CMCA COMPILED QUIZ

he nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to a woman in her second trimester regarding signs/symptoms that she might experience in the coming weeks. Which of the following comments by the client indicates that further teaching is needed? A. "During the third trimester I may experience frequent urination." B. "During the third trimester I may experience heartburn." C. "During the third trimester I may experience back pain." D. "During the third trimester I may experience persistent headache."

"During the third trimester I may experience persistent headache."

A client asks the nurse what was meant when the physician told her she had a positive Chadwick's sign. Which of the following information about the finding would be appropriate for the nurse to convey at this time? A. "It is a purplish stretch mark on your abdomen." B. "It means that you are having heart palpitations." C. "It is a bluish coloration of your cervix and vagina." D. "It means the doctor heard abnormal sounds when you breathed in."

"It is a bluish coloration of your cervix and vagina."

A client enters the prenatal clinic. She states that she missed her period yesterday and used a home pregnancy test this morning. She states that the results were negative, but "I still think I am pregnant." Which of the following statements would be appropriate for the nurse to make at this time? A. "Your period is probably just irregular." B. "We could do a blood test to check." C. "Home pregnancy test results are very accurate." D. "My recommendation would be to repeat the test in one week

"We could do a blood test to check."

The pregnant client at 6 weeks' gestation asks the nurse if an ultrasound will reveal the sex of the fetus yet. What is the best response by the nurse? A. "We will be able to determine the sex of the baby today with transvaginal ultrasound." B. "We will have to wait until the baby is 8 weeks' gestation to be able to determine what the sex is." C. "We will have to wait until the baby is 16 weeks' gestation to determine what the sex is." D. "We will have to wait until the baby is 20 weeks' gestation to determine the sex of the baby." E. How does fetal circulation differ from circulation after birth?

"We will have to wait until the baby is 16 weeks' gestation to determine what the sex is."

A woman whose prenatal weight was 105 lb weighs 109 lb at her 12-week visit. Which of the following comments by the nurse is appropriate at this time? A. "We expect you to gain 1 lb per week, so your weight is a little low at this time." B. "Most women gain no weight during the first trimester, so I would suggest you eat fewer desserts for the next few weeks." C. "You entered the pregnancy well underweight, so we should check your diet to make sure you are getting the nutrients you need." D. "Your weight gain is exactly what we would expect it to be at this time."

"Your weight gain is exactly what we would expect it to be at this time."

When is the earliest that chorionic villus sampling can be performed during pregnancy? a. 4 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 10 weeks d. 12 weeks

10 weeks

The midwife has just palpated the fundal height at the location noted on the picture below. It is likely that the client is how many weeks pregnant? (nasa taas ng symphysis)

12

The nurse is conducting a prenatal class for a group of first-time parents in the first trimester. The nurse should point out that the mother should feel the baby move by the end of which week of gestation? A. 16 weeks B. 18 weeks C. 20 weeks D. 22 weeks

20 weeks

The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in maternal serum is to determine whether the fetus has which? a. Hemophilia b. Sickle cell anemia c. A neural tube defect d. A normal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio

A neural tube defect

Which statement by the client indicates that she understands the teaching provided about the intrauterine device (IUD)? A) "The IUD can remain in place for a year or more." B) "I will not menstruate while the IUD is in." C) "Pain during intercourse is a common side effect." D) "The device will reduce my chances of getting infected."

A) "The IUD can remain in place for a year or more."

A client has just had an amniocentesis to determine whether or not her baby has an inheritable genetic disease. Which of the following interventions is highest priority at this time? A) Assess the fetal heart rate. B) Check the client's temperature. C) Acknowledge the client's anxiety about the possible findings. D) Answer questions regarding the genetic abnormality.

A) Assess the fetal heart rate.

A woman, who wishes to use the calendar method for contraception, reports that her last 6 menstrual cycles were 28, 32, 29, 36, 30, and 27 days long, respectively. In the future, if used correctly, she should abstain from intercourse on which of the following days of her cycle? A) Days 9 to 25. B) Days 10 to 15. C) Days 11 to 20. D) Days 12 to 17

A) Days 9 to 25.

When preparing a woman who is 2 days postpartum for discharge, recommendations for which of the following contraceptive methods would be avoided? A) Diaphragm B) Female condom C) Oral contraceptives D) Rhythm method

A) Diaphragm

During a counseling session on natural family planning techniques, how should the nurse explain the consistency of cervical mucus at the time of ovulation? A) It becomes thin and elastic. B) It becomes opaque and acidic. C) It contains numerous leukocytes to prevent vaginal infections. D) It decreases in quantity in response to body temperature changes.

A) It becomes thin and elastic.

A genetic counselor's report states, "The genetic nomenclature for this fetus is 46, XX." How should the nurse who reads this report interpret the cytogenetic results? A) The baby is female with a normal number of chromosomes. B) The baby is hermaphroditic male with female chromosomes. C) The baby is male with an undisclosed genetic anomaly. D) There is insufficient information to answer this question

A) The baby is female with a normal number of chromosomes.

During a genetic evaluation, it is discovered that the woman is carrying one autosomal dominant gene for a serious late adult-onset disease while her partner's history is unremarkable. Based on this information, which of the following family members should be considered high risk and in need of genetic counseling? Select all that apply. A) The woman's fetus. B) The woman's sisters. C) The woman's brothers. D) The woman's parents. E) The woman's partner

A) The woman's fetus. B) The woman's sisters. C) The woman's brothers. D) The woman's parents.

An antenatal client is informing the nurse of her prenatal signs and symptoms. Which of the following findings would the nurse determine are presumptive signs of pregnancy? Select all that apply. A. Amenorrhea. B. Breast tenderness. C. Quickening. D. Frequent urination. E. Uterine growth.

A. Amenorrhea. B. Breast tenderness. C. Quickening. D. Frequent urination.

Because nausea and vomiting are such common complaints of pregnant women, the nurse provides anticipatory guidance to a 6-week gestation client by telling her to do which of the following? A. Avoid eating greasy foods. B. Drink orange juice before rising. C. Drink 2 glasses of water with each meal. D. Eat 3 large meals plus a bedtime snack.

A. Avoid eating greasy foods.

A pregnant client is diagnosed with hydramnios. The nurse explains that further testing will be done to determine if which conditions are present? Select all that apply. A. Esophageal atresia B. Anencephaly C. Renal atresia D. Anuria E. Fetal hypoxia

A. Esophageal atresia B. Anencephaly

A nurse is working in the prenatal clinic. Which of the following findings seen in third-trimester pregnant women would the nurse consider to be within normal limits? Select all that apply. A. Leg cramps. B. Varicose veins. C. Hemorrhoids. D. Fainting spells. E. Lordosis.

A. Leg cramps. B. Varicose veins. C. Hemorrhoids. E. Lordosis.

A nurse is conducting a prenatal class for expectant mothers and one of them asks how the placenta works. The nurse would explain that the placenta serves which purposes? Select all that apply. A. The placenta provides nourishment for the fetus. B. It serves as an exchange site for oxygen and carbon dioxide. C. The placenta helps physically protect the fetus by surrounding the fetus with fluids. D. It serves as a barrier to some medications and hormones in the maternal blood supply. E. It releases insulin into the amniotic fluid for fetal usage

A. The placenta provides nourishment for the fetus. B. It serves as an exchange site for oxygen and carbon dioxide. D. It serves as a barrier to some medications and hormones in the maternal blood supply.

Which hormone(s) is secreted by the placenta during the pregnancy? Select all that apply. A. progesterone B. testosterone C. estrogen D. human chorionic gonadotropin E. prolactin

A. progesterone C. estrogen D. human chorionic

A patient whose cervix is dilated to 5 cm is considered to be in which phase of labor? a. Latent phase b. Active phase c. Second stage d. Third stage

Active phase

A pregnant client is undergoing a fetal biophysical profile. Which parameter of the profile helps measure long-term adequacy of the placental function? A. Amniotic fluid volume B. Fetal heart rate C. Fetal breathing record D. Fetal reactivity

Amniotic fluid volume

Concerning the third stage of labor, nurses should be aware that: a. The placenta eventually detaches itself from a flaccid uterus. b. An expectant or active approach to managing this stage of labor reduces the risk of complications. c. It is important that the dark, roughened maternal surface of the placenta appear before the shiny fetal surface. d. The major risk for women during the third stage is a rapid heart rate.

An expectant or active approach to managing this stage of labor reduces the risk of complications.

In documenting labor experiences, nurses should know that a uterine contraction is described according to all these characteristics except: a. Frequency (how often contractions occur). b. Intensity (the strength of the contraction at its peak). c. Resting tone (the tension in the uterine muscle). d. Appearance (shape and height).

Appearance (shape and height).

A laboring woman is lying in the supine position. The most appropriate nursing action at this time is to: a. Ask her to turn to one side. b. Elevate her feet and legs. c. Take her blood pressure. d. Determine whether fetal tachycardia is present

Ask her to turn to one side.

A multiparous woman has been in labor for 8 hours. Her membranes have just ruptured. The nurse's initial response would be to: a. Prepare the woman for imminent birth. b. Notify the woman's primary health care provider. c. Document the characteristics of the fluid. d. Assess the fetal heart rate and pattern.

Assess the fetal heart rate and pattern.

The nurse completes an assessment of an adolescent patient's menstrual pattern. Which finding should the nurse identify as being within normal limits? A) The usual cycle is 19 days. B) Flow usually lasts 4 to 6 days. C) Menstruation started at age 10 years. D) The average amount of flow is 500 ml.

B) Flow usually lasts 4 to 6 days.

For the client who is using oral contraceptives, the nurse informs the client about the need to take the pill at the same time each day to accomplish which of the following? A) Decrease the incidence of nausea B) Maintain hormonal levels C) Reduce side effects D) Prevent drug interactions

B) Maintain hormonal levels

After an examination, a pregnant patient is diagnosed with a cystocele. How should the nurse explain this finding to the patient? A) A fold of peritoneum behind the uterus B) Pouching of the bladder into the vaginal wall C) A part of the rectum is pushing into the vaginal wall. D) Folds of peritoneum that cover the uterus front and back

B) Pouching of the bladder into the vaginal wall

When teaching a group of adolescents about variations in the length of the menstrual cycle, the nurse understands that the underlying mechanism is due to variations in which of the following phases? A) Menstrual phase B) Proliferative phase C) Secretory phase D) Ischemic phas

B) Proliferative phase

The nurse is teaching an uncircumcised male to use a condom. Which of the following items should be included in the teaching plan? A) Apply mineral oil to the shaft of the penis after applying the condom. B) Pull back the foreskin before applying the condom. C) Create a reservoir at the tip of the condom after putting it on. D) Wait five minutes after ejaculating before removing the condom.

B) Pull back the foreskin before applying the condom.

Based on the karyotype shown below, which of the following conclusions can the nurse make about the female baby? A) She has a genetically normal karyotype. B) She has trisomy 21. C) She has fragile X syndrome. D) She has an autosomal monosomy

B) She has trisomy 21.

A woman tells the nurse she has difficulty achieving orgasm. Orgasm in females results mainly from which stimulus? A) penile penetration B) clitoral stimulation C) uterine stimulation D) sensory arousal

B) clitoral stimulation

A 36-week gestation gravid lies flat on her back. Which of the following maternal signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to observe? A. Hypertension. B. Dizziness. C. Rales. D. Chloasma

B. Dizziness.

Which information provided by a client would be considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy? A. Reports of increased hunger B. Weight gain C. Breast tenderness D. Ballottement

Breast tenderness

A woman at 15 weeks' gestation who works at a daycare center thinks she may have just been exposed to rubella at work. The client asks how this may affect her fetus. What is the best response the nurse can give? A. "By the end of the eighth week all of the organ systems and major structures are present, so exposure to any teratogen can lead to birth defects. More assessments are needed." B. "Your health care provider will let you know if there are any problems with your baby." C. "We will have to see what gestational age your baby was at exposure." D. "We will need to perform some additional tests."

By the end of the eighth week all of the organ systems and major structures are present, so exposure to any teratogen can lead to birth defects. More assessments are needed."

When teaching a client about contraception. Which of the following would the nurse include as the most effective method for preventing sexually transmitted infections? A) Spermicides B) Diaphragm C) Condoms D) Vasectomy

C) Condoms

After an assessment, a pregnant patient asks the nurse questions about her changing uterus and body. Which nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for the patient at this time? A) Anxiety related to being pregnant B) Ineffective coping related to being pregnant C) Health-seeking behaviors related to reproductive functioning D) Disturbance in body image related to body changes with pregnancy

C) Health-seeking behaviors related to reproductive functioning

Which of the following client responses indicates that the nurse's teaching about care following chorionic villus sampling has been successful? A) If the baby stops moving, the woman should immediately go to the hospital. B) The woman should take oral terbutaline every 2 hours for the next day. C) If the woman starts to bleed or to contract, she should call her physician. D) The woman should stay on complete bed rest for the next 48 hours.

C) If the woman starts to bleed or to contract, she should call her physician.

The nurse is preparing an educational session about menstruation for a group of adolescents. Which hormone should the nurse instruct as initiating ovulation? A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Luteinizing hormone D) Follicle-stimulating hormone

C) Luteinizing hormone

For which of the following clients would the nurse expect that an intrauterine device would not be recommended? A) Woman over age 35 B) Nulliparous woman C) Promiscuous young adult D) Postpartum client

C) Promiscuous young adult

You care for a patient who has a retroverted uterus. You would explain that this means her: A) uterus is bent sharply backward at the cervix. B) cervix is located behind the Douglas cul-de-sac. C) entire uterus is tipped backward. D) uterus is anterior to the bladder.

C) entire uterus is tipped backward.

A pregnant woman informs the nurse that her last normal menstrual period was on September 20, 2022. Using Naegele's rule, the nurse calculates the client's estimated date of delivery as: A. May 30, 2023. B. June 20, 2023. C. June 27, 2023. D. July 3, 2023

C. June 27, 2023.

A client enters the prenatal clinic. She states that she believes she is pregnant. Which of the following hormone elevations will indicate a high probability that the client is pregnant? A. Chorionic gonadotropin. B. Oxytocin. C. Prolactin. D. Luteinizing hormone

Chorionic gonadotropin.

The nurse caring for the postpartum woman understands that breast engorgement is caused by: A. Overproduction of colostrum. B. Accumulation of milk in the lactiferous ducts and glands. C. Hyperplasia of mammary tissue. D. Congestion of veins and lymphatics.

Congestion of veins and lymphatics.

The nurse is caring for a young couple who are expecting their first baby. They are experiencing the phenomenon known as couvade syndrome. What can the nurse explain to this family to help them understand this syndrome? A. Couvade syndrome is when the pregnant woman becomes self-centered and changes her behavior based on the event taking place inside of her. B. Couvade syndrome is when the partner begins to experience the same physical symptoms as the pregnant woman experiences. C. Couvade syndrome is a reflection of an unhealthy relationship between the partner and the pregnancy. D. The more in tune the partner is with the pregnancy, the less likely this syndrome will take place.

Couvade syndrome is when the pregnant woman becomes self-centered and changes her behavior based on the event taking place inside of her.

The nurse is determining a patient's gender role. What is the nurse doing to make this determination? A) Assessing the patient's sexual preferences B) Asking what gender the patient identifies with C) Analyzing the patient's chromosomal inheritance D) Analyzing the patient's demonstrated sexual behaviors

D) Analyzing the patient's demonstrated sexual behaviors

The nurse is teaching a young woman how to use the female condom. Which of the following should be included in the teaching plan? A) Reuse female condoms no more than five times. B) Refrain from using lubricant because the condom may slip out of the vagina. C) Wear both female and male condoms together to maximize effectiveness. D) Remove the condom by twisting the outer ring and pulling gently.

D) Remove the condom by twisting the outer ring and pulling gently.

When reviewing normal menstruation with an early adolescent, the nurse would teach that during the second half of a typical menstrual cycle, the endometrium of the uterus becomes: A) thin and transparent because of progesterone stimulation. B) twisted and ragged because of follicle-stimulating hormone. C) thick and purple-hued because of estrogen stimulation. D) corkscrew-like because of progesterone stimulation

D) corkscrew-like because of progesterone stimulation

A client who was seen in the prenatal clinic at 20 weeks' gestation weighed 128 lb at that time. Approximately how many pounds would the nurse expect the client to weigh at her next visit at 24 weeks' gestation? A. 129 lb. B. 130 lb. C. 131 lb. D. 132 lb

D. 132 lb

Liz Calhorn, 18 years of age, asks how much longer her nurse practitioner will refer to the baby inside her as an embryo. To ensure team members use terms consistently,the nurse would want them to know the conceptus is classified as an embryo at whattime? A) At the time of fertilization B) When the placenta forms C) From implantation until 20 weeks D) From implantation until 5 to 8 weeks

D. from implantation until 5-8weeks

The nurse is assessing a pregnant client at her 20-week visit. Which breast assessment should the nurse anticipate documenting? A. Slack, soft breast tissue B. Deeply fissured nipples C. Enlarged lymph nodes D. Darkened breast areolae

Darkened breast areolae

What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a client hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension? a. Determine if a metabolic disorder is genetic. b. Identify the sex of the fetus. c. Identify abnormal fetal cells. d. Determine fetal lung maturity

Determine fetal lung maturity

A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The fetal heart rate has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. The nurse should expect the woman to be: a. Admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth. b. Admitted for extended observation. c. Discharged home with a sedative. d. Discharged home to await the onset of true labor

Discharged home to await the onset of true labor

The nurse is conducting an obstetrics assessment on a client at 20 weeks' gestation who is questioning the nurse about the development of the fetus. Which new occurring developments can the nurse point out to this client? A. Eyelids are open. B. Lungs are fully shaped. C. Eyebrows and scalp hair are present. D. A developed startle reflex is evident.

Eyebrows and scalp hair are present.

Excessive blood loss after childbirth can have several causes; the most common is: A. Vaginal or vulvar hematomas. B. Unrepaired lacerations of the vagina or cervix. C. Failure of the uterine muscle to contract firmly. D. Retained placental fragments

Failure of the uterine muscle to contract firmly.

The nurse notes each of the following findings in a 12-week gestation client. Which of the findings would enable the nurse to tell the client that she is positively pregnant? A. Fetal heart rate via Doppler. B. Positive pregnancy test. C. Positive Chadwick's sign. D. Montgomery gland enlargements

Fetal heart rate via Doppler.

A woman who is gravida 3 para 2 enters the intrapartum unit. The most important nursing assessments are: a. Contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history. b. Fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the woman's nearness to birth. c. Identification of ruptured membranes, the woman's gravida and para, and her support person. d. Last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires.

Fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the woman's nearness to birth.

Through vaginal examination the nurse determines that a woman is 4 cm dilated, and the external fetal monitor shows uterine contractions every 3.5 to 4 minutes. The nurse would report this as: a. First stage, latent phase. b. First stage, active phase. c. First stage, transition phase. d. Second stage, latent phase

First stage, active phase.

For the labor nurse, care of the expectant mother begins with any or all of these situations, with the exception of: a. The onset of progressive, regular contractions. b. The bloody, or pink, show. c. The spontaneous rupture of membranes. d. Formulation of the woman's plan of care for labor

Formulation of the woman's plan of care for labor

A recently delivered mother and her baby are at the clinic for a 6-week postpartum checkup. The nurse should be concerned that psychosocial outcomes are not being met if the woman: A. Discusses her labor and birth experience excessively. B. Believes that her baby is more attractive and clever than any others. C. Has not given the baby a name. D. Has a partner or family members who react very positively about the baby.

Has not given the baby a name.

In the recovery room, if a woman is asked either to raise her legs (knees extended) off the bed or to flex her knees, place her feet flat on the bed, and raise her buttocks well off the bed, most likely she is being tested to see whether she: A. Has recovered from epidural or spinal anesthesia. B. Has hidden bleeding underneath her. C. Has regained some flexibility. D. Is a candidate to go home after 6 hours.

Has recovered from epidural or spinal anesthesia.

If a woman is at risk for thrombus and is not ready to ambulate, nurses may intervene by performing a number of interventions. Which intervention should the nurse avoid? A. Putting the patient in antiembolic stockings (TED hose) and/or sequential compression device (SCD) boots. B. Having the patient flex, extend, and rotate her feet, ankles, and legs. C. Having the patient sit in a chair. D. Notifying the physician immediately if a positive Homans sign occurs

Having the patient sit in a chair.

What is an essential part of nursing care for the laboring woman? a. Helping the woman manage the pain b. Eliminating the pain associated with labor c. Sharing personal experiences regarding labor and delivery to decrease her anxiety d. Feeling comfortable with the predictable nature of intrapartum care

Helping the woman manage the pain

A pregnant woman is in her third trimester. She asks the nurse to explain how she can tell true labor from false labor. The nurse would explain that "true" labor contractions: a. Increase with activity such as ambulation. b. Decrease with activity. c. Are always accompanied by the rupture of the bag of waters. d. Alternate between a regular and an irregular pattern.

Increase with activity such as ambulation.

A student nurse is preparing for a presentation that will illustrate the various physiologic changes in the woman's body during pregnancy. Which cardiovascular changes up through the 26th week should the student point out? A. Decreased pulse rate and increased blood pressure B. Increased pulse rate and decreased blood pressure C. Increased pulse rate and blood pressure D. No change in pulse rate or blood pressure

Increased pulse rate and decreased blood pressure

The nurse's role in diagnostic testing is to provide which of the following? a. Advice to the couple b. Information about the tests c. Reassurance about fetal safety d. Assistance with decision making

Information about the tests

Which nursing intervention is necessary prior to a second-trimester transabdominal ultrasound? a. Perform an abdominal prep. b. Administer a soap suds enema. c. Ensure the client is NPO for 12 hours. d. Instruct the client to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water.

Instruct the client to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water.

Which is the major advantage of chorionic villus sampling over amniocentesis? a. It is not an invasive procedure. b. It does not require a hospital setting. c. It requires less time to obtain results. d. It has less risk of spontaneous abortion

It requires less time to obtain results.

The clinic nurse is obtaining a health history on a newly pregnant client. Which is an indication for fetal diagnostic procedures if present in the health history? a. Maternal diabetes b. Weight gain of 25 lb c. Maternal age older than 30 d. Previous infant weighing more than 3000 g at birth

Maternal diabetes

What does nursing care after amniocentesis include? a. Forcing fluids by mouth b. Monitoring uterine activity c. Placing the client in a supine position for 2 hours d. Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site

Monitoring uterine activity

The nurse is assessing a client who believes she is pregnant. The nurse points out a more definitive assessment is necessary due to which sign being considered a probable sign of pregnancy? A. Fatigue B. Amenorrhea C. Positive home pregnancy test D. Nausea and vomiting

Positive home pregnancy test

Postpartal overdistention of the bladder and urinary retention can lead to which complications? A. Postpartum hemorrhage and eclampsia B. Fever and increased blood pressure C. Postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infection D. Urinary tract infection and uterine rupture

Postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infection

The partner of a pregnant client in her first trimester asks the nurse about the client's behavior recently, stating that she is very moody, seems happy one moment and is crying the next and all she wants to talk about is herself. What response would correctly address these concerns? A. Her body is changing and she may be angry about it. B. Pregnant women often experience mood swings and self-centeredness but this is normal. C. Moodiness and irritability are not usual responses to pregnancy. D. What you are describing may be normal but we need to talk to her more in depth

Pregnant women often experience mood swings and self-centeredness but this is normal.

A client's menstrual period is two weeks late. She has been feeling tired and has had bouts of nausea in the morning. What classification of pregnancy symptoms is this client experiencing? A. Positive B. Presumptive C. Probable D. No classification

Presumptive

On which aspect of fetal diagnostic testing do parents usually place the most importance? a. Safety of the fetus b. Duration of the test c. Cost of the procedure d. Physical discomfort caused by the procedure

Safety of the fetus

Which action would most make the nurse believe that a postpartum woman is accepting a child well? A. She states she has named the child after a well-loved friend. B. She turns her face to meet the infant's eyes when she holds her. C. She comments that her baby has the most hair of any in the nursery. D. She asks the nurse to use her camera to take a photo of the child.

She turns her face to meet the infant's eyes when she holds her

The nurse expects to administer an oxytocic (e.g., Pitocin, Methergine) to a woman after expulsion of her placenta to: a. Relieve pain. b. Stimulate uterine contraction. c. Prevent infection. d. Facilitate rest and relaxation.

Stimulate uterine contraction.

A multigravida client is concerned that she may deliver early. When asking the nurse what is the earliest her baby can be delivered and survive, which time frame would the nurse point out? A. The end of the second trimester B. The end of the first trimester C. The end of the third trimester D. The end of the fourth trimester

The end of the second trimester

The nurse is teaching a pregnant teenager the importance of proper nutrition and adequate weight gain throughout the pregnancy. What is the best response when the client refuses to eat due to fear of possible weight gain? A. The infant will be small and could have problems. B. There may be little impact on the infant, but the mother can suffer complications. C. It will just make the baby smaller, but there are no other problems associated. D. The infant will be smaller but should quickly gain weight

The infant will be small and could have problems.

Nurses alert to signs of the onset of the second stage of labor can be certain that this stage has begun when: a. The woman has a sudden episode of vomiting. b. The nurse is unable to feel the cervix during a vaginal examination. c. Bloody show increases. d. The woman involuntarily bears dow

The nurse is unable to feel the cervix during a vaginal examination.

The nurse midwife tells a client that the baby is growing and that ballottement was evident during the vaginal examination. How should the nurse explain what the nurse midwife means by ballottement? A. The nurse midwife saw that the mucus plug was intact. B. The nurse midwife felt the baby rebound after being pushed. C. The nurse midwife palpated the fetal parts through the uterine wall. D. The nurse midwife assessed that the baby is head down

The nurse midwife felt the baby rebound after being pushed.

When assessing a multiparous woman who has just given birth to an 8-pound boy, the nurse notes that the woman's fundus is firm and has become globular in shape. A gush of dark red blood comes from her vagina. The nurse concludes that: a. The placenta has separated. b. A cervical tear occurred during the birth. c. The woman is beginning to hemorrhage. d. Clots have formed in the upper uterine segment

The placenta has separated.

How does fetal circulation differ from circulation after birth? A. Fetal blood flow bypasses the right atrium and goes directly to the right ventricle. B. In utero, blood through the pulmonary artery is only 50% of the post-delivery blood flow. C. The ductus arteriosus carries the majority of the blood circulating from the left atrium to the left ventricle directly to the aorta. D. The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood, while deoxygenated blood is carried by the umbilical arteries

The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood, while deoxygenated blood is carried by the umbilical arteries

Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth? a. The fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination. b. Bloody mucus discharge increases. c. The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head. d. The membranes rupture during a contraction

The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head.

A primiparous woman is to be discharged from the hospital tomorrow with her infant girl. Which behavior indicates a need for further intervention by the nurse before the woman can be discharged? A. The woman leaves the infant on her bed while she takes a shower. B. The woman continues to hold and cuddle her infant after she has fed her. C. The woman reads a magazine while her infant sleeps. D. The woman changes her infants diaper and then shows the nurse the contents of the diaper

The woman leaves the infant on her bed while she takes a shower. B. The wo

A 39-year-old primigravida thinks that she is about 8 weeks pregnant, although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day, but she tells you that she is trying to cut down. Her laboratory data are within normal limits. What diagnostic technique could be used with this pregnant woman at this time? a. Ultrasound examination b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening c. Amniocentesis d. Nonstress test (NST)

Ultrasound examination

A 25-year-old gravida 2, para 2-0-0-2 gave birth 4 hours ago to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy after augmentation of labor with Oxytocin. She puts on her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating, "I'm bleeding a lot." The most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this woman is: A. Retained placental fragments. B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations. C. Uterine atony D. Puerperal infection

Uterine atony

A client is 15 weeks pregnant. She calls the obstetric office to request a medication for a headache. The nurse answers the telephone. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? A. "Because the organ systems in the baby are developing right now, it is risky to take medicine." B. "You can take any of the over-the-counter medications because they are all safe in pregnancy." C. "The physician will prescribe a category "X" medication for you." D. "You can take acetaminophen because it is a category "B" medicine."

You can take acetaminophen because it is a category "B" medicine."

A postpartum woman overhears the nurse tell the obstetrics clinician that she has a positive Homans sign and asks what it means. The nurses best response is A. You have pitting edema in your ankles. B. You have deep tendon reflexes rated 2+. C. You have calf pain when the nurse flexes your foot. D. You have a fleshy odor to your vaginal drainage

You have calf pain when the nurse flexes your foot.

For which client would an L/S ratio of 2:1 potentially be considered to be abnormal? a. A 38-year-old gravida 2, para 1, who is 38 weeks' gestation b. A 24-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who has diabetes c. A 44-year-old gravida 6, para 5, who is at term d. An 18-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who is in early labor at term

b. A 24-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who has diabetes

The results of a contraction stress test (CST) are positive. Which intervention is necessary based on this test result? a. Repeat the test in 1 week so that results can be trended based on this baseline result. b. Contact the health care provider to discuss birth options for the client. c. Send the client out for a meal and repeat the test to confirm that the results are valid. d. Ask the client to perform a fetal kick count assessment for the next 30 minutes and then reassess the client.

b. Contact the health care provider to discuss birth options for the client.

In preparing a pregnant client for a non-stress test (NST), which of the following should be included in the plan of care? a. Have the client void prior to being placed on the fetal monitor because a full bladder will interfere with results. b. Maintain NPO status prior to testing. c. Position the client for comfort, adjusting the tocotransducer belt to locate fetal heart rate. d. Have an infusion pump prepared with oxytocin per protocol for evaluation

c. Position the client for comfort, adjusting the tocotransducer belt to locate fetal heart rate.

What is the term for a non-stress test in which there are two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of 15 or more bpm with fetal movement in a 20-minute period? a. Positive b. Negative c. Reactive d. Nonreactive

c. Reactive

What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test (CST)? a. Increase placental blood flow. b. Identify fetal acceleration patterns. c. Determine the degree of fetal activity. d. Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus.

d. Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus.

Which assessment finding in the pregnant woman at 12 weeks' gestation should the nurse find most concerning? The inability to: A. detect fetal heart sounds with a Doppler. B. feel fetal movements. C. hear the fetal heartbeat with a stethoscope. D. palpate the fetal outline.

detect fetal heart sounds with a Doppler.

Which change in the musculoskeletal system would the nurse mention when teaching a group of pregnant women about the physiologic changes of pregnancy? A. ligament tightening B. decreased swayback C. increased lordosis D. joint contraction

increased lordosis