Clinical Chem Test Bank (Final Exam)

8. Which of the following is used to assess the usefulness of trastuzumab (Herceptin®) therapy for breast cancer? A. CA 15-3 B. HER-2/neu C. CA 125 D. Prolactin

B. HER-2/neu

18. Which of the following hormones is useful in identifying women with ectopic pregnancies or abnormal intrauterine pregnancies? A. Human pituitary gonadotropin B. Human chorionic gonadotropin C. Human luteinizing hormone D. Human progesterone

B. Human chorionic gonadotropin

10. Which of the following is an effect of increased parathyroid secretion? A. Decreased intestinal absorption of calcium B. Increased intestinal absorption of calcium C. Decreased blood calcium levels D. Decreased bone resorption

B. Increased intestinal absorption of calcium

35. A patient with Addison's disease would present with which of the following? A. High sodium, low potassium levels B. Low sodium, high potassium levels C. Normal sodium, low potassium levels D. Low sodium, low potassium levels

B. Low sodium, high potassium levels

17. "A progressive systemic skeletal disease characterized by low bone mass and micro architectural deterioration of bone tissue, with a consequent increase in bone fragility and susceptible to fracture" describes which of the following diseases? A. Osteosarcoma B. Osteoporosis C. Renal osteodystrophy D. Paget's disease

B. Osteoporosis

23. Which of the following does NOT release steroid hormones? A. Ovaries B. Pituitary gland C. Testes D. Adrenal cortex

B. Pituitary gland

33. 3, 5, 3′-triodothyronine is characterized as which of the following? A. The least potent thyroid hormone B. The most potent thyroid hormone C. Secreted by the anterior pituitary gland in response to low blood levels of TSH D. Used to make both T3 and T4 hormones

B. The most potent thyroid hormone

20. Diagnostic specificity is defined as which of the following? A. The probability that a laboratory test will be positive in the absence of disease B. The probability that a laboratory test will be negative in the absence of disease C. A measure of how often the assay system detects the biomarker when the disease is present D. The probability that a disease is present when the test is positive or that a disease is absent when a test is negative

B. The probability that a laboratory test will be negative in the absence of disease

19. Which molecular form(s) is/are measured by an intact β-hCG assay? A. hCG core and "nicked" hCG or hCGn B. The whole molecule C. Only "nicked" hCG or hCGn D. α-hCG and free β-hCG subunits

B. The whole molecule

12. Calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium all have which of the following in common? A. They all exist in circulation as only free or ionized forms. B. They all exist as free or ionized forms, bound to proteins and complexes to radicals to form salts. C. Calcium exist as bound and free only, phosphorus exits only as bound and complexes to radical to form salts and magnesium exists as free or ionized forms, bound to proteins and complexes to radicals to form salts. D. Calcium blood levels are regulated by parathyroid hormones, phosphorus is regulated by testosterone, and magnesium is regulated by insulin.

B. They all exist as free or ionized forms, bound to proteins and complexes to radicals to form salts.

6. Which of the following can affect the concentration of ionized calcium in blood? A Barometric pressure B. pH and temperature C. Magnesium concentration D. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide

B. pH and temperature

15. Which laboratory test listed would be useful to the clinician to assess patients with osteoporosis? A. Urinary magnesium B. Total serum calcium C. Serum NTX-I D. Serum PTH

C. Serum NTX-I

17. Unconjugated estriol may be decreased in which of the following? A. Fetal anencephaly B. Fetal death C. Molar pregnancy D. All of the above

D. All of the above

24. Primary hypothyroidism may be due to which of the following? A. Damage to the thyroid gland B. Inherited conditions C. Removal or ablation of the thyroid gland D. All of the above

D. All of the above

5. The adrenal cortex releases which of the following? A. Corticosteroids B. Mineralosteroids C. Androgens D. All of the above

D. All of the above

4. Which of the following is a sialylated Lewis blood group antigen associated with colorectal cancer? A. CA 125 B. CA 15-3 C. PSA D. CA 19-9

D. CA 19-9

13. There is no endocrine hormone from which of the following chemical classes? A. Proteins B. Amino acids C. Steroids D. Glycated hemoglobins

D. Glycated hemoglobins

26. The principle method used to measure hormone levels in blood in most clinical laboratories is: A. Gas chromatography. B. Thin layer chromatography. C. Electrophoresis. D. Immunoassays.

D. Immunoassays.

11. Which of the following laboratory results reflects a patient diagnosed with rickets as a result of a dietary deficiency of vitamin D? A. Increased serum total calcium, decreased serum total alkaline phosphatase, increased serum inorganic phosphorus B. Decreased serum PINP, decreased serum TRAP, decreased serum DPD C. Normal serum PINP, normal serum TRAP, normal serum DPD D. Increased serum PINP, increased serum TRAP, Increased serum DPD

D. Increased serum PINP, increased serum TRAP, Increased serum DPD

10. Which of the following would be classified as prehepatic jaundice? a. Hepatitis b. Congestive heart failure c. Rotor syndrome d. Cancer of the bile ducts

b. Congestive heart failure

1. Bile formed in the liver is stored in the: a. Liver. b. Gall bladder. c. Duodenum. d. Large intestine.

b. Gall bladder.

4. The cells that make up 70% of the liver's mass are: a. Kupffer cells. b. Hepatocytes. c. Endothelial cells. d. None of the above

b. Hepatocytes.

2. A breakdown product of bilirubin metabolism that is produced in the colon from the oxidation of urobilinogen by microorganisms is: a. Porphobilinogen. b. Urobilin. c. Stercobilinogen. d. Protoporphyrin. e. Protoheme.

b. Urobilin.

19. The following disease is a recessive disorder of copper metabolism, which results in the accumulation of copper in the liver. a. Hereditary hemochromatosis b. Wilson's disease c. α1-antitrypsin d. Gilbert's disease

b. Wilson's disease

13. Alcoholic liver disease that follows six months to a year of moderate consumption, few lab abnormalities, and is reversible with abstinence from alcohol is termed: a. Alcoholic cirrhosis. b. Alcoholic hepatitis. c. Alcoholic fatty liver. d. None of the above

c. Alcoholic fatty liver.

7. The term δ-bilirubin (delta) refers to: a. Water-soluble bilirubin. b. Free unconjugated bilirubin. c. Bilirubin tightly bound to albumin. d. Direct-reacting bilirubin.

c. Bilirubin tightly bound to albumin.

17. Viral hepatitis that results in the largest percentage of chronic hepatitis is: a. Hepatitis A. b. Hepatitis B. c. Hepatitis C. d. Hepatitis D.

c. Hepatitis C.

5. Which of the statements regarding bilirubin metabolism is true? a. It is a product of porphyrin metabolism b. It is reduced to biliverdin before excretion c. It is produced from the destruction of RBCs d. It is formed by the hydrolysis of the α-methene bridge of urobilingen

c. It is produced from the destruction of RBCs

3. The enzyme system that catalyzes the conjugation of bilirubin is known as: a. Leucine aminopeptidase. b. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase. c. Uridine diphosphate (UDP) glucoronyl transferase. d. Carbamyl phosphate synthetase. e. Lactate dehydrogenase.

c. Uridine diphosphate (UDP) glucoronyl transferase.

16. In the Jendrassik-Grof bilirubin, what converts purple azobilirubin to blue azobilirubin measured at 600nm? a. Hydrochloric acid b. Caffeine c. Methanol d. Alkaline tartrate

d. Alkaline tartrate

18. The two most significant sources of error in accurate ammonia determinations are sample handling and: a. Short shelf life of test reagents. b. Inability to automate the test procedure. c. Need for age-dependent reference ranges. d. Ammonia contamination in the laboratory.

d. Ammonia contamination in the laboratory.

6. Which is a characteristic of unconjugated bilirubin? a. It is water-soluble b. It reacts faster than conjugated bilirubin c. It has the same absorbance properties as conjugated bilirubin d. It a not water-soluble

d. It a not water-soluble

9. What is the most common cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia? a. Hemolytic anemia b. Gilbert's disease c. Bile duct obstruction d. Dubin-Johnson e. Neonatal physiologic jaundice

e. Neonatal physiologic jaundice

11. In obstructive liver disease, the following test results are found: a. Feces: urobilinogen decreased; urine: bilirubin: positive; serum: conjugated bilirubin increased. b. Feces: urobilinogen decreased or negative; urine: urobilinogen decreased or negative; serum: conjugated bilirubin decreased. c. Feces: urobilinogen increased; urine: bilirubin: normal; serum: conjugated bilirubin normal or slightly elevated. d. None of the above

a. Feces: urobilinogen decreased; urine: bilirubin: positive; serum: conjugated bilirubin increased.

12. The first serological marker of Hepatitis B is: a. HBsAg. b. HBeAg. c. Anti-HBc. d. Anti-HBs.

a. HBsAg.

20. An autosomal recessive disorder of iron metabolism, which is characterized by excessive iron absorption and accumulation in various tissues in the body, is termed: a. Hereditary hemochromatosis. b. Wilson's disease. c. α1-antitrypsin. d. Dubin-Johnson.

a. Hereditary hemochromatosis.

15. If a total bilirubin is 4.0 mg/dL and the conjugated bilirubin is 2.5 mg/dL, the unconjugated bilirubin is: a. 1.0 mg/dL. b. 1.5 mg/dL. c. 2.0 mg/dL. d. mg/Dl.

b. 1.5 mg/dL.

8. Kernicterus is the abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in: a. Heart tissue. b. Brain tissue. c. Liver tissue. d. Kidney tissue. e. Blood.

b. Brain tissue.

14. The reagent (accelerator)in the Jendrassik-Grof bilirubin procedure that makes indirect bilirubin water-soluble is: a. Hydrochloric acid. b. Caffeine. c. Methanol. a. Alkaline tartrate.

b. Caffeine.

19. Which of the following is an example of a controllable preanalytical variable associated with specimen collection for bone biomarker testing? A. Diet B. Age C. Gender D. Fractures

A. Diet

3. Select the principle estrogen produced by the ovaries and measured to evaluate ovarian function. A. Estriol B. Estradiol C. Epiestriol D. Hydroxyestrone

B. Estradiol

20. In the thyroid gland, which of the following is described as the secretory unit? A Calcitonin B. Follicle C. Colloid D. The isthmus

B. Follicle

2. Pituitary gigantism is associated with which of the following? A. Growth (GH) deficiency B. GH excess C. Hypercorticolism D. Hypeprolactinemia

B. GH excess

31. All of the following proteins transport thyroid hormones EXCEPT: A. Thyroxin binding globulin. B. Gamma globulin. C. Albumin. D. Thyroxine binding pre albumin.

B. Gamma globulin

9. Which metabolite is most often increased in carcinoid tumors? A. 5-Hydroxyindolacetic acid (5-HIAA) B. 3-Methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG) C. 3-Methoxydopamine D. Homovanillic acid

A. 5-Hydroxyindolacetic acid (5-HIAA)

14. TSH is secreted by which of the following? A. Anterior pituitary B. Posterior pituitary C. Hypothalamus D. Thyroid gland

A. Anterior pituitary

8. Which of the following statements best illustrates the diagnostic criteria for primary hyperparathyroidism? A. No serum PTH detected and no serum calcium detected B. Detectable amounts of serum PTH concomitant with elevated total serum calcium C. Elevated total serum calcium only D. A normal levels of serum PTH and serum calcium

B. Detectable amounts of serum PTH concomitant with elevated total serum calcium

16. Which of the following laboratory results best represents a patient with Paget's disease? A. Decreased urinary hydroxyproline, increased serum alkaline phosphatase B. Increased urinary hydroxyproline, decreased serum alkaline phosphatase C. Normal urinary hydroxyproline, normal serum alkaline phosphatase D. Decreased urinary hydroxyproline, decreased serum alkaline phosphatase

A. Decreased urinary hydroxyproline, increased serum alkaline phosphatase

9. Which of the following feedback mechanisms regulate the production of 1, 25(OH) 2D3? A. Negative feedback mechanism associated with circulating levels of calcium and inorganic phosphorus. B. Negative feedback mechanism associated with circulating levels of calcitonin. C. Negative feedback mechanism associated with circulating levels of magnesium. D. Positive feedback mechanism associated with circulating levels of calcium and inorganic phosphorus.

A. Negative feedback mechanism associated with circulating levels of calcium and inorganic phosphorus.

1. In which of the following disorders would the maternal serum level of 1-fetoprotein be elevated? A. Neural tube defect. B. Cardiac ischemia. C. Down syndrome. D. Small cell lung carcinoma

A. Neural tube defect

16. The combination of squamous cell carcinoma antigen (SCCA) and CYFRA 21-1 test results can be used to provide reliable laboratory data for the differential diagnosis of which disease? A. Nonsquamous cell lung carcinoma B. Pancreatic cancer C. Liver cancer D. Pulmonary embolism

A. Nonsquamous cell lung carcinoma

30. Primary hypothyroidism may be due to all of the following EXCEPT: A. Pituitary adenoma. B. Surgical removal of the thyroid gland. C. Damage to the thyroid gland. D. Inherited disorder of the thyroid gland.

A. Pituitary adenoma.

9. Which type of hCG test would be most useful to assess a person suspected of having testicular cancer? A. Plasma immunoassay for intact hCG and the β-hCG subunits B. Plasma immunoassay fro the free alpha and β-hCG subunits C. Urine assay for hCG-β core D. Plasma immunoassay for intact hCG only

A. Plasma immunoassay for intact hCG and the β-hCG subunits

12. Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are decreased in which of the following diseases or conditions? A. Primary hyperthyroidism B. Primary hypothyroidism C. Primary parathyroidism D. Hyperpituitarism

A. Primary hyperthyroidism

6. Which statement below about patients with Addison's disease is true? A. Serum levels of ACTH are high B. Serum levels of cortisol high C. Adrenal glands produce excessive amounts of testosterone D. It is not a disease of the adrenal glands

A. Serum levels of ACTH are high

5. Monitoring intraoperative PTH is useful for: A. Surgical management of primary hyperparathyroidism. B. Surgical management of thyroid disease. C. Surgical management of prostate cancer. D. Surgical management of coronary heart disease.

A. Surgical management of primary hyperparathyroidism.

22. Tetraiodothyronine describes which of the following compounds? A. T4 (thyroxine) B. T3 C. MIT D. Reverse T3

A. T4 (thyroxine)

18. Nuclear matrix protein-22 (NMP) is a tumor marker designed for what purpose? A. Test for recurrence of bladder cancer B. Test for recurrence of lung cancer C. Test for recurrence of bone cancer D. Test for recurrence of colorectal cancer

A. Test for recurrence of bladder cancer

12. Which of the following must be determined to calculate diagnostic specificity? A. True-negatives and false-positives B. True-positives and false-positives C. True-positives and false-negatives D. True-negatives and false-negatives

A. True-negatives and false-positives

21. Which of the following compounds promote osteoclast formation? A. Bisphosphonate B. 1, 25-dihydroxy Vitamin D3 C. Calcitonin D. Osteoprotegerin {OPG}

B. 1, 25-dihydroxy Vitamin D3

22. Heat inactivation and chemical inhibition are two methods used to measure which of the following analytes? A. Acid phosphatase isoenzymes B. Alkaline phosphatase isoenzymes C. Creatine kinase isoenzymes D. Osteocalcin

B. Alkaline phosphatase isoenzymes

32. Thyroid peroxidase autoantibodies are most sensitive for detecting which thyroid disease or condition listed below? A. Hypothyroidism B. Autoimmune thyroid disease (e.g., Hashimoto's thyroiditis) C. Thyroid adenoma D. Thyroid carcinoma

B. Autoimmune thyroid disease (e.g., Hashimoto's thyroiditis)

23. Measuring RANK and/or RANKL may be useful for assessing which of the following conditions? A. Dwarfism B. Bone fractures C. Bone cancer D. Shin splints

B. Bone fractures

27. Once produced, the thyroid hormones are stored as thyroglobulin in which of the following? A. Epithelial cell wall of the follicle B. Colloid C. Isthmus of the thyroid gland D. Extracellular space of the thyroid gland

B. Colloid

21. Pituitary secretion of ACTH is inhibited by elevated levels of: A. Aldosterone. B. Cortisol. C. Estradiol. D. Progesterone.

B. Cortisol.

18. Which of the following reagents is used in the colorimetric method to determine the concentration of calcium in serum? A. Ehrlich's reagent B. Cresolphthalein complexone C. P-nitrophenylphospate D. Alkaline picrate

B. Cresolphthalein complexone

3. Free ionized calcium normally represents approximately what percentage of the total serum calcium? A. 5% B. 40% C. 50% D. 80%

C. 50%

13. A new tumor marker assay for prostate specific antigen (PSA) is evaluated for sensitivity by testing serum samples from patients who have been diagnosed as having prostate cancer. The following results were obtained: Number of prostate cancer patients who tested positive by the new assay = 42 out 46 Number of patients who did not have cancer and tested negative by the new assay = 31 out of 32 What is the sensitivity of the new assay for PSA? A. 98.0% B. 95.0% C. 91.3% D. 88.5%

C. 91.3%

1. Which hormone is not produced by the placenta? A. Estriol B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) C. Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) D. Progesterone

C. Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH)

34. Human chorionic gonadotropin is a glycoprotein consisting of two subunits that are designated: A. Alpha and gamma. B. Beta and delta. C. Alpha and beta. D. Alpha and delta.

C. Alpha and beta.

4. Which of the following reagents is used to determine the concentration of serum inorganic phosphate? A. Biuret B. Bathophenanthroline C. Ammonium molybdate D. Malachite green

C. Ammonium molybdate

24. Which of the following instruments can measure calcium, magnesium, and phosphorus in blood samples? A. Fluorometer B. Osmometer C. Atomic absorption spectrometer D. Refractometer

C. Atomic absorption spectrometer

20. Pyridinoline, carboxy, amino-terminal cross-linked telopeptide of type I collagen, and tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase are all examples of which of the following? A. Biomarkers of osteoblast conversion to osteroclast B. Biomarkers of formation C. Biomarkers of resorption D. Cancer antigens associated with bone tumors

C. Biomarkers of resorption

3. Which of the following biomarkers is elevated in nonmucinous epithelial ovarian cancer? A. CA 15-3 B. CA 19-9 C. CA 125 D. CEA

C. CA 125

5. Which of the following biomarkers are elevated in advanced stages of breast cancer? A. Total and free PSA B. CEA and alpha-fetoprotein C. CA 15-3 and CA 549 D. DUPAN-2 and Gastrin

C. CA 15-3 and CA 549

7. Which of the following classes of compounds are derived from tyrosine and includes epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine? A. Steroids B. Androgens C. Catecholamines D. Estrogens

C. Catecholamines

4. Cushing's syndrome is characterized by which of the following? A. Excess secretion of pituitary ACTH B. Adrenal insufficiency C. Corticosteroid excess (in blood) D. Low plasma levels of cortisol.

C. Corticosteroid excess (in blood)

14. Which statement below best describes the molecular difference between free PSA (fPSA) and complex PSA (cPSA)? A. Free PSA is bound by compounds such as ACT, PCI, API, or AMG B. Free PSA is an active form that can complex with protease inhibitors C. Free PSA is not bound by compounds such as ACT, PCI, API, or AMG D. Free PSA cannot be detected in serum, whereas complex PSA can

C. Free PSA is not bound by compounds such as ACT, PCI, API, or AMG

10. A markedly elevated serum AFP is associated with which of the following? A. Ovarian cancer B. Lung cancer C. Hepatoma D. Breast cancer

C. Hepatoma

28. In a patient with suspected primary hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease), one would expect the following laboratory serum results: total T4 ____FT4____, and TSH_____. A. Increased, decreased, increased B. Increased, decreased, decreased C. Increased, increased, decreased D. Decreased, decreased, increased

C. Increased, increased, decreased

2. Which of the following is FALSE about PSA? A. It is a single-chain glycoprotein B. It is used as a tumor marker C. It is not elevated in benign prostatic hyperplasia D. It is quantified in serum by immunoassays

C. It is not elevated in benign prostatic hyperplasia.

1. Which of the following electrolyte measurements would be of clinical usefulness to the clinician who is treating patients for pregnancy-induced hypertension? A. Ionized calcium B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Phosphorus

C. Magnesium

8. Pheochromocytoma is a benign or malignant tumor arising from which of the following? A. Bile caniculi B. Trophoblastic cells C. Neurochromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla D. Follicular cells of the thyroid

C. Neurochromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla

29. Free thyroxine assays measure which of the following? A. Total thyroxine levels B. Only the bound thyroxine level C. Only the unbound thyroxine level D. The sum of the bound and unbound thyroxine

C. Only the unbound thyroxine level

19. Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) are hormones that are released by the: A. Hypothalamus. B. Anterior pituitary. C. Posterior pituitary. D. Left cardiac ventricle.

C. Posterior pituitary.

25. Which of the following is described as a smooth muscle stimulant and vasoconstrictor? A. Aldosterone B. Cortisol C. Serotonin D. Deoxycorticosterone

C. Serotonin

13. A blood specimen is received in the laboratory from a maternity patient in the obstetric unit with blood magnesium ordered by the attending physician. The serum magnesium levels is 5.90 mmol/L (RI = 3.0 - 5.0 mmol/L).). Which of the following explains the elevated serum magnesium? A. The patient has primary hyperparathyroidism B. The patient has had a massive heart attack C. The patient is on magnesium sulphate intravenous infusion because she is experiencing pre eclampsia D. The patient has Paget's disease

C. The patient is on magnesium sulphate intravenous infusion because she is experiencing pre eclampsia

16. Which of the following describes the hypothalamic hormones? A. They act as inhibitor of selected enzyme reactions B. They act indirectly on endocrine glands C. They act as releasing hormones on the pituitary D. They are all glycoproteins

C. They act as releasing hormones on the pituitary

11. Thyroid hormones are derived from which of the following amino acids? A. Phenylalanine B. Methionine C. Tyrosine D. Histidine

C. Tyrosine

17. A new test for breast cancer is found to have a sensitivity of 85.0% and a specificity of 90.0%. If the prevalence of breast cancer is 3.5% in women over 45 years old, what is the predictive value of a positive test result (PV+) in this group? A. 60.0 B. 50.5 C. 30.0 D. 23.6

D. 23.6

15. Which of the following is an anterior pituitary hormone? A. Thyrocalcitonin B. Serotonin C. Glucagon D. ACTH

D. ACTH

2. Ionized or free calcium is clinically useful for which of the following reasons? A. It is the best indication of phosphate status because it is biologically active and tightly regulated by PTH and Vitamin D. B. It is the best indication of calcium status because it is biologically active and tightly regulated by thyroid hormones. C. It is the best indication of calcium status because it is biologically inactive and tightly regulated by PTH and Vitamin D. D. It is the best indication of calcium status because it is biologically active and tightly regulated by PTH and Vitamin D.

D. It is the best indication of calcium status because it is biologically active and tightly regulated by PTH and Vitamin D.

7. What is the primary clinical usefulness of measuring carcinoembryonic antigen? A. Diagnosis of lung cancer B. Diagnosis of colorectal cancer C. Screening for breast cancer D. Monitoring for recurrence of colon cancer

D. Monitoring for recurrence of colon cancer

10. Which of the following is NOT a metabolite of catecholamines? A. Methoxyhydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG) B. Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) C. Homovanillic acid (HMA) D. Monoiodothyronine

D. Monoiodothyronine

6. Which tumor marker is associated with cancer of the urinary bladder? A. CA 125 B. CA19-9 C. CA 50 D. Nuclear matrix protein

D. Nuclear matrix protein

11. Which of the following assays is recommended as a screening test for colorectal cancer in persons over 50 years of age? A. Fecal typsin B. AFP C. BTA D. Occult blood t test

D. Occult blood test

25. Biomarkers of bone formation include which of the following? A. Hydroxproline B. Carboxyl-terminal cross-linked telopeptide of type I collagen C. Bone sialoprotein D. Osteocalcin

D. Osteocalcin

7. If the pH of a sample decreases, what is the predicable response to the serum magnesium concentration? A. The concentration will increase 1 mmol/L for each whole unit of pH change B. The concentration will not be altered C. The concentration will decrease D. The concentration will increase

D. The concentration will increase

14. Which of the following is considered a significant problem with using biomarkers of bone turnover in the management of patients with osteoporosis in a clinical setting? A. They can be repeated over short time intervals thus providing quick results. B. They are noninvasive. C. They require no special patient preparation. D. The measurements are affected by several preanalytical variables both controllable and uncontrollable

D. The measurements are affected by several preanalytical variables both controllable and uncontrollable

15. The production of alpha fetal protein (AFP) in a healthy individual is best reflected by which of the following statements? A. The production of AFP remains the same through life B. The production of AFP declines rapidly at birth and healthy adults and children have negligible or undetectable levels in serum C. The production of AFP declines rapidly at birth and healthy adults and children have higher than normal levels in serum D. The production of AFP declines rapidly at birth and healthy adults and children have negligible or undetectable levels in serum

D. The production of AFP declines rapidly at birth and healthy adults and children have negligible or undetectable levels in serum