Chapter 55: UTI's PrepU

A nurse is teaching a female client with a history of multiple urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching about preventing UTIs?

"I should take at least 1,000 mg of vitamin C each day." The client demonstrates understanding of teaching when she states that she should take vitamin C each day. Increasing vitamin C intake to at least 1,000 mg per day helps acidify the urine, decreasing the amount of bacteria that can grow. The client should wipe from front to back to avoid introducing bacteria from the anal area into the urethra. The client should shower, not bathe, to minimize the amount of bacteria that can enter the urethra. The client should increase her fluid intake, and void every 2 to 3 hours and completely empty her bladder. Holding urine in the bladder can cause the bladder to become distended, which places the client at further risk for UTI.

Which statement by the client who is performing self-catheterization indicates a need for further teaching?

"I will need a sterile catheter kit each time I self-catheterize." Clients who self-catheterize use clean technique in the home setting.

A client undergoes extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy. Before discharge, the nurse should provide which instruction?

"Increase your fluid intake to 2 to 3 L per day." The nurse should instruct the client to increase his fluid intake. Increasing fluid intake flushes the renal calculi fragments through — and prevents obstruction of — the urinary system. Measuring temperature every 4 hours isn't needed. Lithotripsy doesn't require an incision. Hematuria may occur for a few hours after lithotripsy but should then disappear.

A client with urinary incontinence asks the nurse for suggestions about managing this condition. Which suggestion would be most appropriate?

"Make sure to eat enough fiber to prevent constipation." Suggestions to manage urinary incontinence include avoiding constipation such as eating adequate fiber and drinking adequate amounts of fluid. Scented powders, lotions, or sprays should be avoided because they can intensify the urine odor, irritate the skin, or cause a skin infection. Stimulants such as caffeine, alcohol, and aspartame should be avoided. The client should void regularly, approximately every 2 to 3 hours to ensure bladder emptying.

The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for the creation of an ileal conduit. Which statement by the client provides evidence that client teaching was effective?

"My urine will be eliminated through a stoma." An ileal conduit is a non-continent urinary diversion whereby the ureters drain into an isolated section of ileum. A stoma is created at one end of the ileum, exiting through the abdominal wall.

A client with urinary tract infection is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium). Which of the following instructions would the nurse give the client?

"This medication will relieve your pain." Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is a urinary analgesic agent used for the treatment of burning and pain associated with UTIs.

A client presents at the clinic with reports of urinary retention. What question should the nurse ask to obtain additional information about the client's report?

"When did you last urinate?" The nurse needs to determine the last time the client voided.

The nurse has been asked to provide health information to a female patient diagnosed with cystitis. Select all the teaching points that apply.

-Cleanse around the perineum and urethral meatus after each bowel movement. -Drink liberal amounts of fluid. -Void no more frequently than every 6 hours to allow urine to dilute the bacteria in the bladder. With an infection, fluids should be increased up to 4 L/day, but caffeinated beverages should be avoided because they can irritate the urinary tract. Therefore, voiding more than seven times per day will help clear out bacteria from the bladder. See Box 28-3 in the text.

Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the client with a new ileal conduit? Select all that apply.

-Deficient knowledge: management of urinary diversion -Disturbed body image -Risk for impaired skin integrity Deficient knowledge, disturbed body image, and risk for impaired skin integrity are expected problems for the client with a new ileal conduit. Urinary retention and chronic pain are not expected client problems.

A client is prescribed amitriptyline, an antidepressant for incontinence. The nurse understands that this drug is an effective treatment for which reason? Select all that apply.

-Increases bladder neck resistance -Decreases involuntary bladder contractions Some tricyclic antidepressant medications (amitriptyline, nortriptyline, and amoxapine) are useful in treating incontinence because they decrease bladder contractions and increase bladder neck resistance. Anticholinergic drugs such as oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan) reduce bladder spasticity and involuntary bladder contractions. Bethanechol (Urecholine) helps to increase contraction of the detrusor muscle, which assists with emptying of the bladder.

A client has just undergone a urinary diversion procedure. What management issues related specifically to urinary diversion would be included in this client's care plan? Select all that apply.

-Observe for leakage of urine or stool from the anastomosis. -Maintain renal function. -Assess for signs and symptoms of peritonitis. Management issues related specifically to urinary diversion procedures include observing for leakage of urine or stool from the anastomosis, maintaining renal function, assessing for signs and symptoms of peritonitis, maintaining integrity of the urinary diversion and urine collection devices, maintaining skin and stomal integrity, promoting a positive body image, and teaching the client how to manage the diversion. Oral intake is important for any postoperative patient after it is approved by the physician; however, this is not specific to the care of the urinary diversion client.

The nurse is providing an education program for the nursing assistants in a long-term care facility in order to decrease the number of UTIs in the female population. What interventions should the nurse introduce in the program? Select all that apply.

-Perform hand hygiene prior to patient care. -Assist the patients with frequent toileting. -Provide careful perineal care. In institutionalized older patients, such as those in long-term care facilities, infecting pathogens are often resistant to many antibiotics. Diligent hand hygiene, careful perineal care, and frequent toileting may decrease the incidence of UTIs.

What is true about extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)? Select all that apply.

-Stones are shattered into smaller particles that are passed from the urinary tract. -ESWL is administered with the client in a water bath or surrounded by a soft cushion while under light anesthesia or sedation. Stones are shattered into smaller particles that are passed from the urinary tract. ESWL is administered with the client in a water bath or surrounded by a soft cushion while under light anesthesia or sedation. ESWL is not a ureteroscopic approach. ESWL is not done while the patient is undergoing a percutaneous nephrolithotomy.

A client is being treated for a malignant bladder tumor. What would be included in treatment of a small tumor? Select all that apply.

-resection and fulguration -topical application of an antineoplastic drug Small, superficial tumors may be removed by cutting (resecting) or coagulation (fulguration) with a transurethral resectoscope. Topical application of an antineoplastic drug may be used after resection and fulguration of a tumor. Cystectomy is a surgical removal of the bladder and is performed for large tumors that have penetrated the muscle wall. Urinary diversion is performed after a cystectomy.

The nurse is caring for a patient with dementia in the long-term care facility when the patient has a change in cognitive function. What should the nurse suspect this patient may be experiencing?

A UTI The most common subjective presenting symptom of UTI in older adults is generalized fatigue. The most common objective finding is a change in cognitive functioning, especially in those with dementia, because these patients usually exhibit even more profound cognitive changes with the onset of a UTI.

The nurse is caring for several older clients. For which client would the nurse be especially alert for signs and symptoms of pyelonephritis?

A client with urinary obstruction The client with urinary obstruction is at the highest risk of developing pyelonephritis because a urinary obstruction is the most common cause of pyelonephritis in older adults. Acute glomerulonephritis usually occurs in older adults with preexisting chronic glomerulonephritis. Older clients with acute renal failure or urinary tumor are not at high risk for developing pyelonephritis.

The nurse observes a client's uric acid level of 9.3 mg/dL. When teaching the client about ways to decrease the uric acid level, which diet would the nurse suggest?

A low-purine diet The nurse would suggest a low-purine diet. Foods to avoid are anchovies, animal organs and sardines. The other options do not lower the uric acids levels.

A client comes to the emergency department complaining of severe pain in the right flank, nausea, and vomiting. The physician tentatively diagnoses right ureterolithiasis (renal calculi). When planning this client's care, the nurse should assign the highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?

Acute pain Ureterolithiasis typically causes such acute, severe pain that the client can't rest and becomes increasingly anxious. Therefore, the nursing diagnosis of Acute pain takes highest priority. Diagnoses of Risk for infection and Impaired urinary elimination are appropriate when the client's pain is controlled. A diagnosis of Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements isn't pertinent at this time.

A client has a suspected diagnosis of bladder stones. Stones may form in the bladder or originate in the upper urinary tract and travel to and remain in the bladder. What are some signs and symptoms that this client may be experiencing? Select all that apply.

All choices are true. Symptoms of bladder stone formation include hematuria, suprapubic pain, difficulty starting the urinary stream, symptoms of a bladder infection, and a feeling that the bladder is not completely empty. Some clients may have few or no symptoms.

The nurse is employed in a urologist's office. Which classification of medication is anticipated for clients having difficulty with urinary incontinence?

Anticholinergic Pharmacologic agents that can improve bladder retention, emptying, and control include anticholinergic drugs. In this classification are medications such as Detrol, Ditropan, and Urecholine. Diuretics eliminate fluid from the body but do not affect the muscles of urinary elimination. Anticonvulsant and cholinergic medications also do not directly help with control.

An ileal conduit is created for a client after a radical cystectomy. Which of the following would the nurse expect to include in the client's plan of care?

Application of an ostomy pouch An ileal conduit involves care of a urinary stoma, much like that of a fecal stoma, including the application of an ostomy pouch, skin protection, and stoma care. Intermittent catheterizations and irrigations are appropriate for a continent urinary diverse such as a Kock or Indiana pouch. Exercises to promote sphincter control are appropriate for an ureterosigmoidoscopy.

A client is frustrated and embarrassed by urinary incontinence. Which measure should the nurse include in a bladder retraining program?

Assessing present voiding patterns The guidelines for initiating bladder retraining include assessing the client's present intake patterns, voiding patterns, and reasons for each accidental voiding. Lowering the client's fluid intake won't reduce or prevent incontinence. The client should be encouraged to drink 1.5 to 2 L of water per day. A voiding schedule should be established after assessment.

A nurse who works in a clinic sees many patients with a variety of medical conditions. The nurse understands that a risk factor for UTIs is which of the following?

Diabetes mellitus Increased urinary glucose levels create an infection-prone environment in the urinary tract

Which of the following is the most effective intravesical agent for recurrent bladder cancer?

Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) BCG is now considered the most effective intravesical agent for recurrent bladder cancer, especially superficial transitional cell carcinoma, because it is an immunotherapeutic agent that enhances the body's immune response to cancer. Chemotherapy with a combination of methotrexate, 5-FU, vinblastine, doxorubicin (Adriamycin), and cisplatin has been effective in producing partial remission of transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder in some patients.

Behavioral interventions for urinary incontinence can be coordinated by a nurse. A comprehensive program that incorporates timed voiding and urinary urge inhibition is referred to as what?

Bladder retraining Bladder retraining includes a timed voiding schedule and urinary urge inhibition exercises. These exercises involve delaying voiding to help the patient stay dry for a set period of time. When one time interval is reached, another is set. The time is usually increased by 10 to 15 minutes, until an acceptable voiding interval is achieved.

A nurse is conducting a health history on a patient who is seeing her health care provider for symptoms consistent with a UTI. The nurse understands that the most common route of infection is which of the following?

By ascending infection (transurethral) The most common route of infection is transurethral, in which bacteria colonize the periurethral area and enter the bladder by means of the urethra.

The nurse is to check residual urine amounts for a client experiencing urinary retention. Which of the following would be most important?

Catheterize the client immediately after the client voids. To obtain accurate residual volumes, it is important that clients void first and that catheterization occur immediately after the attempt. The nurse should record both the volume voided (even if it is zero) and the volume obtained by catheterization. Intermittent catheterizations are performed based on a schedule, usually 3 to 4 times per day. Residual urine refers to the amount remaining in the bladder after voiding. It is essential that the client voids.

Which objective symptom of a UTI is most common in older adults, especially those with dementia?

Change in cognitive functioning The most common objective finding is a change in cognitive functioning, especially in those with dementia, because these clients usually exhibit even more profound cognitive changes with the onset of a UTI. Incontinence, hematuria, and back pain are not the most common presenting objective symptoms.

The nurse working with a client after an ileal conduit notices that the pouching system is leaking small amounts of urine. What is the appropriate nursing intervention?

Change the wafer and pouch. Whenever a leaking pouching system is noted, the nurse should change the wafer and pouch. Attempting to secure or patch the leak with tape and/or barrier paste can trap urine under the barrier or faceplate, which will compromise peristomal skin integrity. Emptying the pouch will not rectify the leaking.

A patient has been diagnosed with a UTI and is prescribed an antibiotic. What first-line fluoroquinolone antibacterial agent for UTIs has been found to be significantly effective?

Cipro Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is a fluoroquinolone used to treat UTIs. Co-trimoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) is a trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination medication. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin, Furadantin) is an anti-infective urinary tract medication.

As the nurse comes from morning report, she is instructed to use a bladder scanner on a client following a client's attempt at urination. The client is able to void 300 mL. The client denies any pain on urination. The nurse scans 250 mL of remaining urine in the bladder. Which entry is most correct when documenting the intervention?

Client voided 300 mL with 250 mL residual volume When documenting the results of using a bladder scanner, it is best to note the amount voided and then the residual urine remaining in the bladder. This documentation enables the analysis of the client's ability to empty the bladder.

A female client who is diagnosed with a malignant tumor in her bladder is advised to undergo cystectomy followed by a urinary diversion procedure. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to assess preoperatively?

Client's manual dexterity and vision It is essential to assess manual dexterity, vision, and level of understanding of a client who undergoes a urinary diversion procedure, because this information will determine the client's ability to manage stoma care and self-catheterization following the urinary diversion procedure. The client's history of allergy to iodine and seafood, dietary habits related to high cholesterol intake, and menstrual history are not important factors for this situation.

A patient comes to the clinic suspecting a possible UTI. What symptoms of a UTI would the nurse recognize from the assessment data gathered?

Cloudy urine The nurse should observe for signs and symptoms of UTI: cloudy malodorous urine, hematuria, fever, chills, anorexia, and malaise.

The nurse is encouraging the client with recurrent urinary tract infections to increase his fluid intake to 8 large glasses of fluids daily. The client states he frequently drinks water and all of the following. Which of the following would the nurse discourage for this client?

Coffee in the morning The nurse would discourage drinking coffee. Coffee, tea, alcohol, and colas are urinary tract irritants. Fruit juice, milk, and ginger ale are appropriate for drinking and countered toward the daily fluid total.

The nurse is caring for an older client whose chart reveals that the client has a reversible cause of urinary incontinence. The nurse creates a plan of care for which condition?

Constipation Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased fluid intake, a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in menopausal woman. The other answers do not apply.

After teaching a group of students about the types of urinary incontinence and possible causes, the instructor determines that the students have understood the material when they identify which of the following as a cause of stress incontinence?

Decreased pelvic muscle tone due to multiple pregnancies Stress incontinence is due to decreased pelvic muscle tone, which is associated with multiple pregnancies, obstetric injuries, obesity, menopause, or pelvic disease. Transient incontinence is due to increased urine production related to metabolic conditions. Urge incontinence is due to bladder irritation related to urinary tract infections, bladder tumors, radiation therapy, enlarged prostate, or neurologic dysfunction. Overflow incontinence is due to obstruction from fecal impaction or enlarged prostate.

.An older adult client is being evaluated for suspected pyelonephritis and is ordered kidney, ureter, and bladder (KUB) x-ray. The nurse understands the significance of this order is related to which rationale?

Detects calculi, cysts, or tumors Urinary obstruction is the most common cause of pyelonephritis in the older adult. A KUB may reveal obstructions such as calculi, cysts, or tumors. KUB is not indicated for detection of impaired renal function or reveal increased risk for chronic form of the disorder. Urine cultures will reveal causative microorganisms present in the urine.

An older adult client is being evaluated for suspected pyelonephritis and is ordered kidney, ureter, and bladder (KUB) x-ray. The nurse understands the significance of this order is related to which rationale?

Detects calculi, cysts, or tumors Urinary obstruction is the most common cause of pyelonephritis in the older adult. A KUB may reveal obstructions such as calculi, cysts, or tumors. KUB is not indicated for detection of impaired renal function or reveal increased risk for chronic form of the disorder. Urine cultures will reveal causative microorganisms present in the urine.

Nursing management of the client with a urinary tract infection should include:

Discouraging caffeine intake Strategies for preventing urinary tract infection include proper perineal hygiene, increased fluid intake, avoiding urinary tract irritants (including caffeine), and establishing a frequent voiding regimen.

The nurse is caring for the client following surgery for a urinary diversion. The client refuses to look at the stoma or participate in its care. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of:

Disturbed body image The client is exhibiting defining characteristics of disturbed body image.

The nurse caring for a client with a urinary diversion notices mucus around the stents and in the client's urine. Which is the appropriate nursing intervention?

Document presence of mucus in the urine. The nurse should document the presence of mucus in the urine, as this is a normal finding in urinary diversions.

Which instruction would be included in a teaching plan for a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection?

Drink liberal amount of fluids. Clients diagnosed with a UTI should drink liberal amounts of fluids. They should void every 2 to 3 hours. Coffee and tea are urinary irritants. The client should shower instead of bathe in a tub because bacteria in the bathwater may enter the urethra.

Which of the following would be least appropriate to suggest to a client with a urinary diversion to control odor?

Eat plenty of cheese and eggs. To help control odor, the client should use pouches with carbon filters or other odor barriers or add a few drops of liquid deodorizer or diluted white vinegar to the pouch. Foods such as cranberry juice, yogurt or buttermilk may help to decrease odor while foods such as asparagus, cheese, and eggs may impart an odor to the urine.

A male client who is admitted with the diagnosis of urinary calculi complains of excruciating pain. The pain is suspected to be caused by increased pressure in the renal pelvis. Which measure would be most appropriate to provide pain relief?

Encourage frequent ambulation. When a client with urinary calculi complains of excruciating pain, the client should be encouraged to ambulate. This is because the supine position increases colic, while ambulation relieves it. Also, adequate fluid intake should be suggested to promote the passage of stones and to prevent urinary stasis, or the formation of new stones. The client should be encouraged to void when there is a risk of infection related to urinary stasis. The suggestion for restricting sodium intake is offered to a client with chronic glomerulonephritis, not urinary calculi. The nurse should promote deep-breathing exercises to provide relief to a client recovering from surgery who has an ineffective breathing pattern.

A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke. Which nursing intervention promotes urinary continence?

Encouraging intake of at least 2 L of fluid daily Encouraging a daily fluid intake of at least 2 L helps fill the client's bladder, thereby promoting bladder retraining by stimulating the urge to void. The nurse shouldn't give the client soda before bedtime; soda acts as a diuretic and may make the client incontinent. The nurse should take the client to the bathroom or offer the bedpan at least every 2 hours throughout the day; twice per day is insufficient. Consultation with a dietitian won't address the problem of urinary incontinence.

Which of the following nursing actions is most important in caring for the client following lithotripsy?

Strain the urine carefully for stone fragments. The nurse should strain all urine following lithotripsy. Stone fragments are sent to the laboratory for chemical anaysis.

Which of the following is a cause of a calcium renal stone?

Excessive intake of vitamin D Potential causes of calcium renal stones include excessive intake of vitamin D, hypercalcemia, hyperparathyroidism, excessive intake of milk and alkali, and renal tubular acidosis. Gout is associated with uric acid. Struvite stones are associated with neurogenic bladder and foreign bodies.

The nurse is obtaining a health history from a client describing urinary complications. Which assessment finding is most suggestive of a malignant tumor of the bladder?

Hematuria The most common first symptom of a malignant tumor is hematuria. Most malignant tumors are vascular; thus, abnormal bleeding can be a first sign of abnormality. The client then has symptoms of incontinence (a later sign), dysuria and frequency.

Which metabolic defects are associated with stone formation?

Hyperparathyroidism Metabolic defects such as hyperparathyroidism and hyperuricemia (gout) are associated with stone formation. Hypoparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, and hypouricemia are not associated with stone formation.

Which type of incontinence refers to the involuntary loss of urine due to extrinsic medical factors, particularly medications?

Iatrogenic Iatrogenic incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine due to extrinsic medical factors, predominantly medications. Reflex incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine due to hyperreflexia in the absence of normal sensations usually associated with voiding. Urge incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine associated with a strong urge to void that cannot be suppressed. Overflow incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine associated with overdistention of the bladder.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with bladder cancer and requiring a cystectomy. The nurse overhears the physician instructing the client on the presence of a stoma with temporary pouch. In gathering information for the client, which urinary diversion would the nurse select?

Ileal conduit When the physician is discussing a stoma, the nurse recognizes that the client will have an ileal conduit which is a cetaceous urinary diversion. Both the Kock Pouch and Indiana Pouch are continent urinary diversions. The ureterosigmoidostomy connects with the rectum for urinary drainage.

The nurse is conducting a community education program on UTIs. The nurse determines that the participants understand the teaching when they identify which factor as contributing to UTIs in older adults?

Immunocompromise Factors that contribute to UTIs in older adults include immunocompromise, cognitive impariment, high incidence of chronic illness, immobility, incomplete emptying of the bladder, obstructed flow of urine, and frequent use of antimicrobial agents.

Which type of voiding dysfunction is seen in clients diagnosed with Parkinson disease?

Incontinence Incontinence is noted in clients diagnosed with Parkinson disease. Urinary retention is associated with spinal cord injury. Urgency is associated with an overactive bladder. Incomplete bladder emptying is associated with diabetes mellitus.

The nurse is educating a patient with urolithiasis about preventive measures to avoid another occurrence. What should the patient be encouraged to do?

Increase fluid intake so that the patient can excrete 2,500 to 4,000 mL every day, which will help prevent additional stone formation. A patient who has shown a tendency to form stones should drink enough fluid to excrete greater than 2,000 mL (preferably 3,000 to 4,000 mL) of urine every 24 hours (Meschi et al., 2011).

The nurse advises the patient with chronic pyelonephritis that he should:

Increase fluids to 3 to 4 L/24 hours to dilute the urine. Unless contraindicated, fluids should be increased to dilute the urine, decrease burning on urination, and prevent dehydration. A balanced diet would be recommended but there is no need to restrict sodium or calcium.

Patients with urolithiasis need to be encouraged to:

Increase their fluid intake so that they can excrete 2.5 to 4 liters every day. Fluids need to be increased up to 4 L/day to help prevent additional stone formation.

The treatment of choice for a spinal cord-injured patient with impaired bladder emptying would include which of the following?

Intermittent self-catheterization Intermittent self-catheterization is the treatment of choice in patients with spinal cord injury and other neurologic disorders, such as multiple sclerosis (MS), when the ability to empty the bladder is impaired.

After undergoing retropubic prostatectomy, a client returns to his room. The client is on nothing-by-mouth status and has an IV infusing in his right forearm at a rate of 100 ml/hour. The client also has an indwelling urinary catheter that's draining light pink urine. While assessing the client, the nurse notes that his urine output is red and has dropped to 15 ml and 10 ml for the last 2 consecutive hours. How can the nurse best explain this drop in urine output?

It's an abnormal finding that requires further assessment. The drop in urine output to less than 30 ml/hour is abnormal and requires further assessment. The reduction in urine output may be caused by an obstruction in the urinary catheter tubing or deficient fluid volume from blood loss. The client's nothing-by-mouth status isn't the cause of the low urine output because the client is receiving I.V. fluid to compensate for the lack of oral intake. Ambulation promotes urination; however, the client should produce at least 30 ml of urine/hour.

A client comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset of sharp, severe pain in the lumbar region that radiates around the side and toward the bladder. The client also reports nausea and vomiting and appears pale, diaphoretic, and anxious. The physician tentatively diagnoses renal calculi and orders flat-plate abdominal X-rays. Renal calculi can form anywhere in the urinary tract. What is their most common formation site?

Kidney The most common site of renal calculi formation is the kidney. Calculi may travel down the urinary tract with or without causing damage and lodge anywhere along the tract or may stay within the kidney. The ureter, bladder, and urethra are less common sites of renal calculi formation.

A nurse has been asked to speak to a local women's group about preventing cystitis. Which of the following would the nurse include in the presentation?

Need to urinate after engaging in sexual intercourse Measures to prevent cystitis include voiding after sexual intercourse, wearing cotton underwear, urinating every 2 to 3 hours while awake, and taking showers instead of tub baths.

The nurse performs a physical examination on a client diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis to assist in determining which of the following?

Location of discomfort The physical examination of a client with pyelonephritis helps the nurse determine the location of discomfort and signs of fluid retention, such as peripheral edema or shortness of breath. Observing and documenting the characteristics of the client's urine helps the nurse detect abnormalities in the urine. Laboratory blood tests reveal elevated calcium levels, whereas radiography and ultrasonography depict structural defects in the kidneys.

A nurse who is taking care of a patient with a spinal cord injury documents the frequency of reflex incontinence. The nurse understands that this is most likely due to:

Loss of motor control of the detrusor muscle. Spinal cord injury patients commonly experience reflex incontinence because they lack neurologically mediated motor control of the detrusor and the sensory awareness of the urge to void. These patients also experience hyperreflexia in the absence of normal sensations associated with voiding.

Examination of a client's bladder stones reveals that they are primarily composed of uric acid. The nurse would expect to provide the client with which type of diet?

Low purine A low-purine diet is used for uric acid stones, although the benefits are unknown. Clients with a history of calcium oxalate stone formation need a diet that is adequate in calcium and low in oxalate. Only clients who have type II absorptive hypercalciuria—approximately half of the clients—need to limit calcium intake. Usually, clients are told to increase their fluid intake significantly, consume a moderate protein intake, and limit sodium. Avoiding excessive protein intake is associated with lower urinary oxalate and lower uric acid levels. Reducing sodium intake can lower urinary calcium levels.

A patient who has been treated for uric acid stones is being discharged from the hospital. What type of diet does the nurse discuss with the patient?

Low-purine diet For uric acid stones, the patient is placed on a low-purine diet to reduce the excretion of uric acid in the urine. Foods high in purine (shellfish, anchovies, asparagus, mushrooms, and organ meats) are avoided, and other proteins may be limited.

A client undergoes surgery to remove a malignant tumor followed by a urinary diversion procedure. Which postoperative procedure is the most important for the nurse to perform?

Maintain skin and stomal integrity. The most important nursing management in postoperative procedure is to maintain skin and stomal integrity to avoid further complications, such as skin infections and urinary odor.

The nurse is conducting a history and assessment related to a client's incontinence. Which element should the nurse include in the assessment before beginning a bladder training program?

Medication usage It is essential to assess the client's physical and environmental conditions before beginning a bladder training program, because the patient may not be able to reach the bathroom in time. During the bladder training program, a change in environment may be an effective suggestion for the client. It is not so essential to assess the client's history of allergy, occupation, and smoking habits before beginning a bladder training program.

A client is being treated for renal calculi and suspected hydronephrosis. Which measure should the nurse take to help maintain a record of the kidneys' function?

Monitor the client's intake and output. Monitoring and recording the client's intake and output provides information about the kidneys' function. It also helps identify any arising complications such as hydronephrosis.

A patient has had surgery to create an ileal conduit for urinary diversion. What is a priority intervention by the nurse in the postoperative phase of care?

Monitor urine output hourly and report output less than 30 mL/hr. In the immediate postoperative period, urine volumes are monitored hourly. Throughout the patient's hospitalization, the nurse monitors closely for complications, reports signs and symptoms of them promptly, and intervenes quickly to prevent their progression. If urinary drainage stops or decreases to less than 30 mL/hour, or if the client complains of back pain, the nurse needs to notify the physician immediately.

A nurse is planning a group teaching session on the topic of urinary tract infection (UTI) prevention. Which point should the nurse include?

Notify the physician if urinary urgency, burning, frequency, or difficulty occurs. Urgency, burning, frequency, and difficulty urinating are all common symptoms of a UTI. The client should notify the physician so that a microscopic urinalysis can be done and appropriate treatment can be initiated. The client should be instructed to drink 2 to 3 L of fluid per day to dilute the urine and reduce irritation of the bladder mucosa. To prevent UTI recurrence, the full amount of antibiotics ordered must be taken despite the fact that the symptoms may have subsided. Women are told to avoid scented toilet tissue and bubble baths and to wear cotton underwear, not nylon, to reduce the chance of irritation.

Which of the following is the most common symptom of bladder cancer?

Painless gross hematuria Painless gross hematuria is the most common symptom of bladder cancer. Pelvic and back pain may occur with metastasis. Any alteration in voiding or change in the urine may indicate cancer of the bladder.

A nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client with a suspected malignant tumor of the bladder. Which finding would the nurse identify as the most common initial symptom?

Painless hematuria The most common first symptom of a malignant tumor of the bladder is painless hematuria. Additional early symptoms include UTI with symptoms such as fever, dysuria, urgency, and frequency. Later symptoms are related to metastases and include pelvic pain, urinary retention (if the tumor blocks the bladder outlet), and urinary frequency from the tumor occupying bladder space.

A 64-year-old man is seeing his urologist for an annual check-up, post prostatectomy. The health care provider is concerned with the symptom he finds because it is considered diagnostic for bladder cancer. Which of the following signs/symptoms is diagnostic for bladder cancer?

Painless, gross hematuria Although flank pain may occur, the painless, gross hematuria is characteristic of bladder cancer.

If an indwelling catheter is necessary, which nursing intervention should be implemented to prevent infection?

Perform meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water Cleanliness of the area will reduce potential for infection. Strict aseptic technique must be used when inserting a urinary bladder catheter. The nurse must maintain a closed system and use the catheter's port to obtain specimens. The catheter bag must never be placed on the client's abdomen unless it is clamped because it may cause urine to flow back from the tubing into the bladder.

A female client is undergoing a bladder training program as treatment for urinary incontinence. Which of the following techniques would be the most appropriate suggestion?

Performing Kegel exercises. Instructing the client on Kegel exercises will help her achieve continence. These exercises improve muscle tone and voluntary control. Bladder instillation of DMSO and referring the client to a chronic pain center are therapies to manage interstitial cystitis. Warm sitz baths may be suggested to a client in the event of urethra inflammation.

The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who has a Kock pouch. Nursing assessment findings reveal abdominal pain, absence of bowel sounds, fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea. The nurse suspects which of the following?

Peritonitis Clinical manifestations of peritonitis include abdominal pain and distention, absence of bowel sounds, nausea and vomiting, fever, changes in vital signs.

Which medication may be ordered to relieve discomfort associated with a urinary tract infection?

Phenazopyridine Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic ordered to relieve discomfort associated with a UTI. Nitrofurantoin, ciprofloxacin, and levofloxacin are antibiotics.

An 82-year-old client experiences urinary incontinence. Which factor should the nurse assess before beginning a bladder training program for this client?

Physical and environmental conditions It is essential to assess the client's physical and environmental conditions before beginning a bladder training program, because the client may not be able to reach the bathroom in time. During the bladder training program, a change in environment may be an effective suggestion for the client. It is not so essential to assess the client's history of allergy, occupation, and smoking habits before beginning a bladder training program.

Which characteristic is seen with a healthy stoma?

Pink color Characteristics of a normal stoma include a pink and moist appearance. It is insensitive to pain because it has no nerve endings. The area is vascular and may bleed when cleaned.

Which term refers to inflammation of the renal pelvis?

Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic. Cystitis is inflammation of the urinary bladder. Urethritis is inflammation of the urethra. Interstitial nephritis is inflammation of the kidney.

A patient with a UTI is having burning and pain when urinating. What urinary analgesic is prescribed for relief of these symptoms?

Pyridium The urinary analgesic agent phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is used specifically for relief of burning, pain, and other symptoms associated with UTI.

Which laboratory value supports a diagnosis of pyelonephritis?

Pyuria Pyelonephritis is diagnosed by the presence of pyuria, leukocytosis, hematuria, and bacteriuria. The client exhibits fever, chills, and flank pain. Myoglobinuria is seen with any disease process that destroys muscle. Ketonuria indicates a diabetic state. Because the client with pyelonephritis typically has signs of infection, the WBC count is more likely to be high rather than low.

Sympathomimetics have which of the following effects on the body?

Relaxation of bladder wall Sympathomimetics mimic the sympathetic nervous system, causing increased heart rate and contractility, dilation of bronchioles and pupils, and bladder wall relaxation.

A woman comes to her health care provider's office with signs and symptoms of kidney stones. Which of the following should be the primary medical management goal?

Relieve the pain. The immediate objective is to relieve pain, which can be incapacitating depending on the location of the stone.

Following percutaneous nephrolithotomy, the client is at greatest risk for which nursing diagnosis?

Risk for infection Percutaneous nephrolithotomy is an invasive procedure for the removal of renal calculi. The client would be at risk for infection.

Which type of incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure?

Stress Stress incontinence may occur with sneezing, coughing, or changing position. Overflow incontinence refers to the involuntary loss of urine associated with overdistention of the bladder. Urge incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine associated with urgency. Reflex incontinence refers to the involuntary loss of urine due to involuntary urethral relaxation in the absence of normal sensations.

A patient informs the nurse that every time she sneezes or coughs, she urinates in her pants. What type of incontinence does the nurse recognize the patient is experiencing?

Stress incontinence Stress incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of sneezing, coughing, or changing position (Meiner, 2011; Miller, 2012).

The nurse is educating a female patient with a UTI on the pharmacologic regimen for treatment. What is important for the nurse to instruct the patient to do?

Take the antibiotic for 3 days as prescribed. The trend is toward a shortened course of antibiotic therapy for uncomplicated UTIs, because most cases are cured after 3 days of treatment. Regardless of the regimen prescribed, the patient is instructed to take all doses prescribed, even if relief of symptoms occurs promptly. Although brief pharmacologic treatment of UTIs for 3 days is usually adequate in women, infection recurs in about 20% of women treated for uncomplicated UTIs.

Which nursing intervention should the nurse caring for the client with pyelonephritis implement?

Teach client to increase fluid intake up to 3 liters per day. The nurse teaches the client to increase fluid intake to promote renal blood flow and flush bacteria from the urinary tract.

A client has been admitted for an outpatient cystoscopy because of a suspected interstitial cystitis. Which statement best describes the pathology of this disorder?

The bladder wall contains multiple pinpoint hemorrhagic areas that join and form larger hemorrhagic areas that may progress to fissuring and scarring of the bladder mucosa. With interstitial cystitis, the bladder wall contains multiple pinpoint hemorrhagic areas that join and form larger hemorrhagic areas that may progress to fissuring and scarring of the bladder mucosa. A common cause of urethritis in men is infection with Chlamydia trachomatis. Cystitis is usually caused by bacterial infection. The surface of the bladder becomes edematous and reddened, and ulcerations may develop. With urinary incontinence, the bladder can contract without warning, fail to accommodate adequate volumes of urine, or fail to empty completely.

When a client with an indwelling urinary catheter wants to walk to the hospital lobby to visit with family members, the nurse teaches him how to do this without compromising the catheter. Which client action indicates an accurate understanding of this information?

The client keeps the drainage bag below the bladder at all times. To maintain effective drainage, the client should keep the drainage bag below the bladder; doing so allows the urine to flow by gravity from the bladder to the drainage bag. The client shouldn't lay the drainage bag on the floor because the bag could become grossly contaminated. The client shouldn't clamp the catheter drainage tubing because this impedes the flow of urine. To promote drainage, the client may loop the drainage tubing above — not below — its point of entry into the drainage bag.

Bladder retraining following removal of an indwelling catheter begins with

instructing the client to follow a 2- to 3-hour timed voiding schedule. Immediately after the removal of the indwelling catheter, the client is placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually 2 to 3 hours, not 6 hours. At the given time interval, the client is instructed to void. Immediate voiding is not usually encouraged. If bladder ultrasound shows 100 mL or more of urine remaining in the bladder after voiding, straight catheterization may be performed to ensure complete bladder emptying.

The nurse is assisting in the transport of a client with an indwelling catheter to the diagnostic studies unit. Which action made by the nursing assistant would require instruction?

The nursing assistant places the drainage bag on the client's abdomen for transport. The nurse would instruct the nursing assistant to maintain the drainage bag lower than the genital region to avoid a backflow of urine into the bladder. The nursing assistant is correct to move the catheter and drainage bag with the client to not put tension on the catheter, place the drainage bag on the lower area of the wheelchair, and hold the drainage bag while the client is in the process of moving.

A client with bladder cancer had his bladder removed and an ileal conduit created for urine diversion. While changing this client's pouch, the nurse observes that the area around the stoma is red, weeping, and painful. What should the nurse conclude?

The pouch faceplate doesn't fit the stoma If the pouch faceplate doesn't fit the stoma properly, the skin around the stoma will be exposed to continuous urine flow from the stoma, causing excoriation and red, weeping, and painful skin. A lubricant shouldn't be used because it would prevent the pouch from adhering to the skin. When properly applied, a skin barrier prevents skin excoriation. Stoma dilation isn't performed with an ileal conduit, although it may be done with a colostomy if ordered.

The nurse is caring for a client with recurrent urinary tract infections. Which of the following body structures would the nurse instruct as the most frequent cause of women's urinary tract infections?

The urethra Because the urethra is short in women, ascending infections or microorganisms carried from the vagina or rectum are common. Males have a longer urethra, causing the organisms travel farther to the bladder. Although structures of the urinary system, the other options are where the client has bacteria and microorganisms located. The ureters connect the bladder to kidney thus do not obtain bacteria, just transmit when available.

A client comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. During the interview, the client states, "Sometimes when I have to urinate, I can't control it and do not reach the bathroom in time." The nurse suspects that the client is experiencing which type of incontinence?

Urge Urge incontinence occurs when the client experiences the sensation to void but cannot control voiding in time to reach a toilet. Stress incontinence occurs when the client has an involuntary loss of urine that results from a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure. Overflow incontinence occurs when the client experiences an involuntary loss of urine related to an over distended bladder; the client voids small amounts frequently and dribbles. Functional incontinence occurs when the client has function of the lower urinary tract but cannot identify the need to void or ambulate to the toilet.

The nurse advises a patient with renal stones to avoid eating shellfish, asparagus, and organ meats. She emphasizes these foods because she knows that his renal stones are composed of which of the following substances?

Uric acid Uric acid stones are found in patients with gout and myeloproliferative disorders. Therefore, a diet low in purines is recommended.

A client comes to the emergency department complaining of a sudden onset of sharp, severe flank pain. During the physical examination, the client indicates that the pain, which comes in waves, travels to the suprapubic region. He states, "I can even feel the pain at the tip of my penis." Which of the following would the nurse suspect?

Urinary calculi Symptoms of a kidney or ureteral stone vary with size, location, and cause. Small stones may pass unnoticed; however, sudden, sharp, severe flank pain that travels to the suprapubic region and external genitalia is the classic symptom of urinary calculi. The pain is accompanied by renal or ureteral colic, painful spasms that attempt to move the stone. The pain comes in waves that radiate to the inguinal ring, the inner aspect of the thigh, and to the testicle or tip of the penis in men, or the urinary meatus or labia in women. Clients with acute glomerulonephritis may be asymptomatic or may exhibit fever, nausea, malaise, headache, edema (generalized or periorbital), pain, and mild to moderate hypertension. Clients with ureteral stricture may complain of flank pain and tenderness at the costovertebral angle and back or abdominal discomfort. A client with renal cell carcinoma rarely exhibits symptoms early on but may present with painless hematuria and persistent back pain in later stages.

Which statement describing urinary incontinence in an older adult client is true?

Urinary incontinence isn't a disease. Urinary incontinence isn't a normal part of aging nor is it a disease. It may be caused by confusion, dehydration, fecal impaction, restricted mobility, or other causes. Certain medications, including diuretics, hypnotics, sedatives, anticholinergics, and antihypertensives, may trigger urinary incontinence. Most clients with urinary incontinence can be treated; some can be cured.

A group of students are reviewing information about disorders of the bladder and urethra. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following as a voiding dysfunction?

Urinary retention Urinary retention and urinary incontinence are voiding dysfunctions, temporary or permanent alterations in the ability to urinate normally. Cystitis is an infectious disorder. Bladder stones and urethral stricture are obstructive disorders.

Which of the following is the most common site of a nosocomial infection?

Urinary tract The urinary tract is the most common site of nosocomial infection, accounting for greater than 3% of the total number reported by hospitals each year.

The nurse who teaches a client about preventing recurrent urinary tract infections would include which statement?

Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding flushes the urethra, expelling contaminants. Showers are encouraged, rather than tub baths, because bacteria in the bath water may enter the urethra. Coffee, tea, colas, alcohol, and other fluids that are urinary tract irritants should be avoided. The client should be encouraged to void every 2 to 3 hours during the day and completely empty the bladder.

Which of the following is a strategy to promote urinary continence?

Void regularly, 5 to 8 times a day Strategies to promote urinary continence include increasing awareness of the amount and timing of all fluid intake; avoid taking diuretics after 4 PM; avoiding bladder irritants, such as caffeine, alcohol, and aspartame (NutraSweet); taking steps to avoid constipation by drinking adequate fluids, eating a well-balanced diet high in fiber, exercising regularly, and taking stool softeners if recommended; and voiding regularly, 5 to 8 times a day (about every 2 to 3 hours).

The nurse recognizes that urinalysis results that most likely indicate a urinary tract infection include:

WBC 50 Increased white blood cell occurs in all clients with a UTI and indicates an infectious process is occurring.

A patient taking an alpha-adrenergic medication for the treatment of hypertension is having a problem with incontinence. What does the nurse tell the patient?

When the medication is discontinued or changed, the incontinence will resolve. Iatrogenic incontinence refers to the involuntary loss of urine due to extrinsic medical factors, predominantly medications. One such example is the use of alpha-adrenergic agents to decrease blood pressure. In some people with an intact urinary system, these agents adversely affect the alpha receptors responsible for bladder neck closing pressure; the bladder neck relaxes to the point of incontinence with a minimal increase in intra-abdominal pressure, thus mimicking stress incontinence. As soon as the medication is discontinued, the apparent incontinence resolves.

A nurse is providing postprocedure care for a client who underwent percutaneous lithotripsy. In this procedure, an ultrasonic probe inserted through a nephrostomy tube into the renal pelvis generates ultra-high-frequency sound waves to shatter renal calculi. The nurse should instruct the client to:

notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine. The nurse should instruct the client to report the presence of foul-smelling or cloudy urine to the physician. Unless contraindicated, the client should be instructed to drink large quantities of fluid each day to flush the kidneys. Sandlike debris is normal because of residual stone products. Hematuria is common after lithotripsy.

A client who has a history of neurogenic bladder uses a permanent, indwelling catheter to facilitate urine elimination. What can this client consume to decrease the likelihood of bladder infection?

cranberry juice Cranberry juice or vitamin C may be recommended to keep the bacteria from adhering to the wall of the bladder and thus promoting their excretion and enhancing the effectiveness of drug therapy.

A client is scheduled to undergo surgical creation of an ileal conduit. The primary nurse educates the client about surgery and the postoperative period. The nurse informs the client that many members of the health care team (including a mental health practitioner) will see him. A mental health practitioner should be involved in the client's care to:

help the client cope with the anxiety associated with changes in body image. Many clients who undergo surgery for creation of an ileal conduit experience anxiety associated with changes in body image. The mental health practitioner can help the client cope with these feelings of anxiety. Mental health practitioners don't evaluate whether the client is a surgical candidate. None of the evidence suggests that urinary diversion surgery, such as creation of an ileal conduit, places the client at risk for suicide. Although evaluating the need for mental health intervention is always important, this client displays no behavioral changes that suggest intervention is necessary at this time.

The nurse is teaching the client who will undergo surgery for the creation of a nephrostomy. Which of the images best depicts this type of cutaneous urinary diversion?

https://s3.amazonaws.com/prepu/prod/images/4020.jpeg A cutaneous diversion involves the creation of an opening through the abdominal wall and skin to allow urine to drain. A nephrosostomy (Option D) allows urine to drain directly from the kidney through a percutaneous catheter through an opening in the flank. An ileal conduit (Option A) is the most common cutaneous diversion, whereby both ureters empty into an isolated section of the ileum. One end of the isolated segment is brought through the abdominal wall and allows urine to drain through a stoma. With a cutaneous ureterostomy (Option B), the ureter is detached from the bladder and brought through the abdominal wall and attached to an opening in the skin. The bladder is sutured to the abdominal wall and a stoma is created through the abdominal and bladder walls for drainage of urine in a vesicostomy (Option C).

A client has developed urinary incontinence and is beginning bladder training to regain control over urine elimination. The catheter would be clamped and unclamped to:

promote normal bladder function. The clamping and unclamping of the catheter begins to reestablish normal bladder function and capacity.

A client with urinary retention needs to undergo a procedure to insert an indwelling catheter. Before catheterization, the nurse would discuss with the physician information about

the type and size of the catheter to be used. Before catheterization, the nurse should inquire about the type and size of the catheter to be used and whether the catheter should be removed or retained in place after the bladder is empty. Inserting a nasogastric tube, administering enemas, and placing IV lines are measures taken during preoperative and postoperative preparation in the case of surgery.