Commercial Ground - Procedures & Airport Operations

To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should a. swallow or yawn. b. slow the breathing rate. c. increase the breathing rate.

slow the breathing rate. Hyperventilation can be relieved by consciously slowing the breathing rate. Talking loudly or breathing into a bag to restore carbon dioxide will effectively slow the breathing rate. Answer (A) is incorrect because swallowing or yawning is used to relieve ear block. Answer (C) is incorrect because the breathing rate should be slowed to increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood.

(Refer to Figure 54, point 2.) After departing from Byron Airport (C83) with a northeast wind, you discover you are approaching Livermore Class D airspace and flight visibility is approximately 2-1/2 miles. You must a. stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G and land. b. stay below 1,200 feet to remain in Class G. c. contact Livermore ATCT on 119.65 and advise of your intentions.

stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G and land. The magenta shading indicates Class E airspace begins at 700 feet. The VFR minimum in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet is 3 SM. Therefore, with 2-1/2 miles visibility, you must stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G airspace. Answer (B) is incorrect because Class E space begins at 1,200 feet when surrounded by blue shading. Answer (C) is incorrect because 119.65 is ATIS for Livermore, not ATCT.

As hyperventilation progresses, a pilot can experience a. decreased breathing rate and depth. b. heightened awareness and feeling of well being. c. symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness.

symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness. The common symptoms of hyperventilation are dizziness, nausea, hot and cold sensations, tingling of the hands, legs and feet, sleepiness, and finally, unconsciousness. Answer (A) is incorrect because hyperventilation is an increase of the breathing rate and depth. Answer (B) is incorrect because heightened awareness and feeling of well-being are symptoms of hypoxia.

Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a a. systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances. b. decision making process which relies on good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight. c. mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.

systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances. ADM is a systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.

An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves a. taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test. b. understanding the drive to have the 'right stuff.' c. obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training.

taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test. Each ADM student should take the Self-Assessment Hazardous Attitude Inventory Test in order to gain a realistic perspective on his/her attitudes toward flying.

(Refer to Figure 60.) Sign "1" is an indication a. of an area where aircraft are prohibited. b. that the taxiway does not continue. c. of the general taxiing direction to a taxiway.

that the taxiway does not continue. The black and yellow diagonal striped sign is a taxiway ending marker, which indicates the taxiway does not continue.

To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should a. slowly sweep the field of vision from one side to the other at intervals. b. concentrate on any peripheral movement detected. c. use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.

use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. Because the eyes can focus on only a narrow viewing area, effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly-spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. Answer (A) is incorrect because a pilot should systematically concentrate on different segments. Answer (B) is incorrect because peripheral movement is not easily detected, especially under adverse conditions; therefore this would not be an effective scanning technique.

(Refer to Figure 54, area 3.) What is the significance of R-2531? This is a restricted area a. for IFR aircraft. b. where aircraft may never operate. c. where often invisible hazards exist.

where often invisible hazards exist. Restricted Areas denote the presence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization of the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants.

The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of a. 14,500 feet MSL. b. 10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL. c. 10,000 feet MSL regardless of height above ground.

10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL. The only area requiring 5 statute miles visibility is 10,000 feet MSL and up (when above 1,200 feet AGL).

(Refer to Figure 54, point 1.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace? a. 2,503 feet MSL. b. 2,901 feet MSL. c. 3,297 feet MSL.

2,901 feet MSL. The Class D airspace at Livermore has a top of 2,900 feet MSL, indicated by the [29] within the blue segmented circle. Therefore, the minimum altitude to fly over and avoid the Class D airspace is 2,901 feet MSL. Answer (A) is incorrect because 2,503 feet MSL would place you within the Class D airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because although 3,297 feet MSL would keep you outside the Class D airspace, it is not the minimum altitude required to avoid it.

The radius of the uncharted Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally a. 20 NM. b. 30 NM. c. 40 NM.

20 NM. The normal radius of the outer area will be 20 NM. This is the area where separation is provided after two-way communication is established. It is only a requirement to contact ATC before entering the 10 NM Class C airspace depicted on the sectional chart.

(Refer to Figure 52, point 4.) The obstruction within 10 NM closest to Lincoln Regional Airport (LHM) is how high above the ground? a. 1,245 feet. b. 662 feet. c. 296 feet.

296 feet. The obstruction south of the airport is 296 feet above the ground, which is the number in parenthesis.Answer (A) is incorrect because 1,245 is the height above sea level of the obstruction 8.5 NM east of the airport. Answer (B) is incorrect because 662 feet is the height above ground of the obstructions 8 NM SW of the airport.

To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one beer, the human body requires about a. 1 hour. b. 3 hours. c. 4 hours.

3 hours. As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer or four ounces of wine can impair flying skills, with the alcohol consumed in these drinks being detectable in the breath and blood for at least 3 hours.

To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one mixed drink, the human body requires about a. 1 hour. b. 2 hours. c. 3 hours.

3 hours. As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer or four ounces of wine can impair flying skills, with the alcohol consumed in these drinks being detectable in the breath and blood for at least 3 hours.

What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace? a. 1 mile visibility; clear of clouds. b. 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below. c. 5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet below.

3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below. In Class C, D, or E airspace at 6,500 feet MSL, the VFR flight visibility requirement is 3 SM. The distance from cloud requirement is 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal. Answer (A) is incorrect because 1 SM visibility and clear of clouds is the VFR weather minimum when at or below 1,200 feet AGL in Class G airspace during the day. Answer (C) is incorrect because 5 SM visibility and cloud clearance of 1,000 feet above and below is the VFR weather minimum in Class E airspace at or above 10,000 feet MSL.

What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a "land and hold short" clearance? a. 3 statute miles and 1,000 feet. b. 3 nautical miles and 1,000 feet. c. 3 statute miles and 1,500 feet.

3 statute miles and 1,000 feet. Pilots should only receive a LAHSO clearance when there is a minimum ceiling of 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility. The intent of having 'basic' VFR weather conditions is to allow pilots to maintain visual contact with other aircraft and ground vehicle operations.

What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a "land and hold short" clearance? a. 3 statute miles and 1,500 feet. b. 3 nautical miles and 1,000 feet. c. 3 statute miles and 1,000 feet.

3 statute miles and 1,000 feet. Pilots should only receive a LAHSO clearance when there is a minimum ceiling of 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility. The intent of having 'basic' VFR weather conditions is to allow pilots to maintain visual contact with other aircraft and ground vehicle operations.

(Refer to Figure 52, point 1.) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at a. the surface. b. 700 feet AGL. c. 3,823 feet MSL.

3,823 feet MSL. Georgetown Airport is outside the magenta shaded area, which indicates the floor of Class E airspace is at 1,200 feet AGL. The airport elevation is given in the airport data as 2,623 feet MSL. Therefore, the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport is 3,823 feet MSL (2,623 + 1,200). Answer (A) is incorrect because Class E airspace only begins at the surface when surrounded by a magenta segmented circle. Answer (B) is incorrect because Class E airspace begins at 700 feet AGL inside the magenta shaded areas.

When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to a. 8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL. b. 5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL. c. 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to a. 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL. b. 30 SM, and be transponder equipped. c. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

(Refer to Figure 58.) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, Taxi to runway 16." Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller's instructions a. 5 (Five). b. 6 (Six). c. 9 (Nine).

5 (Five). When ATC clears an aircraft to "taxi to" an assigned takeoff runway, the absence of holding instructions does not authorize the aircraft to "cross" all runways which the taxi route intersects except the assigned takeoff runway. A clearance must be obtained prior to crossing any runway. It does not include authorization to "taxi onto" or "cross" the assigned takeoff runway at any point. You should taxi and hold short of runway 16, which is position 5. Answer (B) is incorrect because "taxi to" does not authorize the aircraft to "taxi onto" the assigned takeoff runway. Answer (C) is incorrect because the airplane should taxi the most direct route to the assigned runway unless instructed otherwise; position 9 would not be encountered for the airplane at the west ramp to taxi to runway 16.

(Refer to Figure 52, point 8.) The floor of the Class E airspace over the town of Auburn is a. 1,200 feet MSL. b. 700 feet AGL. c. 1,200 feet AGL.

700 feet AGL. Auburn is inside the magenta shading, which indicates the Class E airspace begins at 700 feet AGL. Answer (A) is incorrect because the Class E airspace would begin at 1,200 feet AGL (not MSL) if the airport were outside the magenta shaded area. Answer (C) is incorrect because the Class E airspace would begin at 1,200 feet AGL (not MSL) if the airport were outside the magenta shaded area.

(Refer to Figure 52, point 5.) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is a. the surface. b. 700 feet AGL. c. 1,200 feet AGL.

700 feet AGL. University Airport is within the magenta shading, which indicates the floor of the Class E airspace begins at 700 feet AGL. Answer (A) is incorrect because the Class E airspace would begin at the surface if the airport were surrounded by a magenta segmented circle. Answer (C) is incorrect because the Class E airspace would begin at 1,200 feet AGL if the airport were outside the magenta shaded area.

(Refer to Figure 53, area 4.) You plan to depart on a day VFR flight from the Firebaugh (F34) airport. What is the floor of controlled airspace above this airport? a. 1,200 feet above the airport. b. 700 feet above the airport. c. 1,500 feet above the airport.

700 feet above the airport. Firebaugh (F34) is inside the magenta shading, which indicates the Class E airspace begins at 700 feet AGL.

What is the first indication of flying into restricted visibility conditions when operating VFR at night? a. Ground lights begin to take on an appearance of being surrounded by a halo or glow. b. A gradual disappearance of lights on the ground. c. Cockpit lights begin to take on an appearance of a halo or glow around them.

A gradual disappearance of lights on the ground. Generally, at night it is difficult to see clouds and restrictions to visibility, particularly on dark nights or under overcast. Usually, the first indication of flying into restricted visibility conditions is the gradual disappearance of lights on the ground. Answer (A) is incorrect because ground (not cockpit) lights taking on the appearance of a halo or glow indicate ground fog. Answer (C) is incorrect because ground (not cockpit) lights taking on the appearance of a halo or glow indicate ground fog.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace? a. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME). b. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. c. May conduct operations under visual flight rules.

Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within Class A airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with an approved transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area? a. Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility. b. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. c. Prior to landing, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with an ATC facility.

Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. Unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in Class C airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable transponder and altitude reporting equipment. Answer (A) is incorrect because pilots must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility as soon as practicable, which may not be prior to takeoff. Answer (C) is incorrect because communications must be established prior to entering Class C airspace, well before a "prior to landing" point.

What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)? a. Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it). b. Risk management, stress management, and risk elements. c. Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgment.

Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it). ADM addresses the following five hazardous attitudes: Antiauthority (don't tell me!), Impulsivity (do something quickly!), Invulnerability (it won't happen to me), Macho (I can do it), Resignation (what's the use?).

What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area? a. All pilots must contact the controlling agency to ensure aircraft separation. b. Non-participating aircraft may transit the area as long as they operate in accordance with their waiver. c. Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or a high volume of pilot training.

Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or a high volume of pilot training. Alert Areas inform pilots of airspace that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. While pilots should be particularly alert in these areas, there are no restrictions on flying through them.

(Refer to Figure 54.) What is the ceiling of the Class D Airspace of the Byron (C83) airport (area 2)? a. 2,900 feet. b. 7,600 feet. c. Class D Airspace does not exist at Byron (C83).

Class D Airspace does not exist at Byron (C83). Byron airport is surrounded by magenta shading, indicating Class E airspace with floor 700 feet above the surface.

When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of a. Special VFR airspace. b. Class B airspace c. Class D airspace.

Class D airspace. Class D airspace areas are depicted on Sectional and Terminal charts with blue segmented lines. Answer (A) is incorrect because no special VFR airspace is designated by a 'NO SVFR' notation in the airport data block of the sectional. Answer (B) is incorrect because Class B airspace is depicted by a solid blue line.

What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation? a. Class D, which then becomes Class C. b. Class D, which then becomes Class E. c. Class B.

Class D, which then becomes Class E. Class D airspace exists only when the control tower is operating. It reverts to Class E when the tower closes if there is an instrument approach and a weather observer. Answer (A) is incorrect because Class D airspace will revert to Class E airspace when the control tower closes. Answer (C) is incorrect because the primary airport of Class B airspace will have a control tower that operates full-time.

Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making? a. Detect. b. Identify. c. Evaluate.

Detect. The DECIDE Model, comprised of a six-step process, is intended to provide the pilot with a logical way of approaching decision making: Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, and Evaluate.

When departing from a runway that is covered with snow or slush, what can a pilot do to prevent damage to the landing gear due to the conditions? a. Do not retract the landing gear immediately to allow the gear to air-dry. b. Immediately retract the landing gear so it can be heated in the gear wells. c. Fly at a speed above the green arc of the airspeed indicator can remove the snow and slush.

Do not retract the landing gear immediately to allow the gear to air-dry. If departing from an airstrip with wet snow or slush on the takeoff surface, the gear should not be retracted immediately so that any wet snow or slush is allowed to air-dry.

When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for ANTIAUTHORITY hazardous attitude? a. Not so fast. Think first. b. It won't happen to me. It could happen to me. c. Don't tell me. Follow the rules. They are usually right.

Don't tell me. Follow the rules. They are usually right. The antiauthority (don't tell me!) attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them what to do. The antidote for this attitude is: follow the rules, they are usually right. Answer (A) is incorrect because this is the antidote for the impulsivity attitude. Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the antidote for the invulnerability attitude.

Which of the following is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making? a. Estimate. b. Evaluate. c. Eliminate.

Evaluate. The DECIDE Model, comprised of a six-step process, is intended to provide the pilot with a logical way of approaching decision making: Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, and Evaluate.

(Refer to Figure 53.) You are planning a VFR westbound flight departing the FRESNO CHANDLER EXECUTIVE (FCH) airport and you will be passing through the active Lemoore C and A MOAs. What action should you take? a. Exercise extreme caution while in the boundaries of the MOA. b. Avoid the MOA, VFR, and IFR flights are prohibited during day light hours. c. Contact the aircraft operating in the MOA on the Guard frequency of 121.5.

Exercise extreme caution while in the boundaries of the MOA. Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within an MOA when military activity is being conducted. The activity status (active/inactive) of MOAs may change frequently. Therefore, pilots should contact any FSS within 100 miles of the area to obtain accurate real-time information concerning the MOA hours of operation. Prior to entering an active MOA, pilots should contact the controlling agency for traffic advisories.

What does good cockpit stress management begin with? a. Knowing what causes stress. b. Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues. c. Good life stress management.

Good life stress management. If you hope to succeed at reducing stress associated with crisis management in the air or with your job, it is essential to begin by making a personal assessment of stress in all areas of you life.

While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the 'MACHO' reaction? a. He is not too concerned; everything will be alright. b. He flies a little closer, just to show him. c. He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision.

He flies a little closer, just to show him. The Macho attitude is found in people who are always trying to prove they are better than anyone else. They are always thinking 'I can do it, I'll show them.' Pilots with this type of attitude will try to prove themselves by taking risks in order to impress others.

If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by a. VR and a three digit number only. b. IR or VR and a four digit number. c. IR or VR and a three digit number.

IR or VR and a four digit number. Military Training Routes (MTRs) in which flights are conducted at or below 1,500 feet AGL are designated by the letters IR or VR and a four-digit number.

(Refer to Figure 51.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft? a. Illustration D. b. Illustration G. c. Illustration H.

Illustration D. Illustration D prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. This sign would typically be located on one-way taxiways or a vehicle roadway. Thus, this sign does not directly address runway incursions with other aircraft.Answer (B) is incorrect because Illustration G is used to indicate when you are clear of the runway. Answer (C) is incorrect because Illustration H is used to indicate when you are clear of the ILS critical area.

(Refer to Figure 51.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which sign? a. Illustration H. b. Illustration D. c. Middle yellow.

Illustration H. Illustration H is located adjacent to the ILS holding position marking on the pavement and can be seen by pilots leaving the critical area. The sign is intended to provide pilots with another visual cue which they can use as a guide in deciding when they are clear of the ILS critical area.Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the sign prohibiting aircraft entry into an area. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is a runway boundary sign.

(Refer to Figure 51.) While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign? a. Illustration D. b. Illustration G. c. Illustration H.

Illustration H. While clearing an active runway, you are most likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when you pass the sign depicted in illustration H. This is the ILS critical area boundary sign.Answer (A) is incorrect because this symbol prohibits aircraft entry into an area. Answer (B) is incorrect because Illustration G indicates you are most likely clear of the runway.

You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an "Airport surface hot spot?" a. Call the Automated Flight Service Station. b. In the Chart Supplements U.S. c. In the NOTAMs during your preflight briefing.

In the Chart Supplements U.S. A hot spot is defined as a location on an airport movement area with a history of potential risk of collision or runway incursion, and where heightened attention by pilots and drivers is necessary. Hot spots are depicted on some airport charts as circled areas in the Chart Supplements U.S. .

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign? a. Indicates direction to take-off runway. b. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway. c. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection. The taxiway directional sign identifies the designation(s) of the intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of the intersection that a pilot would normally be expected to turn onto or hold short of. Answer (A) is incorrect because this is the purpose of the runway location sign. Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the purpose of the destination sign.

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? a. Insufficient oxygen. b. Excessive carbon monoxide. c. Insufficient carbon dioxide.

Insufficient carbon dioxide. As hyperventilation 'blows off' excessive carbon dioxide from the body, a pilot can experience symptoms of lightheadedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling of the extremities, and coolness and react to them with even greater hyperventilation. Answer (A) is incorrect because insufficient oxygen is a symptom of hypoxia. Answer (B) is incorrect because excessive carbon monoxide will lead to carbon monoxide poisoning.

Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? a. Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream. b. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. c. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.

Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. Hypoxia is the result of insufficient oxygen in the bloodstream going to the brain. Answer (A) is incorrect because hypoxia is a lack of oxygen in the bloodstream. Answer (C) is incorrect because excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream is not a symptom of hypoxia.

(Refer to Figure 52, area 6.) What is the purpose of the star that follows the CT-120.65 in the information box for Sacramento Mather Airport (MHR)? a. It means that the control tower has limited hours of operation. b. The airport has maintenance facilities. c. There is a rotating beacon on the field.

It means that the control tower has limited hours of operation. The star symbol indicates that control tower operation is part time only.

Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body? a. A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity. b. An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol. c. Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.

Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol. As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer, or four ounces of wine can impair flying skills. Answer (A) is incorrect because all mental and physical activities will be decreased with even small amounts of alcohol in the bloodstream. Answer (B) is incorrect because the adverse effects of alcohol are increased as altitude is increased.

What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous? a. Avoid developing this hazardous thought. b. Develop this hazardous thought and follow through with modified action. c. Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote.

Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote. When a pilot recognizes a thought as hazardous, the pilot should label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding antidote.

(Refer to Figure 53.) What is indicated by the star next to the "L" in the airport information box for the MADERA (MAE) airport north of area 2? a. Special VFR is prohibited. b. There is a rotating beacon at the field. c. Lighting limitations exist.

Lighting limitations exist. The "L" with an asterisk indicates lighting limitations exist. Pilots should refer to the Chart Supplement U.S. for this airport for details on these limitations.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace? a. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME). b. Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules. c. Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.

Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules. Each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must conduct that operation under instrument flight rules. Answer (A) is incorrect because if VOR navigational equipment is required, no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft at or above FL240 unless that aircraft is equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME). Answer (C) is incorrect because all aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment in airspace at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface.

(Refer to Figure 52, area 8). The traffic pattern altitude at the Auburn Airport (AUN) is 1,000 feet AGL. May you practice landings under VFR when the AWOS is reporting a ground visibility of 2 miles? a. Yes, you will be operating in a combination of Class E and G airspace. b. No, the reported ground visibility must be at least 3 miles. c. No, the Class E airspace extends to the airport surface.

No, the reported ground visibility must be at least 3 miles. Auburn is inside the magenta shading, which indicates that the Class E airspace begins at 700 feet AGL. Therefore you are operating in a combination of Class E and G airspace since the traffic pattern altitude is given to be 1,000 feet AGL. With no other visibility information given, other than 2 SM reported by the AWOS you will need to assume that visibility in the Class E airspace above AUB will be less than the prescribed 3 SM minimum for VFR flight.

(Refer to Figure 64.) You see this sign when holding short of the runway. You receive clearance to back taxi on the runway for a full-length runway 8 departure. Which way should you turn when first taxiing on to the runway for takeoff? a. Left. b. Right. c. Need more information.

Right. The runway holding position sign contains the designation of the intersecting runways. The runway numbers are arranged to correspond to the respective runway threshold. For example, "26-8" indicates that the threshold for Runway 26 is to the left and the threshold for Runway 8 is to the right.

Risk management, as part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight? a. The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take. b. Application of stress management and risk element procedures. c. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.

Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment. Risk Management is the part of the decision making process which relies on situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight.

(Refer to Figure 57.) You are directed to taxi to runway 10. You see this sign at a taxiway intersection while taxiing. Which way should you proceed? a. Left. b. Right. c. Straight ahead.

Straight ahead. This destination sign indicates runway 10 is straight ahead.

When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by stating the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for MACHO? a. Follow the rules. They are usually right. b. Not so fast. Think first. c. Taking chances is foolish.

Taking chances is foolish. Macho (I can do it) pilots who are always trying to prove that they are better than anyone else are thinking 'I can do it - I'll show them.' Pilots with this type of attitude will try to prove themselves by taking risks in order to impress others. While this pattern is thought to be a male characteristic, women are equally susceptible. The antidote for this attitude is: taking chances is foolish. Answer (A) is incorrect because this is the antidote for an anti-authority attitude. Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the antidote for an impulsivity attitude.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace? a. The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. b. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating. c. The pilot in command must hold at least a student pilot certificate.

The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. A student pilot may only operate an aircraft on a solo flight in Class B airspace if the student pilot has received both ground and flight training from an authorized instructor and has received a logbook endorsement. No person may operate an aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with the applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment. Requests for ATC authorized deviations for operation of an aircraft that is not equipped with a transponder must be made at least one hour before the proposed operation.

Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace? a. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating. b. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate. c. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate. No person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless the pilot-in-command holds at least a private pilot certificate. Answer (A) is incorrect because a private pilot certificate without an instrument rating is sufficient to operate in Class B airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because with the proper training and endorsements, a student pilot may operate in Class B airspace.

To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required? a. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need not be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums. b. The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area. c. The pilot must hold an instrument rating and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.

The pilot must hold an instrument rating and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight. No person may operate an airplane in Class D airspace under Special VFR at night unless that person is instrument rated, and the airplane is equipped for instrument flight. Answer (A) is incorrect because the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight. Answer (B) is incorrect because there is no such designation as 'night SVFR area.'

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace? a. Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated. b. The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area. c. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area. No person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless the operator receives an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area before operating an aircraft in that area. Answer (A) is incorrect because a private pilot's certificate without an instrument rating is sufficient to operate in Class B airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because with the proper training and endorsements a student pilot may operate in Class B airspace.

(Refer to Figure 61.) Ground control has instructed you to taxi Alfa to Foxtrot to the active runway. According to the sign in the figure, which direction would you turn at this intersection to comply with ATC? a. No turn is required. b. The turn will be made to the right. c. The turn will be made to the left.

The turn will be made to the left. Orientation of signs is from left to right. Left turn signs are on the left of the location sign and right turn signs are on the right side of the location sign. Figure 61 indicates taxiway Foxtrot will be a left turn from Alfa.

The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction? a. Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight. b. If the pilot hurries, he or she may still make it on time. c. The pilot can't help it that the passengers are late.

Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight. The antiauthority attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them what to do. In a sense, they are saying no one can tell me what to do. They may be resentful of having someone tell them what to do or may regard rules, regulations, and procedures as silly or unnecessary.

While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY reaction? a. What is the worst that could happen. b. He can handle a little problem like this. c. It's too late to fix it now.

What is the worst that could happen. The invulnerability attitude is found in people who feel accidents happen to others, but never to them. They know accidents can happen, and they know that anyone can be affected, but they never really feel or believe that they will be personally involved. Pilots who think this way are more likely to take chances and increase risk.

When should pilots decline a "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance? a. Only when the tower controller concurs. b. If runway surface is contaminated. c. When it will compromise safety.

When it will compromise safety. Pilots are expected to decline a LAHSO clearance if they determine it will compromise safety.

When should pilots decline a "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance? a. When it will compromise safety. b. If runway surface is contaminated. c. Only when the tower controller concurs.

When it will compromise safety. Pilots are expected to decline a LAHSO clearance if they determine it will compromise safety.

You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The controller responds to your initial radio call with "N125HF standby." May you enter the Class B airspace? a. You must remain outside Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance. b. You may continue into the Class B airspace and wait for further instructions. c. You may continue into the Class B airspace without a specific clearance, if the aircraft is ADS-B equipped.

You must remain outside Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance. No. You are not to enter the Class B airspace until you have received authorization from ATC. "Standby" simply means the controller has your request, it does not give you permission to enter the airspace.

The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around Class B Airspace is a. the outer segment of Class B Airspace. b. an area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B Airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL. c. a Mode C "veil" boundary where a balloon may penetrate without a transponder, provided it remains below 10,000 feet MSL.

a Mode C "veil" boundary where a balloon may penetrate without a transponder, provided it remains below 10,000 feet MSL. A balloon or glider may conduct operations in the airspace below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport, or 10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower.

(Refer to Figure 53, point 1.) This thin black shaded line is most likely a. an arrival route. b. a military training route. c. a state boundary line.

a military training route. The thin black shaded line is most likely a military training route (MTR). MTRs are normally labeled on sectional charts with either IR (IFR operations) or VR (VFR operations), followed by either three or four numbers. Answer (A) is incorrect because arrival routes are found on IFR charts. Answer (C) is incorrect because state boundaries are indicated by a thin black broken line.

Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as a. humidity decreases. b. altitude increases. c. oxygen demand increases.

altitude increases. Carbon monoxide inhaled in smoking or from exhaust fumes, lowered hemoglobin (anemia), and certain medications can reduce the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood to the degree that the amount of oxygen provided to body tissues will already be equivalent to the oxygen provided to the tissues when exposed to a cabin pressure altitude of several thousand feet. Answer (A) is incorrect because the humidity level does not have a bearing on carbon monoxide or oxygen levels. Answer (C) is incorrect because oxygen demand does not change.

Once a pilot-in-command accepts a 'land and hold short' (LAHSO) clearance, the clearance must be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance, unless a. an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs. b. the wind changes or Available Landing Distance decreases. c. Available Landing Distance decreases or density altitude increases.

an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs. Once accepted, a LAHSO must be adhered to unless an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs.

(Refer to Figure 53.)GIVEN:Location Madera Airport (MAE)Altitude 1,000 ft AGLPosition 7 NM north of Madera (MAE)Time 3 p.m. localFlight visibility 1 SMYou are VFR approaching Madera Airport for a landing from the north. You a. are in violation of the CFRs; you need 3 miles of visibility under VFR. b. are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to remain clear of Class E airspace and may continue for landing. c. may descend to 800 feet AGL (Pattern Altitude) after entering Class E airspace and continue to the airport.

are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to remain clear of Class E airspace and may continue for landing. At 7 NM north of Madera, you are outside the magenta shading, which indicates the floor of the Class E airspace is 1,200 feet AGL. At 1,000 feet, you are in Class G airspace. During daylight hours, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight is 1 SM. Inside the magenta shading, the floor of the Class E airspace drops to 700 feet. Therefore, to remain VFR, you must remain in Class G airspace, which requires you to descend below 700 feet before entering the Class E airspace to continue for landing. Answer (A) is incorrect because only 1 SM visibility is necessary to remain VFR in Class G airspace at 1,000 feet AGL during daylight hours. Answer (C) is incorrect because you must descend below 700 feet AGL before entering Class E airspace to remain VFR.

(Refer to Figure 51, A.) This taxiway sign would be expected a. at the intersection of runway 04/22 departure end and the taxiway. b. near the intersection of runways 04 and 22. c. at a taxiway intersecting runway 04/22.

at a taxiway intersecting runway 04/22. This question will likely include an onscreen graphic of a taxiway location sign with a direction sign or runway holding position sign. This type of sign is used at a taxiway intersection of runways.

(Refer to Figure 51.) Illustration D would most likely be found a. upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control. b. at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway. c. near the approach end of ILS runways.

at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway. This sign prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. Typically, this sign would be located on a taxiway intended to be used in only one direction or at the intersection of vehicle roadways with runways, taxiways, or aprons where the roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway or other aircraft movement surface. Answer (A) is incorrect because this refers to Illustration G. Answer (C) is incorrect because this refers to Illustration H.

At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are a. not authorized. b. authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM. c. authorized only if the ground visibility is observed to be at least 3 SM.

authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM. No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace under Special VFR unless they remain clear of clouds and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM. If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, flight visibility during landing or takeoff must be at least 1 SM. Answer (A) is incorrect because Special VFR is authorized if flight visibility is at least 1 SM. Answer (C) is incorrect because the visibility requirement for Special VFR is 1 SM.

When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for a. availability and status of en route and destination airport lighting systems. b. red en route course lights. c. location of rotating light beacons.

availability and status of en route and destination airport lighting systems. Prior to a night flight, and particularly a cross-country night flight, pilots should check the availability and status of lighting systems at the destination airport.

You attended a party last night and consumed several glasses of wine. You are planning to fly your aircraft home and have been careful to make sure 8 hours have passed since your last alcoholic drink. You can make the flight now only if you are not under the influence of alcohol and your blood alcohol level is a. below .04%. b. below .08%. c. 0.0%.

below .04%. It is against regulations to operate an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol or drugs, or with an alcohol concentration of .04 percent or above, or within 8 hours of consuming alcohol.

(Refer to Figure 54, point 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of a. both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. b. 10,000 feet MSL. c. 2,100 feet AGL.

both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. The letter 'T' denotes the ceiling of the Class C airspace which extends up to, but does not include the floor of the overlying Class B airspace. The Class C airspace normally extends upward to 4,000 feet AGL. However, in this case the Class C airspace extends upward to the base of the Class B airspace. The overlying Class B airspace has bases of 2,100 feet MSL, and 3,000 feet MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect because 10,000 feet is the ceiling of the Class B airspace over OAK. Answer (C) is incorrect because the Class C airspace ceiling on the west side of OAK is 2,100 feet MSL, and the ceiling on the east side is 3,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to Figure 52, point 7.) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is a. 700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. b. 1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. c. both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.

both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL. Woodland has magenta shading over part of the town. Inside this magenta shading, Class E airspace begins at 700 feet AGL. Outside the magenta area, Class E airspace begins at 1,200 feet AGL.

When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for the availability and status of a. all VORs to be used en route. b. airport rotating light beacons. c. destination airport lighting systems.

destination airport lighting systems. It is recommended that prior to a night flight, and particularly a cross-country night flight, the pilot check the availability and status of lighting systems at the destination airport.

A "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance a. precludes a "Go Around" by ATC. b. does not preclude a rejected landing. c. requires a runway exit at the first taxiway.

does not preclude a rejected landing. A LAHSO clearance, once accepted, must be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance, unless an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs. A LAHSO clearance does not preclude a rejected landing.

The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right stuff' can have an adverse effect on safety, by a. a total disregard for any alternative course of action. b. generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a mishap. c. imposing a realistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions.

generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a mishap. Pilots, particularly those with considerable experience, as a rule always try to complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and generally demonstrate that they have the 'right stuff.' These tendencies ultimately may lead to practices that are dangerous and often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.

"Runway Holding Position Markings" on taxiways a. identify where aircraft are prohibited to taxi when not cleared to proceed by ground control. b. identify where aircraft are supposed to stop when not cleared to proceed onto the runway. c. allow an aircraft permission onto the runway.

identify where aircraft are supposed to stop when not cleared to proceed onto the runway. Runway holding position markings indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop. When used on a taxiway, these markings identify the locations where an aircraft is supposed to stop when it does not have clearance to proceed onto the runway.

The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot a. making a rational evaluation of the required actions. b. developing the 'right stuff' attitude. c. identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.

identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight. Steps for good decision making are: identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight, learning behavior modification techniques, learning how to recognize and cope with stress, developing risk assessment skills, using all resources in a multicrew situation, and evaluating the effectiveness of one's ADM skills.

Risk management by the pilot a. applies only on passenger/cargo IFR flights. b. requires continuing education and certified academic training to understand the principles. c. is improved with practice and consistent use of risk management tools.

is improved with practice and consistent use of risk management tools. Pilot management of risk is improved with practice and consistent use of basic and practical risk management tools.

(Refer to Figure 51.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft a. passes the red symbol shown in illustration D. b. is on the dashed-line side of Illustration G. c. is past the solid-line side of Illustration G.

is past the solid-line side of Illustration G. After landing, the pilot generally calls ground control when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft is on the solid-line side of Illustration G. The solid lines always indicate the side on which the aircraft is to hold.Answer (A) is incorrect because Illustration D prohibits aircraft entry into an area. Answer (B) is incorrect because you are still on the runway if you are on the dashed-line side of Illustration G.

What should you consider when planning to land at another airport? a. land and hold short procedures. b. check for airport and touchdown markings. c. airport lighting using continuous wiring.

land and hold short procedures. As part of a pilot's preflight planning process, pilots should determine if their destination airport has LAHSO. If so, their preflight planning process should include an assessment of which LAHSO combinations would work for them given their aircraft's required landing distance. Good pilot decision making is knowing in advance whether one can accept a LAHSO clearance if offered.

(Refer to Figure 50.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is a. left-hand for runway 36 and right-hand for runway 18. b. left-hand for runway 18 and right-hand for runway 36. c. right-hand for runway 9 and left-hand for runway 27.

left-hand for runway 36 and right-hand for runway 18. The traffic pattern indicators on a segmented circle are used to indicate the direction of turns. The traffic pattern indicators, shown as extensions from the segmented circle, represent the base and final approach legs.

When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should a. make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated. b. fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL. c. enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.

make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated. When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in a Class G airspace area each pilot of an airplane must make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot must make all turns to the right.

(Refer to Figure 52, Area 2.) When departing the RIO LINDA (L36) airport to the northwest at an altitude of 1,000 feet AGL, you a. must make contact with MC CLELLAN (MCC) control tower as soon as practical after takeoff. b. are not required to contact any ATC facilities if you do not enter the Class C Airspace. c. must make contact with the SACRAMENTO INTL ( SMF) control tower immediately after takeoff.

must make contact with the SACRAMENTO INTL ( SMF) control tower immediately after takeoff. Rio Linda (L36) is within Class E airspace at the surface and within Class C airspace starting at 1600 feet MSL. Departing to the northwest, you will enter Class C airspace at the surface and must contact Sacramento Intl (SMF) control tower immediately after takeoff prior to entering the Class C airspace.

Light beacons producing red flashes indicate a. end of runway warning at departure end. b. a pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling. c. obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation.

obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation. Beacons producing red flashes indicate obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation.

After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include a. turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing. b. maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road. c. planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area.

planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area. If the engine fails at night, one of the primary considerations includes planning an emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of the area.

To cope with spatial disorientation, pilots should rely on a. body sensations and outside visual references. b. adequate food, rest, and night adaptation. c. proficient use of the aircraft instruments.

proficient use of the aircraft instruments. Spatial disorientation cannot be completely prevented, but it can and must be ignored or sufficiently suppressed by developing absolute reliance upon what the flight instruments are telling about the attitude of the aircraft.

You are most likely to experience somatogravic illusion during a. a rapid descent. b. deceleration upon landing. c. rapid acceleration during takeoff.

rapid acceleration during takeoff. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of being in a nose-up attitude. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft into a nose-low, or dive attitude. This is called "somatogravic illusion."

After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot a. requests an amended clearance. b. is operating VFR on top. c. receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.

receives an amended clearance or has an emergency. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot-in-command may deviate from that clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, an emergency exists, or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by a. early recognition of hazardous thoughts. b. taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes. c. redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.

redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. Pilots should become familiar with a means of counteracting hazardous attitudes with an appropriate antidote thought.

To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should a. rely on body sensations. b. increase the breathing rate. c. rely on aircraft instrument indications.

rely on aircraft instrument indications. Spatial disorientation can be prevented only by visual reference to reliable fixed points on the ground or to flight instruments. Answer (A) is incorrect because body sensations must be ignored. Answer (B) is incorrect because an increase in breathing rate could cause hyperventilation.

For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the a. pupils of the eyes have become dilated in approximately 10 minutes. b. rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes. c. cones in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 5 minutes.

rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes. When entering a dark room, it is difficult to see anything until the eyes become adjusted to the darkness. After approximately 5 to 10 minutes, the cones become adjusted to the dim light and the eyes become 100 times more sensitive to the light than they were before the dark room was entered. Much more time, about 30 minutes, is needed for the rods to become adjusted to darkness; but when they do adjust, they are about 100,000 times more sensitive to light than they were in the lighted area.

The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates a. runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway. b. a hold line from a taxiway to a runway. c. the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.

runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway. A demarcation bar delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway. A demarcation bar is 3 feet (1 m) wide and yellow, since it is not located on the runway.

When planning for an emergency landing at night, on of the primary considerations should include a. landing without flaps to ensure a nose-high landing attitude at touchdown. b. turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for the landing. c. selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible.

selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible. If the engine fails at night, one of the primary considerations includes selecting an emergency landing area close to public access if possible. This may facilitate rescue or help, if needed.