Chapter 34 Test 4

Which waveform indicates proper function of the sinoatrial (SA) node? The QRS complex is present. The PR interval is 0.24 second. A P wave precedes every QRS complex. The ST segment is elevated.

A P wave is generated by the SA node and represents atrial depolarization and needs to be followed by a QRS complex. When the electrical impulse is consistently generated from the SA node, the P waves have a consistent shape in a given lead.The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The PR interval represents time required for atrial depolarization and for the impulse delay in the atrioventricular node and travel time to the Purkinje fibers. Normal PR level is up to 0.20 seconds. Elevation of the ST segment indicates myocardial injury.

What teaching does the nurse include for a patient with atrial fibrillation who has a new prescription for warfarin? "It is important to consume a diet high in green leafy vegetables." "You would take aspirin or ibuprofen for headache." "Report nosebleeds to your provider immediately." "Avoid caffeinated beverages."

A nosebleed could be indicative of excessive dosing of warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant and causes decreased ability for blood to clot.Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which may antagonize the effects of warfarin; these vegetables would be eaten in moderate amounts. Aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents may prolong the prothrombin time and the international normalized ratio, causing predisposition to bleeding. These agents would be avoided. It is not necessary to avoid caffeine because this does not affect clotting; however, green tea may interfere with the effects of warfarin.

A nurse assesses a client with tachycardia. Which clinical manifestation requires immediate intervention by the nurse? a. Mid-sternal chest pain b. Increased urine output c. Mild orthostatic hypotension d. P wave touching the T wave

ANS: A Chest pain, possibly angina, indicates that tachycardia may be increasing the clients myocardial workload and oxygen demand to such an extent that normal oxygen delivery cannot keep pace. This results in myocardial hypoxia and pain. Increased urinary output and mild orthostatic hypotension are not life-threatening conditions and therefore do not require immediate intervention. The P wave touching the T wave indicates significant tachycardia and should be assessed to determine the underlying rhythm and cause; this is an important assessment but is not as critical as chest pain, which indicates cardiac cell death.

A nurse teaches a client who experiences occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs) accompanied by palpitations that resolve spontaneously without treatment. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Minimize or abstain from caffeine. b. Lie on your side until the attack subsides. c. Use your oxygen when you experience PACs. d. Take amiodarone (Cordarone) daily to prevent PACs.

ANS: A PACs usually have no hemodynamic consequences. For a client experiencing infrequent PACs, the nurse should explore possible lifestyle causes, such as excessive caffeine intake and stress. Lying on the side will not prevent or resolve PACs. Oxygen is not necessary. Although medications may be needed to control symptomatic dysrhythmias, for infrequent PACs, the client first should try lifestyle changes to control them.

A nurse prepares to discharge a client with cardiac dysrhythmia who is prescribed home health care services. Which priority information should be communicated to the home health nurse upon discharge? a. Medication reconciliation b. Immunization history c. Religious beliefs d. Nutrition preferences

ANS: A The home health nurse needs to know current medications the client is taking to ensure assessment, evaluation, and further education related to these medications. The other information will not assist the nurse to develop a plan of care for the client.

A nurse supervises an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) applying electrocardiographic monitoring. Which statement should the nurse provide to the UAP related to this procedure? a. Clean the skin and clip hairs if needed. b. Add gel to the electrodes prior to applying them. c. Place the electrodes on the posterior chest. d. Turn off oxygen prior to monitoring the client.

ANS: A To ensure the best signal transmission, the skin should be clean and hairs clipped. Electrodes should be placed on the anterior chest, and no additional gel is needed. Oxygen has no impact on electrocardiographic monitoring.

A nurse cares for a client who is on a cardiac monitor. The monitor displayed the rhythm shown below: Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess airway, breathing, and level of consciousness. b. Administer an amiodarone bolus followed by a drip. c. Cardiovert the client with a biphasic defibrillator. d. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

ANS: A Ventricular tachycardia occurs with repetitive firing of an irritable ventricular ectopic focus, usually at a rate of 140 to 180 beats/min or more. Ventricular tachycardia is a lethal dysrhythmia. The nurse should first assess if the client is alert and breathing. Then the nurse should call a Code Blue and begin CPR. If this client is pulseless, the treatment of choice is defibrillation. Amiodarone is the antidysrhythmic of choice, but it is not the first action.

A nurse is teaching a client with premature ectopic beats. Which education should the nurse include in this clients teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Smoking cessation b. Stress reduction and management c. Avoiding vagal stimulation d. Adverse effects of medications e. Foods high in potassium

ANS: A, B, D A client who has premature beats or ectopic rhythms should be taught to stop smoking, manage stress, take medications as prescribed, and report adverse effects of medications. Clients with premature beats are not at risk for vasovagal attacks or potassium imbalances.

A nurse teaches a client with a new permanent pacemaker. Which instructions should the nurse include in this clients teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Until your incision is healed, do not submerge your pacemaker. Only take showers. b. Report any pulse rates lower than your pacemaker settings. c. If you feel weak, apply pressure over your generator. d. Have your pacemaker turned off before having magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). e. Do not lift your left arm above the level of your shoulder for 8 weeks.

ANS: A, B, E The client should not submerge in water until the site has healed; after the incision is healed, the client may take showers or baths without concern for the pacemaker. The client should be instructed to report changes in heart rate or rhythm, such as rates lower than the pacemaker setting or greater than 100 beats/min. The client should be advised of restrictions on physical activity for 8 weeks to allow the pacemaker to settle in place. The client should never apply pressure over the generator and should avoid tight clothing. The client should never have MRI because, whether turned on or off, the pacemaker contains metal. The client should be advised to inform all health care providers that he or she has a pacemaker.

A nurse cares for a client with congestive heart failure who has a regular cardiac rhythm of 128 beats/min. For which physiologic alterations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Decrease in cardiac output b. Increase in cardiac output c. Decrease in blood pressure d. Increase in blood pressure e. Decrease in urine output f. Increase in urine output

ANS: A, D, E Elevated heart rates in a healthy client initially cause blood pressure and cardiac output to increase. However, in a client who has congestive heart failure or a client with long-term tachycardia, ventricular filling time, cardiac output, and blood pressure eventually decrease. As cardiac output and blood pressure decrease, urine output will fall.

A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for atrial fibrillation? a. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery c. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy d. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

ANS: B Atrial fibrillation occurs commonly in clients with cardiac disease and is a common occurrence after coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The other conditions do not place these clients at higher risk for atrial fibrillation.

A nurse evaluates prescriptions for a client with chronic atrial fibrillation. Which medication should the nurse expect to find on this clients medication administration record to prevent a common complication of this condition? a. Sotalol (Betapace) b. Warfarin (Coumadin) c. Atropine (Sal-Tropine) d. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)

ANS: B Atrial fibrillation puts clients at risk for developing emboli. Clients at risk for emboli are treated with anticoagulants, such as heparin, enoxaparin, or warfarin. Sotalol, atropine, and lidocaine are not appropriate for this complication.

A nurse cares for a client who has a heart rate averaging 56 beats/min with no adverse symptoms. Which activity modification should the nurse suggest to avoid further slowing of the heart rate? a. Make certain that your bath water is warm. b. Avoid straining while having a bowel movement. c. Limit your intake of caffeinated drinks to one a day. d. Avoid strenuous exercise such as running.

ANS: B Bearing down strenuously during a bowel movement is one type of Valsalva maneuver, which stimulates the vagus nerve and results in slowing of the heart rate. Such a response is not desirable in a person who has bradycardia. The other instructions are not appropriate for this condition.

A nurse assesses a client with atrial fibrillation. Which manifestation should alert the nurse to the possibility of a serious complication from this condition? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Speech alterations c. Fatigue d. Dyspnea with activity

ANS: B Clients with atrial fibrillation are at risk for embolic stroke. Evidence of embolic events includes changes in mentation, speech, sensory function, and motor function. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have a rapid ventricular response as a result. Fatigue is a nonspecific complaint. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have dyspnea as a result of the decreased cardiac output caused by the rhythm disturbance.

A nurse assists with the cardioversion of a client experiencing acute atrial fibrillation. Which action should the nurse take prior to the initiation of cardioversion? a. Administer intravenous adenosine. b. Turn off oxygen therapy. c. Ensure a tongue blade is available. d. Position the client on the left side.

ANS: B For safety during cardioversion, the nurse should turn off any oxygen therapy to prevent fire. The other interventions are not appropriate for a cardioversion. The client should be placed in a supine position.

After assessing a client who is receiving an amiodarone intravenous infusion for unstable ventricular tachycardia, the nurse documents the findings and compares these with the previous assessment findings: Vital Signs Nursing Assessment Time: 0800 Temperature: 98 F Heart rate: 68 beats/min Blood pressure: 135/60 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 14 breaths/min Oxygen saturation: 96% Oxygen therapy: 2 L nasal cannula Time: 1000 Temperature: 98.2 F Heart rate: 50 beats/min Blood pressure: 132/57 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 16 breaths/min Oxygen saturation: 95% Oxygen therapy: 2 L nasal cannula Time: 0800 Client alert and oriented. Cardiac rhythm: normal sinus rhythm. Skin: warm, dry, and appropriate for race. Respirations equal and unlabored. Client denies shortness of breath and chest pain. Time: 1000 Client alert and oriented. Cardiac rhythm: sinus bradycardia. Skin: warm, dry, and appropriate for race. Respirations equal and unlabored. Client denies shortness of breath and chest pain. Client voids 420 mL of clear yellow urine. Based on the assessments, which action should the nurse take? a. Stop the infusion and flush the IV. b. Slow the amiodarone infusion rate. c. Administer IV normal saline. d. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.

ANS: B IV administration of amiodarone may cause bradycardia and atrioventricular (AV) block. The correct action for the nurse to take at this time is to slow the infusion, because the client is asymptomatic and no evidence reveals AV block that might require pacing. Abruptly ceasing the medication could allow fatal dysrhythmias to occur. The administration of IV fluids and encouragement of coughing and deep breathing exercises are not indicated, and will not increase the clients heart rate.

A nurse cares for a client with an intravenous temporary pacemaker for bradycardia. The nurse observes the presence of a pacing spike but no QRS complex on the clients electrocardiogram. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Administer intravenous diltiazem (Cardizem). b. Assess vital signs and level of consciousness. c. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. d. Assess capillary refill and temperature.

ANS: B In temporary pacing, the wires are threaded onto the epicardial surface of the heart and exit through the chest wall. The pacemaker spike should be followed immediately by a QRS complex. Pacing spikes seen without subsequent QRS complexes imply loss of capture. If there is no capture, then there is no ventricular depolarization and contraction. The nurse should assess for cardiac output via vital signs and level of consciousness. The other interventions would not determine if the client is tolerating the loss of capture.

After teaching a client who has an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD), a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. I should wear a snug-fitting shirt over the ICD. b. I will avoid sources of strong electromagnetic fields. c. I should participate in a strenuous exercise program. d. Now I can discontinue my antidysrhythmic medication.

ANS: B The client being discharged with an ICD is instructed to avoid strong sources of electromagnetic fields. Clients should avoid tight clothing, which could cause irritation over the ICD generator. The client should be encouraged to exercise but should not engage in strenuous activities that cause the heart rate to meet or exceed the ICD cutoff point because the ICD can discharge inappropriately. The client should continue all prescribed medications.

The nurse is caring for a client on the medical-surgical unit who suddenly becomes unresponsive and has no pulse. The cardiac monitor shows the rhythm below: After calling for assistance and a defibrillator, which action should the nurse take next? a. Perform a pericardial thump. b. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). c. Start an 18-gauge intravenous line. d. Ask the clients family about code status.

ANS: B The clients rhythm is ventricular fibrillation. This is a lethal rhythm that is best treated with immediate defibrillation. While the nurse is waiting for the defibrillator to arrive, the nurse should start CPR. A pericardial thump is not a treatment for ventricular fibrillation. If the client does not already have an IV, other members of the team can insert one after defibrillation. The clients code status should already be known by the nurse prior to this event.

A telemetry nurse assesses a client with third-degree heart block who has wide QRS complexes and a heart rate of 35 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which assessment should the nurse complete next? a. Pulmonary auscultation b. Pulse strength and amplitude c. Level of consciousness d. Mobility and gait stability

ANS: C A heart rate of 40 beats/min or less with widened QRS complexes could have hemodynamic consequences. The client is at risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion. The nurse should assess for level of consciousness, light- headedness, confusion, syncope, and seizure activity. Although the other assessments should be completed, the clients level of consciousness is the priority.

A nurse administers prescribed adenosine (Adenocard) to a client. Which response should the nurse assess for as the expected therapeutic response? a. Decreased intraocular pressure b. Increased heart rate c. Short period of asystole d. Hypertensive crisis

ANS: C Clients usually respond to adenosine with a short period of asystole, bradycardia, hypotension, dyspnea, and chest pain. Adenosine has no conclusive impact on intraocular pressure.

A nurse cares for a client with atrial fibrillation who reports fatigue when completing activities of daily living. What interventions should the nurse implement to address this clients concerns? a. Administer oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula. b. Provide the client with a sleeping pill to stimulate rest. c. Schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day. d. Ask unlicensed assistive personnel to help bathe the client.

ANS: C Clients who have atrial fibrillation are at risk for decreased cardiac output and fatigue when completing activities of daily living. The nurse should schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day to decrease fatigue. The other interventions will not assist the client with self-care activities.

The nurse asks a client who has experienced ventricular dysrhythmias about substance abuse. The client asks, Why do you want to know if I use cocaine? How should the nurse respond? a. Substance abuse puts clients at risk for many health issues. b. The hospital requires that I ask you about cocaine use. c. Clients who use cocaine are at risk for fatal dysrhythmias. d. We can provide services for cessation of substance abuse.

ANS: C Clients who use cocaine or illicit inhalants are particularly at risk for potentially fatal dysrhythmias. The other responses do not adequately address the clients question.

A nurse performs an admission assessment on a 75-year-old client with multiple chronic diseases. The clients blood pressure is 135/75 mm Hg and oxygen saturation is 94% on 2 liters per nasal cannula. The nurse assesses the clients rhythm on the cardiac monitor and observes the reading shown below: Which action should the nurse take first? a. Begin external temporary pacing. b. Assess peripheral pulse strength. c. Ask the client what medications he or she takes. d. Administer 1 mg of atropine.

ANS: C This client is stable and therefore does not require any intervention except to determine the cause of the bradycardia. Bradycardia is often caused by medications. Clients who have multiple chronic diseases are often on multiple medications that can interact with each other. The nurse should assess the clients current medications first.

A nurse assesses a clients electrocardiograph tracing and observes that not all QRS complexes are preceded by a P wave. How should the nurse interpret this observation? a. The client has hyperkalemia causing irregular QRS complexes. b. Ventricular tachycardia is overriding the normal atrial rhythm. c. The clients chest leads are not making sufficient contact with the skin. d. Ventricular and atrial depolarizations are initiated from different sites.

ANS: D Normal rhythm shows one P wave preceding each QRS complex, indicating that all depolarization is initiated at the sinoatrial node. QRS complexes without a P wave indicate a different source of initiation of depolarization. This finding on an electrocardiograph tracing is not an indication of hyperkalemia, ventricular

A nurse assesses a clients electrocardiogram (ECG) and observes the reading shown below: How should the nurse document this clients ECG strip? a. Ventricular tachycardia b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions (PACs) d. Sinus rhythm with premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)

ANS: D Sinus rhythm with PVCs has an underlying regular sinus rhythm with ventricular depolarization that sometimes precede atrial depolarization. Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation rhythms would not have sinus beats present. Premature atrial contractions are atrial contractions initiated from another region of the atria before the sinus node initiates atrial depolarization.

A nurse prepares to defibrillate a client who is in ventricular fibrillation. Which priority intervention should the nurse perform prior to defibrillating this client? a. Make sure the defibrillator is set to the synchronous mode. b. Administer 1 mg of intravenous epinephrine. c. Test the equipment by delivering a smaller shock at 100 joules. d. Ensure that everyone is clear of contact with the client and the bed.

ANS: D To avoid injury, the rescuer commands that all personnel clear contact with the client or the bed and ensures their compliance before delivery of the shock. A precordial thump can be delivered when no defibrillator is available. Defibrillation is done in asynchronous mode. Equipment should not be tested before a client is defibrillated because this is an emergency procedure; equipment should be checked on a routine basis. Epinephrine should be administered after defibrillation.

The nurse is teaching a patient with a new permanent pacemaker. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further discharge education? "I will be able to shower again soon." "I need to take my pulse every day." "I might trigger airport security metal detectors." "I no longer need my heart pills."

All prescribed medications, including heart medications, are still needed after the pacemaker is implanted.Once the wound from the surgery heals, the patient will be able to shower. The patient's pulse will have to be taken and recorded for 1 full minute at the same time each day. The metal in the pacemaker will trigger the alarm in metal detector devices. A card can be shown to authorities to indicate that the patient has a pacemaker.

The nurse administers amiodarone (Cordarone) to a patient with ventricular tachycardia. Which monitoring by the nurse is necessary with this drug? Select all that apply. Respiratory rate QT interval Heart rate Heart rhythm Urine output

Amiodarone causes prolongation of the QT interval, which can precipitate dysrhythmia. Antidysrhythmic medications cause changes in cardiac rhythm and rate; therefore, monitoring of heart rate and rhythm is needed.Although it is always important to monitor respiratory rate and urine output, these assessments are not specific to amiodarone.

How does the nurse recognize that atropine has produced a positive outcome for the patient with bradycardia? The patient states he is dizzy and weak. The nurse notes dyspnea. The patient has a heart rate of 42 beats/min. The monitor shows an increase in heart rate.

An expected outcome after the administration of atropine is an increased heart rate. By definition, the bradydysrhythmia has resolved when the heart rate is greater than 60 beats/min.Dizziness and weakness indicate symptoms of decreased cerebral perfusion and intolerance to the bradydysrhythmia. Dyspnea indicates intolerance to the bradydysrhythmia. A heart rate of 42 beats/min after atropine has been given indicates that bradycardia is unresolved.

A patient admitted after using crack cocaine develops ventricular fibrillation. After determining unresponsiveness, which action does the nurse take next? Prepare for defibrillation. Establish IV access. Place an oral airway and ventilate. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

Defibrillating is the priority next action before any other resuscitative measures, according to advanced cardiac life support protocols.After immediate defibrillation, establish IV access, place an oral airway, and ventilate. CPR will be started after unsuccessful defibrillation.

The nurse is caring for a patient with advanced heart failure who develops asystole. The nurse corrects the graduate nurse when the graduate offers to perform which intervention? Defibrillation Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) Administration of epinephrine Administration of oxygen

Defibrillation Defibrillation interrupts the heart rhythm and allows normal pacemaker cells to take over. In asystole, there is no rhythm to interrupt. Therefore, this intervention is not used.If drug therapy fails to restore effective rhythm, CPR is initiated. Epinephrine is used to increase heart rate in asystole. Hypoxia may be a cause of cardiac arrest, so the administration of oxygen would be appropriate.

The nurse receives a report that a patient with a pacemaker has experienced loss of capture. Which situation is consistent with this? The pacemaker spike falls on the T wave. Pacemaker spikes are noted, but no P wave or QRS complex follows. The heart rate is 42 beats/min, and no pacemaker spikes are seen on the rhythm strip. The patient demonstrates hiccups.

Loss of capture occurs when the pacing stimulus (spike) is not followed by the appropriate response, either P wave or QRS complex, depending on placement of the pacing electrode.Pacemaker spikes falling on the T wave indicate improper sensing. A heart rate of 42 beats/min with no pacemaker spikes seen on the rhythm strip indicates failure to pace or sense properly. Demand pacing would cause the pacemaker to intervene with electrical output when the heart rate falls below the set rate. Although the set rate is not given, this heart rate indicates profound bradycardia. Hiccups may indicate stimulation of the chest wall or diaphragm from wire perforation.

Which risk factors are known to contribute to atrial fibrillation? Select all that apply. Use of beta-adrenergic blockers Excessive alcohol use Advancing age High blood pressure Palpitations

Risk factors contributing to atrial fibrillation include excessive alcohol use, advancing age, and hypertension. Other risk factors involve previous ischemic stroke, transient ischemic attack or other thromboembolic event, coronary heart disease, diabetes mellitus, heart failure, mitral valve disease, obesity, and chronic kidney disease. The incidence of atrial fibrillation also occurs more often in those of European ancestry and African Americans.Beta-adrenergic blocking agents, which reduce heart rate, are used to treat atrial fibrillation. Palpitations are a symptom of atrial fibrillation, rather than a risk or a cause.

Which intervention provides safety during cardioversion? Setting the defibrillator at 220 joules Obtaining informed consent Setting the defibrillator to the synchronized mode Removing oxygen

Setting the defibrillator to the synchronized mode Safety during cardioversion depends upon setting the defibrillator to the synchronized mode to avoid discharging the shock during the vulnerable period on the T wave. Unsynchronized cardioversion may cause ventricular fibrillation.Cardioversion is usually performed starting at a lower rate of 120-200 joules for biphasic machines. Although it is imperative to obtain informed consent, this does not improve the safety of the procedure. Oxygen would be turned off because it presents a safety issue; fire could result.

The nurse is caring for a patient with heart rate of 143 beats/min. For which manifestations does the nurse observe? Select all that apply. Palpitations Increased energy Chest discomfort Flushing of the skin Hypotension

Tachycardia is a heart rate greater than 100 beats/min; the patient with a tachydysrhythmia may have palpitations, chest discomfort (pressure or pain from myocardial ischemia or infarction), restlessness and anxiety, pale cool skin, and syncope ("blackout") from hypotension. Chest discomfort and palpitations may occur because decreased time for diastole results in lower perfusion through the coronary arteries to the myocardium. Hypotension results from decreased time for ventricular filling, secondary to shortened diastole, and therefore reduced cardiac output and blood pressure. Reduced cardiac output and possible development of heart failure will cause fatigue.In this situation, the patient will have pale, cool skin and not flushing of the skin. Also, reduced cardiac output and possible development of heart failure will cause fatigue and not increased energy.

Which patient is appropriate for the cardiac care unit charge nurse to assign to the float RN from the medical-surgical unit? The 64-year-old patient admitted for weakness who has a sinus bradycardia with a heart rate of 58 beats/min The 71-year-old patient admitted for heart failure who is short of breath and has a heart rate of 120 to 130 beats/min The 88-year-old patient admitted with an elevated troponin level who is hypotensive with a heart rate of 96 beats/min The 92-year-old patient admitted with chest pain who has premature ventricular complexes and a heart rate of 102 beats/min

The 64-year-old patient admitted for weakness who has a sinus bradycardia with a heart rate of 58 beats/min The 64-year-old has a stable, asymptomatic bradycardia, which usually requires monitoring but no treatment unless the patient develops symptoms and/or the slow heart rate causes a decrease in cardiac output. This patient can be managed by a nurse with less cardiac dysrhythmia training.The 71-year-old is unstable and requires immediate intervention for dyspnea and tachycardia. The 88-year-old is displaying symptoms of myocardial injury (elevated troponin) and unstable blood pressure and needs immediate attention and medications. The 92-year-old is experiencing a dysrhythmia that could deteriorate into ventricular tachycardia and requires immediate intervention by a telemetry nurse.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) and atrial fibrillation who has a new prescription for metoprolol (Toprol). Which monitoring is essential when administering the medication? ST segment Heart rate Troponin Myoglobin

The monitoring of the patient's heart rate is essential. The effects of metoprolol are to decrease heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen demand.ST segment elevation is consistent with MI; it does not address monitoring of metoprolol. Elevation in troponin is consistent with a diagnosis of MI, but does not address needed monitoring for metoprolol. Elevation in myoglobin is consistent with myocardial injury in ACS, but does not address needed monitoring related to metoprolol.

The nurse is caring for a patient with unstable angina whose cardiac monitor shows ventricular tachycardia. Which action is appropriate to implement first? Defibrillate the patient at 200 joules. Check the patient for a pulse. Cardiovert the patient at 50 joules. Give the patient IV lidocaine.

The nurse needs to first assess the patient to determine stability before proceeding with further interventions. If the patient has a pulse and is relatively stable, elective cardioversion or antidysrhythmic medications may be prescribed. The drug of choice for stable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse is amiodarone.If the patient is pulseless or nonresponsive, the patient is unstable and defibrillation is used and not cardioversion. Also, if the patient is pulseless, lidocaine may be given after defibrillation

The nurse is caring for a patient on a telemetry unit who has a regular heart rhythm and rate of 60 beats/min; a P wave precedes each QRS complex, and the PR interval is 0.20 second. Additional vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 118/68 mm Hg, respiratory rate 16 breaths/min, and temperature 98.8°F (37°C). All of these medications are available on the medication record. What action does the nurse take? Administer atropine. Administer digoxin. Administer clonidine. Continue to monitor.

The nurse needs to take no action other than to continue monitoring because the patient is displaying a normal sinus rhythm and normal vital signs.Atropine is used in emergency treatment of symptomatic bradycardia. This patient has a normal sinus rhythm. Digoxin is used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation, which is, by definition, an irregular rhythm. Clonidine is used in the treatment of hypertension; a side effect is bradycardia.

The nurse is caring for a patient with atrial fibrillation (AF). In addition to an antidysrhythmic, what medication does the nurse plan to administer? Heparin Atropine Dobutamine Magnesium sulfate

The nurse plans to administer heparin in addition to the antidysrhythmic. AF is the loss of coordinated atrial contractions that can lead to pooling of blood, resulting in thrombus formation. The patient is at high risk for pulmonary and systemic embolism. Heparin and other anticoagulants (e.g., enoxaparin [Lovenox], warfarin [Coumadin], and novel oral anticoagualants, when nonvalvular, such as dabigatran [Pradaxa], rivaroxaban [Xarelto], apixaban [Eliquis], or edoxaban [Savaysa]) are used to prevent thrombus development in the atrium, leading to the risk of embolization (i.e., stroke).Atropine is used to treat bradycardia and not rapid heart rate associated with AF. Dobutamine is an inotropic agent used to improve cardiac output; it may cause tachycardia, thereby worsening atrial fibrillation. Although electrolyte levels are monitored in clients with dysrhythmia, magnesium sulfate is not used unless depletion is noted.

In teaching patients at risk for bradydysrhythmias, what information does the nurse include? "Avoid potassium-containing foods." "Stop smoking and avoid caffeine." "Take nitroglycerin for a slow heartbeat." "Use a stool softener."

The nurse will advise the client to use a stool softener. Patients at risk for bradydysrhythmias would avoid bearing down or straining during a bowel movement. The Valsalva maneuver associated with bearing down can cause bradycardia.Patients with renal failure and hyperkalemia are instructed to avoid potassium-containing foods; if risk for hypokalemia exists, such as with diuretic therapy, the patient is instructed to eat foods high in potassium. Smoking and caffeine increase heart rate; although all people would stop smoking, patients at risk for tachycardia, premature beats, and ectopic rhythms are instructed to stop smoking and avoid caffeine. Nitroglycerin is used to reduce oxygen demand in cardiac ischemia, not for bradycardia.

The professional nurse is supervising a nursing student performing a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Under which circumstance does the nurse correct the student? The patient is semi-recumbent in bed. Chest leads are placed as for the previous ECG. The patient is instructed to breathe deeply through the mouth. The patient is instructed to lie still.

The patient is instructed to breathe deeply through the mouth. While obtaining a 12-lead ECG, remind the patient to be as still as possible in a semi-reclined position, breathing normally. Any repetitive movement will cause artifact and could lead to inaccurate interpretation of the ECG. Normal breathing is required or artifacts will be observed, perhaps leading to inaccurate interpretation of the ECG.Placing the patient in a semi-reclined position is correct and does not require the nurse to intervene. ECGs are valid when electrode placement is identical at each test. The patient must lie still to avoid artifacts and inaccurate interpretation of the ECG.

Which teaching is essential for a patient who has had a permanent pacemaker inserted? Avoid talking on a cell phone. Avoid operating electrical appliances over the pacemaker. Avoid sexual activity. Do not take tub baths.

The patient needs to avoid operating electrical appliances directly over the pacemaker site because this may cause the pacemaker to malfunction.It is not necessary to avoid a telephone or a cell phone, but the patient would keep cellular phones at least six inches (15 centimetres) away from the generator and with the handset on the ear opposite the side of the generator. Radio transmitter towers, arc welding, and strong electromagnetic fields may pose a hazard. No hazard exists with sexual activity. Bathing and showering are permitted.

A patient with atrial fibrillation (AF) with rapid ventricular response has received medication to slow the ventricular rate. The pulse is now 88 beats/min. For which additional therapy does the nurse plan? Synchronized cardioversion Electrophysiology studies (EPS) Anticoagulation Radiofrequency ablation therapy

The patient's rhythm has stabilized but because of the risk for thromboembolism related to AF, anticoagulation is necessary.Cardioversion is not needed at this time. EPS are indicated for recurring, symptomatic dysrhythmia. Ablation therapy is ordered for recurring and symptomatic atrial fibrillation.

A patient's rhythm strip shows a heart rate of 116 beats/min, one P wave occurring before each QRS complex, a PR interval measuring 0.16 second, and a QRS complex measuring 0.08 second. How does the nurse interpret this rhythm strip? Normal sinus rhythm Sinus bradycardia Sinus tachycardia Sinus rhythm with premature ventricular contractions

These are the characteristics of sinus tachycardia.A normal sinus rhythm would have a heart rate of 60 to 100 beats/min. A heart rate of less than 60 beats/min would indicate sinus bradycardia. Early QRS intervals would indicate sinus rhythm with premature ventricular contractions.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has developed a bradycardia. Which possible causes does the nurse investigate? Select all that apply. Bearing down for a bowel movement Possible inferior wall myocardial infarction (MI) Patient stating that he just had a cup of coffee Patient becoming emotional when visitors arrived Diltiazem (Cardizem) administered 1 hour ago

Valsalva maneuvers such as bearing down for a bowel movement or gagging may cause excessive vagal (parasympathetic) stimulation to the heart leading to decreased rate of sinus node discharge. Bradycardia may result from carotid sinus massage, vomiting, suctioning, ocular pressure, or pain. Inferior wall MI is a cause of bradycardia and heart block. Calcium channel blockers such as diltiazem may cause bradycardia.Caffeine intake results in an increased heart rate. Stress, such as an emotional encounter, can result in tachycardia.