CI APK PART 1

When testing for hip abduction muscle strength, which possible substitutions can cause an inaccurate muscle grade? I. Hip external rotation and flexion II. Lateral flexion of the trunk III. Hip extension IV. Hip internal rotation a. III and IV b. I only c. II, III and IV d. I and II e. II only

B test hip abd: hip hiking or TFL substitution

Syncope is a. also referred to as cardinal signs. b. a temporary suspension of consciousness. c. a shrill, harsh sound, especially the respiratory sound heard during inspiration in laryngeal obstruction. d. the period when the greatest amount of pressure is exerted on the walls of the arteries during heartbeat

B A. Cardinal Signs are based on observation C. Stridor D. Blood Pressure

Id is a. the perception of sensory stimulus in the absence of any sensory stimulus. b. a part of the mind hypothesized by Freud to contain inherent aggressive and sexual drives. c. a mental state of sadness, low self-esteem, and self-reproach. d. a mood characterized by elation and increased activity.

B A. Hallucination C. Depression D. Mania Id = Pleasure principle Ego = Reality Principle Superego = conscience principle

A fall in the glomerular filtration rate is seen situations, EXCEPT a. fall in blood pressure. b. efferent arteriolar contraction. c. increase in plasma protein concentration. d. obstruction of the tubules. e. tetanic venous contraction.

B Contraction of Efferent Arteriole = Increases GFR

Entry of calcium into the cardiac muscle during the cardiac action potential is an example of a. primary active transport mechanism. b. opening of voltage-gated channels. c. secondary active-transport mechanism. d. opening of ligand-gated channels.

B Phase 2

Proper positioning of the upper extremity in supine would best be described as shoulder _______. a. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended. b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees. c. In neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees. d. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees.

B fulcrum of SH ER & IR= olecranon process

If the ventricular cell is stimulated during the spike of the action potential, it would fall during the a. Relative refractory period b. Atrioventricular mode c. Absolute refractory period d. Resting phase e. Supernormal phase

C

What muscle contraction slow body segments and provide shock absorption as in walking? a. Isokinetic b. Eccentric c. Concentric d. Isometric

B

What valve prevents the left ventricular blood from returning to the left atrium? a. Tricuspid b. Mitral c. Ventricular d. Aortic

B

Paranoia a. A state of motor restlessness where patient seems unable to sit still and usually is very troubled by this symptom. b. Is an irreversible loss of cognitive functioning or chronic organic brain syndrome, often manifesting as a memory impairment. c. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you d. The understanding of one's environment, in terms of time, place, and person.

C

Renal blood flow decreases with age will lead to: I. Loss of renal mass observed with aging II. Decrease in cardiac output with age III. Age-related sclerotic changes in the renal arteries a. II and III b. I and III c. I and II d. I only

C

The "dub" in Korotkoff's heart sound is a. The mitral and tricuspid valves closing at diastole b. Associated with atrial contraction c. The aortic and pulmonic valves closing d. Indicative of right ventricular heart failure e. Associated with ventricular filling

C

The pulmonary artery leaves the heart via the ________. a. Right auricle b. Left ventricle c. Right ventricle d. Left auricle

C

The site of the highest vascular resistance in the renal circulation is seen in the ___________. a. Renal artery b. Afferent arterioles c. Efferent arterioles d. Glomerulus

C

Which of the following drug is classified as anti-coagulant? a. Propranolol b. Losartan c. Warfarin d. Digitalis

C Olol = Beta Blockers Sartan = Angiotensin II receptor blocker Digitalis = Anti-heartfailure

Venous return increases a. Following generalized vasoconstriction b. In heart failure c. During inspiration d. During a Valsalva maneuver

C The right side of the heart's pressure goes down

Which of the following is a beneficial effect of Cryotherapy? a. Decrease muscle spasticity b. Increase collagenase activity in synovium c. Analgesia d. Produce sedation

C possible ans= A & C ICE= inhibitory & facilitatory sedation= absence of general sensation analgesia= loss of pain

The infrahyoids are the I. Sternohyoid II. Sternothyroid III. Stylohyoid a. II and III b. I and III c. I, II and III d. I and II

D code: TOSS thyrohyoid omohyoid sternohyoid sternothyroid

A therapist records the vital signs of individuals at a health and wellness fair. Which age group should the therapist expect to have the highest resting pulse rate? a. Children b. Adults c. Elderly d. Infants e. Women

D the younger the higher the rate newborn: 70-170 bpm lowest PR: elderly

C5, C6 and the lateral cord receive contributions from the a. middle trunk. b. upper trunk. c. medial cord. d. lower trunk. e. anterior cord.

a - C5, C6 & middle trunk C5, C6 and the lateral cord receive contributions from the exact statement: lateral cord receive contributions from the what, C5 and C6 and?

· What condition is not likely to be seen in the perinatal period? a. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis b. Dislocated Hip. c. Talipes Equinovarus. d. Myelomeningocoele.

a - SCFE= seen in adolescent perinatal - during birth prenatal - before birth postnatal - after birth

A therapist is measuring shoulder external rotation. Proper positioning of the upper extremity in supine would best be described as shoulder _______. a. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended. b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees. c. In neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees. d. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees.

b

Which progressive resistive exercise functions to strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor? a. extension of the shoulder with dumbbell weights b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing c. internal rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing d. flexion of the shoulder with dumbbell weights

b

Which progressive resistive exercise functions to strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor? a. extension of the shoulder with dumbbell weights b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing c. internal rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing d. flexion of the shoulder with dumbbell weights

b infraspinatus and teres minor= PRIMARY ER of SH

Which muscle does NOT flex the hand at the wrist joint? a. Flexor carpi ulnaris b. Pronator teres c. Palmaris longus d. Flexor carpi radialis

b - FA pronation & weak elbow flexor (d/t humeral attachment) FCU= wrist flex Palmaris longus= wrist flex

· In the anterior approach in total hip replacement, the position of maximal instability is I. Abduction II. Adduction III. external rotation IV. internal rotation V. circumduction a. I and IV b. I and III c. II and III d. II and IV

c

The following reflexes are at the brainstem level EXCEPT: _____________. a. Positive support reaction b. Labyrinthine righting c. Negative support reaction d. Asymmetric tonic neck

c Brainstem Level (reflexes) Code: SAPTA S-TNR A-TNR P-ositive support T-onic labyrintine reflex (TLR) A-ssociated reaction

In this gait pattern, the client abducts the paralyzed limb, swings it around, and brings it forward to place the foot on the ground in front. a. Scissor b. Trendelenburg c. Hemiplegic d. Vaulting e. Spastic

c CIRCUMDUCTING GAIT - under the hemiplegic gait → → Hemiplegic gait: 1. Circumducting gait 2. vaulting 3. steppage

What muscle/s extend the distal interphalangeal joint? I. Extensor digitalis communis II. Lumbricals III. Palmar interossei a. I b. I and II only c. I, II and III d. III e. I, III only

c EDC= need to pull MCP Interossei= pull digits

· There is avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis in Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. The position/attitude of the hip joint in the different designs of orthoses indicated for this case include: a. Full extension b. Flexion c. Internal rotation d. Hyperabduction e. External rotation

c ORTHOSIS LCPD: code: TTS Toronto; Trilateral; Scottish-rite MC mvm: ABD 2nd MC: IR (cause 2 orthosis IR)

A therapist checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several clients report the heat being very strong. Which of the following temperatures is acceptable? a. 190 degrees Fahrenheit b. 130 degrees Fahrenheit c. 88 degrees Celsius d. 71 degrees Celsius

d

· A therapist assesses the ligamentous integrity of a client's knee by completing a series of special tests. The most accurate way to determine if the client's ligamentous integrity is compromised is to a. instruct the referring physician to order radiographs. b. compare the ligamentous laxity to his family without knee pathology c. compare the ligamentous laxity to other clients in the clinic without knee pathology. d. compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee. e. compare the millimeters of ligamentous laxity to established norms.

d

· A patient is unable to complete full range of hip flexion against gravity. The most appropriate position to observe hip flexion with gravity eliminated is ________. a. Supine b. Half sitting c. Sitting d. Sidelying

d HIP FLEXION against gravity= STANDING *hip moves forward and upward gravity eliminated = SIDELYING *mvm is now side to side

· The following statements apply to the surgical correction of hammer toe EXCEPT a. it is most effective to fuse the PIP joint and balance soft tissues over the MTP joint in fixed deformities. b. directed at reversing the MTP dorsiflexion and the PIP joint plantar flexion. c. straighten both the proximal and the middle joints of the toe in flexible deformities. d. in flexible deformities, it may be possible to adjust the tension on the flexor and extensor tendons. e. it may be possible to shorten the proximal phalanx in flexible deformities.

d - should be more on extensor hammer toe= need: wide toe box (d/t callus formation @ sup of PIP & tip of toe) * MTP ext *PIP flex *DIP ext 2 types of Hammer toe: a. flexible - manipulated/ straightened; tx: proximal phalanx shortening (tenotomy) *tenotomy= transfer long flexor tendon to extensor mechanism to adjust the tension b. rigid/fixed - cant be manipulated/ straightened; tx: fuse PIP over MTP

· This procedure tests for anteromedial band of anterior cruciate ligament, medial and lateral tibiomeniscal anterior portion of these capsular ligaments, anterior cruciate ligament, and posterior cruciate ligament. a. External rotation/recurvatum test b. Lachman's test c. Crossover test d. Apley's distraction test with internal rotation e. Anterior drawer test

e *affected in Ant Drawer test (7) Lachman= best for ACL tear *affected: ACL, POL, APOL *ACL= only ligament affected

In the glomerular capillary, glomerular filtration is highest in the a. Beginning b. Middle to the end c. Middle d. End e. Beginning to middle

A

What is the correct position when testing the hip abduction muscles grades normal to fair? a. Sidelying b. Supine c. Sitting d. Prone

A

Which of the following is NOT true of the Temporomandibular joint? a. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence. b. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger. c. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards. d. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint.

A

To assess joint play movement a therapist places the joint in the loose packed or resting position. The following statements describe this position. EXCEPT the loose packed position a. is one of minimal congruency between the articular surface and joint capsule b. is equivalent to the anatomic resting position for each joint c. allows the movement of spin, slide and roll in joint d. is the position in its range of motion where the joint is under least amount of stress

B *look for the wrong option*loose packed/resting/open pack posn

Upon actively flexing the head, the client complains of electric shock sensations radiating down the spine into the legs. This sign is termed _________. a. Spurling's b. Lhermitte's c. Laseque's d. Lasegne's

B SCI, MS, radiculopathy

During MMT of the right gastrocnemius muscle, what grade would you assign this muscle if your client were able to stand on his right leg and get up on his toes and complete 20 heel raises? a. 3+ b. 4 c. 5 d. 3

B if >20= N

What movements are performed against resistance, with constant load and tension? a. Eccentric b. Isotonic c. Isometric d. Isokinetic

B isoms= constant lengthisokinetic= constant rate

Among the elderly, humeral fractures at the surgical neck are common where this nerve is in direct contact. a. Ulnar b. Axillary c. Median d. Radial

B radial groove= radial

This type of muscle has a great stabilizing component a. Isotonic b. Shunt c. Concentric d. Spurt e. Isometric

B shunt= ms has proximal attachment/origin near the joint; ex: brachialis; STABILIZING ms spurt= ms has proximal attachment/origin away from the joint; ex: biceps brachii; MOBILIZING ms

What type of joint is the glenohumeral joint? a. Trochoid b. Spheroid c. Ginglymus d. Syndesmosis e. Sellar

B spheroid/ball and socket

A therapist discusses risk factors associated with coronary disease to a patient in a cardiac rehabilitation program. Which risk factor would be the most relevant for the patient? a. Weight b. Elevated serum cholesterol c. Age d. Gender e. Family history

B 2˚ Atherosclerosis

In ECG, this wave pattern represents the delay before repolarization of the ventricles and may indicate acute myocardial infarction. a. STP b. P wave c. QRS d. ST segment e. T wave

D

Forearm supination is measured with the moving arm of the goniometer placed on this side of the hand. a. Lateral b. Medial c. Dorsal d. Volar e. Anterolateral

D prox arm: (1 hand) parallel to midline of humerus; (2nd hand) supports FA while holding distal arm of gonio across volar surface of FA just prox to RU styloid process prox arm: stationary distal arm: moving arm

If the client completes the range of motion against gravity with minimal-moderate resistance, the muscle is graded as a. fair plus b. good plus c. fair minus d. good minus

D 5= N 4= good 3= fair 2= poor 1=trace 0

What is the correct position when testing the shoulder abduction muscles grades normal to fair? a. Prone b. Sidelying c. Supine d. Sitting

D N to 0= all sitting (not just SH abd) **2,1,0= supine

This muscle can be palpated by placing the fingers over the temporal fossa. This muscle contracts as the subject bites down. a. Zygomaticus Major b. Masseter c. Buccinator d. Temporalis e. Medial Pterygoid

D closing mouth: Temporalis, Internal pterygoid, Masseter

In coronary artery disease, the following conditions exist, EXCEPT: a. It may produce ischemia and necrosis of the myocardium b. Arteries are unable to meet metabolic demands c. There is inability for vasodilation d. There is transient reversible oxygen deficiency

D IRREVERSIBLE dapat

An 80-year-old female without medical illness undergoes annual check-up. Liver function tests such as AST and ALT is expected to be __________. a. Twice above the normal range b. Below the normal range c. Above the normal range d. Within normal limits

D NO medical condition ksi

· These primitive reflexes are present at birth EXCEPT: a. Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex b. Rooting c. Asymmetric Tonic Neck Reflex d. Moro

a - 4-6 months - integration= 8-12 months

· A twelve-month-old child with cerebral palsy demonstrates an abnormal persistence of the positive support reflex. During therapy this would most mainly interfere with ______ activities. a. Standing b. Prone on elbows c. Supine d. Sitting

a - B to 6 months

The roots of the brachial plexus are the following: a. C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1 b. C6, C7, C8, T1 and T2 c. C3, C4, C5, C6 and C7 d. C4, C5, C6, C7 and C8

a - ant/VENTRAL rami of C5-T1

The following muscles are innervated by the posterior cord, EXCEPT: a. Infraspinatus b. Deltoids c. Pectoralis major d. Triceps

a -2 possible ans: A & C (ALWAYS CHOOSE 1ST CHOICE)

· Which is the point of reference for the Q angle? a. Anterior superior iliac spine b. Center of the patella c. Posterior inferior iliac spine d. Tibial tuberosity

b ASIS → center of patella → tibial tubercle

· The avascular stage is the _______ stage of Legg Calves Perthes. a. Fourth b. Second c. First d. Third

c stages of LCPD: 1. Necrosis or avascular stage 2. fragmentation 3. ossification 4. healing

A proposed mediator of metabolic theory, accumulation of which causes vasodilation. a. H+ b. Angiotensin II c. Atrial natriuretic protein d. H-

"A B. Potent Vasoconstrictor C. ""hormone"" from the heart = Sensitive to STRETCH. Prevents water reabsorption"

Which of the following statements describe the Flexor Digitorum Superficialis? I. It flexes the distal interphalangeal joint II. The chief joint that it flexes is the proximal interphalangeal joint III. Both the Superficialis and Profundus act to clench the fist IV. Either the Superficialis or Profundus can act to clench the fist V. It is supplied by the median nerve a. I, III and IV b. I, IV and V c. II, III, and V d. I, II and II

"II,III,IV IV. wrong: " "either"" meaning superficialis alone/profundus alone clench the fist (should be both) FDS= PIP flex"

· A therapist attempts to schedule a client for an additional therapy session after completing the initial examination. The physician referral indicates the client is to be seen two times a week. The therapist suggests several possible times to the client, but the client insists she can only come in on Wednesday at 4:30 pm. The therapist would like to accommodate the client, but already has two clients scheduled at that time. The most appropriate action is to: ___________. a. Inform the referring physician the client only will be seen once this week in therapy b. Schedule the client with another therapist on Wednesday at 4:30 pm. c. Attempt to move one of the client's scheduled on Wednesday at 4:30 pm to a different time d. Schedule the client on Wednesday at 4:30 pm.

"b Giles 2018 set A #104"

· The stability of the shoulder joint principally depends on the a. Capsule b. Muscles c. Tendons d. Bony configuration e. Ligaments

"b less # of ligaments than ms in SH SH= muscles wrist= ligaments"

· Waddell's nonorganic signs assess a patient's pain behavior in response to certain maneuvers. Which of the following signs indicates a positive simulation test? a. Marked improvement of straight leg raising on distraction as compared with formal testing b. Disproportionate verbalization, facial expression muscle tension and tremor c. Back pain is reported within the first 30 degrees when the pelvis and shoulders are passively rotated in the same plane as the patient stands. d. Cogwheeling of many muscle groups that cannot be explained on a neurological basis.

"c - simulation test source: APK Aug 1998 #19 Choice a= Destruction test choice b= Overreaction choice d= Regional disturbance 8 Nonorganic signs 1st category: Tenderness test 1. superficial tenderness 2. non-anotomic tenderness 2nd: Simulation test 3. axial loading 4. rotation 3rd: Destruction test 5. destructed SLR discripancy 4th Regional disturbance 6. regional weakness 5th Overreaction 7. sensory distrubance 8. overreaction"

· A patient is seen walking on the ball of the foot with the heel off the ground on one of his lower limbs. One can conclude that he has ________. a. Poliomyelitis b. Pes valgus c. Pes equines d. Genu varum

"c PF= pes equinus APK April 1997 #2 In this deformity the heel is off the ground= PES EQUINUS CALCANEO= DF"

· A therapist begins gait training on a patient three days status post cemented total hip replacement. What weight bearing status would be the most appropriate for the patient? a. Non weight bearing b. weight bearing as tolerated c. partial weight bearing d. weight bearing with a 10 kg weight e. full weight bearing

"c cemented= WB as tolerated <24 hrs Giles compilation: A4 #110"

Plantar-flexion contractures can interfere with the performance of functional tasks through I. increases in plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions II. increased peak hip extension in late stance phase III. increased ankle dorsiflexion during the swing phase IV. knee hyperextension during the stance phase V. soft tissues passively limiting dorsiflexion to the muscle moment developed about the ankle during the stance phase a. I, II and III b. I, III and IV c. I, IV and V d. I and III only e. II, IV and V

"c source: modified APK Aug 1999 #48 I. DF → lengthen PFlexors (if reached threshold/trigger spasticity →immediately PF) II. hip extension contracture= dec hip ext moment III. PF contracture-= PF (dec DF) contracture= spasticity/ms tightness/fibrotic"

· The following statements describe Down syndrome EXCEPT: a. In children 1-6 years of age, postural responses to loss of balance were slow and therefore inefficient for maintaining stability. b. Attainment of early motor milestones is thought to be delayed because of problems with ligamentous laxity in some joints, decreased strength, and hypotonia. c. The presence of monosynaptic reflex during platform perturbations suggested that balance problem do not result from hypotonia but from defects within higher-level postural control mechanisms. d. In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down syndrome scored equally in running speed, balance, strength and visual motor controls the group without. e. Deficits in eye-hand coordination, laterality, and visual control were present in older children.

"d - In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down syndrome scored equally in running speed, balance, strength and visual motor controls the group without. APK Aug 1999 #44"

· From the frontal plane, the neck of the femur has an anterior angle of 13-15 degrees. An increase in this angle, a factor in in-toeing, is called _______________. a. Retroversion b. Coxa vara c. Coxa valga d. Anteversion

"d APK April 1997 #178 N torsion angle N=15 deg Adult= 8-15 deg (+) anteversion= >15 deg (+) retroversion= <15 Neck shaft angle N=125 deg Coxa valga= >125 Coxa vara= <125"

· In trochanteric bursitis, ______. I. Pain and tenderness may develop in the lateral thigh, groin, and the gluteal areas. II. Results from friction between the femoral nerve and the greater trochanter. III. There is marked tenderness to superficial palpation immediately above or posterior to the greater trochanter IV. Treatment usually consists of rest, immobilization, and local heat V. There is immediate relief of pain after peritrochanteric injection with corticosteroid and local anaesthetic. a. I, III and V b. II, III and IV c. I, II and III d. I, IV and V

"d SOURCE: FEB 1999 #135"

The following statements are true of the shoulder joint EXCEPT a. the ligaments are few and only provide stability in limited joint ranges of motion b. an implication of the shoulder's structural modification to increase mobility is that it relies on muscles to provide adequate stability. c. the articular surfaces of the humeral head and the glenoid fossa of the scapula lack congruity. d. the scapula, which forms the mobile base of the shoulder joint, has minimal passive suspension from the skeleton via the acromioclavicular joint and coracoclavicular ligament. e. the joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing up to 5 cm of traction between articular surfaces.

"e - 2-3 cm only source: modified APK FEB 1999; #92 dynamic stab= muscles static stab= ligament"

What is the correct position when testing the shoulder abduction muscles grades poor to zero? a. Sitting b. Prone c. Sidelying d. Supine

A 2,1,0= sitting (supine if asking of alternating posn & if no sitting in choices) ; pt in gravity-eliminated posn

What is the motor nerve to the muscles of mastication? a. Trigeminal b. Vagus c. Facial d. Oculomotor

A TRIGEMINAL= mixed (S: sensation of face & M: mastication)

The following statements describe balanced suspension traction, EXCEPT: _________. a. The weight that suspends the affected extremity is greater than the weight of the countertraction being applied b. This assembly allows more range of motion than other forms of traction without affecting the line of traction pull c. Most commonly used to support leg injuries such as femoral fractures with displacement, and nonaligned bone fragments. d. This assembly promotes neurovascular integrity by decreasing prolonged pressure on the back of the patient's leg

A The weight that suspends the affected extremity is equal the weight of the countertraction being applied

These upper extremity positions are introduced one by one in the technique to mobilize the radial nerve EXCEPT a. forearm supination. b. wrist flexion. c. shoulder internal rotation. d. elbow extension

A ULTT 3- abd, IR, elbow ext, pronate, wrist & hand flex

Dividing the body into front and back, abduction and adduction occurs in this plane. a. Frontal b. Transfrontal c. Horizontal d. Sagittal e. Transverse

A frontal/coronal

Filling of ventricles occurs maximally during _________. a. First 1/3 of diastole b. Rapid ejection period c. Isovolumic contraction period d. Atrial systole

A 75% is being transferred

In the renal vascular system, the highest oncotic pressure is seen at the: _____________. a. Efferent arterioles b. Afferent arterioles c. Renal artery d. Segmental artery

A B.26% C.0% D.16% 43% pressure - Efferent

Clients with abnormal conduction patterns often can be treated successfully using antiarrhythmic medication. Which of the following side effects of antiarrythmics does not require immediate medical attention? a. Insomnia b. Shortness of breath c. Coughing up blood d. Dizziness

A Difficulty in sleeping

Dyspnea, a symptom of cardiac dysfunction may be described as follows EXCEPT it ____________. a. Is often caused by hypertension or aortic valve disease resulting in impaired ventricular relaxation b. Can occur in patients with left ventricular hypertrophy c. Often occurs with myocardial ischemia and heart failure d. Is associated with heart failure or myocardial ischemia, and also with hypotension

A NOT impaired ventricular relaxation Lagi sya naka relax

Oscillations of resting membrane potentials of the GI smooth muscle not associated with muscle contraction is known as ________. a. Slow waves b. Fast waves c. Spikes d. Action potentials

A Slow waves are from the waxing/waning

A physician instructs a client to take nonprescription or over the counter medication as part of his treatment program. Which of the following statements about over the counter medication is not accurate? a. Over the counter medications usually contain low doses of their active ingredient b. Potentially harmful effects are not possible with over-the-counter medications c. The Food and Drug Administration classifies drugs as prescription or nonprescription d. Over the counter medications are available without a prescription and can be purchased directly by consumers.

B

Dividing the body into right and left, flexion and extension occurs in which plane? a. Transverse b. Sagittal c. Frontal d. Horizontal

B

A post CVA patient can maintain standing position without external support and show limited postural sway. He can also remain standing while turning his head or trunk. What is his functional grade? _______ standing balance. a. Fair static and dynamic b. Good static and dynamic c. Good static and fair dynamic d. Fair static and good dynamic

C

A therapist positions a client in prone with the knee flexed to 70 degrees prior to completing a manual muscle test of the hamstrings. To isolate the biceps femoris the therapist should: a. Place the thigh in slight medial rotation and the leg in slight medial rotation on the thigh b. Position the knee in 120 degrees of flexion c. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh d. Position the knee in 100 degrees of flexion

C

Which of the following statements describe the temporomandibular joint? I. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards. II. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger. III. As the mouth is closed, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards. IV. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence. V. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint. a. II, III and IV b. I, II, and III c. I, II and V d. II, III and V

C

___________ starts near the end of the R wave and ends just after the T wave on the ECG. a. Early diastole b. Late diastole c. Ventricular systole d. Atrial systole

C

When a muscle contracts and produces tension with no change in the angle of the joint, such contraction is: a. Eccentric b. Isokinetic c. Isometric d. Isotonic

C Eccentric= lengthening isokinetic= no change in the rate/speed isotonic= no change in tone/load

What fracture does NOT involve the bones of the foot? a. Jone's b. Nutcracker c. Jefferson's d. Shepherd's

C Jefferson's= fx in ring of atlas (C1) Jone's= fx of base of 5th MTT Nutcracker= fx of calcaneus & cuboid Shepherd's= fx of lat tubercle of talus

Delayed union is a fracture complication wherein callus formation is retarded, so the fracture fails to mend within the normal healing time. Factors contributing to this complication include the following EXCEPT: ______________. a. Defective metabolism, especially protein metabolism b. Infection of the surrounding tissues (as in open fracture) c. Vitamin E deficiency d. Inadequate fracture manipulation

C True: Vit D deficiency or Ca++

Nerve supply to sternocleidomastoid a. Vagus b. Abducens c. Spinal accessory d. Dorsal occipital e. Greater occipital

C pure motor nerve; supplies trapezius

The following statements describe elbow joint range of motion, EXCEPT: a. Flexion and extension originate primary at the humeroulnar and humeroradial joints b. Involves the movements of elbow flexion and extension, forearm supination and pronation c. The subject may sit but not stand during the AROM test with the examiner at his side but not directly in front d. The radial head revolves at its articulation with the capitellum during supination and pronation e. Supination and pronation occurs at the radioulnar articulations at the elbow and wrist

C should: may sit or stand

When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced by the prime mover, it is said to be a/an a. prime mover. b. co-ordinator. c. synergist. d. fixators. e. antagonist.

C synergist 2 functions:assist the prime moversprevents unnecessary mvm

The following statements apply to condylar fractures of the knee, EXCEPT: a. Supracondylar fractures may be caused by direct trauma or by a torsion stress placed upon the lower extremity b. Prolonged, rigid immobilization is usually unnecessary, but months following the injury c. Usually, there is an anterior displacement of the distal fragment caused by the muscular action of the gastrocnemius muscles as well as a reduction of the femoral length by the action of the hamstring and the quadriceps femoris muscles d. Femoral condyles are rarely injured, and fractures of the femur may be of the "Y" or "T" type and usually include soft tissue damage e. Single condylar fracture often occur from severe varus or valgus forces and the fracture line may be vertical and in the sagittal plane or it may be vertical and in the coronal plane.

C wrong statement: distal fragment; gastroc anterior and post is affected

What promotes water reabsorption from the collecting ducts of the kidneys? a. Glucagon b. Follicle stimulating hormone c. Arginine vasopressin d. Prolactin

C Vasopressin = ADH FSH = Male: Sperm; Girl: sex hormone Glucogon = Blood Sugar Prolactin = Production of milk

Fires when perfused with oxygen-poor blood. a. Carotid sinus b. Axon reflex c. Carotid body d. Dendrite reflex

C A. Baroreceptors. Sensitive to STRETCH B and D. Nerve Impulses only Carotid Body = Sensory Receptors = Sensitive to chemicals

Orientation is ________. a. A state of motor restlessness where patient seems unable to sit still and usually is very troubled by this symptom b. Is an irreversible loss of cognitive functioning, or chronic organic brain syndrome, often manifesting as a memory impairment. c. The understanding of one's environment, in terms of time, place, and person. d. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you.

C Akathisia Organic Brain Syndrome Paranoia

A patient was rushed to the hospital and underwent emergency Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting after complaining of persistent severe uncomfortable chest pain. This can be classified as _______ according to the angina scale: a. 2+ b. 5+ c. 3+ d. 1+ e. 4+

C Anginal Scale 0 = No angina 1 = Light, barely noticeable 2 = Moderate, bothersome 3 = Severe, and very uncomfortable 4 = Most pain ever experienced

Which of the following include functions of veins? I. Propels blood through the arterial pump by exerting pressure as blood flows II. Deregulates cardiac input III. Stores large quantities of blood and making it available when required IV. Propels blood through venous pump V. Regulate cardiac output a. II, III, V b. I, II and III c. III, IV and V d. II, III and IV

C I - Arteries II - REGULATES

A therapist designs a cardiovascular training program for a 29-year-old male rehabilitating from a lower extremity injury. The client has no known cardiovascular pathology and has been cleared for exercise by his physician. The client's maximum heart rate during exercise should be calculated in beats per minute as a. 201 b. 170 c. 191 d. 181

C Maximum HR: 220-HR 220-29

Myotonic dystrophy is characterized by the following EXCEPT: ______________ a. Symptoms commonly appear in adulthood, usually in the third and fourth decades b. General loss of strength and energy are regularly present and slowness of grip release may be evident c. There is prolonged contraction with posture of the hand d. A quick tap on the thenar eminence results in contraction that is abnormally short, and the thumb abducts for several seconds.

D wrong statement: thumb abducts (should be thumb add)

Delirium is a. The misperception of a sensory stimulus b. The feeling that insects are crawling on one's skin c. A false belief neither based on reality nor culturally derived and not altered by reasonable evidence to the contrary d. A reversible, acute organic brain syndrome

D A. Hallucincation B. Formication C. Delusion

A therapist discusses the importance of proper nutrition with a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which of the following substances would be most restricted in this client's diet? a. Cholesterol b. Triglycerides c. Potassium d. Sodium

D Always remember sodium attracts water. CHF = Cardiac Decompensation

Which of the following is not used for pain medication? a. Topical anesthetics such as lidocaine and tetracaine b. Salicylates such as aspirin, choline magnesium trisalicylate, and salsalate c. Acetaminophen d. Allopurinol

D This is for gout

The following applies to resisted movement testing EXCEPT: a. Performed in the shortened, midrange, and stretched position for total evaluation of the contractile unit. b. Considered to be specific in evaluating the status of the contractile unit. c. Performed to determine the status of the contractile unit and its segmental innervation from the spinal cord. d. While it primarily assesses the contractile unit, it causes some joint compression that may lead to inappropriate conclusions. e. Performing in shortened position prevents excessive compression or distraction of noncontractile structures.

E concentric= ms shorten; doesnt prevents excessive compression or distraction of noncontractile structures b/c joints approximates

The following is true in a malunion fracture complication, EXCEPT a. there was inadequate fracture reduction. b. if the malunion is slight, it may not have to be corrected because the correction procedure could cause delayed union or nonunion. c. if malunion is detected after healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to obtain a more normal position for healing. d. the fracture has healed incorrectly, leaving the bone de formed, weak, and possibly causing pain. e. if malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align the bone fragments.

E conservative tx first in early detection surgical not always necessary

The following describe clotting abnormalities, EXCEPT: a. Arterial occlusion and thromboemboli can become lodged in arteries supplying vital organs. b. Patients are prone to emboli and bleeding c. Presence of clots usually rules out movement in the affected limbs d. It can be caused by restricted mobility and an increase in red blood cells e. It can originate in the deep arteries of the legs.

E deep VEINS dapat

Which of the following statements do NOT apply to elbow flexion range of motion? a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm. b. The contact of the muscles between the forearm and arm can stop the motion c. The subjects with little soft-tissue have a hard end-feel d. The normal variation is between 120 to 160 degrees

a - contact of muscle/soft tissue= soft end -feel elbow flex - soft end-feel - RARE: hard end-feel (ectomorphic/too thin)

· The following statements are true of straight leg raising test, EXCEPT a. At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot-if there is no pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve b. The foot is lifted upward supporting the calcaneus, and with the knee remaining straight, raise the leg to the point of discomfort or pain c. Designed to reproduce back and leg pain d. If there is a positive reaction to the straight leg raising test and the foot dorsiflexion maneuver, the pain may be either in the lumbar spine or along the course of the sciatic nerve e. The normal angle between the table and the leg measures approximately 80 degrees

a -At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot -if there is no pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve SLR=provoking pain

The feet slap the ground in this high stepping ataxic gait pattern. a. Tabetic b. Antalgic c. Double step d. Steppage e. Spastic

a HIGH STEPPING steppage= high stepping d/t flaccidity of DF ms (lead to foot drop) ataxic= loss of proprioception

Which of the following statements describe the supraspinatus? It ____________. I. Stabilized the head of the humerus by pulling over the top of the head while the Deltoid pulls upward on the midshaft of the humerus and Teres, along with Teres Major. II. Is essential to the normal adduction of the humerus III. Is important at the end of abduction when the deltoid is pulling directly upward along the length of the humerus IV. Also helps produce smooth abduction at the shoulder joint by pulling downward and stabilizing the head of the humerus V. Stabilizes the head of the humerus by pulling over the side of the head while the Deltoid pulls inward on the midshaft of the humerus a. I and IV b. III and V c. II and IV d. I and III

a I and IV continuation III. should be: initiator/start of abd NOT at the end of abd V. opposite of roman numeral I

· Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Osteochondritis Dissecans? a. More common among males b. Manifest with momentary locking in the joint due to the calcification of the soft tissues c. More common among females d. Usually occurs following a trauma

a Osteochondritis dissecans= 3-4x common in MALES choice b=Manifest with momentary locking in the joint due to the calcification of the soft tissues *should be: residual pit *only 1 or few calcification choice d= Usually occurs following a trauma *should be: idiopathic/unknown but multifactorial (trauma, microtrauma, genetics, chemical imbalance)

· Abnormality in which chromosome causes majority of Down Syndrome cases? a. 21 b. 17 c. 23 d. 19

a Patau syndrome= 13 edward= 18 trisomy= 21

· The stability of the wrist joint principally depends on _________. a. Ligaments b. Intrinsic muscles of the hand c. Capsule d. Extrinsic muscles of the hand

a SH= muscles wrist= ligaments

What long muscles flex the second to fifth digits of the IP joints? I. Flexor digitorum superficialis II. Palmaris longus III. Lumbricals and interossei IV. Flexor digitorum profundus V. Flexor pollicis longus a. I and IV b. III, IV, and V c. II and III d. I, II, and IV

a - I and IV FDS= PIP flex Palmaris longus= wrist only Lumbricals and interossei= MCP flex FDP= DIP flex FPL= intrinsic + = MCP flex

Which of the following statements does NOT describe the Median Nerve? a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all lumbrical b. It gives off branch only until it reaches the elbow region c. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branch, the Anterior Interosseous Nerve d. It is formed from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus

a - not ALL LUMBRICALS Lumbricals: - divide into 2: lat & med - lat= innervated by median n -med= innervated by ulnar n

The following applies to radio-ulnar articulation, EXCEPT the: a. proximal joint lies within the capsule of the elbow joint. b. axis of motion is represented proximally by a line through the center of head of the ulna and distally through the center of the head of the radius. c. radius rotate in relation to the ulna due to the connection between them. d. one degree of freedom allows pronation and supination only.

b - radial head= proximal - ulnar head= distal -radius only rotates in stationary axis which is the imaginary line from center of radius proximally to the center of ulnar head distally

· What reflex results in the extension of the arm and leg on the face side and flexion of arm or leg on the skull side when the head is turned on one side? a. Positive support reaction b. Asymmetric tonic neck c. Neck righting d. Tonic labyrinthine

b ATNR- fence position face side= ext skull side= flex Positive support reaction= contact on ground → rigid ext of LE

· An eleven-month-old child with cerebral palsy attempts to maintain a quadruped position. Which reflex would interfere with this activity if it did not integrate appropriately? a. Gallant reflex b. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex c. positive support reflex d. plantar grasp reflex

b STNR: head flex=UE flex; LE ext *if not integrated: quadruped posn= if neck ext → UE also ext ATNR: *if not integrated: feeding & rolling Positive support reflex *if not integrated: unable to go up and down stairs/walking Tonic labyrinthine reflex (TLR) - SUPINE= (+) extensor tone -PRONE- (+) flexor tone *if not integrated: difficult to supine → long sitting

· The MMS technique provides common landmarks uncommon with the Double Inclinometer methods. The use of the Posterior Superior Iliac Spines (PSISs) as the inferior landmark in the modified-modified Schober (MMS) technique in assessing the lumbar range of motion has the following advantages EXCEPT a. that because no motion would be expected on the landmark, there is no need for an additional landmark 5 cm below. b. that because the superior landmark is 15 cm above the inferior landmark of the line intersecting the line connecting the PSISs, this minimizes the error in identifying the first lumbar vertebra. c. the landmark placed between midway between the PSISs is at the second sacral level. d. the sacrum is an inflexible bone, making this landmark easily identifiable. e. The MMS technique provides common landmarks uncommon with the Double Inclinometer methods

b - that because the superior landmark is 15 cm above the inferior landmark of the line intersecting the line connecting the PSISs, this minimizes the error in identifying the first lumbar vertebra.

What is the function of the acromioclavicular joint? I. Vital joint to force transmission in the upper extremity II. Permits the scapula to glide forward and backward on the clavicle in congruence with the direction of the humeral head III. Allow scapula to move sideways on the chest when the arm is raised a. I b. I and II c. I and III d. II

b = I and II II. forward and backward scapula= ER and IR III. not sideways; not on the chest (no scapula in chest area) FOOSH- medially directed blow to SH Force starts in AC jt → SC jt (SC disk) *SC jt= shock absorption *AC jt= force transmission

What movement is important for a complete upward rotation o scapular shoulder flexion and abduction? a. Protraction b. Transverse rotation of the clavicle c. Retraction d. Hyperextension

b S C jt: REQUIR 2 mvm to elevate completely 1. clavicular elevation 2. post/transverse rot of clavicle

Throughout its course, the median nerve accompanies what artery as it enters the upper arm on the medial side of the humerus? a. Median b. Brachial c. Ulnar d. Radial

b code: Be Right There Always My PT

During wrist flexion at what joint(s) does the motion occur? a. Midcarpal joint only b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint c. Majority at the midcarpal joint with some motion at the radiocarpal joint d. Radiocarpal joint only

b code: FREM flexion= radiocarpal extension= midcarpal flexion= 1st move/majority: radiocarpal → some motion to other jt extension=1st move/majority: midcarpal → some motion to other jt

· Malalignment syndrome of the knee is caused by __________. I. Hypermobility of the patella II. External tibial torsion III. Femoral anteversion IV. Oversupination a. II and IV b. I, II and III c. II, III and IV d. II only

b song: back at one 1- you have a broad pelvis 2- increase ang anteversion 3- increase ang Q angle 4- nag genu varum 5- nag patella alta 6- external tibial torsion 7-subtalar pronation patellofemoral pain syndrome

The following statements describe the acromioclavicular joint EXCEPT a. no loss of scapular rotation was apparent with acromioclavicular joint fixation. b. range of motion of the scapula is equal to the sum of sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular ranges of motion. c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation. d. the glenoid fossa is aligned with the humeral head during shoulder flexion or abduction through small anterior and posterior movements of the acromion.

c c= AC jt has 3 axes and 3 DOF

· The following are congenital etiology of cerebral palsy, EXCEPT: __________. a. Oxoplasmosis b. Syphilis c. Meningitis d. Rubella

c congenital etio for CP code: StoRCH S-yphilis To-xoplasmosis R-ubella C-ytomegalo virus H-erpes simplex

Iron is best absorbed in the ___________: a. Ileum b. Colon c. Duodenum d. Jejunum

c major digestion= small intestine small intestine *doudenum= best absorb: IRON code: duoFenum *jejunum * ileum= best absorb: VIT B12; pernicious anemia = poor absorption of Vit B12 d/t lack of intrinsic factor

· The following statements apply to skeletal traction EXCEPT a. Lifting the weights releases traction causing violent muscle contractions and must be avoided b. Pin or wire used in used skeletal traction connects to a U-Shaped bow or caliper c. Direct pull on the bone stabilizes bone fragments in correct alignment increasing muscle spasms and the chance of secondary injuries at the fracture site d. Usually applied for extended periods, and using pins, wires or tongs, force is exerted directly on one or more bones e. Skull tongs are used for long-term thoracic fracture or for critical dislocation

c - Direct pull on the bone stabilizes bone fragments in correct alignment increasing muscle spasms and the chance of secondary injuries at the fracture site (should be decreasing) Goal of traction: - maintain length - allow motion - decrease spasm - reduce edema

Laterally rotates the shoulder joint. I. Deltoid II. Teres minor III. Teres major IV. Infraspinatus V. Subscapularis a. V only b. I, II, and III c. I, II, and IV d. III and IV only

c - I, II & IV TERES MAJOR & lats dorsi= EXADIR

Which of the following statements correctly describe abduction of the arm at the shoulder? I. The rotator cuff muscles depress the head of the humerus during shoulder abduction to prevent impingement of the humerus on the acromion II. Internal rotation of the humerus accompanies complete III. Abduction is produced by means of the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles working together. IV. External rotation of the humerus accompanies complete abduction. V. Abduction is more powerful in the position of external rotation than in the position of internal rotation a. I, II, III and IV b. I, II, and IV c. I, III, IV, and V d. I, IV, and V

c - I, III, IV, V II. 90-120 = should rotate the SH to avoid jamming; ER not IR III. force couple: supraspinatus (sup) opposed by deltoid (uinf) deltoid - if deltoid contracts alone→ cant abd arm (d/t inc positive translatory force) - opposed by ITS ms= provide the neg translatory force; counteracts the deltoid → supraspinatus ms - opposed by gravity

· This test will show if squeezing the calf muscle while the leg is extended ruptures the Achilles tendon. a. Thomas b. Lachman c. Thompson d. Apley e. Yergason

c Thompson ruptured= no mvm Thomas= iliopsoas Lachman= ACL tear Apley= menicus Yergason= supraspinatus

The ability to hold the arms extended above the head is impaired in weakness of the shoulder girdle from any cause. The following statements are true when testing for shoulder and arm strength EXCEPT: ______________. a. A painful atrophic shoulder joint will limit movement and seriously interfere in the diagnosis of a neurologic lesion. b. When weakness of the deltoid interferes with scapular winging testing, another method is to push against the wall with outstretched arms, first one side and then the other. c. Impairment in function of the trapezius, serratus anticus or other muscles stabilizing the shoulder girdle may compromise the ability of the deltoid to hold the arms abducted at 900 against the examiner's downward pressure. d. When the serratus anticus is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medialward and up.

d - wrong statement: upper angle (should be INF ANGLE) - wrong statement: med ward and up → SA if weak: move towards opp side=upper angle should be lat ward and down | lower angle= med and down

Gluteus medius is MOST active during gait at ___________. a. Swing phase b. Toe off c. Heel strike d. Midstance

d -GMedius= prevent pelvic drop contralateral

A patient has difficulty maintaining balance while walking. Upon observation of his gait, it showed to be ataxic. Cerebellar dysfunction was ruled out. To diagnose the condition, this cervical nerve must be tested to diagnose the conditterm-86ion? a. 10 b. 6 c. 12 d. 8

d -vestibulococchlear balance= need intact visual, vestibular & somatosensory

The annular ligament at the elbow facilitates which of the following motions? a. Extension of the elbow b. Pronation of the forearm and flexion of the elbow c. Supination of the forearm and flexion of the elbow d. Pronation and supination of the forearm

d annulus ligament= around radial head; only supination & pronation

· Which of the following findings suggest a congenital hip dislocation in a newborn child? I. (+) Trendelenberg II. (+) barlow's III. Adductor tightness IV. Limping gait a. III and IV b. I and II c. II, III, and IV d. II and III

d barlows test= B to 6 months

· The modified-modified Schober technique is used in assessing lumbar range of motion. a. using a tape measure held directly over the spine between points 10 cm above the lumbosacral junction with the patient in the neutral standing position b. using an inclinometer located on the first lumbar vertebra c. using a double inclinometer wherein one is placed on the sacrum and the other on the first lumbar vertebra d. using two landmarks: a line interesting the line connecting the PSISs with the midline of the back and mark drawn 15 cm superiorly e. by marking a point 5 cm below and 10 cm superior to the lumbosacral junction

d criteria of difference from 1st mark=2nd mark: *<5 cm= Ankylosing spondy (jt fusion) *N= >15 cm tool: tape measure original: SCHOBER'S TEST 1. 1st mark lumbosacral junction (~L5) 2. 2nd mark: above 10 cm of 1st mark 3. ask to forward flex without flexing the knee modified: SCHOBER'S TEST - depend on mvm of skin 1. 1st mark lumbosacral junction (~L5) 2. 2nd mark: above 10 cm of 1st mark 3. 3rd mark: below 5 cm of 1st mark 4. ask to forward flex without flexing the knee modifed-modified: SCHOBER'S TEST 1. Palpate PSIS (serve as bases) 2. 1st mark: DRAW horizontal between the 2 PSIS (~S2) 3. 2nd mark: over the sacral spine aligning the 2 PSIS 4. 3rd mark: above 15 cm of 3rd mark 5. ask to forward flex without flexing the knee → →

The Median Nerve innervates the following structures, EXCEPT: a. The skin of the palm b. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis c. Flexor Carpi Radialis d. All interossei, Opponens Pollicis

d interossei= ulnar n

· What reflex results in increased leg extensor tones when the client bounces on the sole of his feet several times? a. Moro b. Body Righting c. Negative Support Reaction d. Positive Support Reaction

d moro= ext -abd → flex-add → CRY Negative Support Reaction= continuation of positive *Positive support= contact on ground→ LE ext * neg support= lift LE (no pressure on sole of foot)→ LE flex

The following statements describe the sternoclavicular joint EXCEPT: a. An articular disk is present between the end of the clavicle and the articular notch of the sternum. b. The only joint that connects the upper extremity directly with the thorax c. Motions that occur are elevation and depression, protraction and retraction, and transverse rotation d. A sellar joint with two degrees of freedom

d - 3 DOF

· Hip and knee replacement clients are referred to rehabilitation on ______________. a. Second week b. Third and fifth day c. Third week d. Immediately after surgery

d - ASAP hip and knee replacement: 3 days= hospital stay (therapy after surgery) *1 day after surgery (1st day): bed exercises, leg curls, quad setting, terminal ext ROM exercise *2nd day: standing balance, standing, waling *3rd day: go up and down stairs (good strength of knee → discharged)

Which of the following structures provide stability of the acromioclavicular joint? I. Shape of the joint II. Acromioclavicular ligament III. Strong joint capsule IV. Conoid and trapezoid a. I and II b. I and III c. IV only d. II and IV

d - II and IV

The following statements describe the triquetrium EXCEPT: a. Lies just distal to the ulnar styloid process, in the proximal row b. It lies under the pisiform c. Palpated by radially deviating the hand d. Third highest of all the carpal bones in incidence of fracture e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon

e - PISIFORM Lat → Med Some Lovers Try Positions That They Can't Handle Triquetrum (code: 3-quetrum) - bed of pisiform - 3rd MOST fractured carpal - 3rd carpal to ossify Carpals= convex (radial deviation= ulnar glide)

· A therapist positions a client in sidelying and performs a talar tilt test. A positive talar tilt test indicates a. Deltoid ligament injury b. Excessive tibial torsion c. Ligamentous instability d. Muscular instability e. Calcaneofibular ligament injury

e Deltoid ligament injury= KLEIGER TEST

· The following describe the modified Thomas test, EXCEPT: a. The other leg is positioned to extend off the edge of a treatment table far enough to allow the knee to bend freely. b. The pelvis is placed in approximately 10 degrees of posterior tilt by flexion of one hip and knee toward the chest while lying supine c. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has 10 degrees of femoral extension relative to the pelvis. d. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has 80 degrees of knee flexion. e. It only tests the ROM and the length of the one-joint hip flexor muscles.

e Thomas test (iliopsoas tightness) -supine - test leg: ext | good leg: knee to chest - (+) test leg; rises Modifeid Thomas test (iliopsoas tightness) -sitting ; dangle leg - knee to chest → supine - (+) test leg; rises iliopsoas= primary hip flexor (2 jointed: crosses hip and knee jt)

Which of the functional differences between the hand and foot joints are true? I. MCP permit 90 degrees of flexion, while MTP hyperextension is 45 degrees II. MCP permit 90 degrees of flexion, while MTP hyperextension is 90 degrees III. MCP allow 0-30 degrees of hyperextension, while MTP flexion allow 30-45 degrees IV. MCP allow 15-30 degrees of hyperextension, while MTP flexion allow 30-45 degrees V. Toe abduction/adduction have less range of motion than the hand a. I, III and V b. V only c. II, IV and V d. III, IV and V e. II, III and V

e - II, III, V MCP is opposite to MTP MCP flex= 90 deg MTP flex= only ~30 deg but 90 deg EXT *limited: FLEXION IV= 0-30 deg