Chemistry Capstone Study Help

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

What is the quaternary structure of the polypeptide chain?

chains form functioning proteins, only seen when multiple chains are involved

What is the tertiary structure of the polypeptide chain?

how the chain folds and twists back on itself

Convert 10 mg/dL of calcium to mmole/L. (mw = 40) A) 2.5 B) 5 C) 10 D) 25

A) 2.5

Which of the following results would be the most consistent with high risk for coronary heart disease? A) 20 mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 250 mg/dL total cholesterol B) 35 mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 200 mg/dL total cholesterol C) 50 mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 190 mg/dL total cholesterol D) 55 mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 180 mg/dL total cholesterol E) 60 mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 170 mg/dL total cholesterol

A) 20 mg/dL HDL cholesterol and 250 mg/dL total cholesterol

Serum glucose determinations are done on samples from a control pool each day for 30 days. Quality control statistics are then calculated. The mean is 100 mg/dL and the standard deviation is 4 mg/dL. These statistics are used to label a quality control chart for the mean and +2 SD. Samples from the same control pool are then assayed each day along with patient samples, and control results are plotted on the chart. Results for the first 10 days are as follows:Day Result1 962 973 954 1075 1066 1077 898 1039 10610 105The coefficient of variation for these statistics is: A) 4% B) 8% C) 12.5% D) 25%

A) 4%

Which of the following best represents the reference (normal) range for arterial pH? A) 7.35-7.45 B) 7.42-7.52 C) 7.28-7.68 D) 6.85-7.56

A) 7.35-7.45

A manufacturer evaluates a new pregnancy test. The manufacturer enlists 500 study subjects, 190 pregnant females (of whom 150 had a positive test) and 310 nonpregnant females (of whom 296 had a negative test). Pregnant Pos: 150 Not Pregnant Pos: 14 Positive Test: A) 79% B) 88% C) 91% D) 95%

A) 79%

One cause for a DECREASED "anion gap" is: A) A decrease in albumin B) A decrease in calcium C) An increase in organic acids D) An increase in phosphate

A) A decrease in albumin

Which term would represent a blood pH of less then 7.35? A) Acidosis B) Alkalosis C) Buffer D) Base

A) Acidosis

Unconjugated bilirubin circulated in the bloodstream is bound to: A) Albumin B) Transferrin C) Alpha-1 globulin D) Glucuronic acid E) Sulfanilic acid

A) Albumin

Which of the following is the major mineralocorticoid? A) Aldosterone B) Cortisol C) Corticosterone D) Testosterone

A) Aldosterone

The majority of the iron in whole blood is: A) Bound to hemoglobin B) In the free ionized form in plasma C) Bound to transferrin in plasma D) Bound to ferritin

A) Bound to hemoglobin

When myocardial infarction occurs, the first enzyme to reach peak elevation is: A) CK B) LD C) AST D) ALT

A) CK

Anemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and ongoing azotemia are most indicative of: A) Chronic renal failure B) Glomerulonephritis C) Fanconi syndrome D) Acute renal failure

A) Chronic renal failure

Given the following lab results, what is the most likely cause of this patient's BUN?BUN 45 mg/dLCreatinine 1.8 mg/dLUric Acid 7 mg/dLpH 7.22pCO2 74.4 mm HgpO2 32.8 mm HgO2 sat. 51.3% A) Congestive heart failure B) Chronic renal disease C) Dialysis D) Acute tubular necrosis

A) Congestive heart failure

Which of the following condition is associated with hypernatremia? A) Diabetes insipidus B) Hypoaldosteronism C) Burns D) Diarrhea

A) Diabetes insipidus

Porphobilinogen may be differentiated from urobilinogen in urine by: A) Difference in chloroform solubility of Ehrlich's aldehyde derivatives B) Difference in reactivity with Ehrlich's aldehyde reagent C) Difference in fluorescence of Ehrlich's aldehyde derivatives D) Difference in precipitation with ammonium sulfate

A) Difference in chloroform solubility of Ehrlich's aldehyde derivatives

A cardiac glycoside that is used in the treatment of congenital heart failure and arrhythmias by increasing the force and velocity of myocardial contraction is: A) Digoxin B) Acetaminophen C) Lithium D) Phenytoin

A) Digoxin

The American Diabetes Association recommends which of the following for screening a diagnosis of Diabetes mellitus? A) Fasting plasma glucose B) Urine glucose C) Oral glucose tolerance test D) Random plasma glucose

A) Fasting plasma glucose

In the PCR method, how is denaturation accomplished? A) Heat B) Alkali treatment C) Addition of sulfonylurea D) Formamide

A) Heat

A patient is admitted to the emergency room in a state of metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following would most likely be consistent with this diagnosis? A) High pCO2, increased HCO3 B) Low pCO2, increased HCO3 C) High pCO2, decreased HCO3 D) Low pCO2, decreased HCO3

A) High pCO2, increased HCO3

A patient has the following test results: increased serum calcium levels, decreased serum phosphorus levels, increased levels of parathyroid hormone. This patient most likely has: A) Hyperparathyroidism B) Hypoparathyroidism C) Nephrosis D) Steatorrhea

A) Hyperparathyroidism

Which of the following is the primary mechanism of compensation for metabolic acidosis? A) Hyperventilation B) Aldosterone release C) Release of epinephrine D) Bicarbonate excretion

A) Hyperventilation

A low-salt diet, low blood pressure, and diuretics would cause the following results: A) Increased renin, increased aldosterone, hypernatremia, Hypokalemia B) Increased renin, decreased aldosterone, hypernatremia, Hypokalemia C) Decreased renin, decreased aldosterone, hyponatremia, Hyperkalemia D) Decreased renin, increased aldosterone, hyponatremia, Hyperkalemia

A) Increased renin, increased aldosterone, hypernatremia, Hypokalemia

Which of the following will decrease glucose levels? A) Insulin B) Glucagon C) Cortisol D) Growth hormone

A) Insulin

Energy or frequency of light waves varies ____________ with the wavelength. A) Inversely B) Directly

A) Inversely

A patient presents to her primary care provider with the following test results: Serum Iron: 25µg/dL TIBC: 516 µg/dLSerum Ferritin: 13 mg/dL A) Iron deficiency anemia B) Beta-thalassemia minor C) Anemia of chronic disease D) Primary hemochromatosis

A) Iron deficiency anemia

Serum bilirubin is unstable because of: A) Light sensitivity B) Acid pH C) Digestion by proteolytic enzymes D) Precipitates on standing

A) Light sensitivity

Creatinine is formed from the: A) Oxidation of creatine B) Oxidation of protein C) Deamination of dibasic amino acids D) Metabolism of purines

A) Oxidation of creatine

When therapeutic failure of aminoglycoside levels is suspected, one should draw a _________ serum drug level for measurement. A) Peak B) Trough

A) Peak

Which condition produces the highest elevation of serum lactate dehydrogenase? A) Pernicious anemia B) Myocardial infarction C) Acute hepatitis D) Muscular dystrophy

A) Pernicious anemia

A compound that may be detected by observing its rose-red color in the aqueous layer of the Watson-Schwartz test is: A) Porphobilinogen B) Uroporphyrinogen C) Delta-aminolevulinic acid D) Coproporphyrin E) Urobilinogen

A) Porphobilinogen

Which of the following conditions is associated with hypophosphatemia? A) Rickets B) Multiple myeloma C) Renal failure D) Hypervitaminosis D

A) Rickets

A major extracellular cation that contributes to about half of plasma's osmolality. It plays a central role in maintaining water distributions and osmotic pressure. A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Chloride D) CO2

A) Sodium

Which electrolyte level best correlates with plasma osmolality? A) Sodium B) Chloride C) Bicarbonate D) Calcium

A) Sodium

Which technique is used to detect DNA containing a specific base sequence by applying a labeled probe to DNA bands immobilized onto nitrocellulose paper following electrophoresis? A) Southern blot B) Northern blot C) Dot blot D) Western blot

A) Southern blot

A test's "negativity in the absence of the disease" is termed its: A) Specificity B) Predictive value C) Accuracy D) Sensitivity E) Efficiency

A) Specificity

Myocardial infarction can produce a CK isoenzyme profile that is similar to: A) Strenuous exercise B) Multiple sclerosis C) Cardiac surgery D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A) Strenuous exercise

Urea is produced from: A) The catabolism of proteins and amino acids B) Oxidation of purines C) Oxidation of pyrimidines D) The breakdown of complex carbohydrates

A) The catabolism of proteins and amino acids

True or false? Chloride is the major extracellular anion in plasma. A) True B) False

A) True

True or false? Serum uric acid levels may be elevated in patients undergoing cancer chemotherapy. A) True B) False

A) True

Upon receiving an arterial specimen for blood gases in the laboratory, you observe that it was not maintained under strict anaerobic conditions. You refuse to analyze the specimen. You base your decision on the premise that the following parameters have been altered: A) pH increased, pCO2 decreased, pO2 increased B) pH decreased, pCO2 increased, pO2 decreased C) pH increased, pCO2 increased, pO2 decreased D) pH decreased, pCO2 decreased, pO2 increased

A) pH increased, pCO2 decreased, pO2 increased

A patient sample gave an absorbance reading of 0.2; the 5 mg/dL standard used in the test gave an absorbance reading of 0.3. What is the concentration in the patient's sample? A. 3.3 B. 12.5 C. 125 D. 33.3

A. 3.3

What percentage of dietary iron is normally absorbed daily? A. 5% to 15% B. 25% to 35% C. 50% to 75% D. 75% to 100%

A. 5% to 15%

Which formula correctly described the relationship between absorbance and %T? A. A=2-log%T B. A=2+log%T C. A= -log%T - 2 D. A=1+log%T

A. A=2-log%T

Given the following results: ALP Slight increase ALT Marked increase AST Marked increase GGT Slight increase This is most consistent with: A. Acute hepatitis B. Chronic hepatitis C. Obstructive jaundice D. Liver hemangioma

A. Acute hepatitis

Which hormone controls sodium reabsorption? A. Aldosterone B. Anti-Diuretic Hormone C. Renin D. Angiotensin II

A. Aldosterone

Which apoprotein is inversely related to risk for coronary heart disease? A. Apoprotein A-I B. Apoprotein B C. Apoprotein C-II D. Apoprotein E-IV

A. Apoprotein A-I

Which of the following is not a component of a basic single beam spectrophotometer: A. Beam splitter B. Cuvette C. Prism D. Light source

A. Beam splitter

In the condition Kernicterus, the abnormal accumulation of bilirubin occurs in what tissue? A. Brain B. Liver C. Kidney D. Blood

A. Brain

Plasma proteins are primarily synthesized in the: A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Thryroid D. Plasma cells

A. Liver

During an evaluation of adrenal function, a patient had plasma cortisol determinations in the morning after awakening and in the evening. Laboratory results indicated that the morning value was higher than the evening concentration. This is indicative of: A. Normal finding B. Cushing syndrome C. Addison's disease D. Hypopituitarism

A. Normal finding

The serum TSH level is decreased in: A. Primary hyperthyroidism B. Primary hypothyroidism C. Secondary hyperthyroidism D. Euthyroid sick syndrome

A. Primary hyperthyroidism

The thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) stimulation test rules out the diagnosis of mild or subclinical hyperthyroidism if TRH infusion causes: A. Rise in plasma TSH B. No rise in plasma TSH C. Rise in plasma growth hormone D. No rise in plasma growth hormone

A. Rise in plasma TSH

Urea is produced from: A. The catabolism of proteins and amino acids B. Oxidation of purines C. Oxidation of pyrimidines D. The breakdown of complex carbohydrates

A. The catabolism of proteins and amino acids

True or false? Chloride is the major extracellular anion in plasma. A. True B. False

A. True

Select the lipoprotein fraction that carries most of the endogenous triglycerides. A. VLDL B. LDL C. HDL D. Chylomicrons

A. VLDL

Which of the following proteins has the FASTEST electrophoretic mobility? A. albumin B. alpha-1 globulins C. beta globulins D. gamma globulins

A. albumin

Which of the following would you find in a primary hyperparathyroidism case? A. elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus B. elevated serum calcium and elevated serum phosphorus C. decreased serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus D. decreased serum calcium and increased serum phosphorus

A. elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus

Calcium and phosphorus levels were determined for a 4-year-old patient as follows:Ca - 14mg/dlPhosphorus - 1mg/dlThese results are MOST compatible with: A. hyperparathyroidism B. renal failure C. rickets D. hypervitaminosis

A. hyperparathyroidism

How many milliliters of 0.5N NaOH are required to make 100 milliliters of 0.2N NaOH? A) 250 B) 40 C) 25 D) 4

B) 40

What is the percentage of serum calcium that is ionized (Ca1)? A) 30% B) 45% C) 60% D) 80%

B) 45%

Serum glucose determinations are done on samples from a control pool each day for 30 days. Quality control statistics are then calculated. The mean is 100 mg/dL and the standard deviation is 4 mg/dL. These statistics are used to label a quality control chart for the mean and +2 SD. Samples from the same control pool are then assayed each day along with patient samples, and control results are plotted on the chart. Results for the first 10 days are as follows:Day Result1 962 973 954 1075 1066 1077 898 1039 10610 105Using 95% confidence limits means that 95% of the control values would fall between: A) 96 and 104, B) 92 and 108, C) 88 and 112 . D) Can't tell from the information

B) 92 and 108

A creatinine clearance is done on a patient with the following results: serum creatinine, 0.6 mg/dL; urine creatinine, 102 mg/dL; urine volume, 1650 mL/24 hours; body surface area, 1.93 sq m. Based on the information from calculations above, which of the following is the best interpretation of this patient's creatinine clearance results? A) Within the normal range B) Above normal C) Below normal D) Above normal, probably because the 24-hr urine collection was not completed correctly

B) Above normal

Enzymes associated with acute pancreatitis are: A) AST and ALT B) Amylase and lipase C) CK and LD D) ALP and GGT

B) Amylase and lipase

Hypernatremia commonly occurs in: A) Burns, syndrome of inappropriate ADH, and excessive sweating without water intake B) Burns and excessive sweating without water intake C) Syndrome of inappropriate ADH and nephrotic syndrome D) Nephrotic syndrome only E) Burns, syndrome of inappropriate ADH, excessive sweating without water intake, and nephrotic syndrome

B) Burns and excessive sweating without water intake

The federal regulation most cited and the one with which most laboratories must comply when implementing a POCT system is the: A) National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Science B) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment C) National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards D) American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science

B) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment

Pituitary secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is inhibited by elevated levels of: A) Aldosterone B) Cortisol C) Estradiol-17b D) Progesterone E) Epinephrine

B) Cortisol

The sweat test for chloride is used as a screening test for: A) Parkinson's disease B) Cystic fibrosis C) Pancreatitis D) Hyper- or hypochloremia

B) Cystic fibrosis

A plasma specimen from a hospital patient is analyzed on an osmometer and reported as 400 mOsm/Kg. What is the most likely effect on this patient's water distribution in the tissues? A) Edema B) Dehydration C) No change

B) Dehydration

Which of the following best describes the correct collection and handling conditions for a blood ammonia measurement? A) Fasting patient, draw clot tube, separate serum immediately B) Draw heparin tube, keep on ice, test immediately C) Draw clot tube, protect from light, freeze if not tested immediately D) Fasting patient, draw EDTA tube, test immediately

B) Draw heparin tube, keep on ice, test immediately

When a purified enzyme is used as a reagent, such as urease in the measurement of urea, the enzyme must be ___________________ concentration so that the reaction follows_________________ kinetics. A) Limited; first B) Excess; first C) Limited; zero D) Excess; zero

B) Excess; first

If a patient refuses to be drawn, you should first attempt to: A) Use physical restraint B) Explain the importance of the tests C) Cancel the tests D) Ask your department head or supervisor to draw the specimen

B) Explain the importance of the tests

Which of the following elevates carboxyhemoglobin? A) Nitrite poisoning B) Exposure to carbon monoxide C) Sulfa drug toxicity D) Sickle cell anemia

B) Exposure to carbon monoxide

Parathyroid hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone are higher in the morning verses the evening. A) True B) False

B) False

True or false? Peak drug levels in the blood are usually measured to determine the drug's efficacy. A) True B) False

B) False

True or false? Serum urea levels are less affected by diet and metabolism than are serum creatinine levels. A) True B) False

B) False

True or false? The main function of antidiuretic hormone is to increase the reabsorption of sodium and increase the secretion of potassium. A) True B) False

B) False

The reference method for glucose determination is: A) Glucose dehydrogenase B) Hexokinase C) Glucose oxidase D) Copper reduction

B) Hexokinase

Which of the following is the reference method for measuring serum glucose? A) Somogyi-Nelson B) Hexokinase C) Glucose oxidase D) Glucose dehydrogenase

B) Hexokinase

Unconjugated bilirubin is _________________ and conjugated bilirubin is____________________. A) Indirect and water soluble, Direct and water insoluble B) Indirect and water insoluble, Direct and water soluble C) Direct and water soluble, Indirect and water insoluble D) Direct and water insoluble, Indirect and water soluble

B) Indirect and water insoluble, Direct and water soluble

Blood specimens drawn early in the morning are recommended for measuring serum iron and TIBC because: A) Most people's diet is rich in iron B) Iron exhibits a diurnal cyclic variation C) Iron in serum goes into the cells after a meal D) The premise is incorrect; iron specimens do not need to be fasting

B) Iron exhibits a diurnal cyclic variation

Urea: A) Is synthesized in the liver from the breakdown of nucleic acids B) Is synthesized from CO2 and ammonia C) Can produce Reye's syndrome when present in high amounts in blood D) Is increased in serum during acute episodes of gout

B) Is synthesized from CO2 and ammonia

Tests of pancreatic exocrine function include: A) Measurement of serum gastrin B) Measurement of serum amylase and lipase activity C) Measurement of serum insulin and glucagon D) Measurement of serum renin and erythropoietin

B) Measurement of serum amylase and lipase activity

Heroin is synthesized from A) Diazepam B) Morphine C) Ecgonine D) Chlorpromazine E) Valproic acid

B) Morphine

The three hormones that regulate serum calcium are: A) PTH, vitamin D, and estrogen B) PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin C) PTH, renin, and calcitonin D) Erythropoietin, calcitonin, and estrogen

B) PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin

Calcium concentration in the serum is regulated endogenously by: A) Insulin B) Parathyroid hormone C) Thyroxine D) Vitamin D

B) Parathyroid hormone

Tubes that contain a gel serum separator should not be used for: A) Cholesterol testing B) Progesterone testing C) Pediatric patients D) VDRL testing

B) Progesterone testing

Pituitary adenomas that secrete _______ are by far the most common form of hyperpituitarism. A) Growth hormone B) Prolactin C) ACTH D) TSH E) ADH

B) Prolactin

A chemistry analyzer that can perform multiple analyses on a single specimen during one run is referred to as a: A) Batch analyzer B) Random access analyzer C) Continuous-flow analyzer D) Chromatographic analyzer

B) Random access analyzer

In addition to pancreatitis, an increase in serum lipase activity may be observed in: A) Acute myocardial infarction B) Renal insufficiency C) Cystic fibrosis D) Viral hepatitis

B) Renal insufficiency

The following laboratory results were obtained:Sodium: 136 mEq/L pH: 7.32 Potassium: 4.4 mEq/L pCO2: 79 mm Hg Chloride: 92 mEq/L Bicarbonate: 40 mEq/LThese results are most compatible with: A) Respiratory alkalosis B) Respiratory acidosis C) Metabolic alkalosis D) Metabolic acidosis

B) Respiratory acidosis

Serum glucose determinations are done on samples from a control pool each day for 30 days. Quality control statistics are then calculated. The mean is 100 mg/dL and the standard deviation is 4 mg/dL. These statistics are used to label a quality control chart for the mean and +2 SD. Samples from the same control pool are then assayed each day along with patient samples, and control results are plotted on the chart. Results for the first 10 days are as follows:Day Result1 962 973 954 1075 1066 1077 898 1039 10610 105On day 4 above, the light source was changed in the spectrophotometer used for this procedure. A) Trend B) Shift C) Random D) Run variation

B) Shift

The greatest tissue source of CK is: A) Heart muscle B) Skeletal muscle C) Brain D) Thyroid

B) Skeletal muscle

The preferred collection tube for preservation of glucose is: A) Calcium oxalate B) Sodium fluoride C) Lithium heparin D) Sodium citrate

B) Sodium fluoride

Which of the following statements describes optimal conditions for transport, handling, and storage of blood specimens for clinical chemistry testing? A) Specimen brought to lab within 6 hours after collection, stored at room temperature before centrifugation for up to 24 hours B) Specimen brought to lab immediately, permitted to clot, serum separated and tested as soon as possible C) Specimen brought to lab immediately, spun down and serum left to stand on clot until tested D) None of these represent optimal conditions

B) Specimen brought to lab immediately, permitted to clot, serum separated and tested as soon as possible

The coefficient of variation (CV) is: A) The square root of the standard deviation B) Standard deviation expressed as % of the average of the values used to calculate the standard deviation C) Standard deviation expressed as % of the range of values used to calculate the standard deviation D) Standard deviation expressed as % of the correlation coefficient E) Summation of duplicate differences expressed as % of the mean v

B) Standard deviation expressed as % of the average of the values used to calculate the standard deviation

Which formula provides the best estimate of serum transferrin? A) Serum Fe/TIBC B) TIBC (µg/dL) x 0.70 = transferrin in mg/dL C) Percent iron saturation x TIBC (µg/dL)/1.2 + 0.06 mg/dL D) Serum Fe (µg/dL) x 1.25 = transferrin (µg/dL)

B) TIBC (µg/dL) x 0.70 = transferrin in mg/dL

The major fraction of organic iodine circulating in the blood is: A) Thyroglobulin B) Tetraiodothyronine C) Triiodothyronine D) Diiodotyrosine

B) Tetraiodothyronine

A two-year-old child with a decreased serum T4 is described as being somewhat dwarfed, stocky, and overweight and having coarse features. Of the following, the most informative additional laboratory test would be serum: A) Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C) Triiodothyronine (T3) D) Cholesterol

B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Which MI marker is the most specific and sensitive and remains elevated for 14 days or more? A) CK-MB B) Troponin T C) LD1 D) CK-MB isoform

B) Troponin T

A toxic condition involving a very high serum level of urea and creatinine accompanied by failure of the three main functions of the renal system is referred to as: A) Acute glomerulonephritis B) Uremia C) Azotemia D) Acute renal failure

B) Uremia

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) are both elevated in which of the following diseases? A) Muscular dystrophy B) Viral hepatitis C) Myocardial infarction D) Obstructive liver disease

B) Viral hepatitis

Which of the following forms of the HendersonHasselbalch equation is (are) correct? A) pH = 6.1 + log HCO3/H2CO3, pH = 6.1 + S x pCO2/HCO3, and pH = pKa + log HCO3/H2CO3 B) pH = 6.1 + log HCO3/H2CO3 and pH = pKa + log HCO3/H2CO3 C) ph = 6.1 + S x pCO2/HCO3 and pH = pKa - log HCO3/H2CO3 D) pH = pKa - log HCO3/H2CO3

B) pH = 6.1 + log HCO3/H2CO3 and pH = pKa + log HCO3/H2CO3

Calculate LDL cholesterol concentration if total cholesterol is 230 mg/dL, Triglyceride is 140 mg/dL and the HDL cholesterol is 50.0 mg/ dL. A. 148ml/dl B. 152 mg/dL C. 201 mg/dL D. Unable to calculate

B. 152 mg/dL

What is the percentage of serum calcium that is ionized? A. 30% B. 45% C. 60% D. 80%

B. 45%

Which assay is performed to diagnose congestive heart failure (CHF)? A. Homocysteine B. BNP C. cTnT D. hs-CRP

B. BNP

Scurvy is associated with deficiency of: A. A B. C C. Niacin D. Thiamine

B. C

Select the main estrogen that is produced by the ovaries and is used to evaluate ovarian function. A. Estriol B. Estradiol C. Epiestriol D. Hydroxyestrone

B. Estradiol

Iron is physiologically active only in the ferrous form in: A. Transferrin B. Hemoglobin C. Ferritin D. Cytochromes

B. Hemoglobin

Which of the following is the reference method for measuring serum glucose? A. Somogyi-Nelson B. Hexokinase C. Glucose oxidase D. Glucose dehydrogenase

B. Hexokinase

Absorption of vitamin B12 in the stomach and gut requires the presence of: A. Gastrin B. Intrinsic factor C. Secretin D. Folic acid

B. Intrinsic factor

Which NPN is in the highest concentration in the blood? A. Creatinine B. Urea C. Uric acid D. Ammonia

B. Urea

Iontophoresis is a technique used in the diagnosis of: A. phenylketonuria B. cystic fibrosis C. pernicious anemia D. Addison's disease

B. cystic fibrosis

The tourniquet should be left on no more then ___________ or _____________ will be elevated. A) 1 min, sodium and bilirubin B) 5 min, glucose and potassium C) 1 min, potassium and total protein D) 45 seconds, potassium and sodium

C) 1 min, potassium and total protein

A serum specimen for glucose measurement was allowed to stand unseparated on the clot for 6 hours at room temperature before testing. If the original glucose concentration was 200 mg/dL, what approximate results would be expected after 3 hours? A) 240 mg/dL B) No change in results C) 160 mg/dL D) 150 mg/dL

C) 160 mg/dL

A creatinine clearance is done on a patient with the following results: serum creatinine, 0.6 mg/dL; urine creatinine, 102 mg/dL; urine volume, 1650 mL/24 hours; body surface area, 1.93 sq m. This patient's creatinine clearance, corrected for body surface area, is: A) 93 mL/min B) 130 mg/dL C) 175 mL/min D) 195 mL/mi n E) 217 mL/min

C) 175 mL/min

What is the normal ration of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide in arterial blood? A) 1:10 B) 10:1 C) 20:1 D) 30:1

C) 20:1

A patient brought to the emergency room has the following laboratory results: Sodium = 140 mmol/L Glucose = 80 mg/dLBUN = 6.0 mg/dL Osmolality = 316 mOsm/Kg H2O The calculated osmolality on this patient using the Weisberg formula is:

C) 286

If a drug has a half-life of 7 hours, how many doses given at 7-hour intervals does it usually take to achieve a steady-state level? A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 8

C) 5

As a screening test for Cushing's syndrome, the physician wishes to see whether a patient exhibits normal diurnal rhythm of his cortisol secretion. At what time should the specimens be drawn for plasma cortisol determination? (Assume a daytime work schedule for the patient.) A) 6 AM, noon B) 8 AM, 2 PM C) 8 AM, 8 PM D) Noon, 6 PM E) Noon, midnight

C) 8 AM, 8 PM

Which two liver enzymes are seen elevated in hepatobiliary disease? A) AST and ALT B) ALP and ALT C) ALP and GGT D) AST and GGT

C) ALP and GGT

In a spectrophotometric determination, which one of the following is the formula for calculating the absorbance of a solution? A) (Absorptivity x concentration) / light path in cm B) (Absorptivity x light path in cm) / concentration C) Absorptivity x light path in cm x concentration D) (Light path in cm x concentration) / absorptivity

C) Absorptivity x light path in cm x concentration

A physician has ordered a hepatic on a patient. Which of the following test would you expect to see? A) Cholesterol B) Potassium C) Alanine aminotransferase/ALT D) TSH

C) Alanine aminotransferase/ALT

The glucose value of a NORMAL 2-hour post-prandial serum specimen, as compared to the reference range for a fasting serum glucose, should be: A) Significantly greater than the normal fasting glucose level B) Significantly lower than the normal fasting glucose level C) Approximately the same as the normal fasting glucose level D) Unrelated to each other

C) Approximately the same as the normal fasting glucose level

The major non-glucose-reducing substance present in serum is: A) Urea B) Protein C) Ascorbic acid D) Glutathione E) Cholesterol

C) Ascorbic acid

What one item must be remembered with handling a tube of blood? A) Protection is not necessary unless the tube is labeled "AIDS patient" B) The only protection needed is a lab coat C) At least a lab coat and gloves must be worn D) A biological safety cabinet must be used

C) At least a lab coat and gloves must be worn

Factors used in determining whether POCT should be used include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Need B) Efficiency C) Benefit to the laboratory D) Cost

C) Benefit to the laboratory

A patient has a Calcium of 3.2 mg/dl and a Potassium of 9.4. The tech checked the tube. It is an unhemolysed serum separator tube. What is the most likely cause of these results. A) The patient is in sever renal failure B) The patient is pregnant C) Blood was transferred from a lavender top tube D) These are normal results for a child

C) Blood was transferred from a lavender top tube

Which of the following is the best analyte to monitor for recurrence of ovarian cancer? A) CA-15-3 B) CA-19-9 C) CA-125 D) CEA

C) CA-125

Which isoenzyme of creatine kinase (CK) is primarily found in cardiac muscle? A) CK-MM B) CK-BB C) CK-MB D) CK-BC

C) CK-MB

Random-access analysis is a type of analysis in which a specimen: A) Can be analyzed only in continuous sequence with other specimens B) Is subjected to a single process that produces results for a single analyte C) Can be analyzed by any available process without regard to the initial order of specimens D) Can be analyzed by any available process but only in the initial order of specimens

C) Can be analyzed by any available process without regard to the initial order of specimens

CEA is most commonly associated with: A) Breast cancer B) Ovarian cancer C) Colon cancer D) Myelocytic leukemia

C) Colon cancer

Which of the following diseases is characterized by primary hyperaldosteronism caused by adrenal adenoma, carcinoma, or hyperplasia? A) Cushing's disease B) Addison's disease C) Conn's disease D) Pheochromocytoma

C) Conn's disease

Biotransformation or metabolism of a drug refers to the: A) Movement of drug from blood to tissues B) Elimination of drug via renal or lung processes C) Conversion of drug to active or inactive compounds D) Movement of drug from site of administration to blood

C) Conversion of drug to active or inactive compounds

Which of the following is likely to occur first in iron deficiency anemia? A) Decreased serum iron B) Increased TIBC C) Decreased serum ferritin D) Increased transferrin

C) Decreased serum ferritin

Most standards organizations recognize _______ as the anticoagulant of choice for blood cell counts. A) Sodium citrate B) Sodium fluoride C) EDTA D) Heparin

C) EDTA

The most sensitive enzymatic indicator for liver damage from ethanol intake is: A) ALT B) AST C) GGT D) ALP

C) GGT

The "gold standard" confirmation method for positive drug screens is: A) Immunoassay B) High-performance liquid chromatography C) Gas chromatography/mass spectrometry D) Ultraviolet absorption spectroscopy

C) Gas chromatography/mass spectrometry

The lipoprotein that contains the greatest amount of protein is called: A) Chylomicrons B) VLDL C) HDL D) LDL

C) HDL

The only acceptable anticoagulant for a calcium determination is: A) Citrate B) Fluoride C) Heparin D) EDTA

C) Heparin

Which patient results indicate the highest risk of brain damage: A) Direct bilirubin: 0.1 mg/dL B) Indirect bilirubin: 1.4 mg/dL C) Indirect bilirubin: 10. 2 mg/dL D) Direct bilirubin : 9.4 mg/dL

C) Indirect bilirubin: 10. 2 mg/dL

LD has five isoenzymes, which two are associated with liver disease and skeletal diseases? A) LD1 (HHHH) and LD2(HHHM) B) LD2 (HHHM) and LD3 (HHMM) C) LD4 (HMMM) and LD5(MMMM) D) LD1 (HHHH) and LD5(MMMM)

C) LD4 (HMMM) and LD5(MMMM)

The Jaffe alkaline picrate reaction for creatinine can be made more specific for creatinine with the use of: A) Urease B) Creatinine amidohydrolase C) Lloyd's reagent D) Sodium carbonate

C) Lloyd's reagent

A patient presents with Addison's disease. Serum sodium and potassium analyses are done. The results would reveal: A) Normal sodium, low potassium levels B) Low sodium, low potassium levels C) Low sodium, high potassium levels D) High sodium, low potassium levels

C) Low sodium, high potassium levels

A patient comes in to the clinic complaining of chest pains. The total CK was extremely elevated. The physician orders CK isoenzymes along with other cardiac markers. Based on the CK isoenzymes results listed below: CK BB normal CK MB normal CKMM elevated What would you suspect is wrong with this patient?

C) Muscular dystrophy

AFP and CEA are examples of which type of tumor marker? A) Hormone B) Enzyme C) Oncofetal antigen D) Carcinoma-associated antigen

C) Oncofetal antigen

The term below that is related to the ability of plasma proteins to maintain plasma water volume is: A) Isotonic equilibrium B) Crystalloid osmotic pressure C) Oncotic pressure D) Hydrostatic pressure

C) Oncotic pressure

Interpret the following results:Cholesterol: 178 mg/dLTriglycerides: 233 mg/dLHDL: 52 mg/dLLDL: 79.4 mg/dL A) All results are normal B) All results are abnormal C) Only the Triglyceride is abnormal D) The LD and HDL are abnormal

C) Only the Triglyceride is abnormal

The TRH (thyrotropin releasing hormone) stimulation test is useful in differentiating hypothalamic hypothyroidism from: A) Primary hypothyroidism B) Hashimoto's thyroiditis C) Pituitary hypothyroidism D) Sub-clinical hypothyroidism

C) Pituitary hypothyroidism

Production of bilirubin occurs in the __________, and conjugation of bilirubin to glucuronide occurs in the _____________. A) RES; intestine B) Liver; intestine C) RES; liver D) Liver; RES

C) RES; liver

Interpret the following results on a young female that is complaining of extreme fatigue and weight gain. T4- DecreasedT3-Decreased FT4-DecreasedTSH-Decreased A) Hyperthyroidism B) Primary Hypothyroidism C) Secondary Hypothyroidism D) Normal

C) Secondary Hypothyroidism

A physician calls the laboratory and asks what lab tests should be requested to assess the acid-base balance function of a patient's renal system. You reply: A) Serum creatinine, serum urea, serum uric acid, and creatinine clearance B) Serum bilirubin (conjugated and total), urine Urobilinogen C) Serum bicarbonate and blood pH D) Serum rennin and erythropoietin

C) Serum bicarbonate and blood pH

Diurnal variation is a term that refers to: A) Whether or not a patient is fasting B) Collection of urine specimens C) Time of day of specimen collection D) Whether a patient is resting or exercising

C) Time of day of specimen collection

Bilirubin is reduced to __________ in the small intestine. A) Urobilin B) Porphobilinogen C) Urobilinogen D) Biliverdin

C) Urobilinogen

Violation of the 2-2S, 4-1S or 10x Westgard rules is a strong indication of _________. A) shift B) trend C) systematic error D) random error

C) systematic error

Which of the following values is the threshold critical value for low plasma potassium? A. 1.5mmol/L B. 2.0mmol/L C. 2.5mmol/L D. 3.5mmol/L

C. 2.5mmol/L

A patient has the following serum results: Na = 134 mEq/L K = 4.5 mEq/L Cl = 108 mEq/L Glucose = 250 mg/dL BUN = 15 mg/dL Creatinine = 0.8 mg/dL What is the osmolality result? A. 178 B. 254 C. 287 D. 297

C. 287

In the liver, methanol is metabolized by ________ to form __________. A. Aldehyde dehydrogenase; acetone B. Methanol hydroxylase; acetaldehyde C. Alcohol dehydrogenase; formaldehyde D. Alcohol dehydrogenase; acetaldehyde

C. Alcohol dehydrogenase; formaldehyde

Which of the following deficiencies is associated with neural tube defects? A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin A C. Folate D. Vitamin C

C. Folate

Hyperparathyroidism is most consistently associated with: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypocalcuria C. Hypophosphatemia D. Metabolic alkalosis

C. Hypophosphatemia

Patients who develop severe sepsis or septic shock commonly have __________ plasma lactic acid values. A. Decreased B. Normal C. Increased

C. Increased

The Jaffe alkaline picrate reaction for creatinine can be made more specific for creatinine with the use of: A. Urease B. Creatinine amidohydrolase C. Lloyd's reagent D. Sodium carbonate

C. Lloyd's reagent

Creatinine excretion correlates best with which of the following parameters: A. Age B. Gender C. Muscle mass D. Body weight

C. Muscle mass

Which of the following conditions would be suggested by a jaundiced patient experiencing a marked rise in alkaline phosphatase, conjugated bilirubin, and a slight rise in ALT: A. Cardiovascular disease B. Hepatitis C. Post-hepatic obstruction D. Renal failure

C. Post-hepatic obstruction

A patient's blood gas results are as follows: pH = 7.26; dco2=2.0mmol/L; HCO3-=29mmol/L. These results would be classified as: A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

C. Respiratory acidosis

A 16 year old female was taken to the emergency room in a coma by her mother. She had lost 25 pounds in 2 months; she was always thirsty; drinking a lot of water and running to the bathroom. Her laboratory results are shown below. Results: (indicates reference range) pH: 7.21 (7.35-7.45) pCO2: 23 mm Hg (35-45 mm Hg) Glucose: 742 mg/dL (60-110 mg/dL) Urine ketone: positiveUrine glucose: large What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's symptoms? A. gestational diabetes B. diabetes insipidus C. type I diabetes mellitus D. type II diabetes mellitus

C. type I diabetes mellitus

A solution contains 4.5 grams of BaCl2 in 400 mL. What is the normality? (mw = 208) A) 1.1 B) 0.05 C) 0.5 D) 0.11

D) 0.11

How many millimoles of NaCl are contained in 300 mL of a 4M solution? (mw = 58.5) A) 70 B) 120 C) 234 D) 1200

D) 1200

A patient sample for uric acid gave an absorbance reading of 0.4; the 50 mg/dL standard used in the test gave an absorbance reading of 0.1. What is the concentration of uric acid in the patient's sample in grams per deciliter? A) 0.2 B) 12.5 C) 125 D) 200

D) 200

The lipid: protein ratio of HDL is: A) 99:1 B) 90:10 C) 80:20 D) 50:50

D) 50:50

In absorption spectrophotometry: A) Absorbance is directly proportional to transmittance B) Percent transmittance is directly proportional to concentration C) Percent transmittance is directly proportional to the light path length D) Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration

D) Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration

The order of draw is established to prevent: A) Hemoconcentration B) Excessive anticoagulation C) Underfilling tubes D) Additive carry-over

D) Additive carry-over

Which of the following conditions is associated with hypokalemia? A) Addison's disease B) Hemolytic anemia C) Digoxin intoxication D) Alkalosis

D) Alkalosis

A moderately hemolyzed tube is drawn in the ER. Which of the following tests will be affected? A) Potassium B) Phosphorus C) Magnesium D) All of the these

D) All of the these

A tech draws a glucose in a sodium fluoride tube. The doctor later wants to add additional tests. Which test(s) should not be performed? A) Calcium B) BUN C) Magnesium D) All of the these

D) All of the these

Cocaine is metabolized to: A) Carbamazepine B) Codeine C) Hydrocodone D) Benzoylecgonine

D) Benzoylecgonine

HIV may be transmitted by which of the following? A) Blood B) Semen C) Amniotic fluid D) Blood, semen, amniotic fluid

D) Blood, semen, amniotic fluid

Sandy Jones comes in to see her doctor right after lunch. He is concerned with how high her glucose readings have been. He sends her to the lab for glucose and an A1C. She tells the lab tech that she just checked her blood sugar with her meter two minutes ago. It was 356 mg/dL. The tech draws her blood and tests the glucose level. The result is reported as 329mg/dL. What is the most likely reason for this difference? A) The tech mislabeled the tube and this was not her result B) Morning QC was out on the lab instrument C) Her glucose had significantly dropped in two minutes D) Capillary blood glucose is higher the venous after a meal

D) Capillary blood glucose is higher the venous after a meal

The parent substance in the biosynthesis of androgens and estrogens is: A) Cortisol B) Catecholamines C) Progesterone D) Cholesterol

D) Cholesterol

The most likely cause for serum/plasma to appear "milky" is the presence of: A) VLDL B) LDL C) HDL D) Chylomicrons

D) Chylomicrons

Which of the following is NOT commonly used as a tumor marker? A) Prostate specific antigen B) Alpha-fetoprotein C) Carcinoembryonic antigen D) Cortisol

D) Cortisol

Peptide bonds of proteins bind with _________ ions of biuret reagent to produce a colored product. A) Ferrous B) Cuprous C) Ferric D) Cupric

D) Cupric

Increased serum albumin concentrations are seen in which of the following conditions? A) Nephrotic syndrome B) Acute hepatitis C) Chronic inflammation D) Dehydration

D) Dehydration

Hyperkalemia may be seen in all the following EXCEPT: A) Primary adrenal insufficiency, dehydration, and diabetes insipidus B) Primary adrenal insufficiency and diabetes insipidus C) Dehydration and diuretic therapy D) Diuretic therapy only E) Primary adrenal insufficiency, dehydration, diabetes insipidus, and diuretic therapy

D) Diuretic therapy only

A 21-year-old man with nausea, vomiting, and jaundice has the following laboratory findings: Total serum bilirubin: 8.5 mg/dL (normal 0-1.0 mg/dL) Direct serum bilirubin: 6.1 mg/dL (normal 0-0.5 mg/dL) Urine urobilinogen: Increased Urine bilirubin: Positive AST: 200 U/L (normal 0-50 U/L) ALP: 160 U/L (normal 0-150 U/L) A) Chronic liver disease B) Obstructive jaundice C) Hemolytic anemia D) Early hepatitis

D) Early hepatitis

Bioavailability of a drug refers to the: A) Availability for therapeutic administration B) Availability of the protein-bound fraction of the drug C) Drug transformation D) Extent and rate at which the active drug reaches target tissues

D) Extent and rate at which the active drug reaches target tissues

The formation of glucose from compounds like fatty acids, glycerol, and amino acids is called: A) Glycolysis B) Glycogenesis C) Glycogenolysis D) Gluconeogenesis

D) Gluconeogenesis

A diabetic patient is prescribed a daily regimen of insulin. Which of the following laboratory procedures would be of most value in determining the degree of glucose control over a 2-month period? A) Fasting blood glucose B) 2-hr PP glucose C) OGTT D) Glycated hemoglobin E) Fructosamine

D) Glycated hemoglobin

Which of the following is a tropic (stimulating) hormone? A) Thyroxine B) Testosterone C) Parathyroid hormone D) Growth hormone

D) Growth hormone

A patient is admitted to the hospital with intense chest pains. The patient's primary care physician requests that the emergency room doctor order several tests, including a lipid profile with cholesterol fractionation. The patient's results are as follows: Total Cholesterol = 400 mg/dL Triglycerides = 300 mg/dLHDL Cholesterol = 100 mg/dL LP Electrophoresis - pending. This patient's LDL cholesterol is: A) Optimal B) Desirable C) Borderline D) High

D) High

In a patient with suspected primary hyperthyroidism associated with Graves' disease, one would expect the following laboratory serum results: T4 _________, TSH _________. A) Increased, increased B) Decreased, normal C) Increased, normal D) Increased, decreased E) Normal, increased

D) Increased, decreased

POCT tests classified as waived by government standards include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Fructosamine B) Cholesterol C) Triglycerides D) Ionized calcium

D) Ionized calcium

An LD flip, in assessing a possible myocardial infarction, refers to: A) LD2 > LD1 B) LD5 > LD1 C) LD1 > LD5 D) LD1 > LD2

D) LD1 > LD2

What is the gold standard methodology for Toxicology testing? A) Immunoassay B) Electrophoresis C) Liquid Chromatography D) Mass Spectrometry

D) Mass Spectrometry

H2CO3 is regulated by the lungs and is equal to: A) PCO2 X 3.00 B) PCO2 X 0.03 C) HCO3 X 0.33 D) PCO2 X 0.03

D) PCO2 X 0.03

Progesterone: A) Is produced in adult testes and is responsible for genital development, beard growth, muscle development, and sexual drive B) Is produced by the placenta during pregnancy, with highest levels seen at conception and then steadily decreasing to non-detectable levels at term C) Is lowest is serum during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and highest during the follicular phase D) Parallels activity of the corpus luteum by rapidly increasing following ovulation and then abruptly falling to initial low concentrations prior to the onset of menstruation

D) Parallels activity of the corpus luteum by rapidly increasing following ovulation and then abruptly falling to initial low concentrations prior to the onset of menstruation

An anticonvulsant used to control tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures is: A) Digoxin B) Acetaminophen C) Lithium D) Phenytoin

D) Phenytoin

A patient comes into the ER with the following results:Total bilirubin 15.2 mg/dLDirect Bilirubin 3.2 mg/dL Urine bilirubin Positive Feces Clay colored What condition is most likely? A) Normal patient B) Prehepatic jaundice C) Hepatic Jaundice D) Posthepatic Jaundice

D) Posthepatic Jaundice

What is the first feature of nephrotic syndrome that results in manifestation of the other four classic signs? A) Hypoalbuminemia B) Edema C) Hyperlipidemia D) Proteinuria E) Lipiduria

D) Proteinuria

Which of the following conditions will cause an increased anion gap? A) Diarrhea B) Hypoaldosteronism C) Hyperkalemia D) Renal failure

D) Renal failure

A low plasma osmolality and low sodium would be expected in a patient with: A) Dehydration B) Diabetes mellitus C) Diabetes insipidus D) SIADH

D) SIADH

A drug that relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchial passages is: A) Acetaminophen B) Lithium C) Phenytoin D) Theophylline

D) Theophylline

A patient is having blood work done for a routine physical. The patient had a large breakfast before coming in to the appointment. Which test would be most affected? A) Calcium B) Cortisol C) Sodium D) Triglycerides

D) Triglycerides

Which cardiac marker is elevated for the longest period after myocardial infarction (MI)? A) Troponin I B) CK-MB C) Myoglobin D) Troponin T

D) Troponin T

Each of the following factors influences the serum calcium concentration EXCEPT: A) Vitamin D B) Calcitonin C) Protein D) Tyrosine

D) Tyrosine

The enzyme that conjugates bilirubin in the hepatocyte is: A) Microsomal heme oxygenase B) Biliverdin reductase C) Glucuronic aminotransferase D) UDP-glucuronyl transferase E) Beta-glucuronidase

D) UDP-glucuronyl transferase

The FINAL metabolite of epinephrine that is measured in urine is: A) Dopamine B) Metanephrines C) Homovanillic acid D) Vanillylmandelic acid

D) Vanillylmandelic acid

Calculate the creatinine given the following results: Urine Creatinine: 121mg/dL 24 hour Urine Volume: 1950 mL Plasma Creatinine: 1.8 mg/dL BSA: 1.76 m 2 A. 892 ml/min B. 128,848 ml/min C. 129 ml/min D. 89.2 ml/min

D. 89.2 ml/min

Which of the following vitamins is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin? A. A1 B. E C. D D. B1

D. B1

Serum alkaline phosphatase activity is derived from all of the following organs except: A. Bone B. Intestine C. Placenta D. Brain

D. Brain

Which of the following will give the best overall picture of a patient's iron stores: A. Albumin B. Transferrin C. Haptoglobin D. Ferritin

D. Ferritin

Which of the following forms of calcium is biologically active: A. Protein-bound calcium B. Non-ionized calcium C. Calcium carbonate D. Free ionized calcium

D. Free ionized calcium

Which enzyme is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin? A. Beta-Glucuronidase B. Bilirubin oxidase C. Bilirubin reductase D. Glucuronyl transferase

D. Glucuronyl transferase

What is the primary clinical utility of measuring CEA? A. Diagnosis of liver cancer B. Diagnosis of colorectal cancer C. Screening for cancers of endodermal origin D. Monitoring for recurrence of cancer

D. Monitoring for recurrence of cancer

A patient has a plasma myoglobin level of 10µg/L at admission. Three hours later the myoglobin is 14µ/L and the Troponin I is 0.04µg/L (reference range 0-0.04µg/L). These results are consistent with which condition? A. Skeletal muscle injury B. Acute MI C. Unstable angina D. No evidence of myocardial or skeletal muscle injury

D. No evidence of myocardial or skeletal muscle injury

Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that originates in the: A. Skeleton B. Kidney C. Intestine D. Placenta

D. Placenta

Which of the following readies the uterus for implantation of an embryo? A. FSH B. LH C. hCG D. Progesterone

D. Progesterone

The structure that represents the sequence of a polypeptide chain is the: A. Primary strucutre B. Secondary structure C. Tertiary structure D. Quaternary structure

D. Quaternary structure

Which of the following conditions will cause an increased anion gap? A. Diarrhea B. Hypoaldosteronism C. Hyperkalemia D. Renal failure

D. Renal failure

Which of the following is characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus? A. Requires an oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosis B. Is the most common form of diabetes mellitus C. Usually occurs after age 40 D. Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis

D. Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis

Increases in blood ammonia levels would be expected in which of the following conditions: A. Diabetes B. Obstructive jaundice C. MI D. Reye's syndrome

D. Reye's syndrome

Beriberi is associated with deficiency of: A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Niacin D. Thiamine

D. Thiamine

Which one of the following vitamins would be least affected by long periods of fat malabsorption? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin C

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by a large (usually 20-fold) elevation of: A. cholecystokinin B. pepsin C. glucagon D. gastrin

D. gastrin

Which of the following is the EARLIEST biochemical marker of myocardial infarction? A. CK B. LD C. Troponin D. myoglobin

D. myoglobin

Type 1 diabetes mellitus may be described by all of the following EXCEPT: A) Insulin dependent B) Associated with autoimmune destruction of B cells C) Insulinopenia D) Ketoacidosis prone E) Adult-onset type

E) Adult-onset type

The acute phase reactant protein that also inhibits proteolysis and has the highest concentration within its globulin fraction is: A) C-reactive protein B) Haptoglobin C) Alpha2-macroglobulin D) Alpha1-antichymotrypsin E) Alpha1-antitrypsin

E) Alpha1-antitrypsin

Which of the following is an effect of increased parathyroid hormone secretion? A) Decreased blood calcium levels B) Increased renal reabsorption of phosphate C) Decreased bone resorption D) Increased intestinal absorption of calcium E) Decreased blood calcium levels, increased renal reabsorption of phosphate, decreased bone resorption, and increased intestinal absorption of calcium

E) Decreased blood calcium levels, increased renal reabsorption of phosphate, decreased bone resorption, and increased intestinal absorption of calcium

Which of the following enzymes has multiple molecular forms (isoenzymes) whose clinical significance is used in diagnosis? A) Lactate dehydrogenase B) Creatine kinase C) Alkaline phosphatase D) Lactate dehydrogenase and creatine kinase only E) Lactate dehydrogenase, creatine kinase, and alkaline phosphatase

E) Lactate dehydrogenase, creatine kinase, and alkaline phosphatase

What is the absorbance calculation?

Unknown absorbance/standard absorbance X unknown concentration

What is secondary structure of the polypeptide chain?

Winding of the polypepeptide chain


Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

Chapter 9: Personality and Individual Differences

View Set

PSYC: Unit 8: Psychological Disorders

View Set

New Deal: Relief, Recovery, Reform

View Set

Lecture Test One: (Ch. 1- Ch. 3)

View Set

Chapter 51: Sexually Transmitted Infections

View Set

Driver's Ed Final Flashcards 2016

View Set