CMA -practice
What are normal hematocrit values for an adult patient? 36-55 percent 26-65 percent 15-25 percent 40-50 percent
36-55 percent Explanation: Hematocrit is measured after centrifuging a specimen and is expressed as a percentage of red blood cells in a specimen; normal adult hematocrit values are 36-55 percent.
When are the results read after testing a patient for tuberculosis using the purified protein derivate (PPD)? 24-48 hours 36-48 hours 12-24 hours 48-72 hours
48-72 hours Explanation: Purified protein derivative (PPD) is a type of intradermal skin test to detect tuberculosis. A small extract from the tubercle bacillus is injected into the skin, and results are read in 48-72 hours.
On a patient's ECG, you recognize the P waves are unidentifiable or perhaps hidden in a previous T wave. What is likely the cause? atrial tachycardia ventricular tachycardia premature atrial contraction premature ventricular contraction
Atrial tachycardia is defined as an atrial rate of 150-250 beats per minute.
What is the best definition of asystole? normal cardiac activity fast cardiac activity no cardiac activity slow cardiac activity
Explanation: Asystole is represented by a flat line on an ECG, indicating there is no cardiac activity. If asystole is prolonged, it leads to death.
Which of these lab results would need to be reported to a physician? HGB 4.4 Chloride 95 K 4.4 WBC 12
HGB 4.4 Explanation: Normal HGB is 13-17. While the other results may be abnormal, the hemoglobin is critical.
Which of these lab results are abnormal? WBC 7.4 HGB 8.2 K 4.0 Na 136
HGB 8.2 Explanation: HGB stands for hemoglobin and the normal range for it is approximately 12 to 17 g/dL.
Which of the limb electrodes is considered the ground? LA- left arm RA- right arm LL- left leg RL- right leg
RL- right leg Explanation: The right leg (RL) electrode is used for grounding purposes only. It is not used as part of any lead.
What happens during ventricle systole? The ventricles contract and blood is forced into the aorta and pulmonary artery. The ventricles relax, forcing blood through the tricuspid and mitral valves. The ventricles contract and blood is forced into the vena cava. The ventricles relax and fill with blood from the atria.
The ventricles contract and blood is forced into the aorta and pulmonary artery. Explanation: During ventricular systole (contraction), blood is pumped from the ventricles, passes through the aortic valve (on the left side) and pulmonary valve (on the right side), and is subsequently forced into the aorta and pulmonary artery. The heart and lung vasculature is very easy to get confused. When deoxygenated blood is pumped through the heart it is brought to the right atrium, pumped to the right ventricle, then directed to the lungs via the pulmonary arteries. The lungs then oxygenate the blood and return it to the left atrium of the heart via the pulmonary veins. The blood is moved through the left atrium to the left ventricle and then through the aorta to oxygenate the rest of the body. Most people assume all arteries carry oxygenated blood to the body, but an artery is just a vessel that carries blood away from the heart. Veins return blood to the heart. Because the heart processes blood that has been returned deoxygenated from the body and processes it through the lungs and then through the body there is some "backward" terminology that confuses many students.
In many cases of liver inflammation, roughly what ratio are the ALS and AST activities elevated? a 1:2 ratio a 3:2 ratio a 1:1 ratio a 2:1 ratio
a 1:1 ratio Explanation: In many cases of liver inflammation, the ALT and AST activities are elevated roughly in a 1:1 ratio.
You would use a culture and sensitivity test (C&S) on patients suspected of having what underlying problem? a parasite a viral infection a bacterial infection a protozoal infection
a bacterial infection Culture and sensitivity (C&S) testing is performed on a patient suspected of having a bacterial infection. Other tests are used to determine if a patient has a viral infection, a parasite, or a protozoal infection.
Which of these would cause artifact on an ECG monitor? talking too loudly breathing deeply a seizure heart palpitations
a seizure Explanation: Artifact on an ECG is not "heart made"- that is, it originates from somewhere other than the heart. Any movement can cause a false reading, or artifact, on an ECG. Seizures can cause convulsions, which would cause an inaccurate result.
What is used to perform a pulmonary function test (PFT)? a thermometer a spirometer a colorimeter a glucometer
a spirometer Explanation: Pulmonary function tests (PFT) measure the volume and flow of air by utilizing a spirometer and compares against normal values. Blood glucose is checked using a glucometer, and temperature is measured using a thermometer. A colorimeter detects the amount of light that can pass through a solution.
How would you position a patient for an oblique x-ray view? in a prone position in a supine position in a lateral position at an angle or in a semi-lateral position
at an angle or in a semi-lateral position Explanation: For an oblique x-ray view, the body is positioned at an angle or in a semi-lateral position.
Certain medications cannot be taken three days before a fasting blood sugar (FBS) test. Which medications do not interfere with an FBS? aspirin beta-blockers diuretics steroids
beta-blockers Explanation: Certain medications interfere with FBS and should not be taken for the three days leading up to the collection of the FBS sample. These medications include salicylates (aspirin), diuretics, and steroids. Certain beta-blockers do not affect the FBS.
What is needed from a patient to perform a test for iron-deficiency anemia? blood collected from a blood draw a urine sample blood collected using the finger-stick method a stool sample
blood collected using the finger-stick method Explanation: The hemoglobin and hematocrit tests are used to detect iron-deficiency anemia and are often conducted in an office setting. They can be obtained simply and rapidly using the finger-stick method of blood collection.
You have just collected a urine sample from your patient and notice a fruity smell. What disease or illness would cause a fruity smell to the urine? diabetes insipidus a urinary tract infection liver failure diabetes mellitus
diabetes mellitus Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus will result in a fruity smell of urine, where diabetes insipidus does not cause any change to body or urine odor. A urinary tract infection can cause the urine to have a foul but not fruity-smelling odor. Liver failure can produce a musty-smelling urine sample.
After collecting a blood sample to perform an ESR test, how long after placing the tube in a sedimentation rack do you wait to examine it? exactly one hour exactly 15 minutes exactly two hours exactly 30 minutes
exactly one hour Explanation: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures the rate (time) it takes red blood cells to settle to the bottom of a blood sample. A freshly collected sample of anticoagulated blood is transferred to a calibrated tube and placed in a sedimentation rack on a counter free of vibrations and away from sunlight. The tube is examined exactly one hour later to determine the distance the red blood cells have fallen.
Which enzyme might be elevated in the serum of patients with bile duct diseases? alanine aminotransferase (ALT) gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) albumin aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) Explanation: Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) is an enzyme produced in the bile ducts that may be elevated in the serum of patients with bile duct diseases. AST is an enzyme found in muscle, and albumin is synthesized by the liver and secreted into the blood. ALT is an enzyme produced in hepatocytes, the major cell type in the liver.
Which of the following is not included in a lipid profile? high-density lipoprotein (HDL) glucose tolerance triglycerides cholesterol
glucose tolerance Explanation: The lipid profile includes total cholesterol, triglycerides, high-density lipoprotein (HDL), and low-density lipoprotein (LDL). The glucose tolerance test (GTT) provides more detailed information about the body's ability to metabolize glucose by assessing the insulin response to a glucose load.
Which hormone do pregnancy tests detect the presence of in the urine? estrogen progesterone human chorionic gonadotropin luteinizing hormone
human chorionic gonadotropin Explanation: Pregnancy tests detect the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). This hormone is released by the placenta and will be present in the urine during pregnancy. The other hormones are involved in the menstrual cycle and are not detected in a pregnancy test.
You have a patient whose lab results show an elevated ESR. What are elevated ESR times associated with? inflammation vision issues cholesterol cardiac abnormalities
inflammation Explanation: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate, or ESR, measures the time it takes for red blood cells to settle in a specimen and is expressed in millimeters per hour (mm/hr); elevated times are associated with inflammatory processes.
What is an example of a pneumotrophic virus? chicken pox influenza HIV polio
influenza Explanation: Pneumo- refers to the lungs/pulmonary system. Influenza is a virus that attacks the pulmonary system.
A physician orders a lipid profile for your patient, who asks what LDL stands for. What does LDL mean in medical terms? low-density lipoprotein low-diversity lipoprotein long-density lipoproteins low-density liposuction
low-density lipoprotein Explanation: The medical term for LDL is low-density lipoprotein.
An MRI examines internal structures and soft tissues of the body. What are the two components of an MRI that allow the examination? non-ionizing radiation and a strong magnetic field ionizing radiation and chemotherapy non-ionizing radiation and chemotherapy ultraviolet rays and a strong magnetic field
non-ionizing radiation and a strong magnetic field Explanation: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI): a combination of non-ionizing radiation and a strong magnetic field allows for examination of internal structures and soft tissues of the body based on the water content of the tissue.
What are guaiac reagent strips used to detect the presence of? blood in emesis occult blood in the stool blood in the urine a urinary tract infection
occult blood in the stool Guaiac reagent strips are used to detect the presence of occult blood in the stool. The test may detect bleeding in the GI tract that is undetectable with a visual inspection.
If streptococcus A is left untreated, a patient can develop ____ with associated heart and kidney complications, among other health issues. rheumatic fever rubella yellow fever typhoid fever
rheumatic fever Explanation: Beta-hemolytic streptococcus group A is a major cause of serious bacterial throat infections. Left untreated, streptococcus can lead to rheumatic fever with associated heart and kidney complications, among other health problems.
Na is the symbol for ____. potassium nitrogen iron sodium
sodium Explanation: Na is used as a symbol for the word sodium.
When performing a 12-lead EKG on a patient, the patient should be placed in which position? supine standing high-Fowler's position prone
supine Explanation: The best patient position to obtain an accurate EKG is supine. This position allows the most correct placement of EKG leads.
Mononucleosis, also called the "kissing disease", is caused by which virus? the Epstein-Barr virus the human papillomavirus the human immunodeficiency virus the hepatitis virus
the Epstein-Barr virus Explanation: Mononucleosis, also known as the "kissing disease" since it is transmitted through saliva, is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The human immunodeficiency virus causes AIDS, while the human papillomavirus causes genital warts. The hepatitis virus causes different types of hepatitis.
What are the two most common tests for kidney function? the blood urine nitrogen test (BUN) and the creatine test the blood urinary nitrogen test (BUN) and the creatinine test the blood urea nitrogen test (BUN) and the creatinine test the blood urinary nitrogen test (BUN) and the creatinine test
the blood urea nitrogen test (BUN) and the creatinine test Explanation: The two most common blood tests for kidney function are the blood urea nitrogen test (BUN) and the creatinine test. These two substances are produced by cellular metabolism, and the kidney should clear them out of the blood via urine. High levels of these substances in the blood suggest kidney dysfunction.
You were asked by the doctor to collect a swab specimen from a patient's wound. What is the best collection site? the center surface portion of the wound the center of the wound depths any of these sites are appropriate the side of the wound
the center of the wound depths Explanation: Obtaining a specimen from the center depths of the wound will yield the most true representative sample. A sample collected from the wound edge or surface may introduce contamination from outside skin flora. With any specimen collection, be careful not to injure the patient as you obtain your sample.
What causes a fruity smell to urine? the excretion of ascorbic acid from the liver the excretion of carbon dioxide from the lungs the excretion of ketones from the pancreas the excretion of acetone from the lungs
the excretion of acetone from the lungs Explanation: A fruity smell to urine is caused by the excretion of acetone (a type of ketone) from the lungs.
Where should the V1 electrode be placed for an ECG (electrocardiogram)? the fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum the fifth intercostal space at the right mid-clavicular line the fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum the fifth intercostal space at the left mid-clavicular line
the fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum Explanation: The V1 lead should be placed at the 4th intercostal space to the right of the sternum. The V1 lead helps to monitor the activity of the right ventricle.
When a patient is diagnosed with mononucleosis, which antibody is produced between the sixth and 10th day of illness? the Rh antibody the antinucleotide antibody the anti-A antibody the heterophile antibody
the heterophile antibody Explanation: Individuals with mononucleosis produce an antibody called the heterophile antibody, usually by the sixth to 10th day of the illness. The Rh antibody detects the amount of circulating Rh antibodies against red blood cells. The antinucleotide antibody is required to diagnose systemic lupus, and the anti-A antibody helps determine a person's blood type.
What body part is functioning poorly when a patient has low serum albumin concentrations? the liver the gallbladder the lungs the pancreas
the liver Explanation: Albumin is synthesized by the liver and secreted into the blood. Low serum albumin concentrations indicate poor liver function.
There are three main components of a microscope. Which of the following is not one of the components? the microscope slide the framework the magnification system the illumination system
the microscope slide Explanation: Microscopes permit visualization of structures that cannot be seen with the unaided eye. Microscopes consist of three main components: the magnification system, the illumination system, and the framework. The microscope slide is used to hold objects for examination under the microscope.
What does hemoglobin (Hgb or Hb) measure? the plasma-carrying capacity of the blood the carbon monoxide-carrying capacity of the blood the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood the carbon dioxide-carrying capacity of the blood
the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood Explanation: Hemoglobin (Hgb or Hb) measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
In an ECG, what does the PR interval represent? the contraction period of the ventricles the resting period of the ventricles the time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the SA node to the AV node atrial contraction and rate
the time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the SA node to the AV node Explanation: The PR interval represents the time it takes an electrical impulse to travel from the SA node to the AV node. That time is typically between 0.12 seconds and 0.20 seconds (between 120 milliseconds and 200 milliseconds).
Your physician orders a lower barium enema to evaluate and diagnose an obstruction. How is barium sulfate administered for an enema? through the anus into the rectum and the gallbladder by mouth (orally) through the anus into the rectum and the stomach through the anus into the rectum and the colon
through the anus into the rectum and the colon Explanation: A lower GI series or barium enema requires barium sulfate to be instilled through the anus into the rectum and the colon to help diagnose and evaluate the obstruction. Barium sulfate can be given orally, but not when an enema is ordered.
