Combined MCAT Catagories
histone proteins
- H2A, H2B, H3, H4, H1 - have chromosomes wrapped around them to form nucleosomes
Thyroid hormones
- modulate the impact of other metabolic hormones and have direct impact on basal metabolic rate
Bradford protein assay
- most common method of protein concentration determination - uses a color-change from brown-green to blue
Embedded proteins
- most likely a part of a catalytic complex or involved in cellular communication
transmembrane proteins
- most likely to work as receptors or channels - can have on or more hydrophobic domain
Isocitrate dehydrogenase rxn? regulated by?
- oxidizes and decarboxylates isocitrate to form alpha-ketoglutarate - produces first CO2 of citric acid cycle - produces first NADH of citric acid cycle - rate limiting step of citric acid cycle - inhibited by ATP and NADH - activated by ADP and NAD+
3-phosphoglycerate kinase
- performs substrate-level phosphorylation
point mutations can cause:
- silent mutations - nonsense mutation - missense mutations
Flippases
- specific membrane proteins that maintain the bidirectional transport of lipids between layers of the phospholipid bilayer in cells
free fatty acids
- unesterified fatty acids that travel in the bloodstream
NADH shuttle mechanisms
-glycerol 3-phosphate shuttle - malate-aspartate shuttle
Id
-primal, inborn urges to survive and reproduce psychoanalytic perspective (Freud)
How many FADH2 are produced in the citric acid cycle?
1
Impression management strategies
1. Self-disclosure: give info about oneself to establish an identity 2. Managing appearances: use props, appearance, emotional expression, etc with others to create a positive image 3. Ingratiation: use flattery or conforming to expectations to win someone over 4. Aligning actions: make questionable behavior acceptable through excuses 5. Alter-casting: imposing an identity onto another person
Information processing model
1. Thinking requires sensation, encoding, and storage of stimuli 2. Stimuli must be analyzed by the brain (rather than responded to automatically) to be useful in decision-making 3. Decisions made in one situation can be extrapolated and adjusted to help solve new problems (called situational modification) 4. Problem-solving is dependent not only on the person's cognitive level, but also on the context and complexity of the problem
How many ATP does each FADH2 yield?
1.5
Real lens CHECK THIS EQ.
1/f = (n - 1) (1/r1 - 1/r2)
Standard temperature and pressure
273 kelvin (o degrees celsius) and 1 atmosphere (760 mmHg).
equation for steroisomer determination
2^n n=number of chiral centers
How many NADH are produced in the citric acid cycle?
3
inefficiencies of the system and variability between cells make how many ATP per glucose as the commonly accepted range?
30-32
What is the optimal yield of ATP per molecule of glucose?
32
Probability "in frame"
33%, 1/3, only "in frame" when there are 3 randomly inserted basepairs. there's a 1 in 3 chance that number of bp that's a multiple of 3 will be inserted
tetrad
4 chromatids involved when a pair of homologous chromosomes synapse during prophase I of meiosis I
How many chromosomes do human's cells have?
46
N term to C term
5' to 3'
triple point
A point in a phase diagram at which a substance exists in equilibrium between all three phases
DNA methylation
A process in which methyl groups are attached to bases in DNA in order to decrease accessibility to DNA and decrease transcription
Adiabatic
A process in which no heat exchange occurs (Q = 0)
Adiabatic process
A process in which no heat is transferred to or from the system by its surroundings.
Isobaric
A process in which pressure stays constant as volume changes.
Isovolumetric (isochoric) process
A process in which volume remains constant and no net pressure-volume work is done.
Isochoric (isovolumetric)
A process in which volume stays constant as pressure changes (W = 0)
Ion
A single particle or polyatomic species with an electric charge.
Titrant
A solution of known concentration added in small volumes to a solution of unknown concentration to reach the equivalence point.
Titrand
A solution of unknown concentration to which small volumes of a solution of known concentration are added to reach the equivalence point.
kinetochore
A specialized region on the centromere that links each sister chromatid to the mitotic spindle.
Closed system
A system that allows for the exchange of energy, but not matter, across its boundaries.
Isolated system
A system that can exchange neither energy nor matter with its surroundings.
Personality disorder clusters
ABC= Weird, Wild, Worried
thiol
AKA sulfhydryl group
What is the purpose of TSH? what is it regulated by?
AP absorb iodine regulated by TRH -hypothalamus
Where is GH release from? What does it do? What is it inhibited by? What is it stimulated by?
AP glucose conservation inhibited by somatostatin stimulated by GHRH
where is LH secreted from? What 2 jobs does it do/at what points in the cycle? what 3 hormones is it regulated by?
AP stimulates ovulation and formation of corpus luteum regulated by estrogen, progesterone, and GnRH THINK: "progesterone PROtects uterine wall/lining"
What are GTP converted to?
ATP
Intuition
Ability to act on perceptions that may not be supported by available evidence; people may have beliefs that are not necessarily supported by evidence, but that person "feels" to be correct
Marijuana
Active chemical known as THC; exerts effects on cannabinoid, glycine, and opioid receptors, increases GABA and dopamine activity
Catalytic (enzyme) efficency
CE= kcat/Km Turnover rate/ concentration @ which
Translational equilibrium
Can be moving!!! constant speed & direction
Accommodation
Changes the shape of the lens
Capacitance
Charge per unit potential difference (V in Voltage) that can be stored on a capacitor. (Charge/voltage)
You hear suprachiasmatic nucleus, you think...?
Circadian rhythm!
Kohlberg's Moral Development: Conventional morality
Conventional morality -Conformity: emphasis on "good boy, nice girl" seeking approval of others -Law and order: maintain social order in highest regard
outer region of nephron is called? inner?
Cortex and medulla, respectively. Middle MEDULLA
sugar enantiomers
D- and L- forms of the same sugar
Semiconservative
DNA replication. One old parent strand and one new daughter strand is incorporated into each of the two new DNA molecules
Cocaine
Decreases re-uptake of dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin; anesthetic and vasoconstrictive properties, can cause heart attacks and strokes
Faraday's constant
Denoted by F. It equals 10^5 C/mol e-. Commonly used in the formula It=nF, where I is current, t is time, n is moles of electrons transferred.
Misinformation effect
False memories created by outside sources like use of severity in language or given false information
Optic chiasm
Fibers from the nasal half field of each retina cross paths
what is G0 and what cells are not likely to be in it?
G0 means they aren't dividing, and epithelial cells and intestinal cells divide often
G2
G2M DNA damage checkpoint
Depressants
Increases GABA receptor activity causing inhibition and increases dopamine levels
Erikson's Psychosocial development: age 9 years old
Industry/ inferiority (6 to 12 years old)
Noble gas
Inert elements naturally existing in a gaseous state that comprise group VIII (group 18) of the periodic table.
Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
Inhibitor of PDH; phosphorylates PDH when ATP or acetyl-CoA levels are high, turning it off
Erikson's Psychosocial development: age 30 years old
Intimacy/ isolation (20 to 40 years old)
Celsius to Kelvin
K = C + 273
Dominant hemisphere
Left: language, logic, and math skills
lyase
Lyases catalyze the cleavage of a single molecule into two products. Unlike hydrolytic enzymes, lyases don't require water as a substrate.
law of reflection
MEASURED FROM THE NORMAL!!!!!
Inductive reasoning (Bottom-up)
Make generalizations to develop given theory. Reasoning from one or more specific experiences or facts to reach a general conclusion
Language
Most highly developed symbolic system
Controlled (effortful) processing
Most new or complex tasks require undivided attention
What donates electrons to the ETC?
NADH
IR Spectrum specific memorization points
NOTE: conjugated double bond shift wavenumber lower
Coenzymes?
ORGANIC aka: PROSTHETIC GROUPS
Kohlberg's Moral Development: Preconventional morality
Preconventional morality -Obedience: avoiding punishment -Self-interest: gaining rewards (instrumental relativist stage)
ether?
R1-O-R2 REMEMBER ESTERS have carbonyls, NOT ETHERS
Bulk modulus
Same as stiffness
m = (y₂-y₁)/(x₂-x₁)
Slope is the change in y (rise) over the change in x (run).
what are the two main thyroid hormones? what do they do?
T3 and T4 stimulate cellular respiration as well as protein and fatty acid synthesis and degradation
imine
THINK: Carbonyl with N in for O
Physiological zero
Temperature judged to this normal temperature of the skin
Primacy and recency effect
Tendency to remember early and late items
Wavelength (λ)
The distance from one peak to the next in a wave. Measured in meters.
Atomic radius
The distance measure either between the nucleus and outermost electron of an atom or by the separation of the two nuclei in a diatomic element. Decreases from left to right and from bottom to top on the periodic table.
Valence electrons
The electrons occupying the outermost electron shell of an atom that participate in chemical bonds. Atoms with the same number of valence electrons usually have similar chemical properties.
wobble effect
The last nitrogenous base can change but the amino acid it codes for stays the same
do protozoans have membrane-bound organelles?
They are eukaryotes so yes they do have membrane-bound organelles
Work
W = Fdcosθ
symport
When both particles from secondary active transport flow in the same direction
antiport
When the particles from secondary active transport flow in opposite directions
work-energy theorum
Work= Change in kinetic energy= KE final - KE initial
transformation
a bacterium acquires genetic material from external environment
where is snoRNA located? what do they primarily do?
a class of small RNA molecules that primarily guide chemical modifications of other RNAs, mainly ribosomal RNAs, transfer RNAs and small nuclear RNAs. primarily modification of rRNA
equilibrium
a dynamic point reached by a reversible reaction in which the rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction. There is no net change in the concentrations of the products and reactants over time.
Power
ability of people or groups to achieve their goals despite any obstacles and their ability to control resources
ungated ion channel
always open
polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
an automated process by which millions of copies of a DNA sequence can be created from a very small sample by hybridization
Erikson's Psychosocial development: age 2 years old
autonomy/ shame & doubt (1 to 3 years old)
starling forces
balance between hydrostatic and oncotic pressures on both sides of a membrane, essential for maintaining proper fluid volumes and solute concentrations inside and outside the vasculature Oncotic= into the blood vessel Hydrostatic= into interstitutum
what is rod-shaped bacteria called?
bascillus
cell theory
basic functional unit of life, arise from preexisting cells, DNA is the genetic material
amphoteric
can accept or donate protons
Internalization
changing one's behavior to fit with a group while also privately agreeing with the ideas of the group
Transduction
conversion of physical, electromagnetic, auditory, and other information from our internal and external environment to electrical signals in the nervous system
When given template DNA strand and asked for amino acid sequence?
convert template strand into mRNA sequence, make sure sure that you're working 5' to 3' and then look for corresponding amino acids
Broca's aphasia
damage to broca's area, speech comprehension is intact but patient has reduced/absent ability to produce spoken language THINK: "Be gone, Broca"
Suppression
deliberate, conscious form of forgetting
alkaline earth metals
elements found in group 2 on the periodic table
Inducible system example
lac operon
hyperventilation
lack of Ox or decrease in blood pH promotes hyperventilation
Parietal lobe: Somatosensory cortex
located on postcentral gyrus and involved in somatosensory information processing
Ethnic enclaves
locations with high concentrations of one specific ethnicity
what does an + RNA virus make of its own?
makes its own ribosomes
Bipolar I disorder
manic episodes with/without major depressive episode
manipulate/study "while preventing cell replication"
must be interphase
nucleoside
nitrogen base + sugar
where/when does fatty acid oxidation occur
occurs in the mitochondria following transport by the carnitine shuttle
Reversed attribution bias
often seen in depressed people; viewing their successes as caused by external factors and failures as caused by internal factors
Resocialization
one discards old behaviors in favor of new ones to make a life change and can have positive/negative connotations
Empathy-altruism hypothesis
one helps another person when feeling empathetic regardless of the cost
Specific heat
q = mcΔT
posterior pituitary
release ADH and oxytocin
Cultural syndrome
shared set of beliefs, attitudes, norms, values, and behaviors among members of the same culture that are organized around a central theme
snRNPs
short nucleic segment at the end of the intron that signals where its going to splice
foramen ovale
shunts right atrium to left atrium (bypass fetal lung)
antisense strand
template strand non-coding strand
where is the production of immunoglobulins?
the ribosome
what are osteoblasts responsible for? what do they secrete? what do they synthesize?
the secretion of the bony matrix mature osteocytes become osteoblasts synthesize hydroxyapatite, which absorbs excess calcium
what can do you do if given the sense strand, and the question is about translation?
the sense strand is equal to the mRNA strand, except that it has T instead of U, so rewrite it with U replacing T. In this question, they want to insert a stop codon, so one of the aa needs to be changed to UAG, UGA, or UAA
what is disjunction?
the separation of homologous chromosomes during anaphase 1 of meiosis
what happens to reduction potentials as the ETC progresses?
they increase
Alzheimer's disease
type of dementia characterized by gradual memory loss, disorientation to time and place, problems with abstract though, and tendency to misplace things
Under what condition does catabolism of cellular proteins occur?
under conditions of starvation
Joule
unit of energy: kg* m^2/s^2
helicase
unwinds DNA for replicaiton
Helicase
unwinds the DNA double helix
affinity chromatography
uses a bound receptor or ligand and an eluent with free ligand or a receptor for the protein of interest
isoelectric point (pI) of an amino acid
when there is no charged side chain can be calculated by averaging the two pKa values
Negatively charge AA
"DE ass (aspartic acid) is shorter than the glute (glutamic acid)"
Freud's Psychosexual Development
"Oh A Penis Likes Girls" :)
Lens equation
"Oh I Farted that's Raunchy" 1/O+1/i=1/f=2/r
transposons
"copy and paste" genetic elements undergo transcription, through RNA polymerase, mRNA transcript is reversed back to DNA and inserted into another location in the genome
Operant Conditioning
(B.F. Skinner) Negative reinforcement: increase frequency of behavior by removing unpleasant something (no dishes if homework is done!) Positive punishment; add unpleasant consequence
Learning (Behaviorist) Theory of language acquisition
(B.F. Skinner) language acquisition by operant conditioning and reinforcement
Basic model of emotional expression
(Charles Darwin) emotional expression involves a number of components like facial expressions, behavior, postures, vocal changes, and physiological changes
Dramaturgical approach
(Erving Goffman) Front stage: conforms to image he wants others to see Back stage: free to act like his true self
Gemeinschaft und Gesellschaft
(Ferdinand Tonnies) Gemeinschaft: refers to groups unified by feelings of togetherness due to shared beliefs, ancestry, or geography Gesellschaft: refers to groups that are formed because of mutual self-interests working together toward the same goal
Nativist (Biological) theory
(Noam Chomsky) existence of some innate capacity for language Transformational grammar: changes in words that retain the same meaning (Ex. I took the MCAT vs. the MCAT was taken by me) Language acquisition device (LAD): theoretical pathway in the brain that allows infants to process and absorb language rules Critical period: language acquisition between two years and puberty Sensitive period: time when environmental input has maximal effect on the development of an ability
Hypomania
(bipolar related disorder) patient does not have significantly impaired functioning or are there psychotic features but individual may be more energetic and optimistic over an extended period of time.
Different phyla
*not all use photosynthesis *not all synthesize cholesterol *protein modification unique to all species *DNA sequences = quite similar between phyla
initiation of translation in eukaryotes
- 40s ribosome attaches to the 5' cap and scans for a start codon - it lays down methionine in the P-site of the ribosome
pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
- 5-enzyme complex in mitochondrial matrix that forms and is also inhibited by actetyl-CoA and NADH enzymes include: - pyruvate dehydrogenase - Dihydrolipoyl transacetylase - Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase - Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase - Pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphotase
types of post-translational modifications
- 7-methylguanylate triphosphate cap added to 5' end - A polyadenosyl (poly-A) tail added to 3' end - removal of introns - polycistronic genes - alternative splicing
5' cap
- 7-methylguanylate triphosphate cap added to 5' end - protects the nascent mRNA from degradation and assists in ribosome binding during translation
Purines
- A and G - A pairs with T and U (via 2 H bonds) - G pairs with C (via 3 H bonds) - aromatic heterocytes that are cyclic, planar and conjugated - contain 4n+2 pi electrons
beta-oxidation
- A series of reactions that breaks down fatty acids to acetyl-CoA - uses cycles of oxidation, hydration, oxidation and cleavage - 129 ATP
start codon (ex)
- AUG
chromatin
- DNA and its associated histones
initiation of DNA replication
- DNA is unwound at origin of replication by helicases producing two replication forks on either side
stereochemistry of amino acids
- L for all chiral amino acids - D amino acids can exist in prokaryotes - All chiral amino acids except cysteine have (S) configuration - All amino acids are chiral except glycine
lipid rafts
- Membrane domains enriched in certain lipids, cholesterol, and proteins
Complex I
- NADH-CoQ oxidoreductase - uses an iron-sulfur cluster to transfer electrons from NADH to flavin mononucleotide (FMN) then to CoQ to form CoQH2 - 4 protons are translocated
Watson-Crick Model
- Organization of DNA - backbone composed of alternating sugar and phosphate groups and always read 5'to3' - two stands that are antiparallel - double helix - purines pair with pyrimidines
differences between RNA and DNA
- RNA has rubose sugar while DNA has deoxyribose - RNA uses Uracil for a base while DNA uses Thymine - RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded
promoter region
- Region where RNA polymerase II binds - 25 base pairs upstream from first transcribed base
spliceosome
- Splicing complex made of proteins and snRNA (snRNPs) - the organelles that splice the mRNA in eukaryotes after the introns have been snipped out
Pyrimidines
- T, U, and C - T and U pair with A via 2 H bonds - C pairs with G via 3 H bonds - aromatic heterocytes that are cyclic, planar and conjugated - contain 4n+2 pi electrons
T3 and T4 theyroid hormones
- T3 is more potent than T4 - T3 has shorter half life - T3 is available in lower concentrations in the blood - T4 is converted to T3 at the tissues
aldolase B
- Takes fructose-1-phosphate to DHAP and glyceraldehyde
Membrane potential
- The voltage across a cell's plasma membrane. - maintained by sodium-potassium pump and leak channels
GLUT2
- Transporter specific to liver and pancreas - found in liver for glucose storage - found in B-islet cells of pancrease as part of glucose sensor - has high Km
fructokinase
- Traps fructose into the cell - catalyzes fructose into fructose 1-phosphate
The 3 stop codons are?
- UAA - UGA - UAG
IDL
- VLDL remnant - transition between triacylglycerol and cholesterol transport picks up cholesteryl esters from HDL
fat soluble vitamin examples
- Vitamin A - Vitamin D - Vitamin E - Vitamin K all but BC
How is protein structure determined
- X-ray crystalography - NMR
pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
- a complex of enzymes that convert pyruvate into acetyl-CoA - stimulated by insulin - inhibited by acetyl CoA
release factor
- a protein that binds to the stop codon and releases the ribosome from the mRNA - places a water molecule on the polypeptide chain and thus releases the protein
poly-A tail
- a sequence of 50-250 adenine nucleotides added onto the 3' end of a pre-mRNA molecule - protects the mRNA molecule from enzymatic degradation in the cytoplasm - aids in transcription termination - helps export of the mRNA from the nucleus - assists in translation.
monoterpene
- a single terpine unit - contains two isoprene units
postprandial state
- absorptive - insulin secretion is high - anabolic metabolism prevails well-fed state
fluid mosaic model
- accounts for the presence of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates in a dynamic, semisolid plasma membrane that surrounds cells
catalytic activity of motor proteins
- act as ATPase to power movement
Triacylglycerols and cell membrane
- act as phospholipid precursors - found in low levels in membrane
free fatty acids and cell membrane
- act as phospholipid precursors - found in low levels in membrane
alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex rxn? regulated by?
- acts similarly to PDH complex - metabolizes alpha-ketoglutarate to form succinyl-CoA - generates second CO2 of citric acid cycle -generates second NADH of citric acid cycle - inhibited by ATP, NADH, and succinyl-CoA - activated by ADP and Ca2+
Benedict's reagent
- aldehyde group of an aldose is oxidized indicated by a red precipitate of Cu2O
phospholipids
- amphipathic and for bilayer of biological membranes - contain hydrophilic head group - contain hydrophobic tail group
promoters
- are within 25 base pairs of the transcription start site - Region of DNA that indicates to an enzyme where to bind to make RNA
how are long-chain fatty acids absorbed?
- as micelles then aasempled into chylomicrons for release into the lymphatic system
Telomeres
- at the end of chromosomes - contain high GC-content to prevent unraveling - during replication are slightly shortened, although this can be partially reversed by telomerase
Glycosphingolipids
- attached to sugar moieties instead of a phosphate group - can either be cerebrosides or globosides
phospholipid head group
- attached to tail by phosphodiester linkage - interacts with environment - determines function of phospholipid
phosphodiester linkage
- attaches head group of phospholipid
inducible system
- bonded to a repressor under normal conditions - can be turned on by inducer bulling the repressor from the operator site
ketolysis
- breakdown of ketones - regenerates acetyl-CoA for use as an energy source in peripheral tissues
how can metabolic rates be measured
- calorimetry - respirometry - consumption tracking - measurement of blood concentrations of substrates and hormones
southern blotting
- can be used to detect the presence and quantity of various DNA strands in a sample - after electrophoresis, the sample is transferred to a membrane that can be probed with single-stranded DNA molecules to look for a sequence of interest
Extracellular ligands
- can bind to membrane receptors which function as channels or enzymes in second messenger pathways
micelles
- can dissolve a lipid soluble molecule in its fatty acid core - washes away with water because of its shell of carboxylate head groups
Vitamin A
- carotene - metabolized to retinal for vision and retinoic acid for gene expression and epithelial development
Messenger RNA (mRNA)
- carries the message from DNA in the nucleus via transcription of the gene - travels into cytoplasm to by translated
rickets
- caused from vitamin D deficiency
Insulin
- causes decrease in blood glucose levels by increasing cellular uptake - increases rate of anabolic metabolism - secreted by pancreatic Beta-cells regulated by blood glucose levels
Vitamin D
- cholecalciferol - metabolizes into calcitriol in the kidneys - regulates calcium and phosphorus homeostasis in the intestines (increasing absorption) - promote bone formation
tumor suppressor genes
- code for proteins that reduce cell cycling of promote DNA repair - mutation of these genes can lead to cancer
osmotic pressure
- colligative property - pressure applied to a pure solvent to prevent osmosis - is used to express the concentration of a solution - visualized as sucking pressure in which a solution is drawing water in, proportional to its concentration
How is protein concentration determined?
- colorimetrically, either by UV spectroscopy or through color change reaction - BCA assay - Lowry reagent assay - Bradford protein assay
alternative splicing
- combining different exons in a modular fashion to acquire different gene products
Fructose
- comes from honey, fruit, and sucrose - trapped in cell by fructokinase - cleaved by aldolase B to form glyceraldehyde and DHAP
Galactose
- comes from lactose in milk - trapped in cell by galactokinase - converted to glucose 1-phosphate via galactose-1-phosphate uridly-transferase and epimerase
The F0 portion
- component of ATP synthase - an ion channel allowing protons to down the gradient from the intermembrane space to the matrix
the F1 portion
- component of ATP synthase - uses the energy released by the gradient to phosphorylate ADP into ATP
structural proteins
- compose the cytoskeleton, anchoring proteins, and much of the extracellular matrix - generall fibrous in nature
R-group
- connected to the alpha carbon of an amino acid - determines chemistry and function of that amino acid
metabolism in the brain and other nervous tissue
- consume glucose in all states except prolonged fast, where up to 2/3 of fuel may come from ketone bodies
Immunoglobulin structure
- contain a constant region and variable region - variable region responsible for antigen binding - two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains form a single antibody - they are held together by disulfide linkages and non-covalent interactions
sphingolipids
- contain a sphingosine or sphingoid backbone - many but not all are also phospholipids
waxes
- contain long-chain fatty acids esterified to long-chain alcohols - used as protection against evaporation and parasites in plants and animals - found in very small amounts in cell membrane
steroids
- contain three cyclohexane rings and one cyclopentane ring FOUR RINGS TOTAL - oxidation state and functional groups may vary - includes hormones and cholesterol
Acetyl CoA
- contains a high-energy thioester bond that can be used to drive other reactions when hydrolysis occurs
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
- converts fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 6-phosphate - bypass of PFK-1 in gluconeogenesis - rate limiting for gluconeogenesis - Activated directly by ATP - activate indirectly (via deacreased fructose 2,6-bisphosphate) by glucagon - inhibited by AMP directly - inhibited indirectly (via increased fructose 2,6-bisphosphate) by insulin
Glucose-6-phosphatase
- converts glucose 6-phosphate to free glucose - bypasses glucokinase for gluconeogenesis - found only in endoplasmic reticulum of the liver
glucokinase
- converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate - present in pancreatic B-islet cells as part of glucose sensor - responsive to insulin in the liver
hexokinase
- converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in the PERIPHERAL tissues
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK)
- converts oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate in gluconeogenesis - works in conjunction with Pyruvate carboxylase to bypass pyruvate kinase - activated by glucagon and cortisol
Pyruvate carboxylase
- converts pyruvate into oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis - works in conjunction with PEPCK to bypass pyruvate kinase - activated by acteyl CoA from Beta-oxidation
Citrate synthase rxn? regulated by?
- couples acetyl-CoA to oxaloacetate and then hydrolyzes the resulting product - forms citrate and CoA-SH - regulated by negative feedback from ATP, NADH, succinyl-CoA, and citrate
Glycogen Synthase
- creates alpha-1,4 glycosidic links between glucose molecules - activated by insulin in liver and muscle
Q cycle
- cycle that funnels electrons from a two-electron carrier to a one-electron carrier via - Ub travels between NADH dehydrogenase --> QH2 --> Cytochrome C reductase --> Q
Complex IV
- cytochrome c oxidase - uses cytochromes and Cu2+ to transfer electrons in the form of hydride ions (H-) from cytochrome c to oxygen, forming water - two protons are translocated
What oxidizes NADH when mitochondria or oxygen are absent?
- cytoplasmic lactate dehydrogenase
Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz voltage equation
- derived from Nernst equation - calculates the resting potential of a membrane at physiological temperature
terpenoids
- derived from terpenes via oxygenation or backbone rearrangement - have odorous characteristic
Oncogenes
- develop from mutations of proto-oncogenes and promote cell cycling - may lead to cancer
how may cholesterol be obtained
- dietary sources - de novo synthesis in the liver
simple diffusion
- does not require transporter - small, nonpolar molecules passively move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration until equilibrium is achieved
Passive transport
- does not requireenergy - molecule moves down its concentration gradient or from one area with higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
prolonged fasting state
- dramatically increases glucagon and catecholamine secretion - most tissues rely on fatty acids - 2/3 of brain's energy can be derived from ketone bodies starvation state
DNA polymerase proofreading
- during replication, proofreads its own work and excises incorrectly matched bases
proton-motive force
- electrochemical gradient generated by the electron transport chain across the inner mitochondrial membrane - the inter-membrane space has a higher concentration of protons than the matix - this gradient stores energy, which can be used to form ATP via chemiosmotic coupling
glycerol 3-phosphate shuttle
- electrons are transferred from NADH to dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP), forming glycerol 3-phosphate - these electrons can then be transferred to mitochondrial FAD, forming FADH2
malate-aspartate shuttle
- electrons are transferred from NADH to oxaloacetate, forming malate - malate can then cross the inner mitochondrial membrane and transfer electrons to the mitochondrial NAD+, forming NADH
half-reactions
- electrons change place and move from one side to the other - provide useful info about stoichiometry and thermodynamics
Forming Acetyl-CoA from fatty acids that enter mitochondira
- fatty acids couples with CoA in the cytosol to form fatty acyl-CoA, which moves to the intermembrane space - The acyl group is transferred to carnitine to form acyl-carnitine, which crosses the inner membrane - the acyl group is transferred to a mitochondrial CoA to reform fatty acyl-CoA, which can undergo Beta-Oxidation to for acetyl CoA
isoprene
- five-carbon molecule that makes up terpenes
Nucleotide excision repair
- fixes helix-deforming lesions of DNA (such as thymine dimers) via a cut-and-patch process that require an excision endonuclease
Base excision repair
- fixes non-deforming lesions of the DNA helix (such as cytosine deamination) by removing the base, leaving an apurinic/apyrimidinic (AP) site, an endonuclease then removes the damaged sequence, which can be filled with the correct ones
How are activity levels for enzymatic samples determined?
- following the process of a known reaction often accompanied by a color change
disaccharides
- form as a result of of glycosidic bonding between two monosaccharide subunits
polysaccharides
- form by repeated monosaccharide or polysaccharide glycosidic bonding
nucleosomes
- formed by chromosomes wrapped around histone proteins - May be stabilized by histone protein H1
GLUT4
- found in adipose tissue and muscle - stimulated by insulin - low Km
3 ways to form Acetyl CoA
- from pyruvate via pyruvate dehydrogenase complex - from fatty acids which enter the mitochondria - from carbon skeletons of ketogenic amino acids, ketone bodies, and alcohol
Glycogenesis
- glycogen synthesis - the production of glycogen using glycogen synthase and branching enzyme
cerebrosides
- glycosphingolipids - have one sugar attached to sphingosine
globosides
- glycosphingolipids - have two or more sugars attached to sphingosine
titration of amino acids w/ charged side chain
- have an additional pKa value - pI is calculated by averaging the two pKa values that correspond to protonation and deprotonation of the zwitterion
steroid hormones
- have high affinity receptors (can be found intrecellularly) - work at low concentrations - affect gene expression and metabolism -secreted by endocrine glands into bloodstream
g-protein coupled receptors
- have membrane-bound protein associated with a trimeric G protein - initiate second messenger systems
motor proteins
- have one or more heads capable of generating force through a conformational change
ghrelin
- helps regulate body mass - hormone secreted by empty stomach - sends "I'm hungry" signals to the brain
orexin
- helps regulate body mass - hunger-triggering hormone - secreted by hypothalamus
Contribution of liver to metabolic activity
- hepatocytes maintain of blood glucose levels by glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in response to pancreatic hormone stimulation - participates in processing lipids and cholesterol, bile, urea, and toxins
succinyl Co-A synthetase
- hydrolyzes thioester bond in succinyl Co-A to form succinate and CoA-SH - generates one GTP
Glucocorticoids
- increase blood glucose in response to stress by mobilizing fat stores and inhibiting glucose uptake - increase the impact of glucagon and catecholamines
Glucagon
- increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in liver - secreted by pancreatic alpha-cells stimulated by both low glucose and high amino acid levels
the three stages of translation
- initiation - elongation - termination
lipid solubility
- insoluble in water - soluble in nonpolar organic solvent
postabsorptive state
- insulin secretion decreases - glucogon and catecholamine secretion increases - observed in short-term fasting (overnight) - transition to catabolic metabolism fasting state
DNA cloning
- introduces a fragment of DNA into a vector plasmid -restriction enzyme cuts both plasmid and fragment which are left with sticky ends - once the fragment binds to the plasmid it can be introduced into a bacterial cell and permitted to replicate, generating many copies of the fragment of interest - once replicated the bacterial cells can be used to create a protein of interest or can be lysed to allow for isolation of the fragment of interest from the vector
Elongation (translation)
- involves the addition of a new aminoacyl-tRNA into the A site of the ribosome and transfer of the growing polypeptide chain from the tRNA in the P-site to the tRNA in the A-site - the unchaerged tRNA pauses in the E-site before exiting the ribosome
Equilibrium and biochemical reactions
- is undesirable state because organisms need to harvest free energy to survive
single-stranded DNA binding proteins
- keep unwound strands from reannealing or being degraded
Centromeres
- located in the middle of chromosomes - hold sister chromatids together until they are separated during anaphase in mitosis - contain high GC-content to maintain strong bonds between chromatids
sphingomyelins
- major class of sphingophospholipids - contain phosphatidylcholine or phosphatydylethanolamine head group - major component of myelin sheath
membrane associated proteins
- may act as recognition molecules or enzymes
electron carrier
- may be soluble or membrane bound
Jacob-Monod Model
- model of repressors and activators - explains how operons work
Debranching enzyme
- moves a block of oligoglucose from one branch and connects it to the chain using alpha-1,4-glycosidic link - also removes branchpoint, which is connected via an alpha-1,4-glycosidic link, releasing a free glucose
branching enzyme
- moves a block of oligoglucose from one chain and adds it to the growing glycogen as a new branch using and aplpha-1,6 glycosidic link
applications of motor proteins
- muscle contraction - vesicle movement within cells - cell motility
missense mutations
- mutations that produce a codon for a different amino acid
silent mutations
- mutations with no effect on protein synthesis
common examples of motor proteins
- myosin - kinesin -dynein
anomeric carbon
- new chiral center formed in the ring closure - was the carbon containing the carbonyl in the staight chain form
saturation (lipids)
- no double bonds - determines fluidity of a membrane - makes membranes less fluid
Diastereomers
- nonsuperimposable configurations of molecules with similar connectivity - differ in at least one but not all chral carbons - include epimers and anomers
mismatch repair
- occurs during G2 phase of cell cycle - uses genes MSH2 and MLH1
Gluconeogenesis
- occurs in both cytoplasm and mitochondria - - predominantly in liver - small contribution from kidneys - mostly just the reverse of glycolysis using same enzymes - the three irreversible steps are bypassed using different enzymes
Glycolysis
- occurs in cytoplasm of all cells - does not require oxygen - yields 2 ATP per molecule of glucose
Pentose Phosphate Pathway (aka hexose monophosphate shunt) function?
- occurs in cytoplasm of most cells - generates NADH and sugars for biosynthesis (derived from ribulose 5-phosphate - rate limiting enzyme is Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
initiation of translation in prokaryotes
- occurs when the 30s ribosome attaches to the Shine-Delgarno sequence and scans for a start codon - ribosome lays down N-formylmethionine in the P-site
Termination (translation)
- occurs when the codon in A-site is a stop codon - release factor places a water molecule on the polypeptide chain and thus releases the protein
Terpenes
- odiferous steroid precursors steroid precurson made from isoprene - one unit is a monoterpene
three main reactions monosaccharides undergo
- oxidation-reduction - esterification - glycoside formation
pain purpose of citric acid cycle
- oxidize carbons in intermediates to CO2 and generate high energy electron carriers (NADH and FADH2) and GTP (which later becomes ATP)
Malate dehydrogenase
- oxidizes malate to oxaloacetate - generates third and final NADH of citric acid cycle
pyruvate dehydrogenase
- oxidizes pyruvate, creating CO2 - requires thiamine pyrophosphate (vitamin B1, TPP) and Mg2+
Dihydrolipoyl transacetylase
- oxidizes remaining two-carbon molecule using lipoic acid, and transfers the resulting acetyl group to CoA, forming acetyl CoA
Succinate Dehydrogenase
- oxidizes succinate to form fumarate - is a flavoprotein - anchored to inner mitochondrial membrane because it required FAD which is reduced to the one FADH2 generated in the citric acid cycle
pyruvate kinase
- performs substrate-level phosphorylation
phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
- phosphorylate fructose-6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate - rate limiting step of glycolysis - activated by AMP and fructose 2,6-bisphosphate - inhibited by ATP and citrate
Vitamin K
- phylloquinone and menaquinones - important for formation of prothrombin (clotting factor) - performs post-translational modifications on a number of proteins, creating calcium binding sites
substrate-level phosphorylation
- places inorganic Pi onto ADP to form ATP
amylopectin
- polysaccharide - alpha-D-glucase monomers attached by alpha-1,4 glycosidic bonds but also contains branches of alpha-1,6 glycosidic bonds - has one alpha-1,6 for every 25 alpha-1,4
starches
- polysaccharide - amylose and amylopectin - function as main energy storage from plants - have alpha-D-glucose monomers - more easily digestible by humans
glycogen
- polysaccharide main energy storage for animals - has an alpha-1,6 glycosidic linkage for every 10 alpha-1,4 linkages - soluble in solution
cellulose
- polysccharide -main structural component of plant cell walls - main source of fiber in human diet - beta-D-glucose molecules linked by Beta-1,4 glycosidic bonds
Trigycerides
- preferred method of storing energy for long term use - contain one glycerol attached to three fatty acids by ester bonds - carbon atoms in lipids are more reduced than carbohydrates, giving twice as much energy per gram during oxidation - very hydrophobic - not hydrated by body water and do not carry additional water weight
Tight junctions
- prevent paracellular transport - do not provide intercellular transport
nonsense mutations
- produce a premature stop codon. THINK: "its nonsense to stop early!!! (coming from mom)"
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
- produces NADH which can feed into electron transport chain
Catecholamines
- promote glycogenolysis and increase basal metabolic rate through their sympathetic nervous system activity (epi, norepi, dopamine)
glycoprotein coat
- protective - can function in cell recognition
primase
- puts a small, RNA primer to create an adjacent nucleotide to synthesize DNA
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
- rate limiting stem of PPP (HMP shunt) - activated by NADP+ and insulin - inhibited by NADPH
Enhancers
- regulatory sequences that are far from the promoter and activate transcription - more than 25 base pairs away from transcription start site
size-exclusion chromatography
- relies on porous bead - larger molecules elute first because they are not trapped in small pores
Glycogen Phosphorylase
- removes single glucose 1-phosphate molecule by breaking alpha-1,4-glycosidic links - activated in liver by glucagon to precent low blood sugar - activated in skeletal muscle by epinephrine and AMP to provide glucose to the muscle itself
Glycerophospholipids
- replace one fatty acid with a phosphate group, which is often linked to other hydrophilic groups
replisome
- replication complex - set of specialized proteins that assist the DNA polymerases
Active transport
- requires energy in the form of ATP or an existing favorable ion gradient
lagging strand
- requires many primers - synthesized in okazaki fragments
Resting skeletal muscle metabolism
- resting muscle conserves carbohydrates in glycogen stores - uses free fatty acids from the bloodstream
Frameshift mutation
- results from nucleotide addition or deletion - changes reading frame of subsequent codons
Shine-Delgarno sequence
- ribosomal binding site in bacterial and archaeal messenger RNA - generally located around 8 bases upstream of the start codon AUG. - helps recruit the ribosome to the messenger RNA (mRNA) to initiate protein synthesis by aligning the ribosome with the start codon.
soaps
- salts of free fatty acids - can be synthesized in saponification - act as surficatants forming micells
Transcription factors
- search for promoter and enhance regions in the DNA
leptin
- secreted fat cells - when abundant, causes brain to increase metabolism and decrease hunger - helps regulate body mass
What is used to determine an amino acid sequence
- sequential degradation such as Edman degradation
TATA box
- seven nucleotide promoter, in most eukaryotes, (TATAAAA) - crucial in forming the transcription initiation complex in eukaryotes - indicates where a genetic sequence can be read and decoded
How is amino acid composition determined?
- simple hydrolysis
monosaccharides
- single carbohydrate units - glucose most common
gangliosides
- sphingolipids containing oligosaccharides with at least one terminal N-acetylneuraminic acid (NANA; sialic acid)
sphingophospholipids
- sphingolipids that are also phospholipids - contain phosphodiester bond
polycistronic genes
- starting transcription in different sites within the gene leads to different gene products - used by prokaryotic cells to increase variability of gene products
cholesterol
- steroid - important to membrane fluidity and stability - serves as precursor to host of other molecules
beta-islet cells
- store and release insulin
Metabolism in adipose tissue
- stores lipids under the influence of insulin - releases lipids under the influence of epinephrine
Flavoproteins
- subclass of electron carrier - derived from riboflavin (B2)
Complex II
- succinate-CoQ oxidoreductase - uses iron-sulfur cluster to transfer electrons from succinate to FAD, and then to CoQ, forming CoQH2 - no proton pumping occurs
common disaccharides
- sucrose - lactose - maltose
hnRNA
- synthesized from the DNA template strand - Pre-mRNA
Km
- the concentration of substrate which permits the enzyme to achieve half Vmax - if high, has a low affinity for its substrate, and requires a greater concentration of substrate to achieve Vmax - if low, is normally saturated with substrate, and will act at a more or less constant rate, regardless of variations in the concentration of substrate within the physiological range.
ATP Synthase
- the enzyme responsible for generating ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi)
saponification
- the ester hydrolysis of triglycerols using a strong base like sodium or potassium hydroxide
Ribosomes
- the factories where translation (protein synthesis) occurs
urea cycle
- the liver combines ammonia with carbon dioxide to produce urea a less toxic wast -amino groups are fed to this for excretion
where does the electron transport chain take place?
- the matrix-facing surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane
Vitamin E
- tocopherols - acts as biological antioxidants - aromatic ring destroys free radicals, preventing oxidative damage
repressible system
- transcribed under normal conditions - can be turned off by a corepressor coupling with the repressor and the binding of this complex to the operator site
transfer RNA (tRNA)
- translates the codon into its correct amino acid
nativePAGE
- type of electrophoresis - maintains the protein's shape, but results are difficult to compare because the mass-to-charge ratio differs for each protein
Isoelectric focusing
- type of electrophoresis - separates proteins by their isoelectric point - the protein migrates toward an electrode until it reaches a region of the gel where pH=pI of the protein
SDS-PAGE
- type of electrophoresis -denatures the proteins and masks the native charge so that comparison of size is more accurate, but the functional protein cannot be recaptured from the gel
Coenzyme Q
- ubiquinone - A small non-protein electron carrier in the electron transport chain. - Mobile complex that picks up e- from complex 1&2 and transports to complex 3
3 main types of ion channels
- ungated channels - voltage-gated channels - ligand-gated channels
DNA polymerase
- used by eukaryotes - alpha, delta, epsilon - can synthesize a new strand of DNA - read template DNA 3'to5' - synthesize new strand 5'to3' - proofreads
DNA polymerase delta
- used by eukaryotes - fill in blank area created by the removal of the RNA primer with DNA
RNase H
- used by eukaryotes - removes RNA primer
DNA polymerase III
- used by prokaryotes - can synthesize a new strand of DNA - read template DNA 3'to5' - synthesize new strand 5'to3'
DNA polymerase I
- used by prokaryotes - remove RNA primers and fill in with DNA
DNA sequencing
- uses dideoxyribonucleotides to terminate the DNA chain because they lack 3' OH - resulting fragments can be separated by gel electrophoresis the sample can be read directly from gel
cardiac muscle metabolism
- uses fatty acid oxidation in both the well-fed and fasting states
Facilitated diffusion
- uses transport proteins to move impermeable solutes across the cell membrane - form of passive transport
Tollen's reagent
- utilizes Ag(NH3)2^+ as an oxidizing agent - in positive test, aldehydes reduce Ag+ to metallic silver
Assimilation vs Accommodation
-Assimilation: process of classifying new information into existing schemata -Accommodation: process by which an existing schema is modified to encompass this new information
Complex III
-CoQH2-cytochrome C oxidoreductase - uses an iron-sulfur cluster to transfer electrons from CoQH2 to heme, forming cytochrome c as part of the Q cycle - four protons translocated
Primary vs secondary process (Freud)
-Primary process: id's response to frustration -Secondary process: guides or inhibits activity of id and id's pleasure principle
titration of amino acids w/ no charged side chain
-curve is nearly flat at the pKa values of the amino acids - curve is nearly vertical at the pI of the amino acid
selectins
-example of cell adhesion molecule - allow cells to adhere to carbohydrates on the surfaces of other cells and are most commonly used in the immune system
cadherins
-example of cell adhesion molecule - calcium-dependant glycoproteins that hold similar cells together
integrins
-example of cell adhesion molecule - have two membrane spanning chains and permit cells to adhere to proteins in the extracellular matrix - some have signaling capabilities
ketone nomenclature when not highest priority group?
-oxo
Karen Horney
-personality is result of interpersonal relationships -primary concept is basic anxiety -Neurotic needs: each needs is directed toward making life and interactions bearable -Basic anxiety vs. basic hostility: vulnerability and helplessness vs. neglect and rejection
amylose
-polysaccharide - alpha-D-glucase monomers attached by alpha-1,4 glycosidic bonds
phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2)
-produces fructose 2,6-bisphosphate (F2,6-BP) that activates PFK-1 - activated by insulin - inhibited by glucagon
DNA polymerase gamma
-replicates mitochondrial DNA in EUK only THINK: "gamma" is like "gramma" ==> maternal
condensation reaction
-the nucleophilic amino group of one amino acid attacks the electrophilic carbonyl group of another amino acid
How does the mitochondrial membrane differ from the cell membrane?
-the outter mitochondrial membrane is highly permeable to metabolic molecules and small proteins - The inner mitochondrial membrane surrounds the mitochondrial matrix, where the citric acid cycle produces electrons used in the electron transport chain and where many other enzymes important in cellular respiration are located - The inner mitochondrial membrane does not always contain cholesterol
Tertiary structure
-the three dimensional shape of a single polypeptide chain (uses R groups to stabilize--> thinking cys-cys) - stablized by: - hydrophobic interactions - disulfide bonds - acid-base interactions - hydrogen bonding
How many GTP are produced in the citric acid cycle?
1
pyruvate dehydrogenase generates _______________ per molecule of pyruvate
1 NADH
cardiac muscle - how many nuclei? is it striated? is it voluntary?
1 or 2 nuclei, appears striated, but involuntary
Describe muscle contraction physiologically.
1-action potential causes Ca++ release, which binds troponin (which causes confirmation change to tropomyosin, exposing actin binding sites) 2-myosin binds actin 3- ADP- Pi release from myosin heads cause contraction 4- ATP binding causes relaxation 5- hydrolysis to ADP+ Pi allows for re-cocking of myosin head
post-transcriptional processing of pre-mRNA (cap) 1. what is the enzyme called that processes? 2. what does it attach to the 5' end? what is special about this? 3. what does this protect the transcript from? 4. what does it provide an attachment point for? 5. what does it enable it to do?
1. CEC (capping enzyme complex) attaches modified guanine to the 5' end (via unusual 5' to 5' linkage) -protects transcript from exonuclease degradation -attachment point for ribosomes -enables nuclear export
Formal organizations
1. Continue despite departure of an individual member 2. expressed goals recorded in a written format and guide the members and their activities 3. seek to control activities of their members 4. hierarchical allotment of formal roles or duties to members
Depression (physiological causes)
1. abnormally high glucose metabolism in in amygdala 2. hippocampal atrophy after long duration of illness 3. abnormally high levels of glucocorticoids (cortisol) 4. decreased norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine
Alzheimer's disease (biological markers)
1. diffuse atrophy of brain on CT/MRI 2. Flattened sulci in cerebral cortex 3. enlarged cerebral ventricles 4. deficient blood flow in parietal lobes -> cognitive decline 5. reduction in levels of acetylcholine 6. reduction in choline acetyltransferase (produces acetylcholine) 7. reduced metabolism in temporal and parietal lobes 8. senile plaques of B-amyloid 9. neurofibrillary tangles of hyperphosphorylated tau protein
Bipolar disorders (biological causes)
1. increased norepinephrine and serotonin 2. higher risk if parent has bipolar disorder 3. higher risk for persons with MS
5 HW conditions for equilibrium
1. large breeding population 2. random mating 3. no mutations 4. no immigration or emigration 5. no natural selection
Alzheimer's disease (genetic component)
1. mutations in presenilin genes on chromosomes 1 and 14 2. mutations in apolipoprotein E on c'some 19 3. Beta amyloid precursor protein gene on c'some 21
How many FADH2 are produced in the citric acid cycle per molecule of glucose?
2
How many GTP are produced in the citric acid cycle per molecule of glucose?
2
how many ATP does glycolysis yield?
2
how many NADH does glycolysis yield?
2
how many molecules of pyruvate does each glucose form?
2
what is the net production of NADH per glucose molecule
2
What contributes to the optimal yield of ATP per molecule of glucose?
2 ATP glycolysis 2 ATP (GTP) from citric acid cycle 25 ATP from NADH 3 ATP from FADH2
what would we expect to see if IgG antibody separated by DTT?
2 light chains and 2 heavy chains joined by disulfide bonds, DTT separates and appears as 2 bands on electrophoresis
What is primary active transport across a cell membrane?
2 molecules pumped against their gradients, use of secondary energy sourse
Gabriel synthesis
2 nucleophilic substitution steps followed by hydrolysis and decarboxylation
what is coevolution?
2 species evolve in response to each other
how often do intestinal cells divide?
2 times per day
SDS-PAGE -what does it determine?
2-D, determines molecular weights
How many ATP does each NADH yield?
2.5
How many NADH are produced in the citric acid cycle per molecule of glucose?
6
how to remember light spectrum
700nm-ROYGBIV-400nm NOTE: low to high ENERGY NOT WAVELENGTH
acceleration due to gravity
9.8 m/s2 (assume 10 for mcat)
what happens after ATP is hydrolyzed in muscle?
90 angle between actin and myosin cross bridge (contraction)
Lens power (in Diopters)
= 1 / F (focal length)
Transcriptase
A DNA polymerase enzyme that catalyzes the process of reverse transcription. Supplement. Reverse transcriptase makes use of RNA molecule as a template for the synthesis of a complementary DNA strand. It is produced by HIV and other retroviruses in order for them to synthesize DNA from their viral RNA.
Case-control study
A case-control study is one wherein subjects with a certain outcome are assessed for previous risk factors.
decomposition reaction
A chemical reaction in which one substance breaks down into two substances ( such as A->B+C)
Double displacement reaction
A chemical reaction in which two different compounds exchange an atom or ion to form two new compounds (such as AB+CD -> AD+ CB); also called a metathesis reaction.
Solute
A compound, commonly an ion, dissolved in a solvent to create a solution.
covalent bond
A covalent bond involves a pair of electrons being shared between atoms. Usually between two nonmetals.
Lewis definition
A definition of acids as electron pair acceptors and bases as electron pair donors.
Arrhenius definition
A definition of acids as producers of excess H+ and bases as producers of excess OH- in aqueous solutions.
Equilibrium
A dynamic point reached by a reversible reaction in which the rate of forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction. There is no net change in the concentrations of the products and reactants over time.
water dissociation cosntant
A expression of the auto ionization of water into h+ and OH- at a certain temperature, given by the product of the ions molar concentrations. Denoted by Kw, and equal to 10^-14 at 25 degrees C. Kw= (H+)(OH-)
Transition state
A high energy complex in which old bonds are partially broken and new bonds are partially formed. Charges existing only in the transition state are designated as partial charges.
Shortly after engulfing bacteria, macrophages undergo a "respiratory burst" characterized by substantial ATP production in matter of milliseconds. This metabolic activity is so intense that macrophages usually die after engulfing 40-50 bacteria. The purpose of the respiratory burst is most likely: A. to provide energy for the rapid acidification of phagosomes via proton pumps. B. to provide energy for microtubule motor proteins involved in endocytosis. C. to provide energy for rapid synthesis of signaling proteins. D. to provide energy to synthesize perforin and granzymes to lyse target cells.
A is correct. Bacteria must be promptly exposed to acidic conditions following phagocytosis. Otherwise, they could simply replicate within the phagosome and cause lysis of the immune cell. Macrophages can acidify their phagosomes to a pH approaching 1.5, which is extremely energetically demanding. As protons are pumped into the vesicles, the increased concentration of positive charge makes subsequent loading more difficult.
Cyclin and cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks) play an essential role in the regulation of the cell cycle. If a cell from a mutated line displays permanently reduced levels of both cyclin and Cdks, which consequence is most likely? A. The cell cycle would be prevented from occurring. B. The cell would rely on other growth factors to stimulate the cycle. C. The cell would lack the DNA proofreading mechanism that typically follows the S phase. D. The cell would complete the cycle more rapidly than usual.
A is correct. Cyclin and Cdks are crucial cell cycle regulators. Depending on the phase of the cycle, certain Cdks will be expressed at higher concentrations than others; this signals the cell to prepare for the next transition. In other words, the levels of these proteins are dynamic throughout the cell cycle. If this cell has perpetually low concentrations of cyclin and Cdks, it lacks the signaling molecules required to initiate and prep the cell for upcoming phases. B: As these proteins are described as "essential," they likely cannot be replaced by alternative molecules. C: DNA proofreading does not directly relate to cyclin. D: This might occur if levels of cyclin and specific Cdks were high, not low.
Interphase, which comprises the bulk of the cell cycle, is itself split into multiple phases. Which segment of interphase generally spans the longest period of time? A. G1 B. G2 C. G0 D. S
A is correct. During the G1 phase, the cell conducts protein and organelle synthesis at a high rate while the cell grows in size. The transition from the G1 to the S phase is termed the "restriction point" and constitutes the rate-limiting step in the cell cycle.
A follow-up experiment assaying for cell cycle arrest with radiolabeled [3H]-thymine indicated that CRC157 cells transfected with pC27-53 did not incorporate [3H]-thymine during DNA synthesis. Based on this information, at what regulation point in the cell cycle does WT p53 arrest cell growth? A. G1/S B. S/G2 C. G2/M D. M/G1
A is correct. Given that uracil, not thymine, is incorporated during transcription, the radiolabeled [3H]-thymine would only be incorporated during DNA (and not RNA) synthesis. DNA synthesis only occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle. Therefore, in order for p53 to prevent the uptake of [3H]-thymine, the protein must arrest the cell cycle prior to the S phase at the G1/S regulation checkpoint.
It was proposed that nucleic acids were composed of a single tetramer of four nitrogenous bases linked by a circular, sugar-phosphate backbone. What apparent weakness exists in applying this model of nucleic acid structure to the experimenters' conclusion regarding the source of genetic information? A. The model does not contain sufficient structural complexity to explain genetic variation. B. The model could not explain the relatively equal ratios of nitrogenous bases found in most cells. C. Nucleic acids would not be susceptible to cleavage by DNAse enzymes. D. The model cannot account for the significant quantity of nuclear material present in cells.
A is correct. If nucleic acids were composed of a nucleotide tetramer of only four bases, then the significant genetic complexity arising from the enormous number of possible linear sequences of single nitrogenous base-containing nucleotides of potentially significant length would not be possible. Choice A then describes the most significant weakness of this model. B: The model could, however, explain the relatively equal ratio of nitrogenous bases found in the cells of most organisms (depending upon the composition of the bases contained in the tetrameric nucleotides). C: Nothing about the described model suggests that the phosphoester linkages of the nucleotides would not be susceptible to hydrolysis by DNAase enzymes. D: The model could also explain the content of nuclear material present in cells (presuming that a sufficient quantity of individual nucleotide tetramers are present).
In cases of azoospermia, the lack of sperm generation most likely results directly from exogenous suppression of which hormone? A. FSH B. LH C. GnRH D. Somatotropin
A is correct. In both males and females, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) directly stimulates the maturation of germ cells. In females, it does so by stimulating the recruitment and growth of the immature ovarian follicle. In males, FSH stimulates primary spermatocytes to proceed through meiosis. B: A rapid rise in level of luteinizing hormone (LH) triggers ovulation and the development of the corpus luteum in women. In males, LH stimulates production of testosterone by Leydig cells. C: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is a hormone released by the hypothalamus in order to regulate the release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary. D: Excess production of somatotropin (aka growth hormone or GH) is extremely unlikely to cause azoospermia. GH is responsible for cell growth and regeneration and also plays a major role in maintaining the health of the brain and other vital organs.
The poly A tail I. signals the termination of protein translation. II. prevents enzymatic degradation of the transcript. III. is required for nuclear export. A. II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
A is correct. In many eukaryotic organisms, enzymatic degradation is triggered when the poly(A) tail becomes shorter than a certain length. I: While the poly(A) tail is located in the untranslated region of the mRNA transcript, it is not directly involved in signaling the termination of translation. This function is achieved by stop codons. III: This is true of the 5' cap, not the poly(A) tail.
A middle-aged man has a condition that impairs the synthesis of microtubule linking proteins. This disorder most likely impairs the function of: A. spermatozoa. B. macrophages. C. neurons in the central nervous system. D. osteoclasts.
A is correct. Microtubule linking proteins, as their name implies, are used to bind bundles of microtubules together. This is most notably observed in eukaryotic flagella. If these proteins cannot be synthesized, flagella will not work properly, and the function of cells that rely on these structures will be diminished. Of the listed cells, only spermatozoa (sperm cells) possess flagella.
what are the differences in the ways that glucose and aldosterone will cross and membrane?
A is correct. Molecule A is absorbed at a rate directly correlated with its concentration outside the cell, suggesting that it can easily diffuse through the membrane under any conditions. In contrast, molecule B seems to display Michaelis-Menten kinetics, with the concentration of the compound impacting rate at low, but not high, concentrations. This implies that a protein is required to transport the molecule inside the cell. Therefore, molecule A is likely small and nonpolar, while molecule B must be large, polar, or both.
Under the conditions given, which of the following neurons is most likely to fire an action potential? A. An unmyelinated neuron that receives multiple EPSPs that summate temporally B. An unmyelinated neuron that receives multiple IPSPs that summate spatially C. A myelinated neuron that receives a single EPSP D. A myelinated neuron that receives a single IPSP
A is correct. Myelination has no effect on neuron excitability. It only affects conduction velocity, which is irrelevant if the neuron never fires at all. Therefore, we can ignore the myelination aspect and choose an answer based on the described combination of input potentials. If more than one excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) arrives in a very short interval, the neuron cannot return to a resting potential in the time between the arrivals. Therefore, multiple inputs over a short span of time increase the likelihood of reaching threshold, which is necessary for an action potential to fire. B, D: Inhibitory post-synaptic potentials (IPSPs) will generally hyperpolarize a neuron or otherwise inhibit its firing.
Unlike the cells from which human organs are composed, the cell of a unicellular organism such as algae: A. has a genome where nearly all material codes for protein. B. typically utilizes mitosis for cellular division. C. can perform catabolic reactions to gain energy from macromolecules. D. contains membrane-bound organelles to execute cell functions.
A is correct. Nearly 95% of the human genome does not code for proteins or RNA. In contrast, the genomes of both prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes largely lack introns. In these organisms, most genetic material does code for protein products. B, C, D: These are all characteristics of human cells. The question asked for a trait that is unique to unicellular organisms.
In which of these stages do homologous chromosomes separate into distinct cells? I. Anaphase of meiosis I II. Anaphase of meiosis II III. Anaphase of mitosis A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. II and III only
A is correct. Remember the difference between homologous chromosomes and sister chromatids! Homologous chromosomes are the pairs of non-identical chromosomes that are present in every somatic cell. (For example, you inherit one version of chromosome 2 from your father and one from your mother; these structures are homologous.) These pairings separate during meiosis I, causing the daughter cells generated by this process to be haploid before the start of meiosis II. II, III: Both of these processes involve the separation of sister chromatids. Be especially careful when considering mitosis; as this event yields identical daughter cells, we would not want to segregate the different members of a pair of homologous chromosomes into separate cells.
A construction worker is taken to the hospital after an accident involving a nail gun. Upon examination, it is determined that a nail entered his torso at an angle that missed most vital organs and blood vessels. However, the nail lodged in his spine between two thoracic vertebrae and severed many of the frontmost nerves, though rear and middle nerves are unaffected. What symptoms will this injury likely cause for the worker? A. He will lose mobility in parts of the body below the injury. B. He will lose feeling in parts of the body below the injury. C. He will lose feeling below the injury, but only on the front side of the body. D. He will lose both feeling and mobility in parts of the body below the injury.
A is correct. Sensory, or afferent, tracts lie toward the rear (dorsal) side of the spinal cord. In contrast, motor, or efferent, tracts are positioned near the front (ventral) and lateral sides. If only the ventral nerves are severed, the worker should retain sensation in body parts below the injury, but will likely suffer problems with the mobility of both voluntary and involuntary muscles.
Proper eukaryotic DNA replication requires a number of enzymes. The elongation step of replication involves: I. DNA polymerase. II. Ter protein. III. initiation proteins. IV. the Dicer enzyme.
A is correct. The elongation process of DNA replication involves the addition of nucleotides to form a daughter strand complementary to the parent strand. DNA polymerase directly catalyzes this synthesis. II, III: While these molecules do serve functions in DNA replication, they are not involved in elongation. Ter protein acts during the termination step, while initiation proteins function in the initiation step. IV: The Dicer enzyme is involved in producing siRNA, not replicating DNA. Give feedback on this question
Vaccines routinely fail to provide lasting immunity because the antigen is rapidly cleared by local macrophages and neutrophils long before antigen-presenting cells can display it to the adaptive immune system. The effectiveness of a novel vaccine could be enhanced by: I. co-administration of alum, a substance that triggers production of inflammatory cytokines. II. co-administration of a live flu virus. III. co-administration of soluble immunoglobulin specific for the vaccine antigen. A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and III only
A is correct. The inflammatory process involves the recruitment of immune cells, including antigen-presenting cells, to the affected area. This maximizes the chance of the antigen being picked up and taken to a nearby lymph node. II: The presence of the flu virus does not stop local leukocytes from clearing the antigen in the vaccine. It takes several hours for antigen-presenting cells to sample the flu infection and migrate to the lymph node. During this time, the immune response is not yet fully active, and the antigen can be cleared without being presented. Any pathogen administered would need to cause a very rapid inflammatory response in order to have the desired effect. III: If anything, this would reduce the effectiveness of the vaccine. The foreign antibody would bind to the antigen, obscuring possible binding domains that could be used by host antibodies. Foreign antibodies cannot be utilized by host cells, even if they do bind harmful antigen with high specificity.
A neuroscientist observes that treatment of temporal neurons with a certain toxin causes a depolarization of approximately 8 mV as compared to the resting value, but no action potential. He hypothesizes that this is caused by the opening of additional voltage-gated sodium channels. Is this explanation reasonable, and if not, why? A. Yes; this explanation makes sense. B. No; the opening of additional sodium channels would cause a hyperpolarization, not a depolarization. C. No; such a depolarization must trigger an action potential, albeit a small one. D. No; the opening of additional sodium channels would cause the neuron to become more positive, not more negative.
A is correct. The opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels would allow sodium ions to enter the neuron. Such an action certainly should depolarize the cell. Furthermore, if only a small number of channels were opened, this effect would likely not be large enough to reach the threshold value. (Note: Be very careful when reading this question stem! The question stem did NOT state that the membrane potential reached +8 mV; it only said that it depolarized by 8 mV compared to the resting value. For example, if the resting potential were -70 mV, this depolarization would bring the potential to -62 mV.) C: This statement is not true. Action potentials are all-or-nothing in nature, so a subthreshold depolarization will not provoke a response. D: This answer mistakenly interprets the term "depolarization," which is used when a cell has become less negatively charged. In other words, the opening of Na+ channels certainly would cause the cell to become more positive, but that is exactly what the question states. Give feedback on this question
If the promoter of a gene is deleted, the overall rate of that gene's transcription would: A. decrease. B. increase. C. remain constant. D. This answer cannot be determined.
A is correct. The promoter is a DNA sequence upstream of its associated gene. RNA polymerase binds to this sequence to initiate transcription. If the promoter is deleted, transcription will not begin and the gene will not be transcribed.
A student is designing a DNA probe to detect the location of various sequences within the mouse genome. To make visualization as easy as possible, he adds a 5' poly(A) tail constructed with radiolabeled adenine to each primer. One of the genes of interest contains the sequence 5' GTTCGCGTTAAGG 3'. A possible primer used to identify this gene is: A. 5' AAAACCTTAACGCGAAC 3'. B. 5' AAAAAACGCGGGTTAAA 3'. C. 5' CCTTAACGCGAACAAAA 3'. D. 5' AAAACCUUAACGCGAAC 3'.
A is correct. This sequence is both complementary and antiparallel to the gene of interest and contains a 5' poly-A tail.
A certain protein release factor functions to specifically recognize stop codons and terminate translation. How many tRNA molecules bind to the same codons as this factor? A. None B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
A is correct. To ensure the proper termination of translation, stop codons are only recognized by protein release factors. In other words, no tRNA molecules bind to these codons, and they do not correspond to any amino acid residues. If tRNAs were able to recognize such codons, the translational machinery would be able to bypass them and produce inappropriately long protein chains.
Epididymis
A long, coiled duct on the outside of the testis in which sperm mature (become motile).
Reduction potential
A measure of the tendency of a species to be reduced, commonly used in identifying the anode and cathode of an electrochemical cell. AN OX, RED CAT.
Solvent
A medium, commonly liquid, into a which a solute is dissolved to create a solution.
Newton's Second Law
A non-zero net-force causes an object to accelerate in the direction of that force (F=ma)
noncompetitive inhibitors, can a noncompetitive inhibitor stop activity?
A noncompetitive inhibitor binds to a different site that is not the active site of the enzyme and changes the structure of the enzyme; therefore, it blocks the enzyme from binding to substrate, which stops enzyme activity
operator site
A nontranscribable region of DNA that is capable of binding a repressor protein
Isothermal process
A process that occurs at constant temperature (ΔU = 0)
reversible reaction
A process that will proceed bidirectionally to form both product and reactant.
repressor
A protein that suppresses the transcription of a gene.
Percent yield
A ratio (calculated as a percentage) of the actual mass of product yielded to the theoretical yield of product mass.
Endothermic reaction
A reaction that proceeds with the net absorption of heat from the surroundings.
Spontaneous reaction
A reaction that will proceed or occur on its own without additional energy input from its surroundings.
spontaneous reaction
A reaction that will proceed or occur on its own without additional energy input from its surroundings.
Octet rule
A rule stating that atoms tend to react in order to form a complete octet of valence electrons. Exceptions include hydrogen (stable with two electrons), Be (four), B (six), any element below period three (can have more than eight electrons and be stable); and molecules with an odd number of electrons.
plasma membrane
A selectively-permeable phospholipid bilayer forming the boundary of the cells
Amphoteric
A species capable of reacting as either an acid or base. In the brunets-Lowry sense, a species that can pick up or give off a proton. In the lewis sense, a species that can donate or accept a lone pair of electrons.
Reducing agent
A species that is oxidized as it reduces another species
inducer
A specific small molecule that inactivates the repressor in an operon.
Open system
A system that allows for the exchange of energy and matter across its boundaries
Polar covalent bond
A type of covalent bond between atoms with different electronegativities that results in an unequal sharing o electron pairs, giving the bond a partially positive and partially negative poles.
phagocytosis
A type of endocytosis in which a cell engulfs large particles or whole cells
Pinocytosis
A type of endocytosis in which the cell "gulps" droplets of fluid into tiny vesicles.
Continuity (fluids)
A v = constant and ρAv = constant
Process function
A variable that depends on the path taken to get from one state to another. Includes work and heat.
State function
A variable that depends only on the current state of a system, and not the the path taken to get there. Includes pressure, density, temperature, volume, enthalpy, internal energy, Gibb's free energy, and entropy.
Parasomnias
Abnormal movements or behaviors during sleep including night terrors and sleep walking
primary active transport
Active transport that relies directly on the hydrolysis of ATP.
Phonology
Actual sound of language; composed of building blocks called morphemes
Stages of Sleep
Alpha: awake but relaxing with eyes closed -Waves slower than beta waves Beta: high frequency and occur when person is alert or attending mental task that requires concentration Stage 1 Theta: Dozing off; slower frequencies and higher voltages Stage 2 shows theta waves along with sleep spindles and K complexes Stage 3 and 4 Delta: low frequency, high voltage sleep wave; becomes difficult to rouse someone from sleep
Resonance structures
Alternate lewis structures of the same molecule that show the delocalization of electrons within that molecule; Lewis structures that contribute to a resonance-stabilized system. Resonance structures have the same atomic connectivity but differ in the distribution of electrons.
ammeter vs voltmeter
Ammeter: measure current flowing through a specific point in a circuit Voltmeter: instrument used for measuring electrical potential difference between two points in an electric circuit.
titration
An analytical procedure in which a solution of known concentration is slowly added to a solution of unknown concentration to the point of molar equivalency, thereby providing the concentration of the unknown solution.
Constant volume calorimeter
An apparatus commonly referred to as a bomb calorimeter; used to measure the amount of heat absorbed or released during a reaction.
Galvanic cell
An electrochemical cell powered by a spontaneous oxidation-reduction reaction that produces an electric current; also called a voltaic cell.
electrolytic cell
An electrochemical cell that uses an external source to drive a non spontaneous (unfavorable) oxidation-reduction reaction.
Half-cell
An electrode immersed in an electrolytic solution that is the site of either oxidation or reduction in an electrochemical cell.
source monitoring error
An error that occurs when a memory derived from one source is misattributed to another source.
tautomerization
An example of how a ketone can act as a reducing agent (think carbohydrates)
Water dissociation constant
An expression of the auto ionization of water into H+ and OH- at a certain temperature, given by the product of the ions' molar concentrations. Denoted by Kw, and equal to 10^-14 at 25 degrees C. Kw=[H+][OH-]
Ionic bond
An ionic bond is a type of chemical bond formed through an electrostatic attraction between two oppositely charged ions. Ionic bonds are formed between a cation, which is usually a metal, and an anion, which is usually a nonmetal.
Newton's First Law
An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
Doppler effect
An observed change in the frequency of a wave when the source or observer is moving Source (subscript s): bottom Observer (subscript o): top NOTE FORMULA: Toward over away for each side of eq. Ex: detector away from source and source toward detector--> look at sign convention of formula (picture)--> - and + for numerator and denominator, respectively
disproportionation (dismutation)
An oxidation-reduction mechanism in which the same species is both oxidized and reduced
Anima vs. animus
Anima: feminine qualities in males (emotional) Animus: masculine qualities in females (power-seeking) sex-inappropriate qualities (ex. feminine behaviors in males and masculine behaviors in females) Jung
Antibonding orbitals
Antibonding orbitals are formed when the signs of the wave functions of two atomic orbitals are not the same. When oppositely charged wave functions are added together they add destructively. Destructive addition of wave functions creates higher energy orbitals than when the same charged wave functions add constructively to form bonding orbitals. Saying that an antibonding orbital is higher in energy than a bonding orbital is the same as saying that an antibonding orbital is less stable than a bonding orbital. This is always true, given that the higher the energy, the less stable something is. A wave function determines the probability of finding an electron. When wave functions add destructively there is a smaller chance of finding the electron in that orbital. When a bonding orbital forms and the wave functions add constructively, there is a greater chance of finding the electrons in that orbital. Thus, the higher probability of finding the electron is not in the antibonding orbitals.
Barbiturates
Anxiety-reducing and sleep medications; increase GABA activity which causes relaxation
Peg-word
Associates numbers with items that rhyme with or resemble the numbers
Family studies
Assumes that genetically related individuals are more similar genotypically than unrelated individuals
Impression management
Authentic self Ideal self: who we would like to be under optimal circumstances Tactical self: who we market ourselves to be when we adhere to others' expectations of us
Rooting reflex
Automatic turning of the head in the direction of a stimulus that touches the cheek such as a nipple during feeding
Heuristics
Availability heuristic: used when we try to decide how likely something is (ex. students who do not truly problem-solve on MCAT questions will be tempted by familiar-sounding answers merely because they can recall the statement being mentioned in the passage)
a = (vf-vi)/t
Average acceleration is the change in velocity over time.
𝑣=Δ𝑥/𝑡=(𝑥₂−𝑥₁)/𝑡
Average velocity is change in position (displacement) over a period of time.
Bats, birds, and butterflies all developed wings in order to utilize the sky and all of its associated advantages. What type of evolution is involved here? A. Parallel evolution B. Convergent evolution C. Coevolution D. Divergent evolution
B is correct. Convergent evolution occurs when entirely separate lineages gradually appear more similar over time. Here, bats, birds, and butterflies are very distantly related, but all evolve to possess wings through different mechanisms. In the end, these species resemble each other despite their genetic differences. A: Parallel evolution happens when closely related species evolve in a similar way over time. This differs from the question stem, where the three types of organism did not previously resemble each other as strongly. C: Coevolution requires that two species evolve in response to each other. The question gives no indication that bats evolved in part "because" birds did so, for example. D: Divergent evolution is the opposite of the situation described. In this phenomenon, two closely related lineages gradually become more dissimilar. Give feedback on this question
If the neomycin resistance gene on the pC27-53 and pC27-53X plasmids was abnormally susceptible to mutation, the most likely effect on the results from experiment 1 would be that: A. the number of colonies observed only for CRC157 and CRC184 transfected with pC27-53 would decrease. B. there would be a decrease in the number of colonies in all trials. C. the number of colonies observed only for CRC169 transfected with pC27-53 and pC27-53X would increase. D. there would be an increase in the number of colonies in all trials.
B is correct. If the neomycin resistance gene was unusually susceptible to mutation, then there would be an increased likelihood of a mutation rendering the resistance gene non-functional. Without that resistance, fewer colonies would be able to grow in the gentamicin solution. Thus there would be fewer colonies in all trials. A: A mutated non-functional resistance gene would reduce growth in all colonies, not just in certain cell lines. C, D: An absence of resistance wouldn't increase colonies - rather, the opposite. Give feedback on this question
Layer 2 might connect to Layers 1 and 3 through which of the following proteins? A. Connexin B. Fibronectin C. Cadherin D. Occludin
B is correct. Layer 2 is the basement membrane, which is connected to an epithelial layer (1) and the endothelium of the capillary (3). Epithelial cells such as these do not directly connect to collagen and other basement membrane fibers; instead, they contain transmembrane proteins known as integrins that can connect to collagen, or, more typically, to a bridging protein like fibronectin, which itself connects to collagen. A: Connexin is a gap junction protein and is not involved in this type of connection. C: Cadherins form cell-cell junctions, not junctions between the cell and the extracellular matrix. D: Occludin comprises tight cell-cell junctions.
If a laboratory researcher were hoping to isolate human ribosomes, which layer would be of most value? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 3 D. Blood cells do not contain ribosomes.
B is correct. Leukocytes, located in the "buffy coat" of Layer 2, are metabolically active and produce many proteins to fight pathogens and digest phagocytosed material. They would have abundant ribosomes that could be isolated for study. Erythrocytes are anucleate and therefore cannot produce RNA. These cells have no ribosomes and are unable to transcribe or translate.
A patient with persistent difficulties fighting off bacterial infections is found to have a genetic mutation that adversely affects the speed of phagocytosis in macrophages. This mutation most likely impairs which type of cytoskeletal polymer? A. Lamin filaments B. Actin filaments C. Microtubules D. Collagen fibers
B is correct. Macrophages must undergo rapid actin reorganization during phagocytosis. If a macrophage cannot engulf bacteria in this manner, its overall function would be considered very impaired. A, C: Lamin filaments and microtubules are not involved in phagocytosis. D: Collagen is not a cytoskeletal polymer; it is an extracellular fiber that is secreted by certain cell types.
All of the following statements regarding reverse transcriptase are false EXCEPT: A. it is produced by viral ribosomes. B. it is carried within the retroviral capsid and released into the cytosol following viral penetration. C. it is unable to use DNA as a template. D. it is unable to use RNA as a template.
B is correct. Reverse transcriptase must be carried intact within the capsid in order to process the RNA genome. Without reverse transcriptase, the RNA genome cannot be converted into DNA. A: Viruses do not have ribosomes. All viral proteins are produced at some point during the replication cycle by host ribosomes. C: This is incorrect. Reverse transcriptase first synthesizes a single strand of DNA from the viral RNA template. It then synthesizes a second complementary strand of DNA using the first DNA strand as a template. D: Reverse transcriptase uses the viral ssRNA genome as the initial template for DNA synthesis.
Which of the following statements are true regarding spermatogenesis? I. Meiosis I marks the transition of a spermatogonium into a primary spermatocyte. II. In a secondary spermatocyte, sister chromatids are still paired in the same cell. III. Immediately before the second meiotic division, cells are diploid but chromosomes lack replicated copies. A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. I, II, and III
B is correct. Spermatogonia give rise to primary spermatocytes before meiosis even begins. Meiosis I, then, marks the division of a primary spermatocyte into two secondary daughter cells. At the end of meiosis I, which is also known as reductional division, cells are already haploid; however, chromosomes retain their identical copies in the form of attached sister chromatids. This makes statement II accurate. I: Again, meiosis I produces secondary spermatocytes. III: This choice can be evaluated using general knowledge about meiosis. Remember, the products of meiosis I are haploid cells.
Of these pairings, which accurately group(s) an organelle with one of its functions? I. Rough ER - synthesis of transmembrane proteins II. Nucleolus - rRNA production and ribosome assembly III. Peroxisome - breakdown of proteins A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
B is correct. The rough ER is dotted with bound ribosomes that serve to produce a wide variety of proteins. These products include transmembrane proteins, making option I is correct. Additionally, option II accurately describes the main function of the nucleolus. This region within the nucleus is vital for the synthesis of ribosomes from protein and rRNA. III: Peroxisomes are small membrane-bound organelles that function mainly to break down lipids. In contrast, lysosomes facilitate the enzymatic catabolism of protein. Give feedback on this question
The G2-M checkpoint: A. ensures that the cell is of sufficient size to undergo mitosis. B. ensures that the DNA has been replicated accurately. C. functions only in gametes. D. sends cells directly to the G0 phase if it is not passed.
B is correct. This position, often known specifically as the G2-M DNA damage checkpoint, occurs soon after the S phase of the cell cycle. It is crucial to ensuring that the recently-replicated DNA was copied accurately; if not, mitosis will not occur. A: This is the function of the G1-S checkpoint. Here, the cell assesses whether it has enough organelles and is large enough to proceed to DNA replication. D: While this is a possibility following the G1 phase, it will not occur immediately after G
Patients in respiratory arrest typically require assistance via positive-pressure breathing. In contrast to negative-pressure breathing, this technique: A. is the primary physiological breathing mechanism in healthy mammals. B. can exert excessive pressure on the great vessels, reducing venous return to the heart. C. relies on the pressure differential generated across the pleural cavity during inspiration. D. None of the above are correct.
B is correct. When air is forced into the lungs, pressure in the mediastinum (the cavity that houses the heart and largest vessels) increases. As fluid tends to flow from high to low pressure, this can partially occlude blood flow back to the heart. Negative-pressure breathing suffers from no such negative effects. A: Negative-pressure breathing is the primary mechanism used for mammalian respiration. While some amphibians do use positive-pressure breathing, this choice is still incorrect. C: This choice describes a characteristic of negative-pressure breathing. Expansion of the thoracic cavity leads to decreased pressure in the pleural cavity, resulting in a subsequent increase in lung volume. In contrast, positive-pressure breathing simply forces air into the lungs to provoke expansion.
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
Base: most primitive, essential, and important needs First four levels: physiological needs, safety, security, love and belonging, and self esteem Highest level: self-actualization
Positively charged AA
Baseball: HR or K
Behaviorist perspective
Based heavily on concepts of operant conditioning; Token economies used as rewards for positive behavior (ex. privileges, treats, other reinforcers) Behaviorism is concerned with how environmental factors (called stimuli) affect observable behavior (called the response). The behaviorist approach proposes two main processes whereby people learn from their environment: namely classical conditioning and operant conditioning.
Cannon-bard theory of emotion
Bear causes increased sympathetic NS AND scared emotion simultaneously.
Cultural capital
Benefits one receives from knowledge, abilities, and skills or assets that give us social mobility. These assets are both tangible and intangible, as with skills and music taste; but importantly, they are not related to income, net worth, or any financial measure.
Posterior chamber
Between the iris and the lens
Heroin
Body metabolizes heroin to morphine
Cancer cells frequently exist in an immunologically privileged environment within the body. This is accomplished by production of high levels of cytokines, including transforming growth factor (TGF). Of the following, the cells that are most likely activated by TGF are: A. cytotoxic T cells. B. natural killer (NK) cells. C. suppressor T cells. D. dendritic cells
C is correct. Activation of suppressor T cells triggers production of a cytokine cocktail that inactivates other immune cells, including the cytotoxic T cells and NK cells that are vital for tumor elimination. A, B, D: These cells would enhance the immune response. We are told that cancer cells are "immunologically privileged," implying that the immune system in their region is suppressed.
Which of the following choices accurately identifies a property of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)? I. DNA carries the instructions necessary for all cellular functions. II. DNA forms a double helix that is held together by hydrophobic interactions between the nitrogenous bases. III. DNA can be found in a supercoiled structure when it is not being actively transcribed or replicated. A. I only B. III only C. I and III only D. I, II, and III
C is correct. As genetic material, DNA codes for every molecule and function within the cell. It also forms a supercoiled state so it can be more compact when not needed for replication or transcription. II: While DNA does form a helix, it is held together by H-bonds, not hydrophobic interactions.
Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the conversion of water and carbon dioxide to carbonic acid. This process is a crucial part of the maintenance of a buffered blood pH. Which metal cofactor is necessary for carbonic anhydrase to function? A. Platinum B. Iron C. Zinc D. Magnesium
C is correct. Carbonic anhydrase is a metalloenzyme that catalyzes the reversible reaction between carbon dioxide and water. The active site of this enzyme contains a zinc molecule.
Injuries to cartilaginous tissue, such as torn and stretched ligaments, can often take quite some time to heal. Which statement best explains why injuries to this type of connective tissue heal so slowly? A. Cartilage does not contain cells, only fibers; therefore, cells must migrate from other parts of the body to repair it. B. Cartilaginous fibers must be exposed to an enzyme to assure full tensile strength, and the mechanical stress placed on healing cartilaginous tissue tends to disrupt the action of this enzyme. C. Cartilage relies on diffusive rather than direct vascular delivery of nutrients, and repairing cells therefore have a hard time sustaining increased activity. D. Cartilaginous fibers are slow to divide, and an injury only slightly increases the reproduction rate of such fibers.
C is correct. Cartilage is not vascularized, and therefore cannot easily obtain the nutrients necessary to rebuild damaged tissues. Instead, it must rely on diffusion from the surrounding ECM. A: Cartilage does contain chondrocytes, making this statement incorrect. B: This explanation is entirely made up. D: The fibers in cartilage are proteins, not cells, making this false.
The activity of a Class I transposon, also known as a retrotransposon, involves: I. a conversion of DNA to RNA. II. a conversion of RNA to DNA. III. the production of an additional copy of the transposon. IV. an end result of the same total number of transposons. A. I and III only B. II and IV only C. I, II, and III only D. I, II, and IV only
C is correct. Class I transposons are known as "copy-and-paste" transposons, as they involve the creation of a new copy of the transposable element. These elements first undergo transcription into RNA using RNA polymerase; as their name implies, they are then reverse transcribed back into DNA and placed in a distinct location elsewhere in the genome. IV: This would be the case with a Class II, or "cut-and-paste," transposon.
During normal development in the seminiferous tubules, what class of Tex11 non-expressing somatic cells is responsible for nourishing sperm cells? A. Leydig cells (What do these do?) B. Chromaffin cells (what do these do?) C. Sertoli cells (what do these do?) D. Granulosa cells (what do these do?)
C is correct. During spermatogenesis, the main function of Sertoli cells is to nourish the developing sperm cells. These cells are located in the epithelial lining of the seminiferous tubules and are activated by FSH. A: Leydig cells are adjacent to the seminiferous tubules in the testicles. In response to stimulation by LH, they produce testosterone and other androgens. B: Chromaffin cells are catecholamine-secreting neuroendocrine cells of the adrenal medulla. Remember, the catecholamines include epinephrine and norepinephrine. D: Granulosa cells are follicular cells closely associated with the developing female oocyte (egg). They function to convert thecal androgens to estradiol prior to ovulation. After ovulation, they give rise to the corpus luteum and begin producing high levels of progesterone.
A bacterium has a faulty lac operon in which there is a structural defect in the operator. In this bacterium: A. there is a mutation in a segment of DNA that binds a promoter. B. a missense mutation is found in the gene that codes for the repressor. C. there is a structural problem with a segment of DNA that binds a repressor. D. there will be no proteins available capable of digesting lactose. **In the lac operon, what is the operator?
C is correct. In the lac operon, the operator is the segment of DNA that binds to the repressor. In the absense of functional repressor/operator binding, the cell will constitutively produce the proteins needed for lactose metabolism. Although this may not be fatal to the cell, it will waste energy if the surroundings lack lactose. A: The promoter is a segment of DNA. It binds to RNA polymerase. B: The operator binds to the repressor. The repressor is coded elsewhere. D: This is false; without functional operator/repressor binding, the cell's lactose-digesting machinery will be "stuck on."
Pinocytosis, sometimes called "cell drinking," involves the engulfment of extracellular fluid and any associated solutes by one or more vesicles. Pinocytosis is a form of: I. passive transport. II. active transport. III. phagocytosis. IV. endocytosis. A. I only B. I and III only C. II and IV only D. II, III, and IV
C is correct. Pinocytosis is a specific form of endocytosis. As such, it requires large amounts of ATP and is certainly classified as active transport. I: Passive transport is that which does not require energy, typically involving materials moving down a gradient of some kind. III: While phagocytosis is also a specialized type of endocytosis, pinocytosis is not a form of phagocytosis.
Eukaryotes perform aerobic respiration in the mitochondria by pumping protons into the intermembrane space. What membrane do prokaryotes use to perform this function? A. The cell wall B. The inner mitochondrial membrane C. The plasma membrane D. None of the above; prokaryotes cannot utilize aerobic respiration mechanisms.
C is correct. Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles and therefore cannot use either mitochondrial membrane. In addition, not all prokaryotes have cell walls. This leaves the plasma membrane as the most likely structure across which a proton gradient is established.
Which of these components is / are involved in prokaryotic transcription and its regulation? I. Repressor proteins II. Promoter DNA sequences III. Activator proteins IV. Enhancer DNA sequences A. I only B. III only C. I, II, and III only D. I, II, and IV only
C is correct. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcriptional regulation requires transcription factors, including repressor and activator proteins. Repressors inhibit gene expression by blocking specific regions of the DNA or by preventing RNA polymerase from attaching to the promoter. In contrast, activators upregulate transcription by binding to either operators (in prokaryotes) or enhancers (in eukaryotes). Finally, promoters are essential in both types of organisms, since they function as the DNA sequences to which RNA polymerase initially binds. IV: Enhancers are regulatory DNA sequences found only in eukaryotes. In prokaryotes, the operator serves as the regulatory DNA region instead. E (enchancers) is in Eukaryotes, while O (operator) is in prOkaryotes
Although eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes in many significant ways, their replication, transcription, and translation mechanisms are fairly similar. However, notable distinctions can be seen. Which of these aspects of translation is uniquely prokaryotic? A. Efficient translation requires elongation factors. B. Translation occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. C. Translation requires multiple release factors (RFs). D. Translation depends on ribosomes, which are associated with the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
C is correct. Prokaryotic translation does rely on the presence of several release factors. In contrast, eukaryotes need only one such factor: eukaryotic translation termination factor 1 (eRF1). This answer can also be found through elimination. A, B: These are characteristics of both eukaryotic and prokaryotic translation. D: While both forms of translation certainly require ribosomes, remember that prokaryotes entirely lack membrane-bound organelles. For this reason, a prokaryotic cell would not have a rough endoplasmic reticulum.
If Patient #2 were allowed to completely recover from his infection and was then immunologically challenged with a different strain of the pathogen, how would his response differ from his previous response, shown in the figure? A. Antibody production would begin much sooner after initial exposure. B. Antibody titer would ultimately reach higher levels. C. No significant difference in immune response would be seen. D. No increase would occur, since serum antibody levels would already be sufficiently elevated from the previous infection.
C is correct. Resistance to a particular strain of pathogen does not inherently confer resistance to other strains. There is no reason to assume that this patient would have a more robust or rapid response to the new strain.
For some time, long-term potentiation (LTP) was thought to be the primary molecular mechanism by which new memories are consolidated and archived within the brain. Recently, it has become clear that long-term depression (LTD) may also be critical for effective memory formation. Although LTD technically weakens existing synapses and reduces the chances of neuronal conduction, it may be necessary to reduce interference and promote synchrony. Which cellular change could be a component of LTD, but not LTP? A. CaMKII-mediated phosphorylation of AMPAR, which reduces the threshold voltage for channel opening B. Increased transcription of AMPAR subunit RNA C. PKC-mediated phosphorylation of AMPAR, which reduces the affinity of AMPAR for scaffolding proteins D. Increased mitochondrial activity in response to increased metabolic load
C is correct. Scaffolding proteins provide critical structure to the postsynaptic density, which prevents free diffusion of AMPAR out of the synapse and also prevents endocytotic sequestration. Phosphorylation that promotes detachment from intracellular scaffolds would loosen the positioning of AMPAR, potentially permitting its endocytosis and causing a subsequent reduction in synaptic activity. A: A reduction in the threshold would allow the channel to open more readily. In other words, a potential could then be generated in response to a relatively low degree of depolarization. This is a sensitizing effect, and would probably be a component of LTP, not LTD. B: Increased production of AMPAR would greatly increase the sensitivity of the postsynaptic neuron to neurotransmitter signaling. This is not consistent with the description of LTD provided in the question stem. D: This option is extremely vague. Both catabolic and anabolic processes require energy, so mitochondrial activity could increase during both LTD and LTP.
Latrotoxin (LTX), a large globular protein produced by Latrodectus spiders, acts to perforate the presynaptic membrane at the axon terminal. The resulting channel is large enough to permit the free influx of calcium, as well as the passage of water and other small molecules. A Latrodectus bite would most likely result in: I. swelling of the axon terminal. II. fusion of docked vesicles with the plasma membrane. III. widespread release of glutamate within the CNS. IV. widespread release of acetylcholine within the PNS. A. I and II only B. III and IV only C. I, II, and IV only D. I, II, III, and IV
C is correct. Swelling will result from the movement of water down its concentration gradient and into the neuron, which contains many large proteins and other solutes that contribute to its hypertonicity. Fusion of presynaptic vesicles is mediated by an increase in intracellular calcium, which the question mentions as a consequence of LTX action. Finally, in the peripheral nervous system, LTX will cause the widespread release of the principal motor neurotransmitter, acetylcholine. III: We are told that the toxin is a large globular protein. Thus, it is unlikely to cross the blood-brain barrier, which is only permeable to small, hydrophobic molecules or those with a specific transporter. The toxic effects of LTX are most likely the result of peripheral activity.
In an isolated cave, two bat species are discovered and found to share a distant ancestor. The ears of the two species seem to have adapted to find different sizes of prey using echolocation. When crossed, individuals of the distinct species are unable to produce a virile litter. This situation exemplifies: A. parapatric speciation. B. peripatric speciation. C. sympatric speciation. D. allopatric speciation.
C is correct. Sympatric speciation is that which occurs without a physical barrier. A population that diverges into two separate species in a single cave certainly falls under this form of speciation. A: Parapatric speciation occurs when segments of two distinct populations overlap. Due to environmental differences, these segments may develop into two species, but individuals in the overlapping areas can typically still interbreed. B, D: Allopatric speciation occurs when populations, or parts of the same population, are separated by a physical barrier. Peripatric speciation is a subtype of this concept that occurs specifically when one of the two populations is much smaller than the other.
A number of diverse hypotheses have been proposed to explain the phenomenon of autoimmunity. One theory attributes it to defective clonal selection in the thymus, resulting in the inadvertent survival of autoreactive T cells. Which of the following, if true, would provide the strongest support for this hypothesis? A. Patients suffering from autoimmune sarcoidosis have an extremely high rate of transplant rejection from unrelated donors. B. Surgical thymectomy and bone marrow ablation is often indicated for treatment of autoimmune myasthenia gravis. C. T cells isolated from patients with diabetes show strong affinity for HeLa cells induced to express insulin receptors and MHC. D. Autoimmune patients show substantial improvement when treated with high doses of ionizing radiation.
C is correct. T cells should not recognize "self" antigens like the insulin receptor. The immune cells mentioned clearly did not undergo apoptosis during clonal selection, like they should have. This supports the hypothesis by implicating T cells in the process of autoimmunity. A: A transplant from an unrelated donor normally results in the introduction of foreign antigens to the recipient. Excessive reaction to such antigens does not suggest a specific reason for autoreactivity to "self" antigens. B, D: Both of these procedures cause complete loss of immunocompetence, which proves nothing about the role of T cells in autoimmune pathology. Irradiating a patient or removing his thymus and bone marrow removes his ability to mount an immune response to any antigen, but does not specifically implicate T cells or clonal selection failures.
If trauma causes a cell to dramatically shorten the length of its S phase, what compensatory mechanism might occur? A. The cell would not produce viable daughter cells. B. The cell would enter the G0 phase. C. The cell would spent a longer period of time in the G2 phase. D. None; the cell would be unable to correct any errors that occurred.
C is correct. The S phase is responsible for DNA replication. A drastically impaired S phase, then, is likely to yield a cell with an incomplete or inaccurately replicated genome. As a result, this cell would be prevented from passing the G2-M checkpoint, which ensures correctness in DNA replication. Instead of quickly entering mitosis, it will spend additional time in the G2 phase to correct the errors generated by the traumatic event.
A patient actively infected with human papillomavirus (HPV) was found to have high serum antibody levels. HPV is a non-enveloped DNA virus. Antibodies isolated from this patient would most likely show high affinity for: A. E1, a protein responsible for binding nuclear pores. B. E4, a protein that regulates transcription of viral DNA. C. L9, a viral capsid protein. D. integrase, a protein responsible for inserting viral DNA into the host genome.
C is correct. The capsid is the only choice that could possibly have been exposed to the surrounding environment before the virus entered the cell. All other choices either are concealed within the viral capsid or would be produced much later in the viral life cycle. Antibodies are involved in extracellular defense, meaning that an effective immune response would need to consist of antibodies specific for an antigen exposed prior to cellular penetration.
Which of the following conditions is / are most likely to cause a substantial decrease in tidal volume? I. Acute asthma II. Late pregnancy III. Narcotic overdose IV. Pulmonary embolism A. I only B. I and IV only C. II and III only D. I, III, and IV only
C is correct. The substantial volume occupied by the gravid uterus does, in fact, decrease the ability of the lungs to expand, reducing tidal volume. Overdose on a narcotic decreases respiratory drive, resulting in a decrease in both the rate and the depth of breathing. I: Asthma results from the narrowing of bronchioles, which inhibits the effective movement of air into and out of the lungs. This condition does not alter tidal volume. IV: Pulmonary embolism is a circulatory, not a respiratory, problem. It does not disrupt the ability of the lungs to expand or conduct air. Although they are in imminent danger, patients with pulmonary emboli display clear lung sounds with effective movement of air.
A cellular abnormality results in the rapid production of sense RNA that is complementary to a large portion of a certain gene. What will most likely happen to the transcription of that gene? A. siRNA will bind to the RISC and quickly destroy any mRNA produced. B. The antisense gene will not be transcribed. C. Transcription of the gene will largely be unaffected. D. The abnormality will trigger apoptosis of the cell.
C is correct. This question requires understanding of the complementary DNA strands involved in transcription. One strand is the sense (non-template) strand, while the other is the antisense (template) strand. mRNA is transcribed directly from the antisense strand, giving it the same base sequence as the sense strand. Thus, the production of sense RNA will not affect the corresponding antisense strand, which is the strand that acts as a template for transcription.
A clinical trial for an experimental form of birth control involves injecting patients with progestin, or synthetic progesterone. If a woman receives this injection during the early part of the follicular phase, and if its effects persist for approximately three weeks, what can be expected to occur? A. The woman's menstrual cycle will proceed as usual. B. The woman's blood will contain augmented levels of LH and FSH. C. The woman will not experience ovulation at the usual time. D. The woman will actually face an enhanced probability of becoming pregnant.
C is correct. Typically, estrogen and progesterone negatively feed back on gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). As a result, high levels of these steroids lead to reduced release of LH and FSH. As a surge in LH is required to stimulate ovulation, persistently high progesterone levels near the beginning of the menstrual cycle will prevent this woman from ovulating - at least until the effects wear off.
Women over 35 years of age have an increased risk of nondisjunction due to errors in what phase of meiosis? A. Prophase I B. Metaphase I C. Anaphase II D. Prophase II
C. Nondisjunction is the failure of chromosomes to separate properly during anaphase I of meiosis or the failure of sister chromatids to separate properly during anaphase II of meiosis. A, B, D: Nondisjunction will not occur in any of these phases.
Magnetic field (straight wire)
Can't have the donut (loop), go straight for the pi
Parallel plate capacitance
Capacitors are CAkEd with charge (C = A𝜅𝜀0/d).
Gordon Allport
Cardinal traits: traits around which a person organizes his or her life Central traits: major characteristics of the personality that are easy to infer, like honesty and charisma Secondary traits: other personality characteristics that are more limited in occurrence: aspects of one's personality that only appear in closer groups or specific social situations
Representativeness heuristic
Categorizing items on a basis of whether they fit the prototypical, stereotypical, or representative image of the category (ex. a standard coin that is flipped ten times in a row and lands on heads every time. What is the probability of the coin landing on heads the next time? Probability is still 50% but people will overestimate or underestimate the prediction)
Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
Caused by a deficiency of thamine and characterized by severe memory impairment with changes in mental status and loss of motor skills
Sleep deprivation
Causes REM rebound, which is earlier onset and greater duration of REM sleep compared to normal
Impulse (I)
Change in momentum = Δp
Chylomicrons
Chylomicrons are rich in triacylglcerols since its primary function is to transport dietary fats and cholesterol to other tissues, and are produced in the small intestine.
Key enzymes of the citric acid cycle
Citrate synthase aconitase isocitrate dehydrogenase alph-ketogluterate dehydrogenase complex succinyl-CoA synthetase succinate dehydrogenase fumarase malate dehydrogenase
Freud - Defense mechanisms
Clash of id and superego Main defense mechanisms: 1. repression - ego's way of forcing undesired thoughts and urges to unconscious 2. suppression - deliberate, conscious form of forgetting 3. regression - faced with stress, older children return to earlier behaviors like thumb-sucking, throwing temper tantrums, clinging to their mothers 4. reaction formation - individuals suppress urges by unconsciously converting them into their exact opposites 5. projection - attribute their undesired feelings to others 6. rationalization - justification of behaviors in a manner that is acceptable to the self and society 7. displacement - describes transference of undesired urge from one person or object to another 8. sublimation - transformation of unacceptable urges into socially accepted behavior
exons
Coding segments of eukaryotic DNA.
Bronsted-Lowry definition
Common definition of acids as proton (H+) donors and bases as proton acceptors.
What ETC complex does not move H+ to inner membrane space?
Complex II
Secondary reinforcer
Conditioned reinforcer
Arcuate fasciculus
Connects Broca's area and Wernicke's area; it is a bundle of axons allowing appropriate association between language comprehension and speech production
Implicit (nondeclarative) memory
Consists of our skills and conditioned responses
A nucleotide consists of: A. a five-carbon sugar and a nitrogenous base only. B. a five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and exactly one phosphate group. C. a nitrogenous base and one to three phosphate groups. D. a five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and one to three phosphate groups.
D is correct. A nucleotide consists of a sugar (either ribose or deoxyribose), a nitrogenous base, and at least one phosphate group.
A pharmacologist is testing the vasoconstrictive effects of caffeine on thermoregulation. He theorizes that, in cold weather, caffeine consumption can have a warming effect on the body by promoting the constriction of smooth muscle in arterioles. In what way is this hypothesis incorrect? A. As capillaries have the largest combined surface area of all vessel types, they are the structures that would undergo the majority of overall vasoconstriction. B. Blood vessels contain cardiac muscle, not smooth muscle. C. Vasodilation, not vasoconstriction, warms the body when ambient temperatures are low. D. None of the above; this theory is perfectly accurate.
D is correct. Arteries, arterioles, veins, and venules contain walls with a layer of smooth muscle. When this muscle constricts in vessels near the body's surface, blood is shunted away from the colder external environment. In this fashion, vasoconstriction helps to keep blood near the body's warmer core. A: Overall, capillaries do claim a higher combined cross-sectional area than arterioles. However, capillary walls are composed solely of a one-cell-thick layer of endothelium to facilitate gas exchange. For this reason, while caffeine would certainly promote vasoconstriction somewhere, it would not be in the capillaries. B: Only the heart itself contains cardiac muscle; the linings of arterioles and other vessels include smooth muscle. C: This statement is untrue. Dilation of vessels near the skin would cause more blood to be carried close to the body's surface. As a result, heat would dissipate and body temperature would actually drop further.
A congenital defect in the synthesis of the proteins cloudin and occludin is most likely to impact the function of the: A. lung vasculature. B. peripheral nerves. C. gastric musculature. D. intestinal lining.
D is correct. Cloudin and occludin are the proteins that form tight junctions between epithelial cells. Therefore, any organ that relies on tight junctions will be negatively affected if their synthesis is impaired. If the intestinal lining is to properly absorb nutrients while leaving behind undesired materials, free diffusion cannot be permitted between the digestive ECM and the lumen of the digestive tract. Tight junctions seal the gaps between epithelial cells in the intestine, allowing cells to selectively control what passes through the epithelium through the use of transmembrane transport proteins. Without tight junctions, nutrient concentrations would equalize due to diffusion through the epithelium, vastly decreasing the efficiency of the GI tract.
Latrunculin, a toxin produced by marine sponges of the genus Latrunculia, acts by binding to actin monomers and preventing their polymerization. Which cell function would be most directly sabotaged by this toxin? A. Centrosome polarization B. DNA replication C. Mitotic spindle formation D. Cytokinesis
D is correct. Cytokinesis involves a contracting ring of actin microfilaments that pinches the two daughter cells apart. Preventing actin monomers from polymerizing will inhibit the filament reorganization necessary for cytokinesis to occur. Even if we did not know this information, none of the other answers are sensible. A: Centrosome polarization involves microtubules, not actin. Specifically, microtubule extension pushes the centrioles to opposite sides of the cell during mitosis. B: DNA replication is independent of the activity of actin. C: The formation of the mitotic spindle also involves microtubules, which organize themselves around the centriole.
Which of the following DNA oligomers, if in a double-stranded alpha helix conformation, would melt at the lowest temperature? A. 5'-CGCGCGTATCGACAAG-3' B. 5'-GGCGCGTATCGACAAG-3' C. 5'-GACGCGTCTCGACGGC-3' D. 5'-GATGCATATCGATAAA-3'
D is correct. Double-stranded DNA comes apart (melts) into two single-stranded fragments at elevated temperatures. Because there are three hydrogen bonds holding C and G residues together and only two such bonds between A and T, the more A/T residues in a segment, the lower the melting point. Conversely, the more C/G residues, the higher the melting point. Among the segments listed, choice D has the most A/T residues and thus the lowest melting point.
In normal human extracellular fluid, the concentration of Na+ is approximately 140 mEq/L. A beaker of water is filled with a solution with exactly that sodium concentration. If a water-permeable synthetic cell is dropped in the beaker, what NaCl concentration can it have and still lose water to its environment? A. [NaCl] > 140 mEq/L B. [NaCl] < 140 mEq/L C. [NaCl] > 70 mEq/L D. [NaCl] < 70 mEq/L
D is correct. For a water-permeable (but not solute-permeable) cell to lose water via osmosis, its contents must be hypotonic relative to its environment. In other words, it must include relatively less solute. Here, the extracellular fluid has a sodium ion concentration of 140 mEq/L, meaning that any cell with a smaller ion concentration should leak water. However, NaCl is virtually completely soluble in water, so 70 mEq/L of NaCl will dissociate into 140 mEq/L Na + and Cl- ions.
All of the following are true of genetic drift EXCEPT: A. it can lead to loss of alleles from the population. B. it can lead to alleles becoming fixed in a population. C. it is the result of random allele segregation from parents. D. it can increase the genetic diversity of the population.
D is correct. Genetic drift is simply the change in allele frequencies due to random processes. Specifically, random chance plays a role in determining which alleles are inherited by offspring from their parents. This can cause some alleles not to be passed down at all, leaving others "fixed" as the only alleles present for that locus. However, genetic drift does not relate to the introduction of new alleles (as mutation does), and cannot increase a population's genetic diversity.
HIV infects and kills helper T cells. Which of the following cell types will function less effectively in a patient in the late stages of AIDS? I. Macrophages II. B cells III. Cytotoxic T cells A. III only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
D is correct. Helper T cells are critical for activation of the humoral immune response (B cells) and the cellular immune response (T cells). Helper T cells also produce cytokines that fully activate macrophages, allowing them to establish a more acidic phagosomal pH and kill pathogens more effectively. In other words, loss of helper T cells compromises the entire immune response.
Genotypic analysis of another colorectal cancer cell line, CRC200, indicates that the cancerous cells are expressing a single nonsense mutation in one of their copies of p53. Given that information, which of the following would most likely represent the number of colonies observed after an identical transfection assay? A. pC27-53: 16, pC27-53X 56 B. pC27-53: 67, pC27-53X 713 C. pC27-53: 712, pC27-53X 56 D. pC27-53: 647, pC27-53X 748
D is correct. Human cells are diploid, and therefore to remove the function of a tumor suppressor protein such as p53 both copies of the allele would have to be mutated. (This is in contrast to mutations in oncogenes, where a single gain of function mutation can lead to an overactive protein product). Despite having one mutated copy of p53, therefore, CRC200 would still be expressing WT p53 proteins and as a result transfection with an additional copy of WT p53 would not significantly alter cell growth. Of the options, only D fits this description.
Tuberculosis begins with colonization of the lungs by the bacterium M. tuberculosis. The lungs contain billions of alveolar macrophages that normally control the spread of airborne pathogens. M. tuberculosis lives within these macrophages, but is unable to enter alveolar epithelial cells. Consequently, a rapid and robust macrophage-mediated response accelerates the spread of the infection. In vitro, the bacterium would be most infectious to: A. T cells. B. erythrocytes. C. vascular endothelial cells. D. neutrophils.
D is correct. If the bacterium can enter macrophages but not other somatic cells, it likely capitalizes on the natural entry mechanism offered by phagocytosis. Although T cells and endothelial cells can phagocytize under certain circumstances (as can alveolar epithelial cells), neutrophils are professional phagocytes and would be rapidly infected by the bacterium.
In a negative inducible operon, a repressor protein binds to the operon and the genes are not actively transcribed. In such an operon, which of the following could be added to restore the operon to a transcriptionally active state? A. An activator B. RNA polymerase C. An inhibitor D. An inducer
D is correct. In a negative inducible operon, transcription is inhibited by a repressor; this results in a basal transcription rate near zero. However, transcription can be "switched on" by the addition of an inducer protein, which blocks the repressor from binding to the operon. A: Activators bind to DNA sequences and help "recruit" promoters to start transcription. They are known to upregulate transcription in positive operons, and in the negative lac operon, the cAMP activator protein (CAP) helps promote the transcription of the genes needed for lactose metabolism. However, for CAP to work, the repressor must have also been removed by an inducer (allolactose in the case of the lac operon). B: RNA polymerase is the enzyme that binds to the DNA and carries out transcription. However, the addition of this enzyme would not activate the operon if the repressor protein was still bound. C: Inhibitors deactivate activator proteins in positive repressible operons and decrease the level of transcription.
In order for immersion of a neuron into a KCl solution to induce depolarization, what must be true of the relative ion permeability of the neuronal membrane? A. It is low for K+ and low for Cl-. B. It is low for K+ and high for Cl-. C. It is high for K+ and high for Cl-. D. It is high for K+ and low for Cl-.
D is correct. In order for KCl to depolarize the cell membrane, it must modify the cell's resting potential in such a way as to make the interior of the neuron more positive relative to the extraneuronal environment. Of the choices given, the only arrangement that would guarantee this change is if the permeability of the neuronal membrane is high for K+ and low for Cl-. If so, inward K+ will increase the neuronal interior's net positive charge, while the increase in extraneuronal Cl- concentration will make the neuronal interior more positive relative to the increased extraneuronal negative charge concentration.
Which of the following cytoskeletal proteins contributes the most to the skin's resistance to stretching and tearing? A. Actin B. Tubulin C. Collagen D. Keratin
D is correct. Keratin fibers extend across epithelial cells (in the skin, for example) to link adjacent cells via structures called desmosomes. As a type of intermediate filament, keratin possesses high tensile strength; as such, it can form a network of fibers that distribute mechanical stress among the cells of an epithelial layer. Keratin is therefore the cytoskeletal protein that contributes most to the skin's stretching ability. C: Collagen may be a tempting choice, as it contributes heavily to the tensile strength of connective tissue in the skin. However, it is a fiber in the extracellular matrix, not a component of the cytoskeleton.
Which of the structures below is NOT an exocrine gland? A. The liver B. The pancreas C. A gastric chief cell D. The adrenal gland
D is correct. Of the options listed, only D has no exocrine function. The liver and pancreas secrete many hormones into the bloodstream, but also release digestive enzymes into the lumen of GI tract, an exocrine function. Gastric chief cells are purely exocrine and secrete pepsinogen into the stomach.
A scientist studying cell-to-cell communication discovers that a particularly biologically relevant signal acts in a paracrine manner. What must be true of the cell or cells involved? A. A single target cell is responding to a signal generated by itself. B. The cellular response involves a hormone that travels long distances through the bloodstream. C. The signal travels a very small distance through the bloodstream from its origin to the target cell. D. The signal travels a very small distance from its origin to the target cell, but this response does not involve hormone movement through the bloodstream.
D is correct. Paracrine activity involves the secretion of local signaling molecules known as paracrine factors. These factors diffuse to nearby target cells and exert a variety of effects.
Although Creutzfeld-Jakob Disease is perhaps the best-known prion disease, recent hypotheses suggest that neurodegenerative diseases such as Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's disease may have prion components. Which of the following, if true, would best refute the claim that prions contribute to the pathology of Parkinson's disease? A. Knockout mice lacking the PrPC, a prion precursor protein, do not develop Parkinson's disease when fed intact prions. B. Crude brain lysates from mice suffering from Parkinson's disease reliably induce Parkinson's when fed to healthy mice. C. Parkinson's disease appears to run in families. D. Neurons from Parkinson's patients show absolutely no increase in expression of heat shock proteins or cellular chaperones.
D is correct. Prions tend to induce misfolding and aggregation of endogenous cellular proteins, forming highly stable amyloid fibers. The natural cellular response to the presence of misfolded proteins is the production of heat shock proteins, which help to properly fold the defective protein molecules. The absence of heat shock activity suggests that the cell is not experiencing any problems with protein aggregation, which is one of the hallmarks of prion disease pathology.
From the given data, which, if any, of these genes is implied to be a proto-oncogene?
D is correct. Proto-oncogenes do not necessarily exhibit either a greater or lesser rate of transcription in cancer patients. It is the activated form of a proto-oncogene, an oncogene, that relates closely to tumor growth and metastasis. Therefore, the data cannot possibly suggest that any of these genes are proto-oncogenes.
Which of the above labeled structures would synthesize collagen? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
D is correct. Structure 5 is a fibroblast, embedded in the extracellular matrix. These are the cells that produce the fibers comprising connective tissues such as collagen.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Golgi apparatus? A. Packaging of proteins in vesicles for transport to other parts of the cell B. Targeting of proteins for excretion C. Production of lysosomes D. Production of the enzymes found within peroxisomes
D is correct. The Golgi apparatus functions like a cellular "post office." It receives proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum and packages them into vesicles; these membrane-bound sacs can then travel to specific locations within the cell or to the plasma membrane for excretion. Additionally, lysosomes are formed from vesicles that bud off the Golgi's larger structure. However, note that choice D references enzyme production. Since nearly all enzymes are protein-based, it is the ribosomes - whether free-floating or attached to the rough ER - that synthesize them.
The hormone levels of a 31-year-old female patient were tracked during the course of a typical menstrual cycle. The table below graphs this data; note that hormone concentrations are given in standardized units per milliliter of blood. Assuming that this patient is healthy, what most directly triggered the peak in progesterone around day 21? A. High levels of estrogen B. High levels of LH C. Fertilization of the ovum and resulting pregnancy D. Formation of the corpus luteum after ovulation
D is correct. The table shows that progesterone concentrations are low throughout the cycle, with the exception of a peak around day 21. This increase is promoted by ovulation, in which a follicle bursts and releases a secondary oocyte. The remainder of the follicle gives rise to the corpus luteum, which directly releases progesterone and estradiol.
In a certain population of wild coyotes, brown fur (B) is dominant over spotted fur (b) and approximately 80% of a given breeding population has brown fur. Over the course of two decades, a genetic change occurs such that nearly the entire population expresses the spotted fur phenotype. In this population: A. the trait for spotted fur has become dominant. B. having brown fur must have been strongly selected against. C. overall fitness has been reduced. D. spotted fur is the wild type.
D is correct. The term "wild type" refers to the traits an animal typically possesses when found in nature. This usually refers to a dominant trait, but not always. If nearly all of the coyotes now have spotted fur, then spotted fur is the wild type.
If miRNA is classified as non-coding RNA, then which of the following RNA molecules is LEAST likely to be classified in the same manner? A. tRNA B. snRNA C. snoRNA D. hnRNA
D is correct. We are looking for the RNA molecule that is not noncoding (or basically, the RNA molecule that is coding), which means that it is translated into protein. hnRNA is heterogeneous RNA, which is a precursor to mRNA. mRNA is the only coding RNA. A: While tRNA is involved with translation, it is not considered coding because it does not get translated into a protein. B: snRNA, or small nuclear RNA, is a class of RNA molecules found within the nucleus of eukaryotic cells associated with specific proteins, referred to as snRNPs. C: snoRNA, or small nucleolar RNA, are a subset of snRNA and play an essential role in RNA biogenesis and the modifications of rRNA and tRNAs.
Consider a mixture of lysine, histidine, and aspartate in a buffered solution at pH 4.0. You perform an isoelectric focusing procedure on these amino acids. What would be the order of the amino acids in terms of migration distance from greatest to smallest? A. Lysine > Aspartate > Histidine B. Aspartate > Histidine > Lysine C. Aspartate > Lysine > Histidine D. Lysine > Histidine > Aspartate
D is correct. You should know that lysine and histidine are basic amino acids, but histidine has a pI around 7 since it is a common residue used to transfer protons in enzymes. Lysine has a pI in the basic range. You should recognize aspartate as an acidic amino acid that would have a pI in the acidic range. At pH = 4.0, we are closest to the pI of aspartate, then histidine, and finally lysine. This can be reasoned without knowing the actual values. Here are the actual pI values for the amino acids: pI of lysine: 9.74 pI of histidine: 7.59 pI of aspartate: 2.77
What is Sanger sequencing?
DNA sequencing is the process of determining the sequence of nucleotides (As, Ts, Cs, and Gs) in a piece of DNA. In Sanger sequencing, the target DNA is copied many times, making fragments of different lengths.
what kind of virus can be spliced into to create a viral vector?
DNA virus
Recombinant DNA
DNa composed of nucleotides from two different sources
demographic transition
Demographic transition refers to the changes in birth and death rates in a country as it develops from a preindustrial to industrial economic system. This transition typically proceeds as follows: improvements in health care, nutrition, sanitation, and wages cause death rates to drop (stage 2); improvements in contraception, women's rights, and education, coupled with a shift from an agricultural to an industrial economy, cause birth rates to drop (stage 3); after the country achieves industrialization, birth rates and death rates are both low (stage 4). Because the death rate decreases first, the birth rate exceeds the death rate throughout the process of industrialization and the population increases as a result.
Immediate networks
Dense with strong ties, composed of friends
Gender identity
Describes a person's appraisal of him or herself on scales of masculinity and femininity
Cognitive development
Development of one's ability to think and solve problems across the lifespan
Instinctive drift
Difficulty overcoming instinctual behaviors
Discrimination
Discrimination is a behavior while prejudice is an attitude
Dyssomnias
Disorder that make it difficult to fall asleep, stay asleep, or avoid sleep
Nonmaleficence
Do no harm; physician has responsibility to avoid treatments or interventions in which the potential for harm outweighs the potential for benefit
Recognition-primed decision model
Doctor's brain is actually sorting through a wide variety of information to match a pattern. Over time, the doctor has gained an extensive level of experience that he or she is able to access without awareness
Problem-solving dream theory
Dreams are a way to solve problems while you are sleeping
Activation-synthesis theory of dreams
Dreams are caused by widespread, random activation of neural circuitry; activation can mimic incoming sensory information, but consist of pieces of stored memories, current and previous desires, met and unmet needs, and other experiences
Cognitive process dream theory
Dreams are merely the sleeping counterpart of stream-of-consciousness
Drive Reduction Theory
Drive: internal states of tension that activate particular behaviors focused on goals ex. person feels very hungry and stomach is uncomfortable so he goes and buys food to reduce hunger
Hallucinogens
Drugs include LSD interact with various neurotransmitters especially serotonin
A type of plant uses different insect pollinators depending on its height. Unfortunately, due to an increase in the use of pesticides, the medium-height pollinator has recently become extinct. What type of selection will occur in the plant species over the next several generations? A. Directional selection; future generations will include short and tall plants only. B. Disruptive selection; future generations will include short or tall plants, but not both. C. Directional selection; future generations will include medium plants only. D. Disruptive selection; future generations will include short and tall plants only.
Due to the extinction of the associated insect species, medium-height plants now cannot be pollinated. Over time, these plants will die out before they can reproduce, leaving only the short and tall alleles to pass to the next generation. This represents disruptive selection, as only the extreme phenotypes are being evolutionarily favored.
Functional fixedness
Duncker's candle problem: you walk into a room and see a box of matches, some tacks, and a candle. Your task is to mount the candle on the wall so that it can be used without the wax dropping on the floor. Definition: inability to consider how to use an object in a nontraditional manner
Myelencephalon (becomes medulla oblongata in fetus)
During embryonic development, the rhombencephalon divides to form the myelencephalon and metencephalon (pons and cerebellum from fetus)
what is different about prokaryotic mRNA due to the operon?
EUK does not have operons and prokaryotes have Polycistronic mRNA mRNA that encodes several proteins and is characteristic of many bacterial and chloroplast mRNAs.
Attribution theory: situational
EXTERNAL FACTORS: relate to features of the surroundings, such as threats, money, social norms, and peer pressure ex. friend nominated for academic reward, you believe it is due to luck
Alcohol myopia
Effect of alcohol where it is in the inability to recognize consequences of actions, creating a short-sighted view of the world
Halogens
Elements found in group VIIA (group 17) of the periodic table.
Nonmetals
Elements that have characteristically high electronegativities, ionization energies, and electron affinity. These elements tend to be found on the right side of the periodic table and are poor conductors of electricity.
Joules (J)
Energy (E) is measured in:
restriction enzyme
Enzyme that cuts DNA at a specific sequence of nucleotides
EMF (electromotive force) of electrochemical cell
Eprime of the cell= Eprime cathode - Eprime anode USE REDUCTION POTIENTALS ONLY!!!!
Voltage drop across circuit elements (in parallel)
Equivalent (Vt= V1 = V2 = Vn....)
centrosome function
Essential for movement of chromosomes during cell division; organization of microtubules in cytoskeleton
Game theory
Evaluates alternate strategies when outcome depends not only on each individual's strategy but also that of others.
Glutamate
Excitatory neurotransmitter
Exchange theory
Extension of rational choice theory; focuses on interactions in groups where an individual will carry out certain behaviors because of anticipated rewards and avoiding certain behaviors because of anticipated punishments THINK: balancing decisions due to risk vs reward
Extrinsic Motivation
External forces, coming from outside oneself; rewards for showing a desired behavior or avoiding punishment if the desired behavior is not achieved
dichotomies of personality
Extraversion vs. introversion Sensing vs. intuiting Thinking vs. feeling Jung
Newton's Third Law
F (A on B) = -F (B on A)
Force on a charge
F=qE THINK: relationships between electrostatic equations
formal charge
FC= V-N-1/2B (valence e-) - (nonbonding e-) - 1/2 bonding e-
What hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary?
FLAT PEG
where do the sperm and egg meet?
Fallopian tube
Reticular formation
Fibers from the prefrontal cortex communicate with the reticular formation, a neural structure located in the brainstem, to keep the cortex awake and alert
Social cognitive perspective
Focus on how our environment influences our behavior and how we interact with the environment
pressure
Force per unit area.
connection between electrostatic equations
Force, Potential, Field, Potential
Algorithmns
Formula or procedure for solving a certain type of problem. This can be mathematical or a set of instructions, designed to automatically produce a desired solution
Kinetic friction
Friction when a force is applied to a moving object.
Static friction
Friction when a force is applied to an object but the object does not move. Always greater than kinetic friction for a given object.
1-D gel electrophoresis separates which 3 molecules primarily? what kind of medium is used for clinical chemistry (is it size dependent)? in biochem, what are they usually trying to separate, by what?
Gel electrophoresis is a method for separation and analysis of macromolecules (DNA, RNA and proteins) and their fragments, based on their size and charge. It is used in clinical chemistry to separate proteins by charge and/or size (IEF agarose, essentially size independent) and in biochemistry and molecular biology to separate a mixed population of DNA and RNA fragments by length, to estimate the size of DNA and RNA fragments or to separate proteins by charge.
Paranoid
General personality disorder: Cluster A - marked by pervasive distrust of others and suspicion regarding their motives and may be in prodromal phase of schizophrenia
Schizotypal
General personality disorder: Cluster A - pattern of odd or eccentric thinking; have ideas of reference (delusions of reference- "that man wants to kill me") and magical thinking (superstitious or clairvoyance)
Schizoid
General personality disorder: Cluster A - pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and restricted range of emotional expression NOTE: Schizotypal and schizoid are not the same as schizophrenia
Histronic
General personality disorder: Cluster B - constant attention-seeking behavior; often wear colorful clothing, are dramatic, and are exceptionally extroverted; seductive behavior to gain attention
Narcissistic
General personality disorder: Cluster B - grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of success, need for constant admiration and attention, feelings of entitlement
Antisocial
General personality disorder: Cluster B - pattern of disregard for and violations of rights of others; illegal acts, aggressiveness, lack of remorse for said action
Borderline personality disorder
General personality disorder: Cluster B - pervasive instability in terpersonal behavior, mood, and self-image; profound identity disturbance with uncertainty about self-image, sexual identity, long-term goals, or values; may use splitting (all good or all bad mentality) Suicide and self-mutilation are common
Dependent
General personality disorder: Cluster C - characterized by a continuous need for reassurance and depend on specific person to take actions and make decisions
Avoidant
General personality disorder: Cluster C - extreme shyness and fear of rejection; sees herself as socially inept and socially isolated despite intense desire for social attention and acceptance
Obsessive-compulsive
General personality disorder: Cluster C - perfectionistic and inflexible, tends to like rules and order not same as OCD because OCPD is life long while OCD is acquired
chemiosmotic coupling
Generation of ATP through movement of H+ ions down their concentration gradient.
What are the enzymes used in gluconeogenesis and what are their counterparts?
Gluconeogenesis: 1- Glucose-6-phosphatase 2- Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase 3- pyruvate carboxylase and phosphosenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) Glycolysis (counterparts): 1- hexokinase or glucokinase 2- phosphofructokinase 3- pyruvate kinase
Hypnagogic/hypnompic hallucinations
Hallucinations when going to sleep or awakening
Ecstasy
Hallucinogen and amphetamine; causes increased heart rate, blood pressure, blurry vision, sweating, nausea, and hyperthermia
Somatosensation
Have four modalities: pressure, vibration, pain, and temperature
alpha decay
He atom emitted
Ipsilaterally
Hemispheres communicate on the same side of the body
Problem-solving
Humans and chimpanzees alike will often avoid trial and error learning and instead take a step back, observe the situation, and take decisive action to solve the challenges they face
To prolong submersion time, some divers will hyperventilate immediately prior to a dive. This behavior is particularly dangerous and can result in drowning because: A. hyperventilation allows for the retention of too much oxygen, which can eliminate the urge to breathe. B. hyperventilation allows for the retention of too much carbon dioxide, which can eliminate the urge to breathe. C. hyperventilation allows for the elimination of too much oxygen, which can eliminate the urge to breathe. D. hyperventilation allows for the elimination of too much carbon dioxide, which can eliminate the urge to breathe.
Hyperventilation causes the loss of excess carbon dioxide. In fact, extreme hyperventilation can actually result in an arterial carbon dioxide level that is completely immeasurable. Since CO2 directly relates to pH, the primary mechanism behind our respiratory drive, a complete absence of carbon dioxide in the blood can eliminate the urge to breathe. However, oxygen levels in the diver's blood will continue to fall; he simply will not feel the compulsion to breathe, and may lose consciousness as a result of hypoxia.
intensity of sound
I = P/A Directly proportional to Amplitude^2 INVERSELY proportional to r^2 (distance)
Current
I = ΔQ/Δt
Cofactors?
INORGANIC
Attribution theory: dispositional
INTERNAL FACTORS: relate to the person whose behavior is being considered including their beliefs, attitudes, and personality characteristics ex. friend nominated for academic reward, you believe it is because she is hard workingf
Way to remember the types of thermodynamic processes?
IT A IV IT: deltaU=0 A:Q=0 W:IV=0
Sigmund Freud's Psychoanalytic Perspective
Id: primal, inborn urges to survie and reproduce -Pleasure principle: aim to achieve immediate gratification to relieve any pent-up tension -Primary process: id's response to frustration -Wish fulfillment: mental imagery like daydreaming to fulfill need for satisfaction Ego: operations to reality principle (RP=the ego's control of the pleasure-seeking activity of the id in order to meet the demands of the external world). -Secondary process: guides or inhibits activity of id and id's pleasure principle -Superego: personality's perfectionist, judging actions and responding with pride at our accomplishments and guilt at our failures Conscience: collection of improper actions for which a child is punished Ego-ideal: proper actions for which a child is rewarded
Spontaneous recovery
If an extinct conditioned stimulus is presented again, a weak conditioned response can sometimes be exhibited
In a remote hospital in Asia, a patient is suspected to have dengue fever, a life-threatening disease that causes increased vascular permeability. As a result, her physician can expect to find: I. generalized edema. II. decreased heart rate. III. increased renin levels. IV. decreased blood pressure. A. III only B. I and II only C. I, II, and IV only D. I, III, and IV only
If our patient has increased vascular permeability, her capillaries will leak fluid into extracellular compartments. This fluid excess will show up as edema (swelling), Now, we need to think about what's going to happen to the blood pressure with all that fluid leaving the circulation: it will drop, A drop in blood pressure will be sensed by the kidneys, which will activate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. This will cause fluid retention in an attempt to elevate blood pressure II: Remember, cardiac output = heart rate x stroke volume. Decreased blood volume will cause the heart to compensate by increasing heart rate. Thus, our patient should have tachycardia (an elevated heart rate).
If the internal resistance of a battery is non-negligible, the potential difference is equal to..?
If the internal resistance of a battery is non-negligible, the potential difference across the terminals can be found as V = Ecell - irint. T
Wernicke's aphasia
In this form of aphasia the ability to grasp the meaning of spoken words and sentences is impaired, while the ease of producing connected speech is not very affected.
mRNA-based protein targeting.
In this mode, a cis-acting sequence element in the mRNA specifies its localization in an untranslated state, whereupon translation ensures to produce the protein in the proper location
In-group and Out-group
In-group: social group with which a person experiences a sense of belonging or identifies as a member Out-group: social group with which an individual does not identify Negative feelings towards an out-group are not based on a sense of dislike, but favoritism for the in-group and absence of favoritism for the out-group
Belief perseverance
Inability to reject a particular belief despite clear evidence to contrary
Amphetamines
Increase dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin levels at the synapse and decreasing their reuptake; increases heart rate and blood pressure, euphoria, hypervigilance, anxiety, delusions of grandeur, and paranoia
Identity
Individual components of our self-concept related to the groups to which we belong
Erikson's Psychosocial development: age 70 years old
Integrity/ despair (60 + years old)
Cell Cyle & Checkpoints
Interphase includes G1, S, and G2 phases. Mitosis and cytokinesis, however, are separate from interphase.
PTSD
Intrusion symptoms: recurrent reliving of the event, flashbacks, nightmares, and prolonged distress Avoidance symptoms: deliberate attempts to avoid memories, people, places, activities, and objects associated with trauma Negative cognitive symptoms: inability to recall key features of the event, negative mood or emotions, feeling distanced from others Arousal symptoms: increased startle response, irritability, anxiety, self-destructive or reckless behavior
If G less than 0, what other piece of information is needed?
K is greater than 1, reaction is spontaneous. deltaG=-RTlnK ATP not required, but could be produced (because spontaneous reactions will release energy needed to make ATP)
Conservation of mechanical energy
KE₁ + PE₁ = KE₂ + PE₂
Keq vs Q
Keq=equilbrium const. and Q is the quotient (basically where the reaction is at a given time) Q indicates that the reaction is currently taking place and system is not in equilbrium
Kinetic energy equation
Kinetic energy (joules)=1/2 mass(kg)* velocity^2 (m/s) Energy of motion
Latent vs associative learning
Latent learning is a form of learning that occurs without a reward but that is spontaneously demonstrated once a reward is introduced. Associative learning is the process by which a connection is made between two stimuli or a stimulus and a response; examples include classical conditioning and operant conditioning.
Hypothalamus
Lateral hypothalamus: promotes hunger Ventromedial hypothalamus: cues that we are full and promote satiety 4 F's: Fighting, Feeding, Flighting, sexual Functioning Homeostasis functions too
coordinate covalent bonds involved what?
Lewis acids and bases
what are interstitial cells? where are they located? What do they do?
Leydig cells: located in the testes, secrete testosterone/androgens
Primary location for glycogen storage?
Liver some in skeletal muscles but liver>> sk. muscles
Self-discrepancy theory
Maintains that each of us has three selves: actual, ideal, and ought self (representation of the way others think we should be)
Manifest vs. latent function
Manifest functions: action intended to help some part of a system Latent: unintended positive consequences on other parts of society Ex. Annual meetings of medical societies have the manifest function of educating a group of physicians, sharing research findings, and setting goals for the next year. Latently, they create stronger interpersonal bonds between physicians and provide a sense of identity for the group.
Cultural transmission/cultural learning
Manner at which a society socializes its members
Density (ρ)
Mass / Volume
Conformity
Matching one's attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors to societal norms
Kinsey scale
Measures hetero vs. homosexuality; significant portions of the population fell somewhere between them
what does Meiosis I result in? How many diploid/haploid cells? How many chromosomes in each? How many sister chromatids per chromosome? How many chromosomes do diploids have?
Meiosis I results in 2 haploid cells, each with 23 chromosomes consisting of 2 sister chromatids per chromosome. Diploid cells have 46 chromosomes.
Collective rationalization (Irving Janis's Groupthink)
Members discredit and explain away warning contrary to group thinking. Belief in inherent morality: Members discredit and explain away warning contrary to group thinking. Stereotyped views of out-groups: The group constructs negative stereotypes of rivals outside the group
Semantic network
Memory is a network of interconnected ideas and organizes ideas in which concepts are linked together based on similar meaning
Chunking (aka Clustering)
Memory trick that involves taking individual elements of a large list and grouping them together into groups of elements with related meaning (ex. ENALPKCURTRACKSUB into BUS CAR TRUCK PLANE)
Eustachian tube
Middle ear is connected to the nasal cavity, which equalizes pressure between the middle ear and environment
Schachter-Singer theory of emotion
Middle group between James-Lange & Cannon-Bard response depends on physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation upon witnessing a stimulus
Intrinsic motivation
Motivation that comes from within oneself; driven by interest in a task or pure enjoyment
Suspensory ligaments
Muscles contract and pulls this to change the shape of the lens
Acetylcholine
NT found in both central and peripheral nervous systems and used to transmit nerve impulses to the muscles Used mostly by the parasympathetic nervous system
Endorphins
Natural painkillers that are peptide NT
What are the steps needed to release glucocorticoids? how are they regulated
Negative feedback
Neuroplasticity
Neural connections form rapidly in response to stimuli
Classical conditioning
Neutral stimuli: stimuli do not produce a reflexive response
beta - decay
Neutron--> proton, B- is emitted
Kinetic energy is related to velocity?
No, it is related to its speed. And object has the same kinetic energy regardless of the direction of its velocity vector.
Are there operons in eukaryotes? what do operons do to the rate of transcription?
No, prok only genes under same operon have the same rate of transcription (mRNA transcripts equal)
introns
Noncoding segments of nucleic acid that lie between coding sequences.
Olfactory pathway
Odor -> olfactory nerves in olfactory epithelium -> olfactory bulb -> olfactory tract
Extinction
Organism become habituated to a conditioned stimulus
Discrimination
Organism learns to distinguish between two similar stimuli
Class consciousness
Organization of the working class around shared goals and recognition of a need for collective political action
corona radiata
Outer layer of cells surrounding the oocyte. These cells are secreted by follicle cells.
Final electron accecptor of the ETC?
Oxygen
Bernoulli's Equation
P + ρ•g•h + ½•ρ•v ² = constant QVolume Flow Rate = A1•v1 = A2•v2 = constant
Pressure
P = F/A
Schwann - CNS or PNS?
PNS
ADH, where is it made? where is it secreted and stored? What is another name for it?
PP secreted and stored by made in the hypothalamus/vasopressin
Ego
Part of the unconscious that mediates the urges of the ID and superego. operations to reality principle (taking into account objective reality) psychoanalytic perspective (Freud)
Abraham Maslow's Humanistic Theory
Peak experience: self-actualizers more likely to have profound and deeply moving experiences in a person's life that have important and lasting effects on the individual
Modeling
People learn what behaviors are acceptable by watching others perform them
Reciprocal liking
People like others better when they believe the other person likes them
Neuromodulators
Peptide neurotransmitter where the synaptic action involves more complicated chain of events in the postsynaptic cell and are therefore slower and have longer effects on the postsynaptic cell than NT
Safir-Whorf hypothesis/Linguistic relativity hypothesis
Perception of reality is determined by the content of language
State-dependent memory
Person's mental state affect recall
Carl Jung
Personal unconscious: similar to Freud's unconsciousness Collective unconscious: powerful system that is shared among all umans and considered to be a residue of the experiences of our early ancestors Archetypes: images invariably have an emotional element
Gauge pressure
Pgauge = P - Patm
IQ
Pioneered by Alfred Binet
Social exclusion
Poor individuals feel segregated and isolated from society
Pull factors
Positive attributes of the new location that attract the immigrant
Upward/Downward Mobility
Positive or negative change in a person's status
Kohlberg's Moral Development: Postconventional morality
Postconventional morality -Social contract: views moral rules as conventions that are designed to ensure greater good with focus on individual rights -Universal human ethics: decisions should be made in consideration of abstract principles
Kohlberg (moral reasoning)
Preconventional morality -Obedience: avoiding punishment -Self-interest: gaining rewards (instrumental relativist stage) Conventional morality -Conformity: emphasis on "good boy, nice girl" seeking approval of others -Law and order: maintain social order in highest regard Postconventional morality -Social contract: views moral rules as conventions that are designed to ensure greater good with focus on individual rights -Universal human ethics: decisions should be made in consideration of abstract principles
Preparedness
Predisposition to learn behaviors based on their own natural abilities and instincts (ex. bird pecks when searching for food)
Whole report
Presented 3x3 array of letters and participant is asked to list all the letters she say, she was able to identify 3 or 4
Partial report
Presented 3x3 array of letters and participant is asked to list the letters of a particular role, she can do so with 100% accuracy
Avoidance learning
Prevent the unpleasantness of something that has yet to happen
Primary vs secondary apprasial
Primary appraisal occurs when an individual first interprets whether a situation is stressful. Secondary appraisal occurs when the individual then evaluates whether or not the stressful situation can be overcome. The student first performs a primary appraisal, the function of which is to answer the question "Is this stressful?" When the answer is "yes," a secondary appraisal occurs, answering the question "Can I handle this?"
crossing over
Process in which homologous chromosomes exchange portions of their chromatids during meiosis.prophase I of meiosis specifically
Marxist Theory
Proletariat: "have-nots" Bourgeoisie: "haves"
Meninges
Protect the brain, keep it anchored within the skull, and resorb cerebrospinal fluid
chaperones
Proteins that assist in protein folding during posttranslational processing
beta + decay
Proton--> neutron, B+ is emitted
Schizophrenia: Positive Symptoms
Psychotic disorder; associated with high dopamine levels Positive symptoms Delusions of reference: (ex. person believes characters in a TV show are talking to him directly) Delusions of persecution: (ex. person believes he is being deliberately interfered with, discriminated against, plotted against, threatened) Delusions of grandeur: (person is remarkable in some significant way such as being a historical figure or religious icon) Thought broadcasting: believe one's thoughts are broadcast directly from one's head to external world Thought insertion: belief that thoughts are being placed in one's head) Hallucinations: hearing voices Disorganized thought: loosening of associations; ideas shift from one thought to another; word salad; schizophrenics invent new words (neologisms) Disorganized behavior: inability to carry out activities of daily living; patient will either spontaneously move or remain rigid (catatonia)
Schizophrenia: negative symptoms
Psychotic disorder; associated with low dopamine levels negative symptoms Disturbance of affect: expression of emotion Blunting: severe reduction in the intensity of affect expression Flat affect: no signs of emotional expression Inappropriate affect: (ex. schizophrenic starts laughing when talking about someone's death) Avolition: decreased engagement in purposeful, goal-directed actions
Eysencks' PEN model
Psychoticism: nonconformity or social deviance Extraversion: tolerance for social interaction and stimulation Neuroticism: emotional arousal in stressful situations
snRNP
RNA + protein
What does a protein need to be allowed to enter and exit the nucleus?
RNA and specific sequences
siRNAs -what do they do? from what are they produced (2 molecules)? what catalyzes them? what is RISC?
RNA interference - RNA-induced silencing produced from small hairpin RNAs and dsRNAs catalyzed by Dicer enzyme RISC (RNA induced silencing complex) - a ribonucleoprotein that uses dsRNA fragments to make mRNA transcripts
what are ribosomes? what 2 functions do they have?
RNA molecules, capable of catalyzing RNA/DNA ligation and forming peptide bonds
Power
Rate at which work is done
catalytic efficiency
Ratio of Kcat/Km
Dishabituation
Recovery of a response to a stimulus after habituation has occurred
Ethnic identity
Refers to one's ethnic group in which members typically share a common ancestry
Perception
Refers to the processing of this information that make sense of its significance
Where is it calcitonin released from? What antagonizes it?
Released by the thyroid and parathyroid hormone antagonizes its action (also released by thyroid).
Sign convention for mirrors
Remember "IR UV" mnemonic
Fat Soluble vitamins? water?
Remember: water soluble= B, C the rest is fat soluble
Prospective memory
Remembering to perform a task at some point in the future; remains mostly intact when it is event-based (ex. remembering to buy milk while passing by grocery store)
Habituation
Repeated exposure to the same stimulus can cause a decrease in response
Shadow
Responsible for appearance of unpleasant and socially reprehensible thoughts, feelings, and actions in our consciousness Jung
Medulla oblongata
Responsible for breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure
Nondominant hemisphere
Right hemisphere: intuition, creativity, muscle cognition, and spatial processing
Escape learning
Role of behavior is to reduce the unpleasantness of something that already exists like a headache
pathway of electrical impulse in the heart
SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers
What is expected from protein migration on SDS-PAGE in terms of charge? what happens if as the proteins increase in size?
SDS-PAGE is negatively charged, so positively charged substances migrate but if they get too big, the accuracy decreases and there is less migration
what happens to muscle bands during contraction?
Sarcomere shortens:I band and H zone shorten, A band remains unchanged. Distance between M and Z decrease too. "MZ. HI bands"
pH
Scaled value to measure the acidic strength of a given solution, calculated by taking the negative logarithm of the proton concentration in a solution; pH=-log(H+)
pH
Scaled value used to measure the acidic strength of a solution, calculated by taking the negative logarithm of the proton concentration in a solution: pH=-log [H+]
Piaget's terms
Schema: organized patterns of behavior and thought; can include a concept, a behavior, or a sequence of events Adaptation: as a child proceeds through the stages, new information has to be placed into the different schemata -Assimilation: process of classifying new information into existing schemata -Accommodation: process by which an existing schema is modified to encompass this new information
How to remember start & stop codons?
School Starts in AUGust U Are Aweful, U Are Gross, U Go Away UGA, UAA, UAG
Neurocognitive models of dreaming
Seek to unify biological and psychological perspectives on dreaming by correlating the subjective, cognitive experience of dreaming with measurable physiological changes
Cocktail party phenomenon
Selective attention is probably more of a filter that allows us to focus on one thing while allowing other stimuli to be processed in the background (ex. talking to a friend at a loud party and hear your name being called)
Explicit memory: semantic memory and episodic memory
Semantic: facts that we know (names of bicycle parts) Episodic: our experiences (time patient learned to ride a bike)
Piaget's Stages of Cognitive Development
Sensorimotor stage: -Circular reactions (Primary and Secondary) -Primary: repetition of body movement that originally occurred by chance (ex. sucking thumb) -Secondary: manipulation is focused on something outside the body (ex. throwing toys from a high chair) -Object permanence: marks beginning of representational thought, child understands objects continue to exist outside of view Preoperational stage: -Symbolic thinking: ability to pretend, make-believe, have imagination -Egocentrism: inability to imagine what another person may think or feel -Centration: tendency to focus on only one aspect of a phenomenon, inability to understand conservation Concrete operational stage: -Children understand conservation and perspectives of others; ability to engage in logical thought working with concrete objects or information Formal operational stage: ability to think about abstract ideas
Glycine
Serves as an inhibitory NT in the CNS by increasing chloride influx
Gardner's Theory of Multiple Intelligences
Seven defined types of intelligence: linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, visual-spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal
Group
Share common characteristics such as values, interests, ethnicity, social background, family ties, and political representation; sociologists see social interaction was the most important characteristic
Self-disclosure
Sharing one's fears, thoughts, and goals with another person and being met with non-judgmental empathy
Social network creates social inequality
Situational: socioeconomic advantage Positional: based on how connected one is within a network or one's centrality within network
skeletal muscle, smooth muscle and cardiac muscle. Compare/contast.
Skeletal muscle: multiple nuclei, striated, voluntary (somatic) innervation Smooth muscle: single nuclei, non-striated, involuntary innervation (autonomic) or external innervation- myogenic contraction Cardiac muscle: one or two nuclei, striated, involuntary innervation (autonomic), has intercalated disks (for electric synchronization) ALL HAVE ACTIN/MYOSIN AND REQUIRE CALCIUM TO CONTRACT
Foot-in-the-door technique
Small request is made and after gaining compliance, larger request is made
Auditory pathways
Sound -> vestibulocochlear nerve -> medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) -> auditory cortex -> superior olive -> inferior colliculus
Androgyny
State of being simultaneously very masculine and very feminine
Hund's rule
States that electrons will first fill orbitals within a subshell unpaired and with parallel spins before being coupled with other electrons of opposite spins on the same orbital. This method of maximizing the number of half-filled orbitals allows for the most stable distribution of electrons within a subshell.
Hess's law.
States that the enthalpy change of an overall reaction is equal to the sum of the standard heats of formation of the products minus the standard heats of formation of the reactants.
Le Chatelier's principle
States that when a system in equilibrium is placed under one of several stressors, it will react in order to regain equilibrium.
epimer
Stereoisomers that differ in stereochemistry at only one chiral carbon
Generalization
Stimulus similar to the conditioned stimulus can also produce the conditioned response
Youngs Modulus
Stress/Strain
Adler's Theory
Strives for superiority Inferiority complex: sense of incompleteness, imperfection, inferiority Creative self: force by which each individual shapes his uniqueness and establishes his personality Style of life: represents the manifestation of creative self and describes person's unique way of achieving superiority Fictional finalism: individual more motivated by expectations of future than past experiences
lariat structure
Structure that spliced RNA forms
Functionalism
Study of structure and function of each part of society; when all the parts of society fulfill their functions, society is in a normal state
Players in oxidative phosphorylation: pos regulators?
Sufficent ADP and O2
Confirmation bias
Tendency to focus on information that fits an individual's beliefs while rejecting information that goes against them
Efficiency
The amount of useful work generated by a machine for a given amount of work put into the system: E = W(out)/W(in)
Nervous system development
The development of the nervous system starts with neurulation, at three to four weeks' gestational age. Neurulation occurs when the ectoderm overlying the notochord begins to furrow, forming a neural groove surrounded by two neural folds, as shown in the figure above. Cells at the leading edge of the neural fold are called the neural crest, while the remainder of the furrow closes to form the neural tube. The neural tube will ultimately form the structures of the central nervous system (CNS). Over time, the neural tube invaginates and folds on itself many times; the embryonic brain begins as three swellings (rhombencephalon, mesencephalon, prosencephalon) that become five swellings (telencephalon, diencephalon, mesencephalon, metencephalon, myelencephalon) as it becomes the mature brain. Therefore, a defect in the neural tube during embryogenesis could result in anencephaly (B). The neural crest will migrate outward to form the peripheral nervous system (including the sensory ganglia, autonomic ganglia, adrenal medulla, and Schwann cells) as well as specific cell types in other tissues (such as calcitonin-producing cells of the thyroid, melanocytes in the skin, and others) (A). The neural tube has an alar plate, which differentiates into sensory neurons, and a basal plate, which differentiates into motor neurons (C). As already mentioned, the structures of the nervous system are derived from the ectoderm; the endoderm forms the epithelial linings of the digestive and respiratory tracts, including the lungs. The pancreas, thyroid, bladder, and distal urinary tracts, as well as parts of the liver, are also derived from endoderm (D).
Gibbs free energy
The energy of a system available to do work. denoted delta G. Top equation= not at equlibrium Bottom equation= @ equilb.
Electron affinity
The energy released when an atom or ion in the gaseous state gains an electron. Increase from left to right and from bottom to top on the periodic table.
Theoretical yield
The expected amount of product yielded in a reaction according to the reactants' stoichiometry.
tensile strain
The extension per unit length, a dimensionless quantity
citrate
The first intermediate molecule produced in the Krebs cycle is:
Magnetic force (on charged particle)
The force of attraction or repulsion generated by moving electric charges
Right hand rule for force on a moving charge in a magnetic field for a proton.
The force would be in the opposite direction for an electron. F=force v=velocity B=magnetic field
enthalpy
The heat content of a system at constant pressure
Highest Occupied Molecular Orbital (HOMO)
The highest-energy molecular orbital containing electrons; in UV spectroscopy. electrons are excited from the HOMO to the LUMO
Spacing effect
The longer the amount of time between sessions of re-learning, the greater the retention of the information later on
Reaction rate
The measure of how quickly reactants are consumed and products are formed, commonly expressed in terms of mol/L.s
how can you tell if a disease is X-linked?
The mother in the first generation expresses the trait, as do all of her sons. However, none of this woman's daughters have the condition, although they must be carriers. This explains how the male in the third generation acquired the trait even though neither of his parents display it. The fact that more male than female offspring express this trait, coupled with the idea that males never seem to inherit it from their fathers, is a clear hallmark of an X-linked condition.
System
The part of the universe under consideration that is separated by some real or imaginary boundary from its surroundings.
Percent composition
The percentages of the elements making up a compound (usually by mass in amu.)
calorimetry
The precise measurement of heat flow out of a system for chemical and physical processes
Solvation
The process of forming a cagelike network of solvent molecules around a solute in solution.
Ion product
The product of molar concentrations of dissociated ions in solution at any point in a dissociation reaction, where each ion is raised to the power of its stoichiometric coefficient. Denoted IP.
Colligative properties
The properties of solutions - such as vapor pressure lowering, freezing point depression, boiling point elevation, and osmotic pressure - that are affected only by the number of solute particles dissolved and not by their chemical properties.
Power
The rate at which energy is transferred from one system to another, or rate at which work is done. P = W/t = ΔE/t
Mechanical advantage
The ratio of magnitudes of the force exerted on an object by a simple machine to the force actually applied on the simple machine: MA = F(out) / F(in)
concentration
The ratio of the amount of solute to the amount of solution; quantified by mole fraction, molarity, molality, or normality, among other measures.
Equilibrium constant
The ratio of the concentrations of the products to the concentrations of the reactants at the point of equilibrium, where each reactant and product in the expression is raised to the power of its stoichiometric coefficient. Commonly denoted by Keq.
isocitrate
The second 6 carbon intermediate formed in the Krebs Cycle from Citrate.
Heat
The transfer of energy from a substance with a higher temperature to a substance with a lower temperature.
Ideal gas law
The unification of Boyle's law, Gay-Lussac's law, and Avogadro's principle into the formula that describes the behavior of ideal gases: PV=nRT.
Rogers' Unconditional Positive Regard
Therapist accepts client completely and expresses empathy in order to promote positive therapeutic environment
State functions
Thermodynamic properties that are a function of only the current equilibrium state of a system, such as: P, T, V, H, G, S Not measured by an integral
Undifferentiated
Those who achieve low scores on both masculine and feminine
wave period (T)
Time required for a wave to move the distance of one wavelength
Functions of RNA !, II, and III
Transcription of rRNA, which makes up the ribosome, is primarily done by RNA Polymerase I. Transcription of hnRNA is primarily done by RNA Polymerase II. Transcription of tRNA is primarily done by RNA Polymerase III. "Rhnt sounds like Runt"
paracellular transport
Transport of material in space between cells
Noise trials
Trials in which the signal is not presented
Isoelectronic
Two different elements that share the same electronic configuration (such as K+ and Ar).
potential energy
U = mgh
Primary reinforcer
Unconditioned reinforcer
speed = d/t
Used to calculate average speed. Distance is used instead of displacement because speed and distance are scalars.
Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
Uses FAD to reoxidize lipoic acid, forming FADH2 - FADH2 can later transfer electrons to NAD+, forming NADH that can feed into the ETC
what is secondary active transport across membranes? Give an example.
Uses previously established concentration gradient to power one molecule through spontaneous direction, powers the second against the gradient. (Pyruvate and H+)
Base rate fallacy
Using prototypical or stereotypical factors while ignoring (or not using) actual numerical information
VLDL
VLDL, or very-low-density lipoproteins are used in the transportation of triacylgylcerols to other tissues, and are produced in the liver.
Convex mirror will always produce...?
VVUR
Reinforcement Schedules
Variable-ratio schedule has fastest response rate
Trial and Error
Various solutions are tried until one is found that seems to work
Object that is between focal point and mirror (concave) will always produce a.....?
Virtual, upright, and magnified image
Feature detection
Visual pathways contain cells specialized in detection of color, shape, or motion
kcat
Vmax divided by the total enzyme available aka Turnover number= number of molecules that can be turned over per second
Power (watts)
Voltage (V) × Current (A) Watts = Voltage x Amps
stereotype content model
Warm groups: those not in direct competition with the in-group for resources Competent groups: high status within society Paternalistic: inferior, dismissed, ignored Contemptuous: resentment, annoyance, anger Envious: jealously, bitterness, distrust Admiration: pride and other positive feelings
frequency of wave (f)
Wave-speed/wavelength
what does cholesterol do to the membrane at both high and low temps?
We are looking for characteristics of a membrane that increase fluidity, especially in cold environments. Unsaturated fatty acids increase fluidity in general, due to the presence of "kinks" in their structure. Cholesterol and similar molecules, which act as a type of buffer system for membrane fluidity, are slightly more complex. Large amounts of cholesterol decrease fluidity at high temperatures but increase it at low temperatures. Therefore, this researcher would need high levels of cholesterol to best accomplish his goal.
Spreading activation
When one node of our semantic network is activated, like seeing the word "red," the other linked concepts around it are also unconsciously activated
Mass defect
Where m is the difference in masses between the atomic mass and the sum the masses of the nucleons.
Arousal Theory
Yerkes-Dodson Law that postulates performance is worst at extremely high and low levels of arousal and optimal at some intermediate level Lower levels are optimal for highly cognitive tasks Higher levels are optimal for activities requiring physical endurance and stamina Simple tasks generally require slightly higher arousal than complex tasks
Stranger anxiety
a fear and apprehension of unfamiliar individuals
Electric field
a field of force surrounding a charged particle. Fe= force FELT by TEST charge (not source charge) q=TEST chage Q= SOURCE charge Units= N/C
Oncotic pressure
a form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins, notably albumin, in a blood vessel's plasma (blood/liquid) that usually tends to pull water into the circulatory system. It is the opposing force to hydrostatic pressure.
Ideal gas
a hypothetical gas containing particles with zero volume (no size) and no attractive inter-molecular forces
phospholipid
a lipid that contains phosphorus and that is a structural component in cell membranes
prosthetic group
a molecule attached to an amino acid may be a: - metal ion - vitamin - lipid - corbohydrate - nucleic acid
Fisherian/runaway selection
a positive feedback mechanism in which a particular trait that has no effect on survival becomes more and more exaggerated over time
phase diagram
a pressure-temperature plot showing the conditions under which a substance exists in pure phase or in equilibrium between different phases.
Isothermal process
a process in which temperature (and therefore , internal energy) remain constant.
solubility
a ratio that measures how much solute can dissolve in a solvent at a given temperature.
Reduction
a reaction in which a species gains electrons
ductus arteriosus
a shunt that connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta in order to bypass the fetal lung
describe capillary walls
a single layer of endothelial cells
corepressor
a small molecule that cooperates with a repressor protein to switch an operon off
what is a second messenger? what does it do? when is released? what is a common example?
a small molecule that transduces a hormonal signal from the exterior of the cell to the interior. Usually released when a peptide hormone binds to its receptor; cAMP is a common example
aqueous solution
a solution containing water as its solvent
oxidizing agent
a species that is reduced in the process of oxidizing another species.
Divided attention
ability to perform multiple tasks at the same time
Theory of mind
ability to sense how another's mind works (ex. friend is interpreting story while you tell it)
Parallel processing
ability to simultaneously analyze and combine information regarding color, shape, and motion
Perceptual organization
ability to use these two processes (Bottom-up, top down) to create a complete picture or idea
late endosome
about to be taken into the lysosome
describe the loop of Henle, where is it? does it concentrate the urine itself?
absorbs water and sodium does not concentrate urine itself, prepares medulla for adsorption of water makes inner medulla very solute rich
Appraisal model
accepts that there are biologically predetermined expressions once an emotion is experienced, but that there is a cognitive antecedent to emotional expression
euchromatin -are histone tails acetylated or deacetylated?
acetylated histone tails
pH of vagina
acidic
how are shirt-chain fatty acids absorbed?
across the intestine into the blood
During cytokinesis, which filaments separate the dividing cells? What is the difference between actin acting to separate cells and actin in muscles?
actin filaments separate dividing cells actin = filapodium/extension/cell movement muscles = actin, 6nm diameter, low rigidity, intermediate tensile strength
How to remember each structure of striated muscle?
actin= thin filament "act thin" M line= "Middle" of myosin filament Z line= end of sacromere "Z=end of alphabet" I-band= only thin filament b/c "I is thin" H-zone= only thick filament b/c "H is thick" (also looks like brackets and it doesn't span entire thick filament) A-Band= "All of thick filament"
what does the basal body do? attaches what to what?
acts as a motor solidly attaches the flagellar structure into plasma membrane
what does FSH do in males?
acts on Sertoli cells for spermatogenesis
paracrine
acts on cells in local area
juxtacrine
acts on cells of adjacent cells
Secondary drives
additional drives not directly related to biological processes (ex. getting into medical school, becoming a physician, desire for love, achievement)
Pleasure principle
aim to achieve immediate gratification to relieve any pent-up tension psychoanalytic perspective (Freud)
Indirect therapy
aims to increase social support by educating and empowering family and friends of affected individual
Parallel plate electric field
aka electric field in a capacitor
aldoses can be oxidized to
aldonic acids alditols (The compound obtained by replacing the aldehyde group or the keto group in the molecule of the open-chain form of a monosaccharide with alcohol groups= alditol)
what does the adrenocortex secrete?
aldosterone and cortisol
what does sperm need? what kind of pH?
alkaline environment
Bottleneck effect
all future member depend from a small number of individuals
cell adhesion molecules (CAM)
allow cells to bind to other cells or similar surfaces ex: cadherins integrins selectins
Gap junctions
allow for the rapid exchange of ions and other small molecules between adjacent cells
transduction, what is specifically needed for transduction?
allows genetic material to be incorporated into the host genome using a bacteriophage in the lysogenic cycle
what is an aminoacyl tRNA synthetase (aaRS) also called? what does it do? how does it do it? how many different types of aa-tRNA are there ? How are they made?
also called tRNA-ligase is an enzyme that attaches the appropriate amino acid onto its tRNA. It does so by catalyzing the esterification of a specific cognate amino acid or its precursor to one of all its compatible cognate tRNAs to form an aminoacyl-tRNA. In humans, the 21 different types of aa-tRNA are made by the 21 different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, one for each amino acid of the genetic code
spliceosomes -what do they remove? do the ligate? responsible for?
alternative splicing removes introns ligates exons of pre-mRNA enables multiple distinct transcripts to be produced from a single gene and responsible for much genetic diversity
many redox reactions involve _______________ to transport high-energy electrons
an electron carrier
what is renin?
an enzyme released by the kidney
nernst equation
an equation used to determine a cell's electromotive force (EMF) when conditions are not standard. Ecell=E(s)cell-(0.0592/n)logQ. Where E(s)cell is the emf under standard conditions, n is the number of electrons transferred in the oxidation-reduction reaction, and Q is the reaction quotient.
what and where is the ER? What does the ER connect directly to?
an extension of the outer later of the nuclear envelope, connects ER directly to nucleus
That's-not-all technique
an individual is made an offer but before making a decision, is told the deal is even better than she expected
electrolyte
an ion in water that is capable of conducting electricity in that solution.
Desmosomes
anchor layers of epithelial tissue together
hemidesmosomes
anchor layers of epithelial tissue together
Shear Strain (y)
angle of deformation
adipocytes
animal cells used specifically for storage of large triglycerol deposits
FSH 1. where is it secreted from? 2. what does it do in females? 3. what does it do in males? 4. what other two hormones is it regulated by?
anterior pituitary maturation of ovarian follicles (females) maturation of seminiferous tubules/sperm production (males) regulated by estrogen/GnRH
Specific phobias
anxiety produced by a specific object or situation
Social anxiety disorder
anxiety that is due to social situations and persistent fear when exposed to social or performance situation that may result in embarrassment
voltage-gated ion channels
are open withing a range of membrane potentials
Association area
area that integrates input from diverse brain regions ex. multiple inputs may be necessary to solve a complex puzzle, to plan ahead for the future, or reach a difficult decision
Dopamine Hypothesis of Schizophrenia
argues that delusions, halucinations, and agitation associated with schizophrenia arise from either too much dopamine or from oversensitivity to dopamine in the brain
e= ? and its relation to ln
around 2.7. lnx= 2.7^x
REM sleep (rapid eye movement)
arousal levels reach wakefulness, but muscles are paralyzed Paradoxical sleep: one's heart rate, breathing patterns, and EEG mimic wakefulness, but individual is still asleep
Synaptic pruning
as we grow older, weak neural connections are broken while strong ones are bolstered increasing the efficiency of our brains' ability to process information
Negatively charged amino acid side chains
aspartate glutamate
Method of loci
associating each item in the list with location along a route through a building that has already been memorized. THINK: landmarks
Semantics
association of meaning with a word
Peer group
association of self-selected equals around similar interests, ages, and statuses; provide opportunity for friendship and feelings of belonging
Social construction model
assumes there is no biological basis for emotions but are based on experiences and situational context alone
what happens if hCG levels rise?
at risk for placenta percreta, placenta enters myometrium, if immune system unchecked
where is the I band
at the junction of sarcomeres
kinesins/what is a microtubule organizing center called?
attach to vesicles and travel toward the post end of microtubules, which extend toward cell membrane from microtubule organizing centers (centriole), + end is where dimers rapidly add
spindle fibers, when do they attach?
attached in metaphase
projection
attribute their undesired feelings to others
Inferior colliculus
auditory system
what happens at low pH in the gastrointestinal system/when it gets too low? what is the autocleavage of pepsinogen in the stomach caused by?
autocleavage of pepsinogen to pepsin, which denatures ingested proteins, degradation of bacteria decreases secretion of gastrin because gastric promotes HCl secretion (parietal cells)
System for multiple level observation of groups
based on the belief that there are three fundamental dimensions of interaction: dominance vs. submission, friendliness vs. unfriendliness, and instrumentally controlled vs. emotionally expressive
why is the duodenum less acidic than the stomach? which molecules are secreted and by which organ?
because of bicarbonate ions released by pancreas
Why are amide bonds rigid?
because of resonance/ planar nature
why is no work performed on a closed biological system?
because pressure and volume remain constant
Schizophrenia: prodromal phase
before diagnosis, patient goes through evidence of deterioration, social withdrawal, role functioning impairment, peculiar behavior, inappropriate affect, and unusual experiences
Functional autonomy
behavior continues despite satisfaction of the drive that originally created the behavior
Personality disorder
behavior that is inflexibile and maladaptive causing distress or impaired functioning
Fad
behavior that is transiently viewed as popular and desirable by a large community
Role partner
behaviors and expectations change with the person with whom one is interacting
Dodson law of social facilitation
being in the presence of others will significantly raise arousal, which enhances the ability to perform tasks one is already good at and hinders performance of less familiar tasks (complex tasks)
are the adaptions at high altitudes beneficial?
beneficial because atmospheric partial pressure of O2 is lower at higher altitude than at sea level
Fundamental attribution error
biased toward making dispositional attributions rather than situational attributions
what substances assist in chemical digestion
bile pancreatic lipase colipase cholesterol esterase
what do transcription factors do? where do they act?
bind to enhancer to activate transcription
RNA polymerase II
binds the TATA box within the promoter region of the gene
Ganglion cells
bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells which group together to form the optic nerve
what will happen if glucagon is competitively inhibited?
blood glucose will decrease
capillaries
blood vessels composed of a single layer of endothelial cells, facilitating exchange of gases, nutrients, and waste products between the blood and interstitial fluid contain no muscle in their walls
Bottom-up processing
brain takes up individual sensory stimuli and combines them together to create a cohesive image before determining what the object is Without this, it would be like we're looking at objects for the first time everytime
what is glycogenolysis? occurs where?
breakdown of glycogen for glucose for blood in liver
What does LCFA beta oxidation do (what two molecules does it break into)?
breaks long chains down into acyl CoA with 2 less carbons and an acetyl CoA
respiratory rate
breaths per minute. raising resp. rate can decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood, increasing the pH decreasing resp. rate increases concentration of CO2, lowers pH pH and respiratory rate are directly corelated
Transfer RNA (tRNA)
brings in amino acids and recognizes the codon on the mRNA using its anticodon
how is the daughter cell identified by polymerase while proofreading
by its lack of methylation
how are carbohydrates organized?
by the number of carbon atoms and funcational groups
where do eukaryotic post-transcriptional modifications happen?
can be in the ER or cytoplasm
Ion channels
can be used for regulating ion flow into or out of cell
side chains of amino acids
can be: polar non-polar aromatic nonaromatic charged uncharged
DNA ligase
can fuse DNA strands together to create one complete molecule
what are the genomes of viruses made of?single stranded vs double?
can have genomes made of DNA or RNA, SS or DS
Proline in secondary structure
can interrupt secondary structure because of its rigid cyclic structure
NADH (crosses/cannot cross) the inner mitochondrial membrane
cannot cross
Well-fed and fasting preferred energy source for: Liver, resting skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, adipose tissue, brain, RBCs?
cardiac cells love fat! Brain loves glucose!
Ambivalent attachment
caregiver has an inconsistent response to child's distress; child will be very distressed on separation from the caregiver but has a mixed response when the caregiver returns
Role performance
carrying out of behaviors associated with a given role; individuals can vary in how successful they are at performing a role
In a basic signal detection experiment, trials in which the signal is presented are called what?
catch trials
acetylation of lysine
cause a neutral charge to form where there was a positive charge, so the amino acid will not bind as closely to negatively-charged DNA (phosphate backbone), impacts DNA-histone interaction by loosening the bonds loose chromatin (euchromatin) would occur with acetylation **light under a microscope. **transcriptionally active
What does neurotransmitters binding to dendritic receptors cause?
cause measurable depolarization (postsynaptic)
Systemic error
caused by incorrect calibration of the measuring instrument Consistent/ repeatable error due to faulty design
what are three reasons for failed synapsis?
caused by inversion, translocation, nondisjunction
Babinski reflex
causes toes to spread apart automatically when the sole of the foot is stimulated
interphase
cell division does not take place: G1, S, G2. Cells may or may not be growing
what are platelets? what cells do they come from? where do these cells come from?
cell fragments involved in the clotting process. Come from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow
what are cadherins? what do they depend on?
cell-cell junctions, calcium dependent
osteoclasts
cells in the bone matrix that are involved in bone degradation
osteoblasts
cells in the bone tissue that secrete the organic constituents of the bone matrix. develop into osteocytes
what is actin polymerization responsible for?
cellular motility in complex eukaryotic cells
common polysaccharides
cellulose starches glycogen
acrocentric chromosome
centromere located near the end (normally, humans have 5 pairs)
Where do spindle fibers attach during Anaphase II?
centromeres are the attachment sites for spindle fibers to pull apart chromosomes
Contralaterally
cerebral hemisphere communicates cross-sided
which 3 organs use tight junctions?
cerebral vascular epithelia, mucosa of small intestine, glomerular capsules of the kidney (prevent free diffusion)
will a change in primary structure also change secondary structure?
change in aa sequence does not necessarily impact secondary structure
Compliance
change in behavior based on a direct request; person or group asks the individual to make the change typically has no actual power or authority to command individual, but ask him to change his behavior
Horizontal mobility
change in occupation or lifestyle that remains within the same social class
changes in enthalpy in a closed system are equal to
changes in internal energy
what is genetic drift? where are they more pronounced? what events can cause allele changes?
changes in the composition of the gene pool by change; often more pronounced in small populations chance events causing allele changes
Obedience
changing one's behavior in response to a direct order from an AUTHORITY figure Subtle difference from conformity- changing behaviors to change to the majority
Parkinson's disease
characterized by : bradykinesia (slowness in movement) resting tremor (appears when muscles are not being used) pill-rolling tremor (flexing/extending fingers while moving thumb back and forth, rolling something in fingers) masklike facies (static and expressionless facial features) cogwheel rigidity (muscle tension that intermittently halts movement) shuffling gait (stooped posture) Depression and dementia common symptoms
Illness Anxiety disorder
characterized by being consumed with thoughts about having or developing a serious medical condition although one isn't present
Bipolar disorder
characterized by both depression and mania; manic episodes are characterized by abnormal and persistently elevated mood lasting at least one week with at least three of the following: 1. increasing distractibility 2. decreased need for sleep 3. inflated self-esteem or grandiosity 4. racing thoughts 5. increased goal-directed activity or agitation 6. pressured speech 7. high risk behavior
Conversion disorder
characterized by unexplained symptoms affecting voluntary motor or sensory functions; begin soon after individual experiences high levels of stress or traumatic event (ex. women goes blind after watching son die tragically)
empirical formula
chemical formula showing the smallest whole number ratio of atoms in a compound.
Errors of growth
child applies a grammatical rule in a situation where it does not apply (ex. runned instead of ran, funner instead of more fun)
Role taking
child begins to understand the perspectives and roles of others
disorganized attachment
child show no clear pattern of behavior in response to the caregiver's absence or presence, but can show a mix of different behaviors; disorganized attachment associated with erratic behavior and social withdrawal by the caregiver and a red flag for abuse
Secure attachment
child will be upset when caregiver leaves and will be comforted by the return of the caregiver
Avoidant attachment
child will show little or no distress when the caregiver leaves and little or no relief when the caregiver returns
Parallel play
children play alongside each other without influencing each other's behavior
inversion
chromosomal rearrangement in which a portion of a chromosome breaks off and rejoins the same chromosome in the reverse position
translocation
chromosomal rearrangement in which a portion of one chromosome swaps with a portion of a non homologous chromosome
chromatin is what? It is visible under a light microscope?
chromosomes in their uncoiled state. Chromatin itself is not visible as organized chromosomes under a light microscope
chromosome of prokaryotes
circular contains only one origin of replication
what are portal systems? what are the 3 called?
circulatory routes in which blood travels through two capillary beds before returning to the heart. Some examples include the hypophyseal portal system, hepatic portal system, renal portal system
What do nucleases do? Are they involved in transcription?
cleave DNA for repair not involved in transcription
glycogen phosphorylase
cleaves glucose from non-reducing end of glycogen branch and phosphorylates it production glucose-1-phosphate
what does trypsin do? where?
cleaves proteins in the small intestine, is initially trypsinogen
alpha-helices
clockwise coils around a central axis secondary structure form
name for circular bacteria?
coccus
mRNA strand -does it code for several amino acids? could it code for several proteins? is it stable?
codes for several aa could possibly code for several proteins but would be formed via alternative splicing degrades rapidly in the cytoplasm due to the 2' -OH group
most common structural proteins
collagen elastin keratin actin tubulin
what is cartilage?
collagenous fibers embedded in chondrin.
Conscience
collection of improper actions for which a child is punished psychoanalytic perspective (Freud)
Ganglia
collections of neuron cell bodies found outside the central nervous system
Iris
colored part of the eye composed of the dilator pupillae and constrictor pupillae
Cyclothymic disorder
combination of hypomanic episodes and periods of dysthymia that are not severe enough to qualify as major depressive disorder
Haworth projections
common way of writing a structural formula to represent the cyclic structure of monosaccharides with a simple three-dimensional perspective.
Mnemonics
common way to memorize information particularly lists like acronyms and rhyming phrases
Twin studies
comparing condordance rates for a trait between monozygotic and dizygotic twins, are better able to distinguish the relative effects of shared environment and genetics
Retinal vessels
complex intermingling of blood vessels between sclera and the retina
Forebrain (prosencephalon)
complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes
what is gamma tubulin? where is it found? what binds to it? What does it form during prophase?
component of the centriole, center of microtubule reorganization, forms stable base for alpha and beta tubular dimers to binds, also forms mitotic spindle (during prophase)
Lewis acid? base?
compound that will accept e- and donate e-, respectively.
mutarotation
compounds shift from one anomeric to another with the straight chain form as an intermediate
Molality
concentration of a solution calculated by moles of solute per kilograms of solvent, often denoted by m.
Molarity
concentration of a solution calculated by moles of solute per liters of solution, often denoted by M.
Forming a peptide bond is a ______________________ reaction
condensation or dehydration
Source-monitoring error
confusion between semantic and episodic memory (ex. a person hears a story of something that happened to someone else and later recalls the story as having happened to him or herself)
what is the function of the basal lamina?
connect epithelial layer to underlying connective tissue (basement membrane -also composed of reticular lamina/reticular fibers)
Fluid intelligence
consists of problem-solving skills, which peaks during early adulthood
Explicit (declarative) memory
consists of those memories that require conscious recall
Nucleosides
contain a 5-carbon sugar bonded to a nitrogenous base
Septal nuclei
contain one of the primary pleasaure centers of the brain
peroxisome - what does it contain and what does it break down?
contains peroxide and participates in the breakdown of very long chair fatty acids
Elaboration likelihood model
continuum based on processing of persuasive information; based on central route processing and peripheral route processing aims to explain different ways of processing stimuli, why they are used, and their outcomes on attitude change.
negative pressure breathing -what is the negative part?
contraction of the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles increases the volume of the thoracic cavity, reducing the pressure in the intrapleural space. This decrease in pressure creates a vacuum that causes the lungs to suck in air **pressure is reduced because volume of cavity is increased, makes room for more air
Epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline)
controlling alertness and wakefulness In the sympathetic system, promote fight-or-flight response and mostly produced by the adrenal medulla
Hindbrain
controls balance, motor coordination, breathing, digestion, and general arousal processes like sleeping and waking
Apoproteins
controls interactions between lipoproteins
Anterior hypothalamus
controls sexual behavior
Superior colliculus
controls some responses to visual stimuli and reflexive eye movements
what is ACE? what does this facilitate? what does the release of this substance do?
converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which facilitates the release of aldosterone (raises BP and retains water)
galactose-1-phosphate uridlytransferase
converts galactose 1-phosphate to glucose 1-phosphate
Basal ganglia
coordinate muscle movement as they receive information from the cortex and relay this information to the brain and spinal cord
genetic map - what is analyzed? what does the schematic show?
created by analyzing recombination frequencies of linked genes; a schematic that shows the distance between two genes or the order of several genes on a chromosome
knockout mice
created by deleting a gene of interest
Transgenic mice
created by integrating a gene if interest into the germ line of embryonic stem cells of a developing mouse - can be mated to select for the transgene
DNA topoisomerases
creates nicks in DNA to release torsional strain caused by supercoiling
Associative learning
creation of a pairing or association either between two stimuli or between a behavior and a response
Genetic compatibility
creation of mate pairs that have complementary genetics; attraction to others who have starkly different genetic makeups reduces the probability of offspring being homozygotic for disease-carrying allele
Illusion of invulnerability (Irving Janis's Groupthink)
creation of optimism and encouragement of risk-taking
test cross
cross between an organism of an undetermined genotype and another that is HOMOZYGOUS RECESSIVE for the trait of interest
what is homologous recombination? when does it happen? what is the complex called?
crossing over/prophase 1/synaptonemal complex
excision endonuclease
cuts and patches helix-deforming lesions such as thymine dimers
snRNA
cuts out introns
Relative deprivation
decrease in resources, representations, or agency relative to the past or to the whole of society
Parkinson's disease (biological)
decreased dopamine production in substantia nigra (layer of brain cells that produce dopamine to permit functioning of basal ganglia) Treatment: L-DOPA (precursor converted to dopamine once in brain)
What does Ach do (3 things)?
decreases heart rate, increases sympathetic nervous system at preganglionic nicotinic receptors, hypotension
what does calcitonin do?
decreases plasma Calcium concentration in the blood
Aphasia
deficit of language production or comprehension
Racialization
definition or establishment of a group as a particular race
Relearning
demonstrating that information has been stored in long-term memory
heterochromatin
dense, transcriptionally silent DNA that appears dark under light microscopy
Pragmatics
dependence of language on context and preexisting knowledge (ex. we are more formal to a stranger but casual language with friend)
What is the fate of a side chain in protein catabolism?
depends on chemistry
What does the rate of influx of large polar molecules into cells depend on?
depends upon the number of transmembrane proteins and the concentration of the molecules outside of the cell
Pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphotase
dephosphorylates PDH when ADP levels are high, turning it on
Seasonal Affective Disorder
depressive symptoms are present only in the winter months related to abnormal melatonin metabolism and treated with bright light therapy
Where is the dermis derived from?
derived from mesoderm
Symbolic ethnicity
describes specific connection to one's ethnicity in which ethnic symbols and identity remain important even when ethnic identity does not play a significant role in everyday life
osmosis
describes the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane
displacement
describes transference of undesired urge from one person or object to another
Regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF)
detects broad patterns of neural activity based on increased blood flow to different parts of the body
Sensory bias
development of a trait to match a preexisting preference that exists in the population (ex. fiddler crabs are naturally attracted to structures that break up the level horizon because they may indicate a food source; male crabs build pillars around their territory to attract mates)
neural tube
develops into CNS, derived from ectoderm
Differential association theory
deviance can be learned through interactions with others; intimate exposure to others who engage in deviant behavior lays the groundwork for one to engage in deviant behavior him- or herself
what do ddNTP's lack and what is the result due to this difference?
di-deoxy, lacks both the 2 and 3 prime -OH group on the ribose terminates replication
breathing: inspiration
diaphragm contracts, flattening, increasing volume in the lungs, decreasing pressure which sucks air into the lungs
Role strain
difficulty in satisfying multiple requirements of the same role
Role conflict
difficulty in statisfying the requirements or expectations of multiple roles
where is enteropeptidase secreted? What does it do?
digestive enzyme secreted by duodenum. Converts trypsinogen to trypsin. Trypsin activates other pancreatic enzymes to allow digestion to continue
endoderm forms what?
digestive/respiratory tracts, liver, pancreas, thyroid and bladder
what is another name for vitamin D and what does it do in the kidney?
dihydroxycholecalciferol works in kidney to increase Ca reaborption
SNS -how does it impact lungs? How does it impact vasculature? could it help to clot blood?
dilates the lungs vasoconstrictor, could help to clot blood (ephedrine)
primary spermatocytes
diploid cells that undergo meiosis I to form 2 haploid secondary spermatocytes
Coulomb's law says that the force between any two charges depends
directly on the size of the charges and inversely on the square of the distance between the charges
Socialization
discussing of the process of developing, inheriting, and spreading norms, customs, and beliefs
cuboidal cells that are lacking brush border enzymes and microvillus based lining are found where?
distal CT
what functions does cysteine have?
disulfide bonds, post translational modifications, prenylation, being metal ions (bc of thiol group)
Concave and convex lenses are...?
diverging and converging, respectively. denotes negative and positive focal and radius values, respectively. RECAP: Convex lens= converging=+ f and r values Concave lens= diverging=- f and r values
Scalae
divides cochlea into three parts
determinate cleavage
division of cells during embryogenesis in which each cell specializes early in development. Each cell is not necessarily able to differentiate into an entire organism on its own
meso compounds (do or do not) rotate plane polarized light?
do not
Do rbcs contain mitochondria? What is the effect?
don't have mitochondria, cannot maintain/repair for more than a few months
What are the 3 main catecholamines? Are there hormones or neurotransmitters/both?
dopamine, nor, epi (neurotransmitters); hormones produced by the adrenal medulla (SNS)
phospholipid bilayer
double layer of phospholipid molecules that makes up a plasma membrane
metathesis rxn aka?
double replacement
Top-down processing
driven by memories and expectations that allow the brain to recognize the whole object and then recognize the components based on these expectations Allows us to quickly recognize components based on these expectations Would have difficulty discriminating similar objects without this processing
Role exit
dropping of one identity for another
increasing order of chromosome structure
dsDNA, histone, nucleosome, chromatin
decreased ACTH levels
due to negative feedback from high cortisone levels
what are the 2 differences between the action potentials of cardiac and skeletal muscle?
duration and shape
During meiosis, do the centromeres split during part 1?
during meiosis: do not split during the first incarnation of anaphase
when/why does ketogenesis occur?
during prolonged starvation state due to excess acetyl-CoA in the liver
Repression
ego's way of forcing undesired thoughts and urges to unconscious
metalloids
elements that have properties between those of metals and nonmetals; includes B, Si, Ge, As, Sb, Te, Po, and At.
Self-determination Theory (SDT)
emphasizes roles of ... Autonomy: need to be in control of one's actions and ideas Competence: need to complete and excel at difficult tasks Relatedness: need to feel accepted and wanted in relationships
sigma factors -what do they enable? where? what are they necessary for?
enable RNA polymerase to bind to promotor sequences necessary for initiation of RNA synthesis very specific
Working memory
enables us to keep a few pieces of information in our consciousness simultaneously and manipulate that information
Where are secreted proteins cleaved in their mature form?
endoplasmic reticulum
what kinds of cells make up the blood brain barrier?
endothelial with tight junctions
sticky ends
ends that anneal together to form new strand
reverse transcriptase
enzyme in retroviruses that uses RNA strands as templates for synthesizing cDNA (complementary DNA) molecules
carbonic anhydrase
enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of carbonic acid to carbon dioxide and water as well as the formation of carbonic acid from carbon dioxide and water. Important in the bicarbonate buffer system.
Epimerase
enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of one sugar epimer to another
flavoprotein
enzymes involved in oxidation/reduction reactions (FAD/FMN apoprotein)
Catecholamines or monoanimes or biogenic amines)
epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine
what causes puberty
estrogen primarily (6 membered ring)
James-Lange theory of emotion
event--> physiological response--> emotional response Bear causes increased sympathetic NS leading to scared emotion
Disconformation principle
evidence obtained from testing demonstrated that the solution does not work
Implicit memory: procedural
ex. retain skill of riding a bike
Second sickness
exacerbation of health outcomes caused by social injustice Second sickness is a phenomenon in which exacerbation of health outcomes is caused by social injustice, predicting longer life expectancies for professional groups
What 2 things cause O2 to offload?
exercise and metabolic acidosis
Self-fulfilling prophecy
expectation create conditions that lead to confirmation of those expectations ex. people tell you a class is hard and most people fail, you start to get nervous and do bad, validating their opinion
Opponent-Process Theory
explains continuous drug use where the body will attempt to counteract the effects of the drug by changing its physiology (ex. body counteract repeated use of alcohol that will last longer than the drug resulting in withdrawal symptoms) Withdrawal creates dependence on drug
Incentive theory
explains that behavior is motivated not by need or arousal, but the desire to pursue rewards and avoid punishments
Attitude
expression of positive or negative feelings toward a person, place, thing, or scenario
Adaptive value
extent to which a trait or behavior positively benefits a species by influencing the evolutionary fitness of the species thus leading to adaptation through natural selection
viral envelope - where did the external surface come from, where specifically and how did it travel to the membrane?
external surface of viral envelope = came from host, made in host ER and travels to membrane via vesicles
Stigma
extreme disapproval or dislike of a person or group based on perceived differences from the rest of society (ex. HIV, obesity)
Regression
faced with stress, older children return to earlier behaviors like thumb-sucking, throwing temper tantrums, clinging to their mothers
Interpersonal attraction
factors that affect attraction including similarity, self-disclosure, reciprocity, and proximity
Short term memory
fades quickly around 30 seconds without rehearsal and limited to 7+/-2 rule
Type 2 error
failing to reject a false null hypothesis False negative
Automatic processing
familiar or routine actions can be performed
Panic disorder
fear and apprehension, trembling, sweating, hyperventilation, sense of unreality
Agoraphobia
fear of being in places or situations where it might be hard for an individual to escape
Separation anxiety
fear of being separated from the parental figure
Polyandry
female having exclusive relationships with multiple partners
filtrate in gravity filtration
filtrate= flow through solvent. gravity filtration is typically used to remove unwanted material from solutions. residue= solids/materials that are in the filter
what does high pressure in the Bowman's capsule do?
filtration
What are the three steps of urine formation?
filtration, resbsorption, secretion
Material (or tangible) support
financial or material contribution to another person
Direct benefits
fitness of species; provide material advantages, protection, emotional support
Force field theory (Kurt Lewin)
focus on current state of mind
Capitalist economies
focus on free market trade with little intervention from central governing bodies; a private owner or corporation maintains and profits from the success of the business which encourages division of labor, where specific components of a larger task are separated and assigned to skilled and trained individuals, promoting specialization and efficiency
Humanistic perspective
focus on the value of individuals and take a more person-centered approach, describing those ways in which healthy people strive toward self-realization
Rational choice theory
focuses on decision-making in an individual and attempts to reduce this process to a careful consideration of benefits and harms to the individual
Strain Theory
focuses on how anomic conditions can lead to deviance; anomic conditions include excessive individualism, social inequality, and isolation
Malthusian theory
focuses on how the exponential growth of a population can outpace growth of the food supply and lead to social degradation and disorder
Signal detection theory
focuses on the changes in our perception of the same stimuli depending on both internal and external context ex. How loud would someone need to yell your name in a crowd to get your attention?
Social Interactionist Theory of language acquisition
focuses on the interplay between biological and social processes where language acquisition is driven by the child's desire to communicate in a social manner
Attribution theory
focuses on the tendency for individuals to infer the causes of other people's behavior
Social cognition
focuses on the ways in which people think about others and how these ideas impact behavior
what are some organic acids?
folic, ascorbic, citric not carbonic
what is Taq polymerase needed for? what is the process called? what does it need to be able to withstand? what was originally used?
for lab synthesis of DNA PCR Taq polymerase was identified as an enzyme able to withstand the protein-denaturing conditions (high temperature) required during PCR. Therefore, it replaced the DNA polymerase from E. coli originally used in PCR.
power exerted by a force on a moving object
force x velocity = force x distance/time
what structures do microtubules form? When will they not be in this configuration?
form free-floating dimers, unless stabilized by other proteins
what is an anomer? What makes it alpha? what makes it beta?
form of epimer (sugar different at 1 stereo center) alpha anomer if -OH is in different position from -CH2OH beta anomer - same direction
Altruism
form of helping behavior in which the person's intent is to benefit someone else at the cost to him or herself
Telencephalon
forms cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, and limbic system
Diencephalon
forms thalamus, hypothalamus, posterior pituitary gland, and pineal gland THINK: 2 catagories of two (2 thalami, 2 glands)
what is the Shine-Dalgarno sequence? what kind of cell has it?
found exclusively in prokaryotic mRNA, upstream of the start codon
tetrose
four carbon sugar
conformers
freely convert without breaking bonds (chair/boat)
most common monosaccharides
fructose glucose galactose mannose
Combustion reactions have what?
fuel/ oxidant (usually oxygen)
Urban renewal
fueled by gentrification= when upper or middle class populations purchase and rennovate neighborhoods in deteriorated areas, displacing low-SES population
Amino acids at high (alkaline) pH
fully deprotonated
Amino acids at low (acidic) pH
fully protonate
constitutional isomer
fundamentally different connectivity
lactose
galactose-beta-1,4-glucose
gamma decay
gamma particle emitted, no change in parent nucleus
what are connexins?
gap junction proteins
how is cell differentiation mediated?
gene expression
Erikson's Psychosocial development: age 52.5 years old
generativity/ stagnation (40 to 65 years old)
haploid
germ cells (a cell containing half the number of chromosomes of a somatic cell and able to unite with one from the opposite sex to form a new individual; a gamete)
Network support
gives a person a sense of belonging
RT-PCR
gives info about amount of RNA expressed
cortisol is a..
glucocorticoid
important glycolytic enzymes
glucokinase hexokinase phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1) phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase 3-phosphoglycerate kinase pyruvate kinase
which enzymes catalyze irreversible reactions in glycolysis?
glucokinase/hexokinase PFK-1 Pyruvate kinase
carbon skeletons of amino acids are used for energy either through _____________________ or ________________________________
gluconeogenesis ketone bodies
sucrose
glucose-alpha-1,2-fructose, NON-REDUCING!! THINK: GFS= Glucose+ Fructose= Sucrose
maltose
glucose-alpha-1,4-glucose
nonpolar, nonaromatic amino acid side chains
glycine alanine valine leucine isoleucine methionine proline
Just-world hypothesis
good things happen to good people, bad things happen to bad people KARMA!!!!
Display rules
govern which emotions can be expressed and to what degree
Group conformity
group holds power over its members, creating group pressure that ultimately shapes members' behaviors; individuals are compliant with the group's goals, even when the group's goals may be in direct contrast to the individual's goals
Reference groups
groups that establish the terms by which individuals evaluate themselves
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
hCG, a protein hormone, begins to be produced in large amounts in early pregnancy (basis for pregnancy tests). It is biologically similar to luteinizing hormone (LH). hCG's primary role is to keep the corpus luteum functioning, so that the corpus luteum continues to produce estrogen and progesterone.
Ampulla
hair cells are located here in the semicircular canals
Cochlea is tonotopically organized
hair cells are vibrating gives the brain an indication of the pitch of sound
oligopeptides
have "a few" amino acid residues
Somatic symptom disorder
have at least one somatic symptom which may or may not be linked to an underlying medical condition
Amino Acids
have four groups attached to a central (alpha) carbon: - an amino group - a carboxylic acid group - a hydrogen atom - and an R group 20 appear in the proteins of eukaryotic organisms are amphoteric
polypeptides
have many amino acid residues
beta-anomers
have the -OH on the anomeric carbon cis to the free -CH2OH group
alpha-anomers
have the -OH on the anomeric carbon trans to the free -CH2OH group
Magnetic field (circular wire)
have the donut (loop), but can't have the pi
Magnocellular cells
have very high temporal resolution but low spatial resolution so it can provide a blurry but moving image of an object
Causes for DNA denaturation
heat alkaline pH chemicals like formaldehyde and urea -removal of these conditions may result in reannealing of the strands
changes in internal energy in a closed system are equal to
heat exchange within the environment
neurons in brain -what do they look like?
heavily branched
concentration gradients
help to determine appropriate membrane transport mechanisms in cells
Adoption studies
helps understand environmental influences and genetic influence on behavior
hybrid vigor, what is another name for it?
heterosis heterozygous trait with increased resistance
Fovea
highest concentration of cones
Bipolar cells
highlight gradients between adjacent rods or cones
H1
holds DNA in place as it enters/exits wound region of nucleosome, provides stability
lipids are mobilized from adipocytes by ___________________
hormone-sensitive lipase
Mate bias
how choosy members of the species are while choosing a mate
Spatial inequality
how geography influences social processes
Religiosity
how religious one considers him/her-self
Syntax
how words are put together to form sentences
Breaking a peptide bond is a ____________________ reaction
hydrolysis
fumarase
hydrolyzes the alkene bond of fumarate, forming malate
what kinds of molecules are in the interior of the transmembrane domain?
hydrophobic
peptide hormone receptor
hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions and hormone binds to hydrophilic AA-derived
what do fatty acids require in order to travel in the blood?
hydrophobic, requires transporters in the blood (albumin), TG too large to travel in blood
Bipolar II disorder
hypomania with at least one major depressive episode
Virtual Image
i<0 (image is less than 0)
Real Image
i>0 (image is greater than 0) AKA image on same side of object (can't be positive if on other side)
Sensory memory
iconic (visual) and (echoic) memory in which the memory lasts a very short time like under one second
Primacy effect
idea that first impressions are often more important than subsequent impressions
Reciprocal determinism
idea that our thoughts, feelings, behaviors, and environment all interact with each other to determine our actions in a given situation
Constancy
idea that we perceive certain characteristics of objects to remain the same, despite differences in the environment
Erikson's Psychosocial development: age 16 years old
identity/ role confusion (12 to 20 years old)
Tectorial membrane
immobile membrane
what are interleukins?
immune proteins, glycoproteins expressed by white blood cells
What are the 3 mRNA post-transcriptional modifications?
in nucleus (addition of poly AA tail, addition of 5' cap, splicing)
where/how are fatty acids synthesized?
in the cytoplasm from acetyl-CoA transported out of the mitochondria (mostly in liver and adipose tissue)
where does muchanical digestion of lipids occur primarily?
in the mouth and stomach
Anterograde amensia
inability to form new memories
Dissociative amnesia
inability to recall past experiences, often linked to trauma Disociative fugue: sudden, unexpected move or purposeless wandering away from one's home or location of usual daily ctivities
Gross motor skills
incorporate movement from large muscle groups and whole body motion like sitting, crawling, and walking
role of electrolytes in electrolytic cell?
increase conductivity--> increase efficency
what is hyperventilation?
increase in O2 and decrease of CO2. Also causes alkalosis (rise in blood pH)
what do aquaporins do?
increase water reabsorption
what is aldosterone?
increased reabsorption of NA+
what does hyperaldosteronism do?
increases aldosterone, increases BP H20 and Na reabsorption (into blood) while exchanging K for Na
PTH -what does it do? what two places does it draw from?
increases blood Calcium concentration by increasing Calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and by stimulating calcium release from bone
what is malonyl CoA an indictor of? what does it inhibit? -how?
indicator of ongoing fatty acid synthesis inhibits B oxidation by preventing the movement of long chain acyl groups into the mitochondrial matrix
Fictional finalism
individual more motivated by expectations of future than past experiences
ego-syntonic
individual perceives her behavior as correct, normal, or in harmony with her goals
Trait theorists
individual personality as the sum of a person's characteristic behaviors
Ego-dystonic
individual sees illness as something thrust upon her that is intrusive and bothersome
Correspondent inference theory
individual unexpectedly performs a behavior that helps or hurts us; explain behavior by dispositional attribution
Bystander effect
individuals do not intervene to help victims when others are present
depersonalization/derealization disorder
individuals feel detached from their own mind and body (depersonaliation) or from their surroundings (derealization)
Deindividuation
individuals in a group setting lose individual identity
Reaction formation
individuals suppress urges by unconsciously converting them into their exact opposites
Reliance on central trait
individuals tend to organize the perception of others based on traits and personal characteristics of the target that are most relevant to the perceiver
Self-serving bias/self-serving attribution bias
individuals view their own success based on internal factors while viewing failures based on external factors internal locus of control for successes and external locus of control for failures
what is induction? how does it happen?
inducers/organizers: develop the functions of nearby cells via chemicals
operons
inducible or repressible clusters of genes transcribed as a single mRNA
Grasping reflex
infant closes his or her fingers around an object placed in his or her hand
Moro reflex
infants react to abrupt movements of their heads by flinging out their arms then slowly retracting their arms and crying
what type of cell is affected by a bacteriophage (pro/eu)? Are all viruses parasites? Can direct contact with viral DNA happen?
infects prokaryotes all viruses are parasites contact between viral and host DNA can result in recombination events in eu =direct contact with viral DNA, can only happen if virus enters the nucleus
what information does a Western blot provide? What is it sometimes also called?
information about proteins (sometimes called the protein immunoblot) is a widely used analytical technique used in molecular biology, immunogenetics and other molecular biology disciplines to detect specific proteins in a sample of tissue homogenate or extract.
Elaborative rehearsal
information becomes associated with previously stored long-term memories
What is a positive repressible operon?
inhibitor attaches to operator, blocking activator (activator = positive)
what happens during primary response immune response?
initial response to the specific antigen: phagocytes, macrophages. T and B cells are activated and specific antibodies and memory cells for the antigen are produced
Erikson's Psychosocial development: age 4.5 years old
initiative/ guilt (3 to 6 years old)
Freud - Instinct
innate psychological representation of a biological need Life instinct (Eros): promote individual's quest for survival through thirst, hunger, sexual need Death instinct (Thanatos): represent unconscious wish for death and destruction
Instinct Theory
innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to stimuli; people are driven to do certain behaviors based on evolutionarily programmed instincts
Bony labyrinth
inner ear bone
Membranous labyrinth
inner ear structures bathed with this potassium-rich fluid called endolymph
what kind of molecule composes the zone pellilucida?
inner layer of glycoproteins surrounding oocyte
sound in decibels
intensity of sound waves/ threshold of hearing( 1 x 10-12 Watts per meter squared)
Primary group
interactions are direct with close bonds providing warm, personal, and intimate relationships to members, last long period of time,
Secondary group
interactions are superficial, with few emotional bonds, last short period of time
Michaelangelo phenomenon
interpersonal self: manner in which others influence creation of the ideal self
Capacitors in series
inverse summation (1/Ct= 1/C1 + 1/C2 + 1/Cn....)
Resisters in parallel
inverse summation (1/Rt= 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/Rn....)
Social capital
investments people make in society in return for rewards like through social networking
Fine motor skills
involve smaller muscles of the fingers, toes, and eyes, providing specific and delicate movement
what will drinking large amounts of water cause?
ion osmolarity to decrease and then slowly increase
Prejudice
irrational positive or negative attitude toward a person, group, or thing, prior to an actual experience with that entity
Amino acids near pI of amino acid
is a neutral zwitterion
HDL
is involved in the reverse transport of cholesterol
secondary structure
is the local structure of neighboring amino acids, and is stablized by hydrogen bonding between amino groups and non-adjacent carboxyl groups Involves the backbone of the AA
How is isoelectric point determined for aa with acidic side chains? What about basic side chains?
isoelectric point is the average of the 2 most acidic (lowest) pKas, two highest pKas
unsaturated fatty acids use a(n) _______________________ and an additional _____________________ during cleavage
isomerase reductase
Aconitase
isomerizes citrate to isocitrate
Halo effect
judgements about a specific aspect of an individual can be affected by one's overall impression of the individual
rationalization
justification of behaviors in a manner that is acceptable to the self and society
The brain can produce up to 2/3 of its energy from ___________________________ during prolonged starvation
ketone bodies
what is a peptidoglycan a key component of? what are they produced by? how are these different from what transmits a hormone signal?
key component of bacterial cell walls, produced on by prokaryotes
what is the difference between kinases and phosphatases?
kinases phosphorylate and often activate an enzyme/process while kinases dephosphorylate and inactivate
azimthal quantum number?
l, describes the subshell with principal energy level 0=s, 1=p, 2=d, 3=f
Labeling theory
labels given to people affect not only how others respond to that person, but also the person's self image
Propaganda
large organizations and political groups attempt to create prejudices in others
Door-in-the-face technique
large request is made at first and if refused, a second and smaller request is made
chylomicrons
largest, least dense transport mechanism for dietary triglycerol liver removes remnants from blood transported via lymphatic system
wobble
last bp does not determine aa brought to the same extent as the first two degeneracy = helpful
Law of conservation of energy
law stating that energy cannot be created or destroyed but only transferred and transformed.
Latent learning
learning that occurs without a reward but that is spontaneously demonstrated once a reward is introduced
euchromatin
less dense, transcriptionally active DNA that appears light under light microscopy EUCHkaryotes need it to survive!
Prestige
level of respect shown to a person by others
Pons
lies above the medulla and contains sensory and motor pathways between the cortex and medulla
Anterior chamber
lies in front of the iris
recombination frequency - higher when genes are where?
likelihood of two genes on the same chromosome being separated during crossing over onto two different chromosomes; equal to the proportion of gametes that receive these recombinant chromosomes. If recombination frequency of two particular traits is high, it can be inferred that they lie far apart from each other
Players in oxidative phosphorylation: neg regulators?
limited ADP and O2
Long term memory
limitless warehouse for the knowledge that we are then able to recall on demand
chromosome of eukaryotes
linear contain many origins of replication
trace the flow of bile
liver, gall bladder, cystic duct, common bile duct, duodenum
Broca's area
located in front of inferior frontal gyrus of the frontal lobe, controls motor function of speech via connections with the motor cortex
Wernicke's area
located in superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe; responsible for language comprehension
Olfactory chemoreceptors
located in the olfactory epithelium in upper part of nasal cavity
where are the seminiferous tubules? what are they the site of?
located in the testes, site of sperm production
Frontal lobe: Primary motor cortex
located on precentral gyrus (in front of central sulcus that divides frontal and parietal lobes) and initiates voluntary motor movements by sending neural impulses down the spinal cord toward muscles
apurinic/apyrimidinic (AP) site
location in DNA (also in RNA but much less likely) that has neither a purine nor a pyrimidine base - can be created during base excision repair
Stereocilia
long tufts on top of hair cells that sway back and forth causing the opening of ion channels Hair cells are connected to the tectorial membrane and the hair cells are involved in amplifying the incoming sound
acetylation
loosen chromatin structure and enhance transcription decetylation=decrease transcription
Distant networks
looser and contain weaker ties, include acquaintances
Parkinson's disease (related to dopamine)
loss of dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia where disruptions lead to resting tremors and jerky movements
Retrograde amnesia
loss of previously formed memories
Agnosia
loss of the ability to recognize objects, people, or sounds; caused by physical damage to the brain such as a stroke or MS
What do saturated fats do to membrane fluidity? Are they stabilizing or destabilizing?
lower the membrane fluidity/stabilize the membrane
positively charges amino acid side chains
lysine arginine histidine THINK: HR K= "HomeRun is oK"
m1 values with given l (azimuthal)?
m1=2l+1 range -l to l
Inverted image
m<0 (magnification is less than 0)
Upright image
m>0 (magnification is greater than 0)
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
macromolecule that stores genetic info in all living things
where is bile made? stored? released?
made in liver, stored in gallbladder, released into duodenum
what happens to the collecting duct when dehydrated? what hormones makes this possible?
made water permeable, so water remains in the body side effect of vasopressin/ADH
what is a sensitizing effect?
magnification
Coulomb's Law
magnitude of force between two charges= Electric Force = F = k * (q₁q₂)/r² = 1/(4πε₀) * (q₁q₂)/r Inverse square law
what is the function of a reflex arc? Do they have an interneuron? Do they have to be located the brain?
maintain homeostasis dont necessarily have an interneuron don't need to be located in the brain
fundamentalism
maintenance of strict adherence to religious code instead of shifting towards rationality and scientific thinking
osmoregulation
maintenance of water and solute concentrations
what are proteoglycans/glycoproteins a major component of?
major component of mucus
coding regions
make proteins
If an ionic compound dissociates, what do you need to be aware of?
make sure that you count the total number of moles dissociating
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
makes up the ribosome and is enzymatically active
what is a viral capsid?
many identical protein membranes
momentum
mass x velocity
spermatozoa
mature sperm specialized for transporting the genetic information from the male to the ovum
2 types of what are the different roles for somatostatin? what does the one in the brain do?
may act as a neurotransmitter (produced in the hypothalamus) = growth hormone inhibitor
Inclusive fitness
measure of an organism's success in the population; based on the number of offspring, success in supporting offspring, the ability of the offspring to then support others; promotes altruistic behavior which can improve fitness and success of a species as a whole
Decay
memories are simply lost naturally over time as neurochemical trace of a short term memory fades
Context effects
memory is aided by being in the physical located where encoding took place
Anterograde amnesia
memory loss characterized by not being able to establish new long-term memories whereas memory for events that occurred before brain injury is usually intact
Retrograde amnesia
memory loss of events that transpired before brain injury
Alzheimer's Disease
memory loss proceed in retrograde fashion with loss of recent memories before distant memories Associated with neurofibrillary tangles and beta-amyloid plaques Sundowning: increase in dysfunction in the late afternoon and evening
Wish fulfillment
mental imagery like daydreaming to fulfill need for satisfaction psychoanalytic perspective (Freud)
the three types of RNA
messenger RNA transfer RNA Ribosomal RNA
What does cytochrome P-450 enzyme metabolize? What would happen if less of what this enzyme metabolizes?
metabolizes statin, if less statin metabolized = potential overdoes
Biopsychosocial approach
method assumes there are biological, psychological, and social components to an individual's behavior
binary fission
method of asexual reproduction by which prokaryotes divide. The circular DNA molecule replicates and then moves to the edge of the cell. The cell then divides into 2 daughter cells of equal size
endocytosis
method of engulfing material into cells via cell membrane
exocytosis
method of releasing material to the exterior of the cell via cell membrane
Incline plane: normal force eq
mg cos(theta)
Incline plane: parallel force eq
mg sin (theta)
digested lipids may form ______________ or be absorbed ______________
micelles directly
What are eu cilia and flagella made of?
microtubules
Mesoderm
middle germ layer; develops into brain, muscles, and much of the circulatory, reproductive, and excretory systems
Organ of Corti
middle scala housing the actual hearing apparatus and composes of thousands of hair cells bathed in endolymph
Threshold
minimum amount of a stimulus that renders a difference in perception
Absolute threshold
minimum of stimulus energy that is needed to activate a sensory system
enantiomers
mirror images, non-superimposable
False consciousness
misperception of one's actual position in society
Where does the citric acid cycle take place?
mitochondrial matrix
sarcoplasmic reticulum, what does it store and release?
modified form of endoplasmic reticulum, stores Ca that is used to trigger contraction when muscle is stimulated
Opiates
morphine and codeine Opioids: oxycodone, hydrocodone, and heroin
are genes near each other closely linked?
most closely linked due to low probability that they will be separated during crossing over
how are chemoreceptors used to stimulate breathing? what does exhale release?
most directly stimulated to increase breathing rate by decreased pH of cerebrospinal fluid, decreased pH = increased retention of CO2, respiration excretes CO2
describe the PCT
most resorption of biologically important solutes, like glucose
What kinds of carriers are in the ETC?
motile and hydrophobic (except cytochrome c is water soluble)
In which direction do dyneins move?
move toward the center of the cell
what do cotransporters do across a membrane?
moves 2 different ions in the same direction across a membrane
diasterisomer
multiple chiral centers, don't have to differ in connectivity
if given autosomal recessive disorder statistics, how do you find prevalence?
multiply the prevalence by the percentage chance that the child will have the gene/carry the gene
In muscle contraction, ATP from ADP causes what? what does it require?
muscle to relax, free Ca concentration lowers, tropomyosin and troponin return to resting positions (requires Ca ATPase in sarcoplasmic reticulum)
no mutation found within gene, but protein is lacking. Where is the mutation?
mutation in gene coding for RNA polymerase
frameshift mutation
mutation in which a number of nucleotides are either deleted or inserted.
redundancy and wobble allow
mutations to occur without effects in the protein
In what type of myelinated cell, is the fastest action potential?
myelinated with larger diameter
principle quantum number?
n, describes the energy level of shell
pathway of respiration
nasal/oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli (site of gas exchange)
Strain theory
natural reaction to the disconnect between social goals and social structure (ex. American dream hard to acquire because education/opportunity not available to all)
Primary drives
need for food, water, and warmth, which motivate us to sustain bodily processes in homeostasis
Self-enhancement
need to maintain self-worth and can be done through internal attribution of successes and external attribution of failures
What does an - RNA virus need?
needs accompanying viral protein to convert it to + RNA
Push factors
negative attributes of the old location that encourage the immigrant to leave
what is a glomerulus? what does it filter? what does not get filtered (2 things)? What does get filtered (3 things)?
network of capillaries within bowman's capsule that serves as the site of filtration. Blood cells and proteins are too large to be filtered, but ions, glucose and aa readily pass into the filtrate
Mirror neurons
neurons are located in the frontal and parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex and fire both when an individual performs an action and when that individual observes someone else performing that action
Retroactive interference
new information causes forgetting of old information
archea/bacteria
no organelles
is dilation performed by capillaries?
no, there isn't smooth muscle performed by arteries/arterioles
sense strand
non-template strand coding strand
Folkway
norms that refer to behavior that is considered polite in particular social interactions such as shaking hands after a sports match
what is cholesterol a precursor for? what is it not a precursor for?
not a precursor for nucleic acid is a precursor for bile salts and hormones
incomplete pentrance
not all shows the phenotype
nucleotide
nucleoside + phosphate group(s)
nuceotides
nucleosides with 1-3 phosphate groups added
what is a point mutation?
nucleotide base is substituted for another: protein products may or may not be functional
what does a bipolar nerve cell look like? where are they found?
nucleus in the middle retina
What 5 things are in blood plasma?
nutrients, salts, respiratory gases, hormones, blood proteins
Karen Horney - Object relations Theory
object refers to representation of parents or other caregivers based on subjective experiences during early infanc; objects prsist into adulthood and impact our interactions with others
Phenotypic benefits
observable traits that make a potential mate more attractive to the opposite sex; traits indicate increased production and survival of offspring
OCD
obsessions: persistent, intrusive thoughts and impulses Compulsions: repetitive tasks that relieve tension but cause significant impairment in a person's life
Primary socialization
occurs during childhood when we initially learn acceptable actions and attitudes in our society, primarily through observation of our PARENTS and other adults in close
why is there an excitation-contraction coupling in muscles?
occurs when a channels in SR change conformation in response to depolarization propagated across sarcolemma and into Ttubules, Ca leaks out and muscle contracts
Attribute substitution
occurs when individuals must make judgments that are complex but instead they substitute a simpler solution or apply heuristic
Groupthink
occurs when members begin to focus solely on ideas generated within the group while ignoring outside ideas; may limit to group's options or views
esterification of sugars
occurs when sugars react with carboxylic acids and their derivatives
allosteric inhibitors
occurs when the binding of one ligand decreases the affinity for substrate at other active sites. For example, when 2,3-BPG binds to an allosteric site on hemoglobin, the affinity for oxygen of all subunits decreases.
Neurulation
occurs when the ectoderm overlying the notochord begins to furrow, forming a neural groove surrounded by two neural folds
Disulfide bonds
occurs when two cysteine molecules are oxidized and create a covalent bond to form cystine
matrilineal inheritance
often due to inheritance of mitochondrial DNA from mother Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA or mDNA)[3] is the DNA located in mitochondria, cellular organelles within eukaryotic cells that convert chemical energy from food into a form that cells can use, adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Mitochondrial DNA is only a small portion of the DNA in a eukaryotic cell; most of the DNA can be found in the cell nucleus and, in plants and algae, also in plastids such as chloroplasts. In humans, the 16,569 base pairs of mitochondrial DNA encode for only 37 genes.[4] Human mitochondrial DNA was the first significant part of the human genome to be sequenced. In most species, including humans, mtDNA is inherited solely from the mother.
Proactive interference
old information is interfering with new learning (ex. moved to a new address and had trouble recalling individual pieces of the new address)
Adaptation
one way the mind and body try to focus attention on only the most relevant stimuli, which are usually changes in the environment around us
siRNA
only able to bind to RNA; interferes with gene expression after transcription has occurred but before translation (prevents translation of target protein
Rods
only allow sensation of light and dark because they all contain a single pigment called rhodopsin
Are enhancers eu/pro or both? Are promotors eu/pro or both? Are repressors eu/pro or both?
only eu promoter/repressor (both pro and eu)
ligand-gated ion channels
open in the presence of a specific binding substance, usually a hormone or neurotransmitter
What polarizes skeletal muscle?
opening of K+ rapidly polarizes the cell
chimeras
organisms that contain cells from two lineages such as mice formed by integration of transgenic embryonic stem cels into a normal mouse blastocyst
obligate intracellular organisms
organisms that require a host cell to express their genes and reproduce
Identification
outward acceptance of others' ideas without personally taking on these ideas
what in the ETC has the highest reduction potential?
oxygen (last e- acceptor in ETC)
lost genes on p arms
p arms = short arms if found elsewhere on the genome, do not cause problems
formula for dipole moment
p=qd dipole moment= magnitude of charge x distance btw. charges
what is alkalosis
pH is higher than normal
SNS ganglia
parallel to spinal cord, chained
Dorsal root ganglia
parallel, but not chained neurons = pseudobipolar, allow for unimpeded transmission of sensory impulses
Persona
part of our personality that we present to the world, likened to a mask that we wear in public. Jung
enzyme-linked receptors
participate in cell signaling through extracellular ligand binding and initiation of second messenger cascades
where does the filtrate pass from and do? in the first glomerulus?
passes from the blood vessels into the Bowman's space
Strong ties
peer group and kinship contacts which are quantitatively small but qualitatively powerful
Sanctions
penalties for misconduct can be used to maintain social control and often include fines or incarceration
Stereotype threat
people being concerned or anxious about confirming a negative stereotype about one's social group. Ex: students who are reminded of negative stereotypes about their race or gender before taking a test perform worse on those tests, especially if the negative stereotype is one that makes them feel academically inferior.
Mere exposure effect/familiarity effect
people prefer stimuli that they have been exposed to more frequently (ex. first hearing a song you hate, but after hearing it many more times, you like it)
Social facilitation
people tend to perform better on simple tasks when in the presence of others
Self-presentation/Impression management
people use specific strategies to shape what others will think of them
MOA peptide hormones vs steroid hormones
peptide: bind cell surface- fast, intense action, action dissapates quickly (short lasting effects) steroid: bind intracellularly and MOA is opposite of peptide hormones
color constancy
perceiving familiar objects as having consistent color, even if changing illumination alters the wavelengths reflected by the object
penetrance
percentage of people in a population with a certain genotype who express the associated phenotype
Cultural relativism
perception of another culture as different from one's own, but with recognition that the cultural values, mores, and rules of a culture fit into that of culture itself; just perceives other culture as different, not bad Ethnocentrism is the BAD version of this
Law of pragnanz
perceptual organization will always be regular, simple, and symmetric
Projection areas
perform simple perceptual and motor tasks
Major depressive disorder
period of two weeks with at least five of following symptoms: 1. prominent and relatively persistent depressed mood 2. loss of interest in all or almost all formerly enjoyable activities (anhedonia) 3. appetite disturbances 4. substantial weight changes 5. sleep disturbances 6. decreased energy 7. feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt 8. difficulty concentrating or thinking 9. psychomotor symptoms (slowing down) 10. thoughts of death or attempts at suicide
Dysthymia
persistent depressive disorder where depressed mood isn't severe enough to meet criteria of major depressive episode; most of the time for at least two years
Generalized anxiety disorder
persistent worry about many different things for at least six months; is often accompanied by physical symptoms
Body dysmorphic disorder
person has unrealistic negative evaluation of his or her personal appearance and attractiveness
William Sheldon's Somatotypes
personality types based on body types Type A: competitive and compulsive Type B laid-back and relaxed
Superego
personality's perfectionist, judging actions and responding with pride at our accomplishments and guilt at our failures psychoanalytic perspective (Freud)
glycerophospholipids
phospholipids that contain a glycerol backbone
melatonin produced and secreted by the....
pineal gland
Semantic encoding
place meaningful context to how we encode information Semantic encoding is the strongest encoding and visual encoding is the weakest
what are episomes?
plasmids that have The ability to integrate into the host genome
describe the action potential of cardiac muscle
plateau in depolarization, depolarization is delayed to slow calcium channels, causes slow heart beat
Serotonin
play roles in regulating mood, eating, sleeping, and dreaming Oversupply of serotonin produce manic states while undersupply is thought to produce depression
Dopamine
plays important role in movement and posture where high concentrations are normally found in the basal ganglia which help smooth movements and maintain postural stability
what kind of solvent do SN2 runs prefer?
polar aprotic solvents (like acetone)
are peptide hormones capable of penetrating that surface of cell membranes?
polar hormones, not capable of penetrating the cell membrane that bind to survive receptors and act through secondary messengers. Peptide hormones are also made from proteins
which 3 parts of the brain work together to operate breathing?
pons, medulla, and cerebral cortex
Vestibule
portion of the bony labyrinth that contains the utricle and saccule sensitive to linear acceleration
ascending limb of the loop of henle/which molecules are permeable here? is all transport in this area passive?
portion of the nephron not permeable to water. As the filtrate flows up the ascending limb through a decreasing concentration in the interstitium, NaCl is first passively, then actively removed from the filtrate, decreasing filtrate concentration
What is absorbed in the descending limb of the loop of henle? As the loop progresses downward, what happens to the concentration/what part of the kidney is here?
portion of the nephron permeable only to water. The filtrate becomes more concentrated (loses water) as it travels through the descending limb to the increasing concentration of the interstitium
What is the collecting duct permeable to? what happens to the filtrate as it flows down the collecting duct? what hormone controls the CD action?
portion of the nephron permeable to water and ions. as the filtrate flows down the collecting duct through the increasing concentration of the interstitium, the filtrate is concentrated. The degree of water reabsorption in the collecting duct is controlled by the action of the hormone ADH
Statuses
positions in society that are used to classify individual
Anion exchange chromatography: __________charge of the stationary phase attracts________charged molecules. Cation-exchange chromatography?
positive, negative. The name of the column indicates the types of molecules bound. Cation-EC= negative stationary phase, thus attracting positive charged molecules
Learning theory
posits that attitudes are developed through different forms of learning such as direct contact, influence from friends, parents, etc.
Social cognitive theory
postulates that people learn how to behave and shape attitudes by observing the behaviors of others. Also, a person's behavior & traits contribute to shaping their environment. The social cognitive perspective seeks to understand the relationship between our behaviors and feelings and the environment in which they occur.
electric force/fields vs potiental
potential is energy and fields are net forces.
electric power formula
power= energy dissipated per unit time
Ethnocentrism
practice of making judgments about other cultures based on the values and beliefs of one's own culture
Carl Rogers
practices client-centered, person-centered, or non-directive therapy Rogers believed people have the freedom to control their own behavior and are neither slaves to the unconscious or subjects of faulty learning
Gestalt therapy (humanistic)
practitioners take a holistic view of the self, seeing individual as complete person
Ageism
prejudice or discrimination of the basis of a person's age
What type of cell is a dendritic cell? Do they use MHC I or II? what do they release?
present antigens, in the context of MHC II, to immature helper CD4 and T-cells = unique cytokine profile to regulate other immune cells
Urban decay
previously functional portion of a city deteriorates and becomes decrepit over time
LDL
primarily transports cholesterol for use by tissues
Is DNA gyrase found in pro or eu or both? What does it do (2 functions)?
pro and some eu creates supercoils in DNA structure and facilitates rep with minimum strain
Southern blot probes for what?
probes DNA for specific sequences
Anticipatory socialization
process by which a person prepares for future changes in occupations, living situations, or relationships (ex. marriage, undergrad, etc.)
Cultural assimilation
process by which an individual's or group's behavior and culture begin to resemble that of another group, meaning that GROUP with different cultures begin to merge into other GROUP GROUPS ASSIMILATING
Confabulation
process of creating vivid but fabricated memories and thought to be an attempt made by the brain to fill in the gaps of missing memories
Retrieval/recall
process of demonstrating that something that has been learned has been retained
Observational learning
process of learning a new behavior or gaining information by watching others
Secondary socialization
process of learning appropriate behavior within smaller sections of the larger society; occurs OUTSIDE of home and is based on learning the rules of specific social environments
Recognition
process of merely identifying a piece of information that has been previously learned
Encoding
process of putting new information into memory
Shaping
process of rewarding increasingly specific behaviors
what causes repolarization in nerve cells, which channels open and which close?
process that occurs when the sodium channels close and potassium channels open to repolarize the cell
what kind of solution do the seminal vesicles produce?
produce basic solution to neutralize vaginal pH
Goblet cells - what is cancer of these cells called?
produce mucus (cancer of them is called adenocarcinoma)
Where is estrogen produced? Where is it secreted from (4 places)? What is it partially responsible for around day 14 of the cycle?
produced and secreted by ovaries, ovarian follicles, corpus luteum, placenta, partly responsible for the LH spike that causes ovulation THINK: "ESTablishes the uterine wall/ lining and GENerates LH spike"
what is insulin produced by? where? What does increased insulin cause the glucose to be made into? -in which cells?
produced by beta-cells of pancreas glucose to glycogen in muscle and liver cells
what is glucagon produced and secreted by? what does glucagon do? how does it do it?
produced/secreted by the alpha-cells of the pancreas, glucagon increase the blood glucose concentration by promoting gluconeogenesis and the conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver
Adrenal cortex
produces corticosteroids such as cortisol
GABA
produces inhibitory postsynaptic potentials and play role in stabilizing neural activity in the brain GABA exerts its effects by causing hyperpolarization of postsynaptic membrane
Choroid and ciliary body
produces the aqueous humor that bates the front part of the eye before draining into the canal of Schlemm
What does the smooth ER do?
production of lipids and fatty acids
Role of LH in males?
production of testosterone (works on leydig cells) "LHeydig my testosterone"
Function of Liver
production of urea processing and modification of nutrients for storage albumin - protein that maintains blood oncotic pressure and clotting factors main organ for metabolizing fatty acids
histone acetylation
promotes transcription by opening up the chromatin structure
Indirect benefits
promoting better survival in offspring
Ego-ideal
proper actions for which a child is rewarded psychoanalytic perspective (Freud)
colligative property
properties that depend on the concentration of solute particles but not on their identity
Vygotsky Cultural and Biosocial Development
proposed the engine driving cognitive development is the child's internalization of his or her culture, including interpersonal and societal rules, symbols, and language. As child develops, help from adults or other children can develop skills further
Gate theory of pain
proposes that there is a special "gating" mechanism that can turn pain signals on or off, affecting whether or not we perceive pain
Posttranslational modification examples
protein folding formation of quaternary structure cleavage of proteins or signal sequences (direct protein to cell membrane) covalent addition of other biomolecules
synaptonemal complex
protein structure that forms between homologous chromosomes during meiosis, intricately involved in chromosome pairing, synapsis and recombination
sodium-potassium pump
protein that hydrolyzes one ATP to transport three Na out of the cell for every two K it transports into the cell
conjugated proteins
proteins with covalently attached molecules
Ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH)
provides signals to stop eating
Informational support
providing information that will help someone
hydrophobic interactions of amino acids
push hydrophobic R groups to the interior of a protein, which increases entropy of the surrounding water molecules and creates negative Gibb's free energy
Racial formation theory
racial identity is fluid and dependent on concurrent political, economic, and social factors
what do glucocorticoids do? what to they raise while decreasing what? -in terms of metabolism
raise glucose levels while decreasing protein synthesis
what does PTH do?
raises blood Ca levels
Delirium
rapid fluctuation in cognitive function that is reversible and caused by medical causes; can be caused by electrolyte and pH disturbances, malnutrition, low blood sugar, infection, etc.
what do neutrophils do? how do they kill pathogens? what do they present to the surface? what do they release?
rapid response to infection use free radicals to kill pathogens MHC II release cytokines
Bureaucracy
rational system of political organization, administration, discipline, and control with characteristics such as paid, non-elected officials on a fixed salary, regular salary increases, seniority, etc.
reducing sugars can be detected by
reacting with Tollen's or Benedict's reagents
phosphorylation
reaction in which a phosphate ester is formed by transferring a phosphate group from ATP onto a sugar
Both DNA/RNA
reads sense strand 3' to 5' synthesizes antisense strand 5' to 3'
Priming
recall is aided by first being presented with a word or phrase that is close to the desired semantic memory
Amacrine and horizontal cells
receive input from multiple retinal cells in the same area before the information is passed on to ganglion cells Accentuate slight differences between the visual information in each bipolar cell and important for edge detection
Midbrain (mesencephalon)
receives sensory and motor information from the rest of the body
examples of cells that use cytoplasmic lactate dehydrogenase
red blood cells skeletal muscle during bursts of activity any cell deprived of oxygen
enzymes
reduce activation energy for forward and reverse reactions
what causes peripheral edema?
reduced oncotic pressure in the blood (due to loss of serum albumin) absence leads to fluid retention in the tissues
what effect does alcohol have on the urinary system?
reduces blood pressure in the glomerulus, reduces water reabsorption
sugars that can be oxidized are
reducing sugars
McDonaldization
refer to a shift in focus toward efficiency, predictability, calculabiity, and control in societies
Consistency cues
refer to consistent behavior of a person over time; the more regular the behavior, the more we associate that behavior with the motives of the person
Distinctiveness cues
refer to extent to which a person engages in similar behavior across a series of scenarios; likely to form situational attribution to explain it
Concordance rates
refer to the likelihood that both twins exhibit the same trait
Mass hysteria
refers to a shared, intense concern about the threats to society
Urbanization
refers to dense areas of population creating a pull for migration
Nonverbal communication
refers to how people communicate, intentionally, or unintentionally, without words such as facial expressions, tone of voice, gestures, body position and movement, etc.
Individual discrimination
refers to one person discriminating against a particular person or group
Kinesthetic sense or proprioception
refers to the ability to tell where one's body is in space
Institutional discrimination
refers to the discrimination against a particular person or group by an entire institution
Difference threshold/JND
refers to the minimum difference in magnitude between two stimuli before one can perceive this difference
Two-point threshold
refers to the minimum distance necessary between two points of stimulation on the skin such that the points will be felt as two distinct stimuli
Subliminal perception
refers to the perception of a stimulus below a given threshold
Response bias
refers to the tendency of subjects to systematically respond to a stimulus in a particular way due to nonsensory factors
Attitude: affective
refers to the way a person feelings toward something and emotional component of attitude (ex. snakes scare me)
what is a promotor? what does it initiate?
region of DNA to which RNA polymerase bind, initiates transcription
cell-cell junctions
regulate transport intracellulary and intercellularly
Homeostasis
regulation of internal environment to maintain an optimal, stable set of conditions; homeostasis contains negative feedback loops
Variable-ratio Schedule
reinforce a behavior after a varying number of performances of the behavior, but the average number of performances to receive the reward is relatively constant FASTEST response rate
Variable-interval Schedule
reinforce a behavior the first time that behavior is performed after a varying interval of time
Fixed-ratio Schedule
reinforce behavior after a specific number of performances of that behavior Continuous reinforcement: fixed-ratio schedule in which behavior is rewarded every time it is performed
Fixed-interval Schedule
reinforce the first instance of a behavior after a specified time period has elapsed
Type 1 error
rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true (false positive)
Consensus cues
relate to extent to which a person's behavior differs from others; likely to form dispositional attribution about person's behavior THINK: Am i normal??
Drug addiction
related to mesolimbic reward pathway including nucleus accumbens, ventral tegmental area, and connected by medial forebrain bundle This pathway involved with motivation and emotional response as well as positive reinforcement and substance use
Psychophysics
relationship between the physical nature of stimuli and the sensations and perceptions they evoke
Thalamus
relay station of the brain for all of the senses except for SMELL "Thal must be over there (relaying info)"
what do chief cells do?
release zyomogen pepsinogen, cleaved in acidic environment
where is GHRH secreted? What does it regulate?
released by hypothalamus, acts on anterior pituitary and causes release of GH
what does GnRH do?
released in the hypothalamus, signals FSH and LH
Adrenal medulla
releases epinephrine and norepinephrine as part of the sympathetic nervous system
blood buffer system
relies primarily on the carbonic acid buffer system, demonstrated by the equation: release of carbon dioxide causes increased formation of water and an increase in pH. Increased retention of hydrogen carbonate ion causes the pH to rise as well
ion transport
rely on channels in the cell membrane, doesn't directly require cytoskeletal proteins
Depth perception
rely on monocular and binocular cues
Esteem support
reminding someone of the skills they possess to tackle a problem can bolster their confidence
AP endonuclease
removes the damaged sequence during base excision repair
Maintenance rehearsal
repetition of a piece of information to keep it within working memory or store it into short-term then long term memory
what is downward slope of neuron membrane potential called?
repolarization
what is an example of negative control for an operator?
repressor binds, blocking transcription
Lowball technique
requester will get an initial commitment from an individual then raise the cost of the commitment (ex. boss ask you to head committee with a time commitment of five hours per month of meetings; you agreed to head the committee, but discover there are written reports and presentations required as well)
leading strand
requires only one primer and can then be synthesized continuously in its entirety
Reactive
resist social change (ex. white supremacist movement)
Merkle cells
respond to deep pressure and texture
Pacinian corpuscles
respond to deep pressure and vibration
Meissner corpuscles
respond to light touch
Free nerve endings
respond to pain and temperature
Ruffini endings
respond to stretch
Osmoreceptors
respond to the osmolarity of the blood
chemotrophic
response to certain chemicals, not impacted by sunlight presence/absence of sunlight
Duplexity or duplicity theory of vision
retina contains two kinds of photoreceptors: light and dark detection and color detection
Serial position effect
retrieval cue that appears while learning lists; higher recall for the first few and last few items on the list
Interference
retrieval error caused by the existence of other information
beta-pleated sheets
rippled strands that can be parallel or anti-parallel secondary structure form
Vestibular sense
rotational and linear acceleration
Acute stress disorder
same PTSD symptoms last for less than one month (but more than three days)
methylation of chromosomes
same as deacetlyation condenses chromosomes
Positively charged particles will move in the ______ direction of electric field lines, while negatively charged particles will move in the _____ direction of electric field lines.
same, opposite
describe the smallest to largest building blocks of muscle
sarcomere, myofibrils, muscle fibers, fasciculus
at high temp, membranes would need:
saturated fat content and cholesterols to form a buffer
exocrine glands -what do they use? what are 2 examples?
secrete through ducts (mammary and sweat)
pepsin -secreted by what? where? do what?
secreted by chief cells in the stomach cleaves peptide bonds
Pheromones
secreted by one person or animal and once bonded with chemoreceptors, compel or urge another to behave in a specific way
intrinsic factor -secreted by what? necessary for absorption of?
secreted by parietal cells of the stomach, necessary for vitamin B12 absorption
where is cholecystokinin (CCK) secreted? In response to what? what does it stimulate? Does it promote satiety?
secreted by the duodenum in response to the presence of chyme. CCK stimulates the release of bile and pancreatic enzymes into the small intestine and promotes satiety
What enzymes does the pancreas secrete? What cells produce each? what types of cells are found in the pancreas?
secretes: pancreatic amylase, trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboypeptidases A/B, pancreatic lipase (into small intestine). and pepsinogen. All above are produced by acinar cells, except for pepsinogen, which is produced by chief cells endocrine, exocrine and epithelial
Pineal gland
secrets melatonin and receives direct signals from the retina for coordination with sunlight. Circadian rhythm.
Foraging
seeking out and eating food driven by biological, psychological, and social influences
what happens in Anaphase 1?
segregates homologous chromosomes (not sister chromatids)
Mate choice/intersexual selection
selection of a mate based on attraction
Reference group
self-concept depends on whom we are comparing ourselves to
agarose gel electrophoresis
separates DNA molecules by size
Chromatography
separates protein mixtures on the basis of their affinity for a stationary phase or a mobile phase
what is microtubule depolymerization responsible for?
separating chromosomes during anaphase of MI or MII
signalling cascade
series of events starting with the bidding of a peptide hormone to a surface receptor.
Polar amino acid side chains
serine threonine asparagine glutamine cysteine
Role
set of beliefs, values, attitudes, and norms that define expectations for those who hold the status
Parvocellular cells
shape is detected by parvocellular cells which have very high color spatial resolution and permit us to see very fine detail but have low temporal resolution
ductus venosus
shunt that connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava in order to bypass the fetal liver
proline, how does it impact side chains?
side chain makes more rigid, causes kinks in AA chains (usually near turns in b-sheets)
start codon
signals the start of translation and the amino acid methionine
Indicator trait
signify overall good health and wellbeing of an organism which increases its attractiveness to mates
column chromotography, role of silica beads?
silica beads in column chromotography are attracted to Polar molcules, and therefore, nonpolar molcules will elut first
parallel evolution
similar traits and related species
Cognitive dissonance
simultaneous presence of two opposing thoughts or opinions
What is mitochondria the site of? Are they autonomous?
site of aerobic respiration semiautonomous
What molecules are resorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule? which one is the most important? is this active/passive/both? where is this?
site where glucose, amino acids, and other important organic molecules are reabsorbed. The proximal convoluted tubules lie in the cortex of the kidney
what kind of muscle is the diaphragm?
skeletal
ectoderm forms what?
skin, nervous system, lens of the eye, inner ear
movement of proteins and carbohydrates within cell membrane
slowed by their relatively large size
okazaki fragments
small DNA pieces on the lagging strand that are later joined together to form continuous strand
snRNA -what does this stand for? What are they involved in?
small nuclear RNA, involved in splicing
polar body
small, short-lived haploid cell created during oogenesis that receives very little cytoplasm, organelles or nutrients
what should we expect from gel electrophoresis -concerning particle size?
smaller molecules migrate through the gel faster, go further and large stay at the top
2 amino acids
smaller than 3 nucleotides
what kind of muscle controls the dilation and constriction of blood vessels?
smooth muscle
Weak ties
social connections that are personally superficial but are large in number and provide connections to a wide range of other individuals (ex. social media)
Peer pressure
social influence placed on an individual by a group of people or another individual
Proactive
social movements that promote social change
Groupthink
social phenomenon in which desire for harmony or conformity results in a group of people coming to an incorrect or poor decision
Ascribed status
socioeconomic status determined by external characteristics or outward appearances (skin color, gender, age)
Ethnicity
sorts people by cultural factors such as language, nationality, religion, and other factors One can choose whether or not to display ethnic identity, while racial identities are always on display
Conduction aphasia
speech production and comprehension are intact but patient unable to repeat something that has been said because connection has been lost
what kind of bacteria is shaped like a cork screw?
spiro
Cultural diffusion
spread of norms, customs, and beliefs throughout the culture
Adjacent DNA base pairs experience stabilizing "stacking" interactions, which are best described as:
stacking interactions between adjacent base pairs are mediated by Van der Waals forces, where the turning of the helix brings adjacent base pairs in proximity of each other to allow for stabilizing non-covalent interactions
if bacteria is arranged in a cluster?
staphylo
BBB
starch too big to cross antibodies too large CO2 is small and nonpolar (keeping out = not a function of the BBB) hormones = large/nonpolar brain absorbs more glucose than any other tissue
Deductive reasoning (Top-down)
starts from a set of general rules and then narrows information to draws conclusions
Functional attitudes theory
states that attitudes serve four functions: knowledge, ego expression, adaptation, and ego defense
Iron law of obligarchy
states that democratic or bureaucratic systems naturally shift to being ruled by an elite group
pauli exclusion principle
states that no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum number values.
Expectancy-value Theory
states that the amount of motivation needed to reach a goal is the result of both the individual's expectation of success in reaching the goal and degree to which he or she value suceeding at the goal
Implicit personality theory
states that there are sets of assumptions people make about how different types of people, their traits, and their behavior are related
Weber's law
states that there is a constant ratio between the change in stimulus magnitude needed to produce a JND and the magnitude of the original stimulus
Raoult's law
states that vapor pressure of a solvent is proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent in solution; provides an explanation for the boiling point elevation seen in solutions.
Cognitive neoassociation model
states that we are more likely to respond to others agressively whenever we are feeling negative emotions, such as being tired, sick, frustrated, or in pain
Master status
status by which a person is most identified
pluripotent
stem cells that can only become cells within that germ layer
aldosterone
steroid hormone produced in the adrenal cortex, reabsorbs sodium and water, excretes potassium and hydrogen main role is to increase BP by stimulating extra H20 retention, increases Na absorption and K secretion in kidney
what does EPO (erythropoietin) do?
stimulates production of erythrocytes
Long-term potentiation
stimulus is repeated, the stimulated neurons become more efficient at releasing their neurotransmitters and at the same time receptor sites on the other side of the synapse increase, increasing receptor density
where are the pyloric glands? what do they do?
stomach secrete gastrin to increase gastric acid production
what kind of cells form the epidermis?
stratified squamous epithelium
what family of bacteria if it looks like a string/chain?
strep
tensile stress
stress due to stretching
osteons
structural unit of compact bone that consists of a central canal (either Haversian or Volkmann's canal) surrounded by a number of concentric rings of bony matrix called lamellae
Morphology
structure of words
Counterculture
subculture group gravitates toward identity that is at odds with the majority culture and deliberately opposes the prevailing social mores
what is a secondary immunologic response?
subsequent infections by pathogens that triggers. more immediate response from the memory cells produced during the primary immune response
Km = Michaelis constant
substrate concentration required to reach 1/2 of the maximum velocity
epimers
subtype of diastereomers that differ in exactly on chiral carbon
anomers
subtype of diastereomers that differ in the anomeric carbon
aldose
sugars with aldehydes in their most oxidized group
ketose
sugars with ketones in their most oxidised group
L-sugars
sugars with the highest numbered chiral carbon with the -OH group on the left
D-sugars
sugars with the highest numbered chiral carbon with the -OH group on the right
Capacitors in parallel
summation (Ct= C1 + C2 + Cn....)
Resisters in series
summation (Rt= R1 + R2 + Rn....)
Voltage drop across circuit elements (in series)
summation (Vt= V1 + V2 + Vn....)
Choroidal vessels
supplies nutrients to the eye
Perilymph
suspends inner ear membranous labyrinth
Svedburg units are what?
svedburg units Pro = 70S, 30S + 50S Eu = 80S, 40S + 60S
Cultural lag
symbolic culture is slower to change than material culture
where is progesterone synthesized and released (3 places)?
synthesized and released by ovaries, corpus luteum, and placenta
what does thiokinase do? where is it located?
synthesizes CoA thioesters: it's located on the outer mitochondrial matrix
what are mineralocorticoids stimulated by?
synthesizes and releases corticosteroids glucocorticoids (cortisol) stimulated by ACTH mineralocorticoids stimulated by angiotensin II sex hormones = androgens/testosterone
Interaction process analysis
technique for observing, classifying, and measuring the interactions within small groups
Can skeletal muscle temp regulate? Can it move fluids within the body?
temp regulation, movement of fluids within the body
conjugation
temporary joining of two organisms via a tube called a pilus, through which genetic material is exchanged; a form of sexual reproduction used by bacteria Her bacterium and F- bacterium. When F factor plasmid is spliced, it becomes Hfr, attempt to transfer via conjugations
Group polarization
tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreme than the individual ideas and inclinations of the members within the group Risky shift: group makes riskier decisions than individuals Choice shift: groups shift toward caution
Social loafing
tendency of individuals to put in less effort when in a group setting than individually
Mental set
tendency to approach similar problems in the same way
Overconfidence
tendency to erroneously interpret one's decisions, knowledge, and beliefs as infallible
are neuron terminally differentiated? what about red blood cells?
terminally differentiated, stop dividing but retains functions. RBC don't divide at all
3 bonding, 1 lone pair. electronic config? molecular?
tetrahedral, trigonal pyrimidal
Cerebellum
the "little brain" at the rear of the brainstem; functions include processing sensory input and coordinating movement output and balance
VSEPR theory
the acronym for valence shell electron pair repulsion theory. States that the three dimensional molecular geometry about some central atom is determined by the electronic repulsions between its bonding and nonbonding electron pairs.
glycoside formation
the basis for building complex carbohydrates and required the anomeric carbon to link to another sugar
Glycogenolysis
the breakdown of glycogen using two main enzymes: - glycogen phosphorylase - Debranching enzyme
Transition elements
the elements found in the B groups of the periodic table. These elements contain partially filled d-subshells.
activation energy
the energy barrier that must be overcome for a reaction to proceed, often denoted as Ea.
alkali metals
the highly reactive elements found in group IA ( group 1) of the periodic table, except hydrogen.
Lateral hypothalamus (LH)
the hunger center because it has special receptors thought to detect when the body needs more food or fluids
Teacher expectancy
the idea that teachers tend to get what they expect from students
temporal ambiguity
the inability to control for confounding variables and the inability to determine whether the exposure truly occurred before the disease the "cause" must precedes the "effect" in time (temporal precedence),
Quaternary Structure
the interaction between peptides in proteins that contain multiple subunits. Proteins do NOT always have quaternary structure
Primary structure
the linear sequence of amino acids in a peptide and is stabilized by peptide bonds
if given a population percentage in an HW, which equation do you use? if given allele frequency?
the long one the short one
reaction rate
the measure of how quickly reactants are consumed and products are formed, commonly expressed in terms of mol/(L.s)
What oxidizes NADH when oxygen is present?
the mitochondrial electron transport chain
Molar solubility
the molarity of a solute such that a solution is saturated (at equilibrium)
Recency effect
the most recent information we have about an individual that is the most important in forming our impressions
Effusion
the movement of gas from one compartment to another through a small opening under pressure.
what is filtration?
the movement of plasma from glomerus, to the entrance of the nephron at the Bowman's capsule
pKa
the pH at which half of the species is de-protonated [HA]=[A-] THINK: is a reference point: pH above= species de-protonated; pH below= species protonated
Beneficence
the physician has a responsibility to act in the patient's best interest
what is somatic VDJ recombination?
the process by which genes for immunoglobulins are rearranged in developing lymphocytes to create novel gene products
dipole moment
the product of the magnitude of either partial charge in a dipole multiplied by the distance between the charges, given by the equation p=qd, where p is the dipole moment, q is the partial charge, and d is the displacement vector separating the charges.
solubility product constant
the products of the molar concentrations of dissociated ions in a saturated solution, where each ion is raised to the power of its stoichiometric coefficient. Denoted Ksp.
Snell's Law
the ratio between angle of incidence and angle of refraction n₁ sinθ₁ = n₂ sinθ₂, n = index of refraction (n=c/v)
molecular orbital
the region in a molecule where atomic orbitals overlap, resulting in either a stable low energy bonding orbital or an unstable high energy anti bonding orbital.
sister chromatids
the relationship between the strands of DNA after replication. Each chromosome consists of two identical chromatids held together at a central region called the centromere. After the mitotic spindle pulls the sister chromatids apart, each chromatid is referred to as a chromosome on its own.
Effective nuclear charge
the resulting positive nuclear charge an outer electron senses after accounting for the shielding effect of inner core electrons. Abbreviated Zeff. Increases from left to right and from bottom to top on the periodic table.
where does chemical digestion of lipids occur?
the small intestine
where does protein digestion primarily occur?
the small intestine
Molar mass
the sum of all the masses present (in amu) in one molecule of a molecular compound
skewed results denote side of....?
the tail of the graph
enthalpy
the total heat content of a system at a constant pressure, commonly denoted by H.
phosphoryl group transfers
the transfer of a high-energy phosphate group from ATP to another molecule
Symbolic interactionism
the view of social behavior that emphasizes linguistic or gestural communication and its subjective understanding aka Study of the ways individuals interact through a shared understanding of words, gestures, and other symbols
Attitude: behavioral
the way a person acts with respect to something (ex. avoiding snakes)
how does temp impact the products/reactions, if Keq = 1?
then change in temp does not necessarily impact products/reactants in a predictable way
Collision theory of chemical kinetics
theory stating that the rate of a reaction is directly proportional to the number of collisions that take place between reactants per second
gram + (1.cell wall? stain? outer membrane?)
thick cell wall/dark stain/no outer membrane
gram -
thin cell wall/light stain
George Kelly's Personal Construct Psychology
thought of the individual as a scientist who devises and tests predictions about behavior of significant people in his or her life
Hawk Dove Game
threat displays (play Dove), or physically attack each other (play Hawk). If both players choose the Hawk strategy, then they fight until one is injured and the other wins. If only one player chooses Hawk, then this player defeats the Dove player. If both players play Dove, there is a tie, and each player receives a payoff lower than the profit of a hawk defeating a dove. V is the value of the contested resource, and C is the cost of an escalated fight. Cooperation: both the donor and recipient benefit from cooperating Spite: both donor and recipient are negatively impacted Selfishness: donor benefits while recipient is negatively impacted
triose
three carbon sugar
which is heavier? thymine or uracil?
thymine because it has extra methyl group THINK: U-->T shift, methylation needed
Describe heterochromatin
tightly packed, not being transcribed
What does the corpus luteum form from? What does it produce and secrete?
tissue that forms from the collapsed ovarian follicle. Produces and secretes progesterone and estrogen. THINK: "progesterone PROtects uterine wall/lining"
Catecholamine theory of depression/monoamine
too much norepinephrine and serotonin in the synapse leads to mania too little leads to depression
incomplete dominance
trait is in between dominant and recessive
what is mRNA transcribed from? what would viral anti-sense RNA do?
transcribed from the antisense strand viral anti-sense RNA would block the transcription from occuring
What is the difference between transcription and translation (2 things)? what is the point where DNA replicates called?
transcription relies on sigma factors while and uses DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, DNA replication uses particular points called origins
sublimation
transformation of unacceptable urges into socially accepted behavior
where are transmembrane proteins translated? are they packaged there? where do they go next? repackaged?
translated in the RER, packaged in vesicle headed to Golgi, Golgi repackages
Verbal communication
transmission of information through the use of wods, whether spoken, written, or signed; dependent on nonverbal cues for receiver to understand sender's full meaning
Virtreous
transparent gel that supports the retina
what is secretion within the nephron?
transport of specific toxins and protons into the nephron
proteins located in the cell membrane act as:
transporters cell adhesion molecules enzymes
tropic hormones
travel to a target tissue and cause the release of another HORMONE. Downstream hormone will cause the physiological effect
Direct therapy
treatment that acts directly on the individual such as medication or periodic meetings with a psychologist
Socialist economies
treats large industries as collective, shared businesses, and compensation is provided based on the work contribution of each individual into the system
what does the arrival of an action potential do? esp for muscle cells?
triggers a rapid influx of Calcium
repressible system example
trp operon
Erikson's Psychosocial development: age 0.5 year old
trust/mistrust (0 to 1 year old)
aromatic amino acid side chains
tryptophan phenylalanine tyrosine
Dissociative identity disorder (multiple personality disorder)
two or more personalities recurrently take control of person's behavior
Know structures of the ear (lateral to medial)
tympanic membrane, ossicles (aka small ear bones), cochlea, cranial nerve
disruptive selection
type of natural selection where both phenotypic extremes are favored over the average phenotype
directional selection
type of natural selection where one extreme phenotype is favored over the average phenotype and other extreme phenotypes
stabilizing selection
type of natural selection where the average phenotype is favored while those outside the norm are eliminated
macrophages
undergo rapid action reorganization during phagocytosis, inability to reorganize cytoskeleton would significantly impair functioning
what three molecules would you expect from the urine of a diabetic?
urea, potassium, glucose inside
what do motor proteins use as roads?
use microtubules as roads to transport their cargo (organelle placement/function is disrupted)
Crystallized intelligence
use of learned skills and knowledge, peaks in middle adulthood
secondary active transport
use pre-existing gradient to drive transport of solute
Active skeletal muscle metabolism
use these depending on activity level and fiber type: - anaerobic metabolism - oxidative phosphorylation of glucose - direct phosphorylation of creatine phosphate - fatty acid oxidation
Nernst Equation
used to calculate the electrical potential created by one ion
Fornix
used to help the hippocampus communicate with other portions of the limbic system
Ion exchange chromatography
uses a charged column (stationary phase) with a variably saline eluent (mobile phase)
column chromatography
uses beads of a polar compound, like silica or alumina (stationary phase), with a non-polar solvent (mobile phase)
Otoliths
utricle and saccule contain modified hair cells covered in otoliths As body accelerates, these otoliths resist that motion
Michaels-menten equation? parameters?
v= Vmax* [substrate]/ km + [substrate]
doppler effect
v=speed of sound in medium Vd= speed of detecotr vs= speed of source top sigh towards, bottom sign away
pyloric sphincter
valve between the stomach and the small intestine that regulates the flow of chyme into the duodenum
what is genetic expressivity?
variability in phenotypes that can occur with a given disease
what makes up the lymphatic system? what do they collect? what do they do with what they collect? What are their 3 main goals? Open system or closed?
vessels and lymph nodes, collect interstitial fluids and return them to the circulatory system, maintaining fluid balance lipid absorption and lymphocyte activation open system
lysogenic cycle
viral replication in which the DNA of the bacteriophage becomes integrated in the host's genome and replicates as the bacteria replicates
lytic cycle
viral replication: host cell is lysed and releases new visions
Diverging lenses always produce
virtual, upright images.
bacteriophages
viruses that only infect bacteria
what 2 things does the large intestine absorb? what does it make an environment for?
water absorption, electrolyte absorption, provision of environment for Ecoli
wavespeed (v)
wavelength x frequency Speed at which wave travels
Attitude: cognitive
way an individual thinks about something, justifying for the other two components (ex. snakes can be dangerous)
molecular clock hypothesis
we can use the number of genetic differences to calculate the amount of time that was passed since their divergence
Hierarchy of salience
we let the situation dictate which identity holds the most importance for us at any given moment
Self-reference effect
we tend to recall information best when we can put it into the context of our own lives
Identity shift effect
when an individual's state of harmony is disrupted by a threat of social rejection, the individual will often conform to the norms of the group and start to experience internal conflict
what do gastric glands secrete and when do they do it?
when gastrin is secreted, they secrete Hcl and pepsin (in the stomach)
nucleolus
where rRNA is translated
Sclera
white of the eye
Mores
widely observed social norms
If a father has an X-linked dominant trait, will it be passed on to sons? daughters?
will always pass an X-linked dominant trait to their daughters, not to sons
Self-censorship (Irving Janis's Groupthink)
withholding of opposing views Illusion of unanimity: false sense of agreement within the group
does the enteric NS function independently of the brain and spinal cord?
yes, functions independently of brain and spinal cord
Reduced image
|m| (absolute value of magnification)<0
Enlarged image
|m| (absolute value of magnification)>0
First Law of Thermodynamics
ΔU = Q - W
Electrical potential
ΔV = U/q = kQ/r AKA voltage, electromotive force
Can solve for displacement when initial velocity, acceleration, and time are known.
Δ𝑥=𝑣o𝑡+½𝑎𝑡² XVAT
Sound Level
β=10log(I/I₀) where I₀=1E-12 W/m² Expressed as decibels
Used when there is a constant acceleration.
𝑣𝑓=𝑣𝑖+𝑎𝑡 AKA VVAT or VAT
Used when there is a constant acceleration and Includes displacement.
𝑣𝑓²=𝑣𝑖²+2𝑎Δ𝑥 AKA VVAX or VAX
