CIBFR Cisco U Part 1/2
Which diagram can help you define the factors that led to the incident? fishbone tree network causes and effects
A fishbone diagram, also known as an Ishikawa diagram or cause-and-effect diagram, can help you define the factors that led to an incident. This diagram is used to systematically list the potential causes of an issue and visually display them in a way that resembles the skeleton of a fish, helping teams to explore and categorize the root causes of a problem. It's commonly used in root cause analysis and problem-solving processes to identify and visualize the different contributing factors to an incident.
What is a good network-diagram-related question to ask? What are your commonly used ports? How often are employee security training events held? What is the voltage of the local power grid? Does everyone switch off their devices when they leave the office?
A good network-diagram-related question to ask would be, "What are your commonly used ports?" This question is relevant to understanding the network infrastructure and how data flows within the system. Commonly used ports are critical components in network diagrams as they indicate where and how information is transferred, services are accessed, and applications communicate. Knowing the commonly used ports helps in identifying potential vulnerabilities, managing firewall rules, and securing the network against unauthorized access.
What is a zero-day attack? a distributed denial-of-service attack that attempts to disrupt the normal network traffic of the targeted server an attack using a new technique that has not been reported an attack that checks for possible passwords and usernames until it finds the correct one a malicious software designed to cause damage to a computer, server, or network
A zero-day attack refers to: an attack using a new technique that has not been reported. This type of attack exploits vulnerabilities in software, hardware, or protocols that are unknown to the vendor or the general public. As a result, there are "zero days" of protection against these attacks because there are no patches or fixes available when they are initially discovered or deployed by attackers. Zero-day attacks can be highly dangerous because they can be launched without warning and can potentially affect a large number of systems before defenses can be developed and deployed.
According to the NIST Cybersecurity Framework, which function is the core of the DFIR process? Identify Protect Detect Respond Recover
According to the NIST Cybersecurity Framework, the function that is the core of the DFIR (Digital Forensics and Incident Response) process is: Respond The "Respond" function within the NIST Cybersecurity Framework emphasizes the actions organizations take in response to detected cybersecurity incidents. This includes activities such as implementing response procedures, mitigating the impact of incidents, and conducting forensic analysis to understand the root causes and extent of the incident. In the context of DFIR, the Respond function is central to the process of effectively managing and mitigating cybersecurity incidents.
Which statement about advanced threats is correct? Advanced threats can be difficult to detect even with YARA. Antivirus software, firewalls, and intrusion detection systems always detect advanced threats. Advanced threats can be found using a timeline analysis YARA rule. YARA positively identifies advanced threats with a false negative.
Advanced threats can be difficult to detect even with YARA. This is because advanced threats often employ sophisticated techniques, including polymorphism, encryption, and evasion tactics, that can make them difficult to detect with signature-based tools like YARA or traditional antivirus solutions. While YARA is a powerful tool for identifying and classifying malware based on defined patterns, advanced threats may use novel or highly obfuscated code that does not match existing signatures, making detection challenging.
What is an attack surface? an antistatic floor covering that helps successful breach attacks a point (or points) in a system or network that is vulnerable to an attack another name for an attack transmitter a method that is used by threat agents to attack a target system
An attack surface refers to a point (or points) in a system or network that is vulnerable to an attack. It encompasses all the accessible vectors through which an unauthorized user (an attacker) can enter or extract data from an environment. This includes all the exposed areas of a system, such as open ports, web applications, and network protocols, which can potentially be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to a system or its data. The larger an attack surface, the more points of potential vulnerability a system has, making it more susceptible to attacks. Reducing the attack surface is a fundamental security measure to minimize the risk of a successful breach.
What is an attack vector? a location that is easily breached a point in a system or network that is vulnerable to an attack another name for an attack transmitter a method that is used by threat agents to attack a target system
An attack vector is a method that is used by threat agents to attack a target system. It refers to the pathway or means by which a hacker, or threat agent, can gain access to a computer or network server in order to deliver a payload or malicious outcome. Attack vectors enable hackers to exploit system vulnerabilities, including the human element, with various methods such as viruses, phishing, malware, or other cyber-attacks. Understanding attack vectors is crucial for developing effective security measures and strategies to protect systems from potential threats.
What is another name for critical assets? crown jewels crucial assets crown gems critical holdings
Another name for critical assets is "crown jewels." This term metaphorically refers to the most valuable and essential assets within an organization, just as crown jewels are the most valuable and protected treasures in a monarchy. These critical assets are considered indispensable for the operation and success of the organization and often require the highest level of security and protection due to their value and significance.
Which file system is used by Apple Mac systems? FAT32 exFAT NTFS APFS
Apple Mac systems use the APFS (Apple File System) as their primary file system. APFS was introduced with macOS High Sierra in 2017 and is optimized for flash/SSD storage, with features like encryption, space sharing, and improved file system fundamentals.
What can baseline parameters be used to determine? transfer rate MAC addresses authorized data flow IP addresses
Baseline parameters can be used to determine authorized data flow within a network or system. By establishing a baseline, which is a standard or reference point for how a system operates under normal conditions, organizations can monitor and measure current network or system performance against this predefined set of metrics or operational norms. This helps in identifying anomalies, deviations, or unauthorized activities, such as unusual data transfers or access patterns, that could indicate security threats or breaches. Baseline parameters are not typically used directly to determine transfer rates, MAC addresses, or IP addresses, but they can help in monitoring the behavior or usage patterns related to these aspects to identify unauthorized data flows.
Which Cisco product combines multiple security functions into one solution? Cisco Umbrella Cisco Cloudlock Cisco API
Cisco Umbrella is the Cisco product that combines multiple security functions into one solution. It acts as a cloud-delivered security platform that provides the first line of defense against threats on the internet wherever users go. Cisco Umbrella integrates multiple security functions into a single, cloud-based service to help secure access to the internet and usage of cloud apps, making it easier for organizations to manage and maintain their security in a more integrated and less fragmented manner.
What does DNSSEC provide? privacy for users on the Internet protection against DDoS attacks redundant servers for high availability authenticity and integrity of DNS records
DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions) provides: Authenticity and integrity of DNS records DNSSEC is designed to enhance the security of the Domain Name System (DNS) by adding cryptographic signatures to DNS records. These signatures ensure that DNS data remains unaltered and authentic as it traverses the Internet, preventing various types of DNS attacks, such as DNS spoofing and DNS cache poisoning. By validating DNS responses against these signatures, DNSSEC helps ensure the authenticity and integrity of DNS records, thereby enhancing the overall security of the DNS infrastructure.
Which statement about YARA is true? YARA can detect network-based activities. YARA rules are compiled executable files. YARA can only identify text strings and binary patterns. Each line in the rule must end with a semicolon.
Each line in the rule must end with a semicolon. This is a syntactical requirement in YARA rules, ensuring clarity and structure in the rule definitions. YARA rules are written in a specific syntax where semicolons are used to terminate statements, similar to languages like C or Java. This syntax helps in organizing the rules and making them understandable and maintainable.
Which activity will look at killed or zombified processes? analyzing endpoint files endpoint forensic analysis ad hoc scans brand reputation
Endpoint Forensic Analysis Endpoint forensic analysis involves examining the endpoints (such as computers, servers, or mobile devices) for evidence of security incidents or breaches. This includes investigating processes, system logs, file changes, network connections, and other indicators of compromise. Analyzing killed or zombified processes is part of endpoint forensic analysis, as it helps to identify potentially malicious activities or anomalies on the endpoint devices.
Which software is free for MacOS? Hiew Hex Fiend HxD OLE
Hex Fiend Hex Fiend is a free, open-source hex editor for MacOS. It allows users to view, edit, and analyze binary files in hexadecimal format. Hex Fiend offers features such as searching, data comparison, file hashing, and more, making it a useful tool for various tasks, including software analysis, data recovery, and forensic examination.
Complete this statement. ISO 27035 provides best practices and models for _____. digital forensic investigations across organizations and people. security incident management for organizations of all sizes. capturing and preserving digital evidence for trial. organizations in establishing security governance and compliance policies.
ISO 27035 provides best practices and models for: security incident management for organizations of all sizes. ISO 27035 is a standard that specifically focuses on the management of security incidents. It offers guidance on preparing for, detecting, responding to, and recovering from security incidents effectively. This standard helps organizations of various sizes and types establish robust incident management processes to mitigate the impact of security incidents and protect their assets.
What kind of data should you get in postincident activities? objective data alternative data subjective and objective data subjective data
In post-incident activities, it's important to gather subjective and objective data. Objective data includes quantifiable facts and figures, such as logs, system metrics, and timestamps, which provide concrete evidence about the incident. Subjective data, on the other hand, includes opinions, interpretations, and personal experiences from individuals involved in the incident, such as system users, IT staff, and security personnel. Collecting both types of data provides a comprehensive understanding of the incident, encompassing both the technical details and the human perspectives involved, which is crucial for a thorough analysis and effective response.
In the CAPEC library, what is the goal of injecting unexpected items? to manipulate and exploit characteristics of system data structures to violate the intended usage and protections of these structures. to control or disrupt the behavior of a target through crafted data that is submitted via an interface for data input. to exploit weaknesses, limitations, and assumptions in the mechanisms that a target utilizes to manage identity and authentication. to confuse the analyst and lead them in the wrong direction.
In the CAPEC (Common Attack Pattern Enumeration and Classification) library, the goal of injecting unexpected items is: to manipulate and exploit characteristics of system data structures to violate the intended usage and protections of these structures. This attack pattern involves injecting unexpected or malicious data into system data structures to manipulate their behavior in a way that violates their intended usage and protections. By doing so, attackers can potentially exploit vulnerabilities and compromise the security of the system.
Which phase of investigation in the SANS framework links evidence items to show the sequence of events? Identification Classification/Individualization Association Reconstruction
In the SANS framework, the phase of investigation that links evidence items to show the sequence of events is: Reconstruction The Reconstruction phase involves piecing together evidence to reconstruct the sequence of events. This phase aims to understand how the incident unfolded by analyzing the timeline of activities and interactions between various components of the system. By linking evidence items in a coherent sequence, investigators can reconstruct the chain of events leading up to and during the incident.
What is the role of the stakeholders in the postincident activities? Define the remediation plan. Evaluate and approve the solution. Test the solution. Monitor risks.
In the context of post-incident activities, the role of stakeholders typically involves evaluating and approving the solution. After an incident, stakeholders—such as management, department heads, or other key personnel—usually review the findings, recommendations, and proposed remediation plans put forward by the incident response team. They assess the viability, impact, and alignment of these proposals with the organization's strategic goals, risk management policies, and regulatory requirements. Based on this evaluation, they approve the necessary actions to remediate the issues identified during the incident and help prevent future occurrences. Their involvement is crucial for ensuring that the response is comprehensive and aligns with the broader interests of the organization.
Which indicator represents a series of actions that an adversary must conduct to succeed in an attack? indicator of attack indicator of vulnerability indicator of compromise indicator of vector
Indicator of Attack An Indicator of Attack (IoA) is a term used in cybersecurity to represent a series of actions or behaviors that could indicate an ongoing or imminent cyberattack. IoAs are proactive indicators that focus on detecting adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) rather than specific pieces of malware or known indicators of compromise (IoCs). By identifying IoAs, organizations can detect and respond to attacks in their early stages, before any actual compromise or damage occurs.
Which indicator can be found in an IP address, URL, domain, or file hash? indicators of attack indicators of threat indicators of compromise indicators of vulnerability
Indicators of Compromise (IoC) Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) are pieces of information that suggest an organization's network or systems have been breached or compromised. These indicators can include IP addresses, URLs, domain names, file hashes, and various other artifacts associated with malicious activity. By monitoring and analyzing IoCs, organizations can detect and respond to security incidents effectively.
Which indicators should DFIR analysts be aware of? indicators of threat and indicators of vulnerability indicators of vulnerability and indicators of attack indicators of compromise and indicators of attack indicators of compromise and indicators of threat
Indicators of Compromise (IoC) and Indicators of Attack (IoA) Indicators of Compromise (IoC) provide evidence of a security incident or breach, such as abnormal network traffic, unauthorized access attempts, or malware presence. These indicators help analysts identify and respond to ongoing threats. Indicators of Attack (IoA) represent sequences of events or behaviors that may indicate an active or impending cyberattack. IoAs help analysts understand the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) employed by adversaries, enabling them to detect and mitigate attacks effectively. Therefore, the correct option is: indicators of compromise and indicators of attack.
How does threat intelligence help DFIR teams? It helps them develop a fast and efficient response to an adversary. It helps them counterattack adversaries. It is information to be included in reports to management. It gives them topics on which to write security blogs.
It helps them develop a fast and efficient response to an adversary. Threat intelligence plays a critical role in enabling DFIR teams to understand adversaries' tactics and quickly respond to security incidents, making it the most pertinent answer among the options provided.
Which product is a GUI-based triage forensic tool? Splunk Velociraptor K2 KAPE
KAPE KAPE (Kroll Artifact Parser and Extractor) is a versatile and powerful forensic tool that provides both command-line and graphical user interface (GUI) capabilities. It is designed for triage and live analysis, allowing investigators to quickly collect and analyze forensic artifacts from Windows systems. KAPE offers a user-friendly interface for navigating and selecting artifacts to collect, making it suitable for both novice and experienced forensic practitioners.
If you maintain good operational security, which process is most likely to alert the threat actor to your response? containment eradication recovery None of the above.
Maintaining good operational security (OpSec) is crucial to avoid alerting the threat actor to your response activities. However, if any of the processes were to potentially alert a threat actor, it would be during containment. Containment strategies might involve changing firewall rules, isolating network segments, or taking systems offline, which could disrupt the attacker's access or activities, possibly signaling to them that their presence has been detected and actions are being taken. Nonetheless, with excellent OpSec, even containment can often be conducted in a manner that minimizes detection by the adversary.
Which option is the correct basic workflow? Make a case, configure ingest modules, add data sources, review results, create the report. Make a case, configure ingest modules, add data sources, create the report, review results. Configure ingest modules, add data sources, make a case, create the report. Make a case, add data sources, configure ingest modules, review results, create the report.
Make a case,add data sources, configure ingest modules, , review results, create the report. This workflow follows a logical sequence of steps in digital forensics and incident response (DFIR) processes. Make a case: Establishing a case involves defining the scope, objectives, and parameters of the investigation. Add data sources: Identify and add relevant data sources to be collected and analyzed as part of the investigation. Configure ingest modules: Configure the tools or modules used to collect and ingest data from various sources into the investigation platform. Review results: Analyze the collected data and review the results to identify potential indicators of compromise (IoCs), evidence of malicious activity, or other relevant findings. Create the report: Compile the findings, analysis, and conclusions into a formal report that documents the investigation process, results, and recommendations.
Which option describes an advanced persistent threat? a method or process to gain unauthorized access a type of attack that targets Layers 1 to 4 of the OSI model nation state- or state-sponsored threat actors who have the talent and resources to penetrate enterprise-level and national government cyber security defenses a network-based attack whose purpose is to overwhelm network resources and cause a service disruption
Nation-state or state-sponsored threat actors who have the talent and resources to penetrate enterprise-level and national government cybersecurity defenses. APTs are characterized by their high level of sophistication, significant resources, and long-term objectives. They often target high-value targets such as government agencies, large corporations, and critical infrastructure, with the aim of stealing information, espionage, or causing disruption over extended periods.
What are network diagrams? They are blueprints of the building. They are a series of drawings of the physical devices on the network. They are lists of IP addresses and passwords for your network devices. They form the main documentation of your system.
Network diagrams are visual representations of a computer or telecommunications network. They show the various components of a network, such as nodes, connections, and the topology of the network, in a schematic way. These diagrams can depict everything from high-level overviews to detailed network components and connections. Network diagrams are used for planning, documentation, and troubleshooting of networks, making them an essential tool for network administrators and IT professionals to understand and manage the infrastructure's layout and interconnections.
Which two methods do packers deploy? (Choose two.) obfuscated JavaScript packer and compiler signatures obfuscated Python C++ interpreter Python signatures
Obfuscated JavaScript: This method involves using complex and deliberately confusing JavaScript code to hide the true intent or functionality of the packed code. This is particularly common in web-based malware or malicious scripts, where the obfuscated JavaScript is used to evade detection by security tools and make analysis by security researchers more difficult. Packer and Compiler Signatures: Packers often leave identifiable signatures or patterns in the packed executable, which can be used to detect the use of a particular packer. These signatures might include specific sequences of bytes, metadata, or other characteristics unique to the packer or compiler used. Security tools and researchers can use these signatures to identify and potentially unpack or decode the packed content.
Which mitigation helps protect against zero-day exploits? IDS signature-based antivirus anomaly detection patches
Patches help protect against zero-day exploits. When vulnerabilities are discovered, software developers release patches or updates to fix those vulnerabilities. By promptly applying patches, users can protect their systems from being exploited by zero-day attacks.
Which registry hive contains personalization settings such as the choice of desktop background image? HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG KEY_CURRENT_USER HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SAM HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM
Personalization settings, such as the choice of desktop background image, are typically found in the HKEY_CURRENT_USER registry hive. This hive contains user-specific settings, including user interface and environment preferences, application settings, and other configurations related to the currently logged-in user's profile.
Through which UDP port does syslog communicate? 514 443 360 80
Syslog communicates through UDP port 514. This is the standard port used for syslog services to send event notification messages across IP networks, enabling the logging of system data from various devices onto a centralized syslog server for monitoring and analysis purposes.
Which tool collects event data from Windows systems that is important for incident response? Autoruns Sysmon SIFT Volatility
Sysmon (System Monitor) is the tool that collects event data from Windows systems, which is crucial for incident response. It is part of the Microsoft Sysinternals suite and provides detailed information about process creations, network connections, and changes to file creation time, helping analysts to identify malicious or anomalous activity and understand the context around it.
Which FIRST standard classifies exploits and vulnerabilities by severity? CVSS TLP EPSS None of the above.
The FIRST standard that classifies exploits and vulnerabilities by severity is: CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) CVSS provides a framework for standardizing the assessment of the severity of software vulnerabilities. It assigns scores based on various metrics, such as the impact, exploitability, and temporal characteristics of vulnerabilities, allowing organizations to prioritize their response efforts effectively. TLP (Traffic Light Protocol) is a different standard used for sharing sensitive information, and EPSS (Electronic Performance Support Systems) is unrelated to vulnerability classification.
The Incident Response Workflow has seven stages and illustrates the _____ and _____ of the IR team. activities and roles investigative process and digital forensics analysis types of evidence collected and chain of custody events and incidents
The Incident Response Workflow has seven stages and illustrates the activities and roles of the IR team.
The NIST cybersecurity framework is more oriented for which type of SOC? threat-centric risk-centric defense oriented attack oriented
The NIST Cybersecurity Framework is more oriented towards: Defense-oriented SOC (Security Operations Center) The NIST Cybersecurity Framework provides a set of guidelines, best practices, and standards for improving cybersecurity posture across various sectors and organizations. It focuses on enhancing cybersecurity defenses, risk management practices, and incident response capabilities. Therefore, it is particularly suitable for organizations that prioritize defense-oriented approaches to cybersecurity, aiming to strengthen their resilience against cyber threats and vulnerabilities.
Which communication protocol is used to share threat intelligence? ad hoc scan STIX TAXII endpoint forensic analysis
The communication protocol used to share threat intelligence is: TAXII (Trusted Automated Exchange of Indicator Information) TAXII is an industry-standard protocol used for sharing cyber threat intelligence. It enables organizations to exchange structured threat information in a standardized and automated manner. By using TAXII, organizations can share indicators of compromise (IOCs), threat actor information, malware signatures, and other relevant threat intelligence data with trusted partners, security vendors, and other stakeholders in the cybersecurity community.
At which stage in the IR workflow will the digital forensics team conduct their preliminary investigation? Preparation Identification Detection and Analysis Recovery
The digital forensics team typically conducts their preliminary investigation during the Detection and Analysis stage in the Incident Response (IR) workflow. This stage involves identifying and analyzing the incident to understand its scope, impact, and the techniques used by attackers. Digital forensics plays a crucial role in gathering evidence, examining systems, and understanding the nature of the incident during this phase.
The examination of a running machine that is currently executing code is called _____. recovery time objective file carving live analysis disk mirroring
The examination of a running machine that is currently executing code is called live analysis. This involves analyzing the state of a system in real-time to gather information about its current activities, processes, network connections, and other relevant data. Live analysis is often performed during incident response activities to quickly assess the situation and identify any ongoing malicious activities.
Which framework focuses more on application security? CAPEC ATT&CK NIST Cybersecurity Framework DNS
The framework that focuses more on application security is: CAPEC (Common Attack Pattern Enumeration and Classification) CAPEC provides a comprehensive taxonomy of common attack patterns used by adversaries to exploit vulnerabilities in software applications. It focuses specifically on identifying and categorizing attack patterns relevant to application security, helping organizations understand and mitigate the risks associated with software vulnerabilities. While other frameworks such as ATT&CK and the NIST Cybersecurity Framework cover various aspects of cybersecurity, CAPEC is particularly oriented towards application security. DNS (Domain Name System) is not a cybersecurity framework; it is a fundamental internet protocol used for translating domain names into IP addresses.
Which framework focuses more on network defense? CAPEC ATT&CK NIST Cybersecurity Framework DNS
The framework that focuses more on network defense is: ATT&CK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge) ATT&CK, developed by MITRE, provides a knowledge base of adversarial tactics and techniques based on real-world observations of cyber threats. While it covers various aspects of cybersecurity, including endpoint security, ATT&CK particularly emphasizes techniques used by adversaries to penetrate, exploit, and persist within networks. It helps organizations understand and improve their network defense strategies by providing insights into adversary behavior and attack patterns.
Which item is an automated file backup that could be very helpful to an examiner? target disk mode rehashing restore points prefetch
The item that is an automated file backup that could be very helpful to an examiner is: Restore points Restore points are snapshots of a system's state at a particular moment in time. They capture important system files, settings, and configurations, allowing users to revert their system to a previous state if needed. For examiners, having access to restore points can be valuable as they provide a backup of critical system files and configurations, which can aid in forensic investigations or recovery processes.
Which item prevents phones from contacting wireless networks? rehashing prefetch Faraday bag proficiency
The item that prevents phones from contacting wireless networks is: Faraday bag A Faraday bag is a specialized pouch made from conductive material that blocks electromagnetic signals, including those used by wireless networks. When a phone is placed inside a Faraday bag and sealed properly, it is effectively isolated from external wireless networks, preventing it from sending or receiving signals. This can be useful in situations where it's necessary to prevent unauthorized communication or to preserve evidence during forensic investigations.
Which measurement rates a risk in terms such as low, medium, or high? sample correlation coefficient nfection vector qualitative quantitative
The measurement that rates a risk in terms such as low, medium, or high is known as qualitative risk assessment. This approach involves subjective analysis to categorize risks based on their severity and the impact they could have, without necessarily assigning numerical values to those risks. It's commonly used in scenarios where precise data is hard to obtain or not necessary for decision-making.
Which mnemonic can be used to remember the requirements for forensic readiness? PreCEPT Talos Spoofing Buy-in
The mnemonic that can be used to remember the requirements for forensic readiness is: PreCEPT PreCEPT stands for: Policies and Procedures: Establishing clear policies and procedures for handling digital evidence and conducting forensic investigations. Capture: Ensuring that systems are configured to capture and retain relevant digital evidence in a forensically sound manner. Examination: Having the necessary tools, skills, and resources to conduct forensic examinations effectively. Preservation: Safeguarding the integrity of digital evidence to ensure its admissibility and reliability in legal proceedings. Documentation: Documenting all actions taken during the forensic process to maintain accountability and transparency. Training: Providing ongoing training and education for personnel involved in forensic activities to ensure competency and proficiency. These elements are essential for maintaining forensic readiness within an organization.
Which model focuses on the ability to outpace and outthink the opponent? OODA OSCAR CIA Parkerian Hexad
The model that focuses on the ability to outpace and outthink the opponent is: OODA (Observe, Orient, Decide, Act) The OODA loop, developed by military strategist and United States Air Force Colonel John Boyd, emphasizes the iterative decision-making process in dynamic and uncertain environments. It centers on continuously observing, orienting, deciding, and acting based on evolving information and circumstances to gain a competitive advantage over opponents. This model is widely used not only in military strategy but also in various domains, including cybersecurity, where it informs incident response, threat hunting, and decision-making processes.
Which option best defines the imposter syndrome? An analyst overanalyzes and is overwhelmed by their own thought process. An analyst feels like a fraud when doubting themselves and their abilities. An analyst is afraid of the changes around them, which causes them to resist adjusting themselves. An analyst relies on observations and their senses to solve problems.
The option that best defines the imposter syndrome is: An analyst feels like a fraud when doubting themselves and their abilities. Imposter syndrome refers to a psychological pattern in which an individual doubts their own accomplishments and has a persistent fear of being exposed as a "fraud" despite evidence of their competence and success. People experiencing imposter syndrome often feel inadequate or undeserving of their achievements, attributing their success to luck rather than their abilities.
Which organization brings awareness of web vulnerabilities? WISP WIPS OWASP WASPO
The organization that brings awareness of web vulnerabilities is OWASP, which stands for the Open Web Application Security Project. OWASP is a nonprofit foundation that works to improve the security of software through its community-led open source software projects, hundreds of chapters worldwide, tens of thousands of members, and by hosting local and global conferences.
Which part of the incident response process requires fast action to identify a new security incident? preparation detection eradication recovery
The part of the incident response process that requires fast action to identify a new security incident is: Detection Detection involves the rapid identification of security incidents as they occur or shortly after. This phase relies on monitoring systems, networks, and logs for signs of unauthorized activities or anomalies that could indicate a security breach. Prompt detection allows organizations to initiate a timely response, containing and mitigating the impact of the incident before it escalates further. Therefore, swift action during the detection phase is crucial in effectively managing security incidents.
Who is the person who officially designates an event as an incident? SOC Technician Chief Information Security Officer Chief Technology Officer Incident Response Manager
The person who officially designates an event as an incident is typically the Incident Response Manager. This role is responsible for overseeing the response to security incidents, coordinating with various teams, and making decisions about how to categorize and respond to incidents effectively.
What is the purpose of forensic analysis? to incorporate Locard's Exchange Principle within the triage forensics methodology to support the IR investigation by discovering and documenting attacker activities to differentiate between security events and incidents to create a repeatable process for the forensic investigator to locate digital evidence
The purpose of forensic analysis is: to support the IR investigation by discovering and documenting attacker activities. Forensic analysis involves examining digital evidence to understand the nature of security incidents, identify the extent of compromise, determine the methods used by attackers, and gather information necessary for remediation and prevention efforts. It helps in piecing together the sequence of events, identifying the impact on systems, and attributing actions to specific individuals or entities. This supports incident response efforts by providing critical insights that enable organizations to effectively mitigate the incident and strengthen their defenses against future attacks.
Which remediation method involves implementing a version control system and a DevOps management system? Fix the user. Fix the system. Fix the code. Fix the ecosystem.
The remediation method that involves implementing a version control system and a DevOps management system is Fix the ecosystem. This approach focuses on improving the broader environment and processes that surround software development and operations. By implementing a version control system, organizations can better manage changes to their codebase, enhancing security and collaboration. Incorporating a DevOps management system improves the integration between development and operations teams, streamlining deployments and operational tasks, thereby enhancing the overall security and efficiency of the ecosystem.
Which six-step model is a modern improvement on an older three-part security model? OODA OSCAR CIA Parkerian Hexad
The six-step model that is a modern improvement on an older three-part security model is: Parkerian Hexad The Parkerian Hexad is an extension of the traditional CIA (Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability) triad, adding three additional attributes: Possession or Control, Authenticity, and Utility. This expanded model provides a more comprehensive framework for analyzing and addressing security concerns beyond the basic principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Therefore, it represents a modern improvement on the older three-part security model.
hich structured language is used to share threat intelligence? STIX TAXII Brand reputation Dark web
The structured language used to share threat intelligence is: **STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression)** STIX is a standardized language for representing cyber threat information in a structured format. It allows organizations to describe cyber threat indicators, tactics, techniques, procedures (TTPs), and other relevant information in a machine-readable format. STIX enables interoperability and sharing of threat intelligence among different security tools, platforms, and organizations.
Which item is a technique that is used to access data on a Mac computer disk from another computer? rehashing prefetch target disk mode proficiency
The technique used to access data on a Mac computer disk from another computer is: Target Disk Mode Target Disk Mode allows a Mac computer to act as an external hard drive when connected to another Mac computer via a FireWire or Thunderbolt cable. This enables the second Mac to access the disk and its contents as if they were connected directly to it, facilitating data transfer, diagnostics, and troubleshooting. It's commonly used for tasks like data recovery, disk cloning, or transferring files between Mac computers.
What are the three categories of the Recover function? anomalies and events, security continuous monitoring, and detection processes recovery planning, improvements, and communication asset vulnerabilities, cyber threat intelligence, and risk responses recover files recover data, and recover emails
The three categories of the Recover function typically refer to aspects related to the recovery of systems, data, and operations after a cybersecurity incident. These categories are often aligned with broader cybersecurity frameworks such as the NIST Cybersecurity Framework or ISO/IEC 27001. The specific categories may vary slightly depending on the framework or methodology used, but generally, they include: Recovery Planning: This involves establishing plans, procedures, and resources necessary to recover from cybersecurity incidents effectively. It includes activities such as developing incident response plans, backup and recovery strategies, and business continuity plans. Improvements: This category focuses on identifying areas for improvement in the recovery process based on lessons learned from past incidents, exercises, and reviews. It involves activities such as conducting post-incident analyses, implementing corrective actions, and continuously enhancing recovery capabilities. Communication: Effective communication is critical during the recovery process to ensure that stakeholders are informed, coordinated, and involved in the response efforts. This category includes activities such as establishing communication protocols, notifying relevant parties about incidents, and providing updates on recovery progress. These categories collectively contribute to the successful recovery of systems, data, and operations following cybersecurity incidents.
Which two statements best describe Red Dart? (Choose two.) Red Dart addresses fire prevention. Red Dart addresses trade secrets and threats to national security. Red Dart addresses Red Team activities. Red Dart addresses information storage best practices. Red Dart members must have top secret federal security clearance.
The two statements that best describe Red Dart are: Red Dart addresses trade secrets and threats to national security. Red Dart addresses Red Team activities. These statements accurately reflect the objectives and focus areas of Red Dart, which typically involves addressing security concerns related to trade secrets, national security, and engaging in Red Team activities for security testing and evaluation.
Which two statements best describe guidelines and OJT? (Choose two.) Organizations are encouraged to adopt the latest version of a guideline. Guidelines are always better than OJT. Guidelines and OJT are the same. OJT specifies systematic methodologies. Over time, and with more experience, you will be able to evaluate different pieces of evidence and narrow the scope.
The two statements that best describe guidelines and OJT (On-the-Job Training) are: Organizations are encouraged to adopt the latest version of a guideline. Over time, and with more experience, you will be able to evaluate different pieces of evidence and narrow the scope. These statements highlight the importance of staying updated with the latest guidelines to ensure best practices and continuous improvement, as well as the notion that practical experience gained through OJT enables individuals to develop skills in evaluating evidence and refining their investigative approach.
Which two statements best describe the ACPO principles? (Choose two.) Any person who needs to access the original data must be competent to do so, able to explain their actions, and able to present it as evidence in court. The CEO has overall responsibility for ensuring that the company adheres to ACPO principles. The record or document that details all the digital evidence activities must be created, maintained, and preserved so that an independent third-party forensics expert can validate. NIST, ISO, and ACPO use a similar forensic investigation cycle. ACPO principles are an international standard.
The two statements that best describe the ACPO (Association of Chief Police Officers) principles are: Any person who needs to access the original data must be competent to do so, able to explain their actions, and able to present it as evidence in court. The record or document that details all the digital evidence activities must be created, maintained, and preserved so that an independent third-party forensics expert can validate. These statements highlight the importance of competency, accountability, and documentation in digital forensic investigations, all of which are key aspects of the ACPO principles.
How can an analyst overcome analysis paralysis? Focus all their time on gathering and analyzing information. Make a lot of small insignificant decisions and leave the big decisions to their coworkers. Because they are afraid of failure, they should not confront their fears or try to find the root cause. Rely on thought process models like OODA and OSCAR to resolve analysis paralysis and return to making decisions.
The way an analyst can overcome analysis paralysis is: Rely on thought process models like OODA and OSCAR to resolve analysis paralysis and return to making decisions. Thought process models such as OODA (Observe, Orient, Decide, Act) and OSCAR (Observe, Study, Consider, Assess, Review) can help individuals break out of analysis paralysis by providing a structured approach to decision-making. These models emphasize iterative decision loops and continuous adaptation to changing circumstances, allowing analysts to overcome indecision and take decisive actions based on available information.
Which tool converts a Windows executable file to a file that is smaller, but still has the same functionality? xortool CyberChef UPX 7-Zip
UPX (Ultimate Packer for eXecutables) UPX is a popular open-source executable packer that compresses executable files (such as Windows executables) to reduce their size without affecting functionality. It achieves compression by removing redundant information and compressing the executable code and data within the file. This compression can significantly reduce the size of the executable, making it useful for distributing software while minimizing bandwidth and storage requirements.
What is the attacker trying to accomplish when using the execution tactic of the ATT&CK framework? The attacker is trying to run malicious code. The attacker is stealing the data. The attacker is stealing account names and passwords. The attacker is manipulating, interrupting, or destroying systems or data.
When an attacker uses the execution tactic in the ATT&CK framework, they are typically trying to accomplish the following: The attacker is trying to run malicious code. Execution tactics involve techniques used by attackers to run unauthorized code on a target system. This could include executing malware, scripts, or other forms of malicious code with the intention of achieving various objectives such as stealing data, gaining unauthorized access, or compromising the integrity of systems or data.
Which operating system does not directly support syslog? Windows MacOS Linux All these operating systems directly support syslog.
Windows does not directly support syslog in its core system functionality as Linux and MacOS do. In Unix-like operating systems, such as Linux and MacOS, syslog is a standard for message logging and comes integrated within the system. However, in Windows environments, syslog functionality is not built-in, and external applications or third-party software are typically required to provide syslog capabilities or to forward Windows event logs to a syslog server.
Which tool reconstructs application-layer data from network traffic? Xplico Tcpdump Redline Sysmon
Xplico is the tool designed to reconstruct application-layer data from network traffic. It is capable of parsing and extracting various types of information from captured network traffic, including emails, HTTP contents, VoIP calls, and more, making it a valuable tool for network forensic analysis and incident response.
Which product is a command-line debugger that runs on Linux? Immunity Debugger Network Miner Evan's Debugger gdb
gdb gdb, which stands for GNU Debugger, is a command-line debugger available on Linux systems. It is a powerful tool used for debugging and analyzing programs, allowing users to inspect memory, set breakpoints, step through code, and analyze program state during execution. gdb supports a wide range of programming languages and is commonly used for debugging applications written in C, C++, and other languages on Linux platforms.
Which Linux utility shows network connections? Procexp ss kill top
ss ss stands for "socket statistics" and is a command-line utility used to display information about network sockets on a Linux system. It can show various details about network connections, including established connections, listening sockets, and more. By using ss, users can inspect network activity and diagnose network-related issues on their Linux systems.
Which Linux utility shows running processes? Procexp ss kill top
top top is a command-line utility used to display information about running processes on a Linux system. It provides a dynamic, real-time view of system resource usage, including CPU, memory, and swap usage, as well as a list of active processes sorted by various criteria such as CPU usage, memory consumption, or process ID. top allows users to monitor system performance and identify processes that may be consuming excessive resources or causing performance issues.