate nutrition provided. These infants often have a poor suck reflex and may need to be fed via gavage. pp. 1017-1019
A plan of care for an infant experiencing symptoms of drug withdrawal should include: A. Administering chloral hydrate for sedation B. Feeding every 4 to 6 hours to allow extra rest C. Swaddling the infant snugly and holding the baby tightly D. Playing soft music during feeding
C A. Incorrect: Phenobarbital or diazepam may be administered to decrease CNS irritability. B. Incorrect: The infant should be fed in small, frequent amounts and burped well to diminish aspiration and maintain hydration. C. Correct: The infant should be wrapped snugly to reduce self-stimulation behaviors and protect the skin from abrasions. D. Incorrect: The infant should not be stimulated (such as with music), because this will increase activity and potentially increase CNS irritability. p. 1017
In caring for the mother who has abused (or is abusing) alcohol and for her infant, nurses should be aware that: A. The pattern of growth restriction of the fetus begun in prenatal life is halted after birth, and normal growth takes over. B. Two-thirds of newborns with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) are boys. C. Alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorders (ARND) not sufficient to meet FAS criteria (learning disabilities, speech and language problems) are often not detected until the child goes to school. D. Both the distinctive facial features of the FAS infant and the diminished mental capacities tend toward normal over time.
C A. Incorrect: The pattern of growth restriction persists after birth. B. Incorrect: Two-thirds of newborns with FAS are girls. C. Correct: Some learning problems do not become evident until the child is at school. D. Incorrect: Although the distinctive facial features of the FAS infant tend to become less evident, the mental capacities never become normal. p. 1013
Near the end of the first week of life, an infant who has not been treated for any infection develops a copper-colored, maculopapular rash on the palms and around the mouth and anus. The newborn is showing signs of: A. Gonorrhea B. Herpes simplex virus infection C. Congenital syphilis D. HIV
C A. Incorrect: The rash is indicative of congenital syphilis. The lesions may extend over the trunk and extremities. B. Incorrect: The rash is indicative of congenital syphilis. The lesions may extend over the trunk and extremities. C. Correct: The rash is indicative of congenital syphilis. The lesions may extend over the trunk and extremities. D. Incorrect: The rash is indicative of congenital syphilis. The lesions may extend over the trunk and extremities. p. 1005
An infant was born 2 hours ago at 37 weeks of gestation, weighing 4.1 kg. The infant appears chubby with a flushed complexion and is very tremulous. The tremors are most likely the result of: A. Birth injury B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypoglycemia D. Seizures
C A. Incorrect: This infant is macrosomic and at risk for hypoglycemia. The description is indicative of a macrocosmic infant. The tremors are jitteriness that is associated with hypoglycemia. B. Incorrect: This infant is macrosomic and at risk for hypoglycemia. The description is indicative of a macrocosmic infant. The tremors are jitteriness that is associated with hypoglycemia. C. Correct: Hypoglycemia is common in the macrosomic infant. Signs of hypoglycemia include jitteriness, apnea, tachypnea, and cyanosis. D. Incorrect: This infant is macrosomic and at risk for hypoglycemia. The description is indicative of a macrocosmic infant. The tremors are jitteriness that is associated with hypoglycemia. p. 998
The priority nursing diagnosis for a newborn diagnosed with a diaphragmatic hernia would be: A. Risk for impaired parent-infant attachment B. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements C. Risk for infection D. Impaired gas exchange
D A. Incorrect: Although this issue may be a factor in providing care to a newborn with a diaphragmatic hernia, the priority nursing diagnosis relates to the oxygenation issues arising from the lung hypoplasia that occurs with diaphragmatic hernia. B. Incorrect: Although this issue may be a factor in providing care to a newborn with a diaphragmatic hernia, the priority nursing diagnosis relates to the oxygenation issues arising from the lung hypoplasia that occurs with diaphragmatic hernia. C. Incorrect: Although this issue may be a factor in providing care to a newborn with a diaphragmatic hernia, the priority nursing diagnosis relates to the oxygenation issues arising from the lung hypoplasia that occurs with diaphragmatic hernia. D. Correct: Herniation of the abdominal viscera into the thoracic cavity may cause severe respiratory distress and represent a neonatal emergency. Oxygen therapy, mechanical ventilation, and the correction of acidosis are necessary in infants with large defects. p. 1038
What bacterial infection is definitely decreasing because of effective drug treatment? A. Escherichia coli infection B. Tuberculosis C. Candidiasis D. Group B streptococcal infection
D A. Incorrect: E. coli may be increasing, perhaps because of the increasing use of ampicillin (resulting in a more virulent E. coli resistant to the drug). Group B streptococcus has been beaten back by penicillin. B. Incorrect: Tuberculosis is increasing in the United States and in Canada. Group B streptococcus has been beaten back by penicillin. C. Incorrect: Candidiasis is a fairly benign fungal infection. Group B streptococcus has been beaten back by penicillin. D. Correct: Penicillin has significantly decreased the incidence of group B streptococcal infection. pp. 1010-1011
A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult, forceps-assisted delivery. After stabilization, the infant is weighed, and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 pounds, 6 ounces). The nurse's most appropriate action is to: A. Leave the infant in the room with the mother B. Take the infant immediately to the nursery C. Perform a gestational age assessment to determine whether the infant is large for gestational age D. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently and observe closely for signs of hypoglycemia
D A. Incorrect: Macrosomic infants are at high risk for hypoglycemia after birth and need to be observed closely. This can be achieved in the mother's room with nursing interventions, depending on the condition of the fetus. It may be more appropriate for observation to occur in the nursery. B. Incorrect: Macrosomic infants are at high risk for hypoglycemia after birth and need to be observed closely. Observation may occur in the nursery or in the mother's room, depending on the condition of the fetus. C. Incorrect: Regardless of gestational age, this infant is macrosomic. Macrosomia is defined as fetal weight over 4000 g. Hypoglycemia affects many macrosomic infants. Blood glucose levels should be observed closely. D. Correct: This infant is macrosomic (over 4000 g) and is at high risk for hypoglycemia. Blood glucose levels should be monitored frequently, and the infant should be observed closely for signs of hypoglycemia. p. 997
With regard to hemolytic diseases of the newborn, nurses should be aware that: A. Rh incompatibility matters only when an Rh-negative offspring is born to an Rh-positive mother. B. ABO incompatibility is more likely than Rh incompatibility to precipitate significant anemia. C. Exchange transfusions frequently are required in the treatment of hemolytic disorders. D. The indirect Coombs' test is performed on the mother before birth; the direct Coombs' test is performed on the cord blood after birth.
D A. Incorrect: Only the Rh-positive offspring of an Rh-negative mother is at risk. B. Incorrect: ABO incompatibility is more common than Rh incompatibility but causes less severe problems; significant anemia, for instance, is rare with ABO. C. Incorrect: Exchange transfers are needed infrequently because of the decrease in the incidence of severe hemolytic disease in newborns from Rh incompatibility. D. Correct: An indirect Coombs' test may be performed on the mother a few times during pregnancy. p. 1028
What finding supports the diagnosis of pathologic jaundice? A. Serum bilirubin concentrations greater than 2 mg/dl in cord blood B. Serum bilirubin levels increasing more than 1 mg/dl in 24 hours C. Serum bilirubin levels greater than 10 mg/dl in a full-term newborn D. Clinical jaundice evident within 24 hours of birth
D A. Incorrect: Serum bilirubin concentrations greater than 4 mg/dl in cord blood would support a diagnosis of pathologic jaundice. B. Incorrect: Total serum bilirubin levels that increase by more than 5 mg/dl in 24 hours would support a diagnosis of pathologic jaundice. C. Incorrect: A serum bilirubin level in a preterm newborn that exceeds 10 mg/dl would support a diagnosis of pathologic jaundice. D. Correct: Clinical jaundice evident within 24 hours of birth would support a diagnosis of pathologic jaundice. p. 1025
As a home care nurse, you are visiting a 5-day-old male infant for a scheduled follow-up appointment to ensure that he is responding to home phototherapy for treatment of jaundice. Based on the diagnosis of hyperbilirubinemia, you are aware that the development of acute bilirubin encephalopathy is a risk for this infant. This disease process occurs after the bilirubin level has peaked. After completing a thorough assessment and obtaining a history from the parents, you recognize that this infant is in the first phase of encephalopathy when he exhibits: A. A high-pitched cry B. Severe muscle spasms (opisthotonos) C. Fever and seizures D. Hypotonia, lethargy, and poor suck
D A. Incorrect: Should the infant display symptoms such as a high-pitched cry, severe muscle spasms, hyperreflexia, or arching of the back, the nurse should be aware that the baby has progressed beyond the more subtle signs of the first phase. Medical attention is necessary immediately. B. Incorrect: Should the infant display symptoms such as a high-pitched cry, severe muscle spasms, hyperreflexia, or arching of the back, the nurse should be aware that the baby has progressed beyond the more subtle signs of the first phase. Medical attention is necessary immediately. C. Incorrect: Symptoms may progress from the subtle indications of the first phase to fever and seizures in as little as 24 hours. Only about half of these infants survive and will have permanent sequelae including auditory deficiencies, intellectual deficits, and movement abnormalities. D. Correct: The early and most subtle symptoms of bilirubin encephalopathy include hypotonia, lethargy, poor suck, and depressed or absent Moro reflex. pp. 999, 1027, 1028
When attempting to diagnose and treat developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), the nurse should: A. Be able to perform the Ortolani and Barlow tests B. Teach double or triple diapering for added support C. Explain to the parents the need for serial casting D. Carefully monitor infants for DDH at follow-up visits
D A. Incorrect: The Ortolani and Barlow tests must be performed by experienced clinicians to prevent fracture or other damage to the hip. B. Incorrect: Double or triple diapering is not recommended, because it promotes hip extension, thus worsening the problem. C. Incorrect: Serial casting is done for clubfeet, not DDH. D. Correct: Because DDH often is not detected at birth, infants should be carefully monitored at follow-up visits. p. 1044
A pregnant woman at 37 weeks of gestation has had ruptured membranes for 26 hours. A cesarean section is performed for failure to progress. The fetal heart rate before birth is 180 beats/min with limited variability. At birth, the newborn has Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at 1 and 5 minutes and is noted to be pale and tachypneic. Based on the maternal history, the cause of this newborn's distress is most likely to be: A. Hypoglycemia B. Phrenic nerve injury C. Respiratory distress syndrome D. Sepsis
D A. Incorrect: The prolonged rupture of membranes is the most indicative clinical cue to this infant's condition. An FHR of 180 beats/min is also indicative. This infant is at high risk for sepsis. B. Incorrect: The prolonged rupture of membranes is the most indicative clinical cue to this infant's condition. An FHR of 180 beats/min is also indicative. This infant is at high risk for sepsis. C. Incorrect: The prolonged rupture of membranes is the most indicative clinical cue to this infant's condition. An FHR of 180 beats/min is also indicative. This infant is at high risk for sepsis. D. Correct: The prolonged rupture of membranes and the tachypnea (before and after birth) both suggest sepsis. p. 1001
In order to provide comprehensive newborn care, the nurse should understand that kernicterus occurs if: A. The kidney excretes bilirubin. B. Bilirubin collects in the liver. C. Bilirubin deposits are concentrated in the cardiac muscle. D. Bilirubin deposits are in the brain.
D A. Incorrect: The term kernicterus is synonymous with bilirubin encephalopathy. It is caused by the deposition of bilirubin in the brain. B. Incorrect: The term kernicterus is synonymous with bilirubin encephalopathy. It is caused by the deposition of bilirubin in the brain. C. Incorrect: The term kernicterus is synonymous with bilirubin encephalopathy. It is caused by the deposition of bilirubin in the brain. D. Correct: Kernicterus describes the chronic and permanent results of bilirubin toxicity. p. 1025
With smaller families and increased genetic screening, many couples have come to expect a perfect baby. Mothers tend to have the greatest and most difficult adjustment to a child with unexpected disabilities. A metaanalysis of families in the United States and Canada has revealed that there are four developmental milestones that the mothers of "differently abled" children need to achieve. At a follow-up office visit, the nurse knows that she needs to listen carefully to the mother's cues in order to determine how well she is coping. Which phase has this mother reached when she states, "Don't you agree that my daughter has made a lot of progress since her last visit?" A. Becoming the mother of a disabled child B. Learning a new maternal role C. Realizing that daily life will never be the same D. Acceptance/denial
D A. Incorrect: This phase includes solving the puzzle of what is wrong, diminished interest in the mothering role, grief for loss of an ideal, learning to trust the health care system, and looking for blame. B. Incorrect: In the second phase the mother has to come to grips with the role of caregiver burden, finding support, protecting the child against prejudice, and the intensity of mothering a disabled child. C. Incorrect: This third phase includes adaptation of routine, control, change, mastering uncertainty, grief for lost choices, and identifying realistic goals. D. Correct: This is the fourth phase and is evidenced by the mother redefining normal, looking for progress, hope, strength, and life enrichment. The paradox is accepting the child for who she is, while never giving up hope. p. 1032
HIV may be perinatally transmitted: A. Only in the third trimester from the maternal circulation B. By a needlestick injury at birth from unsterile instruments C. Only through the ingestion of amniotic fluid D. Through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother
D A. Incorrect: Transmission of HIV from the mother to the infant may occur transplacentally at various gestational ages. Transmission close to or at the time of birth is thought to account for 50% to 80% of cases. B. Incorrect: Transmission of HIV may occur through the placenta from the mother to the fetus or through breast milk postnatally. C. Incorrect: Transmission of HIV may occur through the placenta from the mother to the fetus or through breast milk postnatally. D. Correct: Postnatal transmission of HIV through breastfeeding may occur. p. 1006
____________________, a synthetic opiate, has been the therapy of choice for heroin addiction. It crosses the placenta, leading to significant neonatal abstinence syndrome after birth.
Methadone p. 1015
All infants born to mothers with diabetes are at some risk for complications. True or false?
True The degree of risk is influenced by the severity and duration of maternal disease. p. 996
Which test is performed around the time of ovulation to diagnose the basis of infertility? a.Hysterosalpingogram b.Ultrasonography c.Laparoscopy d.Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level
Ultrasonography is performed around the time of ovulation to assess pelvic structures for abnormalities, to verify follicular development, and to assess the thickness of the endometrium. A hysterosalpingogram is scheduled 2 to 5 days after menstruation to avoid flushing a potentially fertilized ovum out through a uterine tube into the peritoneal cavity. Laparoscopy is usually scheduled early in the menstrual cycle. Hormone analysis is performed to assess endocrine function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis when menstrual cycles are absent or irregular.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which congenital anomalies can occur as a result of the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) in pregnancy? (Select all that apply.) a. Cleft lip b. Congenital heart disease c. Neural tube defects d. Gastroschisis e. Diaphragmatic hernia
a. Cleft lip b. Congenital heart disease c. Neural tube defects
3. In caring for a pregnant woman with sickle cell anemia, the nurse must be aware of the signs and symptoms of a sickle cell crisis. What do these include? (Select all that apply.) a. Fever b. Endometritis c. Abdominal pain d. Joint pain e. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
a. Fever c. Abdominal pain d. Joint pain
2. A lupus flare-up during pregnancy or early postpartum occurs in 15% to 60% of women with this disorder. Which conditions associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are maternal risks? (Select all that apply.) a. Miscarriage b. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) c. Nephritis d. Preeclampsia e. Cesarean birth
a. Miscarriage c. Nephritis d. Preeclampsia e. Cesarean birth
2. Which condition would require prophylaxis to prevent subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) both antepartum and intrapartum? a. Valvular heart disease b. Congestive heart disease c. Arrhythmias d. Postmyocardial infarction
a. Valvular heart disease
A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents? a."Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide." b."The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation." c."Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea." d."Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection."
a."Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide."
A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates. A nonstress test (NST) in the obstetrician's office revealed a nonreactive tracing. On artificial rupture of membranes, thick meconium-stained fluid was noted. What should the nurse caring for the infant after birth anticipate? a.Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin b.Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and RDS c.Golden yellow to green-stained skin and nails, absence of scalp hair, and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat d.Hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, and an alert, wide-eyed appearance
a.Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin
12. The client makes an appointment for preconception counseling. The woman has a known heart condition and is unsure if she should become pregnant. Which is the only cardiac condition that would cause concern? a. Marfan syndrome b. Eisenmenger syndrome c. Heart transplant d. Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
b. Eisenmenger syndrome
4. Autoimmune disorders often occur during pregnancy because a large percentage of women with an autoimmune disorder are of childbearing age. Which disorders fall into the category of collagen vascular disease? (Select all that apply.) a. Multiple sclerosis b. SLE c. Antiphospholipid syndrome d. Rheumatoid arthritis e. Myasthenia gravis
b. SLE c. Antiphospholipid syndrome d. Rheumatoid arthritis e. Myasthenia gravis
3. Which information should the nurse take into consideration when planning care for a postpartum client with cardiac disease? a. The plan of care for a postpartum client is the same as the plan for any pregnant woman. b. The plan of care includes rest, stool softeners, and monitoring of the effect of activity. c. The plan of care includes frequent ambulating, alternating with active range-of-motion exercises. d. The plan of care includes limiting visits with the infant to once per day.
b. The plan of care includes rest, stool softeners, and monitoring of the effect of activity.
18. It is extremely rare for a woman to die in childbirth; however, it can happen. In the United States, the annual occurrence of maternal death is 12 per 100,000 cases of live birth. What are the leading causes of maternal death? a. Embolism and preeclampsia b. Trauma and motor vehicle accidents (MVAs) c. Hemorrhage and infection d. Underlying chronic conditions
b. Trauma and motor vehicle accidents (MVAs)
15. Bell palsy is an acute idiopathic facial paralysis, the cause for which remains unknown. Which statement regarding this condition is correct? a. Bell palsy is the sudden development of bilateral facial weakness. b. Women with Bell palsy have an increased risk for hypertension. c. Pregnant women are affected twice as often as nonpregnant women. d. Bell palsy occurs most frequently in the first trimester.
b. Women with Bell palsy have an increased risk for hypertension.
9. Which information regarding the care of antepartum women with cardiac conditions is mostimportant for the nurse to understand? a. Stress on the heart is greatest in the first trimester and the last 2 weeks before labor. b. Women with class II cardiac disease should avoid heavy exertion and any activity that causes even minor symptoms. c. Women with class III cardiac disease should get 8 to 10 hours of sleep every day and limit housework, shopping, and exercise. d. Women with class I cardiac disease need bed rest through most of the pregnancy and face the possibility of hospitalization near term.
b. Women with class II cardiac disease should avoid heavy exertion and any activity that causes even minor symptoms.
A premature infant never seems to sleep longer than an hour at a time. Each time a light is turned on, an incubator closes, or people talk near her crib, she wakes up and inconsolably cries until held. What is the correct nursing diagnosis beginning with "ineffective coping, related to"? a.Severe immaturity b.Environmental stress c.Physiologic distress d.Behavioral responses
b.Environmental stress
A newborn was admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) after being delivered at 29 weeks of gestation to a 28-year-old multiparous, married, Caucasian woman whose pregnancy was uncomplicated until the premature rupture of membranes and preterm birth. The newborn's parents arrive for their first visit after the birth. The parents walk toward the bedside but remain approximately 5 feet away from the bed. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? a.Wait quietly at the newborn's bedside until the parents come closer. b.Go to the parents, introduce him or herself, and gently encourage them to meet their infant. Explain the equipment first, and then focus on the newborn. c.Leave the parents at the bedside while they are visiting so that they have some privacy. d.Tell the parents only about the newborn's physical condition and caution them to avoid touching their baby.
b.Go to the parents, introduce him or herself, and gently encourage them to meet their infant. Explain the equipment first, and then focus on the newborn.
11. Which neurologic condition would require preconception counseling, if at all possible? a. Eclampsia b. Bell palsy c. Epilepsy d. Multiple sclerosis
c. Epilepsy
5. A woman with asthma is experiencing a postpartum hemorrhage. Which drug should be avoided when treating postpartum bleeding to avoid exacerbating asthma? a. Oxytocin (Pitocin) b. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) c. Hemabate d. Fentanyl
c. Hemabate
6. Which important component of nutritional counseling should the nurse include in health teaching for a pregnant woman who is experiencing cholecystitis? a. Assess the woman's dietary history for adequate calories and proteins. b. Teach the woman that the bulk of calories should come from proteins. c. Instruct the woman to eat a low-fat diet and to avoid fried foods. d. Instruct the woman to eat a low-cholesterol, low-salt diet.
c. Instruct the woman to eat a low-fat diet and to avoid fried foods.
10. A woman at 28 weeks of gestation experiences blunt abdominal trauma as the result of a fall. The nurse must closely observe the client for what? a. Alteration in maternal vital signs, especially blood pressure b. Complaints of abdominal pain c. Placental absorption d. Hemorrhage
c. Placental absorption
4. A woman has experienced iron deficiency anemia during her pregnancy. She had been taking iron for 3 months before the birth. The client gave birth by cesarean 2 days earlier and has been having problems with constipation. After assisting her back to bed from the bathroom, the nurse notes that the woman's stools are dark (greenish-black). What should the nurse's initial action be? a. Perform a guaiac test, and record the results. b. Recognize the finding as abnormal, and report it to the primary health care provider. c. Recognize the finding as a normal result of iron therapy. d. Check the woman's next stool to validate the observation.
c. Recognize the finding as a normal result of iron therapy.
16. A pregnant woman at term is transported to the emergency department (ED) after a severe vehicular accident. The obstetric nurse responds and rushes to the ED with a fetal monitor. Cardiopulmonary arrest occurs as the obstetric nurse arrives. What is the highest priority for the trauma team? a. Obtaining IV access, and starting aggressive fluid resuscitation b. Quickly applying the fetal monitor to determine whether the fetus viability c. Starting cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) d. Transferring the woman to the surgical unit for an emergency cesarean delivery in case the fetus is still alive
c. Starting cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
An infant is being discharged from the NICU after 70 days of hospitalization. The infant was born at 30 weeks of gestation with several conditions associated with prematurity, including RDS, mild bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD), and retinopathy of prematurity (ROP), requiring surgical treatment. During discharge teaching, the infant's mother asks the nurse if her baby will meet developmental milestones on time, as did her son who was born at term. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? a."Your baby will develop exactly like your first child." b."Your baby does not appear to have any problems at this time." c."Your baby will need to be corrected for prematurity." d."Your baby will need to be followed very closely."
c."Your baby will need to be corrected for prematurity."
An infant is to receive gastrostomy feedings. Which intervention should the nurse institute to prevent bloating, gastrointestinal reflux into the esophagus, vomiting, and respiratory compromise? a.Rapid bolusing of the entire amount in 15 minutes b.Warm cloths to the abdomen for the first 10 minutes c.Slow, small, warm bolus feedings over 30 minutes d.Cold, medium bolus feedings over 20 minutes
c.Slow, small, warm bolus feedings over 30 minutes
8. Since the gene for cystic fibrosis was identified in 1989, data can be collected for the purposes of genetic counseling for couples regarding carrier status. According to the most recent statistics, how often does cystic fibrosis occur in Caucasian live births? a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 1000 c. 1 in 2000 d. 1 in 3200
d. 1 in 3200
1. When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems, the nurse must be alert for the signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation. Which critical findings would the nurse find on assessment of the client experiencing this condition? a. Regular heart rate and hypertension b. Increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough c. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension d. Dyspnea, crackles, and an irregular, weak pulse
d. Dyspnea, crackles, and an irregular, weak pulse
7. Postoperative care of the pregnant woman who requires abdominal surgery for appendicitis includes which additional assessment? a. Intake and output (I&O) and intravenous (IV) site b. Signs and symptoms of infection c. Vital signs and incision d. Fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine activity
d. Fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine activity
13. What form of heart disease in women of childbearing years generally has a benign effect on pregnancy? a. Cardiomyopathy b. Rheumatic heart disease c. Congenital heart disease d. Mitral valve prolapse
d. Mitral valve prolapse
17. Another common pregnancy-specific condition is pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP). A client asks the nurse why she has developed this condition and what can be done. What is the nurse's bestresponse? a. PUPPP is associated with decreased maternal weight gain. b. The rate of hypertension decreases with PUPPP. c. This common pregnancy-specific condition is associated with a poor fetal outcome. d. The goal of therapy is to relieve discomfort.
d. The goal of therapy is to relieve discomfort.
14. A pregnant woman at 33 weeks of gestation is brought to the birthing unit after a minor automobile accident. The client is experiencing no pain and no vaginal bleeding, her vital signs are stable, and the FHR is 132 beats per minute with variability. What is the nurse's highestpriority? a. Monitoring the woman for a ruptured spleen b. Obtaining a physician's order to discharge her home c. Monitoring her for 24 hours d. Using continuous EFM for a minimum of 4 hours
d. Using continuous EFM for a minimum of 4 hours
On day 3 of life, a newborn continues to require 100% oxygen by nasal cannula. The parents ask if they may hold their infant during his next gavage feeding. Considering that this newborn is physiologically stable, what response should the nurse provide? a."Parents are not allowed to hold their infants who are dependent on oxygen." b."You may only hold your baby's hand during the feeding." c."Feedings cause more physiologic stress; therefore, the baby must be closely monitored. I don't think you should hold the baby." d."You may hold your baby during the feeding."
d."You may hold your baby during the feeding."
Which clinical findings would alert the nurse that the neonate is expressing pain? a.Low-pitched crying; tachycardia; eyelids open wide b.Cry face; flaccid limbs; closed mouth c.High-pitched, shrill cry; withdrawal; change in heart rate d.Cry face; eyes squeezed; increase in blood pressure
d.Cry face; eyes squeezed; increase in blood pressure