Commercial Oral

During preflight of your single engine aircraft you find that the carminix is inoperative. What must you do to legally fly the aircraft with inoperative equipment?

"What is a carminix?" you ask. It doesn't matter, so don't let that bother you. Your thought process should be the same, and make sure your answer demonstrates your thought process. If the aircraft has an approved minimum equipment list (MEL), then I would follow the proecdures outlined. If the aircraft does not have an MEL, then to fly with the carminix inoperative, the following conditions must be met: -Is it on the list of required equipment (ATOMATOEFLAMES)? If no, then -Is it required for the Type Certificate? If no, then -Is it required on the Kinds of Operation List? If no, then -Is it required by an AD? If no, then -Do I feel that I can fly safely without it? If yes, then I would: 1. Deactivate and placard it. 2. Have it removed and update the weight and balance data.

What are the different types of AIRMETs?

-Sierra: describes IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscurations -Tango: describes moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds of 30 knots or greater, and/or nonconvenctive low level wind shear -Zulu: describes moderate icing and provides freezing level heights

What are some advantages of fuel injection?

1) Reduction in evaporative icing 2) Better fuel flow 3) Faster throttle response 4) Precise control of mixture 5) Better fuel distribution 6) Easier cold weather starts

At higher altitudes, cannulas aren't as effective. If you breathe through your mouth or talk a lot, you start to take in lower-oxygen air. That reduces the amount of oxygen in your blood, and FARs limit their use to ____________ feet.

18,000

A Oral-nasal re-breather, usually called a "re-breather mask," is a lightweight mask that fits over your face. The seal isn't airtight, but it's good enough to significantly increase the oxygen percentage you breathe. High end masks include a built-in microphone for your radios and intercom. Re-breather masks are limited to ___________ feet.

25,000

What is the maximum amount of bank in the chandelle?

30 degrees of bank

What is the normal length of time necessary for landing gear retraction or extension?

5 to 7 seconds for either extension or retraction of the landing gear.

What is a chandelle?

A "chandelle" is a maximum performance climbing turn beginning from approximately straight and level flight, and ending at the completion of 180 degrees of turn in a wings-level, nose-high attitude at the minimum controllable airspeed.

What is an airport "hot spot"?

A "hot-spot" is a runway safety-related problem area on an airport that presents increased risk during surface operations. Typically, it is a complex or confusing taxiway/taxiway intersection or taxiway/runway intersection. The area of increased risk has either a history of or potential for runway incursions or surface incidents due to a variety of causes, such as but not limited to: airport layout, traffic flow, airport marking, signage and lightning, situational awareness, and training. Hot spots are depicted on airport diagrams as open circles or polygons designated as "HS 1," HS 2." etc.

What is a Center Weather Advisory (CWA)?

A Center Weather Advisory (CWA) is an aviation warning for use by aircrews to anticipate and avoid adverse weather conditions in the en route and terminal environments. This is not a flight plan- fling product; instead it reflects current conditions expected at the time of issuance, and/or is a short-range forecast for conditions expected to begin within 2 hours from that time. CWAs are valid for a maximum of 2 hours. If conditions are expected to continue beyond that period, a statement will be included in the CWA.

What is a SIGMET?

A SIGMET advises of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft. Issued for the six areas corresponding to the FA areas a. severe icing not associated with a thunderstorm b. severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms c. dust storms or sandstorms lowering the surface or inflight visibilities to below 3 miles d. volcanic ash

What is a SIDA?

A Security Identification Display Area (SIDA) is a portion of an airport specified in the airport security program in which security measures specified in 49 CFR Part 1542 are carried out. Movement through or into these area is prohibited without airport-approved identification being displayed continuously. Pilots or passengers without proper identification that are observed entering a SIDA (ramp area) may be reported to TSA or airport security.

What are Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs)?

A TAF is a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions significant to aviation for a specified time period within five statute miles (SM) of the center of the airport's runway complex (terminal). The TAFs use the same weather codes found in METAR weather reports, in the following format: a. Type of reports -- a routine forecast (TAF); an amended forecast (TAF AMD), or a corrected forecast (TAF COR). b. ICAO station identifier -- 4-letter station identifier. c. Date and time of origin -- the date/time of the forecast follows the terminal's location identifier and shows the day of the month in two digits, and the time in which the forecast is completed and ready for transmission in four digits, appended with a Z to denote UTC. d. Valid period date and time -- The first two digits are the day of the month for the start of the TAF, followed by two digits that indicate the starting hour (UTC). The next two digits indicate the day of he month for the end of the TAF, and the last two digits are the ending hour (UTC) of the valid period. Scheduled 24- and 30-hour TAFs are issued four (4) times per day, at 0000, 0600, 1200, and 1800Z. e. Forecasts -- wind, visibility, significant and vicinity weather, cloud and vertical obscuration, non-convective low-level wind shear, and forecast change indicators.

What information does a weather depiction chart provide?

A Weather Depiction Chart contains a plot of weather conditions at selected METAR stations and an analysis of weather flying categories (IFR, MVFR, VFR). It is primarily a briefing tool to alert pilots to the location of critical or near-critical operational minimums at terminals in the conterminous US and surrounding land areas. The chart is issued eight times daily starting at 0100 UTC.

What is the desired bank angle in a steep turn?

A bank angle of at least 50 degrees (plus or minus 5) is desired

What is a bus bar?

A bus bar is used as a terminal in the aircraft electrical system to connect the main electrical system to the equipment using electricity as a source of power. This simplifies the wiring system and provides a common point from which voltage can be distributed throughout the system.

What operational advantages are there in flying pressurized aircraft?

A cabin pressurization system performs several functions: a. It allows an aircraft to fly higher which can result in better fuel economy, higher speeds, and the capability to avoid bad weather and turbulence b. It will typically maintain a cabin pressure altitude of 8,000 ft at the maximum designed cruising altitude of the airplane. c. It prevents rapid changes of cabin altitude which may be uncomfortable or injurious to passengers and crew. d. It permits a reasonably fast exchange of air from inside to outside of the cabin. This is necessary to eliminate odors and to remove stale air.

What operational advantages are there in flying pressurized aircraft?

A cabin pressurization system performs several functions: a. It allows an aircraft to fly higher which can result in better fuel economy, higher speeds, and the capability to avoid bad weather and turbulence. b. It will typically maintain a cabin pressure altitude of 8,000 ft at the maximum designed cruising altitude of the airplane. c. It prevents rapid changes of cabin altitude which may be uncomfortable or injurious to passengers and crew. d. It permits a reasonably fast exchange of air from inside to outside of the cabin. This is necessary to eliminate odors and to remove stale air.

How does the carburetor heat system work?

A carburetor heat valve, controlled by the pilot, allow unfiltered, heated air from a shroud located around an exhaust rise or muffler to be directed to the induction air manifold prior the carburetor. Carburetor heat should be used anytime suspected or known carburetor icing conditions exist.

After completing your pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing of the taxi route you "expect" to receive, ATC calls and gives you a different route. What potential pitfall is common in this situation?

A common pitfall of pre-taxi and pre-landing planning is setting expectations and then receiving different instructions from ATC. Pilots need to follow the instructions that they actually receive. Short-term memory is of limited duration.

What is a convective SIGMET?

A convective SIGMET (WST) implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing and low-level wind shear. It may be issued for any convective situation which the forecaster feels is hazardous to all categories of aircraft. Convective SIGMET bulletins are issued for the Eastern (E), Central (C) and Western (W) United States (convective SIGMETs are not issued for Alaska or Hawaii). Bulletins are issued hourly at H+55. Special bulletins are issued at any time as required and updated at H+55. The text of the bulletin consists of either an observation and a forecast, or just a forecast, which is valid for up to 2 hours. a. Severe thunderstorm due to: • Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots • Hail at the surface greater than or equal to 3/4 inches in diameter • Tornadoes b. Embedded thunderstorms c. A line of thunderstorms d. Thunderstorms producing greater than or equal to heavy precipitation that affects 40 percent or more of an area at least 3,000 square miles.

What is the difference between a deice system and an anti-ice system?

A deice system is used to eliminate ice that has already formed. An anti-ice system is used to prevent the formation of ice.

How will you determine if your flight is for "compensation or hire?"

A flight is for compensation or hire if: -There is not a common purpose. "Common purpose" is defined as the pilot and passengers each having a reason to fly to a particular destination. AND -I am exercising "operational control"--that is, I am the one making the go/no go decision, and decisions to revise or terminate the flight. OR There is compensation or reimbursement in excess of my pro-rata share. 1. Compensation is commonly thought of as money or other exchange of services. However, no money and no profit are required in the FAA's definition of compensation. The FAA considers free flight time as pilot compensation. 2. "Pro rata" is each person's evenly divided share of the flight. If the flight includes the pilot and two passengers, the pilot must also pay 1/3 the cost of the flight.

What is the definition of "hazard?"

A hazard is a present condition, event, object, or circumstance that could lead to or contribute to an unplanned or undesired event such as an accident.

How is the landing gear extended and retracted?

A hydraulic actuator powered by an eletrically-driven hydraulic power pack enables the landing gear extension, retraction, and main gear down lock release operations to occur. A pressure switch starts and stops power pack operation and hydraulic pressure is directed by a landing gear lever.

A large or turbine-powered aircraft is required to enter Class D airspace at what altitude?

A large or turbine-powered airplane shall, unless otherwise required by the applicable distance-from-clouds criteria, enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least 1,500 ft above the elevation of the airport and maintain at least 1,500 ft until further descent is required for a safe landing.

What is a lazy eight?

A lazy eight consists of two 180 degree turns, in opposite directions, while making a climb and a descent in a symmetrical pattern during each of the turns.

During a cross-country flight you notice that the oil pressure is low, but the oil temperature is normal. What is the problem and what action should be taken?

A low oil pressure in flight could be the result of any one of several problems, the most common being that of insufficient oil. If the oil temperature continues to remain normal, a clogged oil pressure relief valve or an oil pressure gauge malfunction could be the culprit. In any case, a landing at the nearest airport is advisable to check for the cause of the trouble.

What would the desired propeller setting be for maximum performance situations such as takeoff?

A low pitch, high RPM setting produces maximum power and thrust. The low blade angle keeps the angle of attack small and efficient with respect to the relative wind. At the same time, it allows the propeller to handle a smaller mass of air per revolution. This light load allows the engine to turn at high RPM and to convert the maximum amount of fuel into heat energy in a given time. The high RPM also creates maximum thrust because the mass of air handled per revolution is small, the number of revolutions per minute is many, the slipstream velocity is high, and the airplane speed is low.

What is the function of a magentometer?

A magentometer is a device that measures the strength of the earth's magnetic field to determine aircraft heading; it provides this information digitally to the AHRS, which then sends it to the PFD.

Discuss the effects of nitrogen excesses from scuba diving upon a pilot or passenger in flight.

A pilot or passenger who intends to fly after scuba diving should allow the body sufficient time to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed during diving. If not, decompression sickness due to evolved gas can occur during exposure to low altitude and create a serious inflight emergency. The recommended waiting times before flight are as follows: Flight altitudes up to 8,000 ft: a. Wait at least 12 hours after a dive that did not require a controlled ascent. b. Wait at least 24 hours after a dive in which a controlled ascent was required. Flight altitudes above 8,000 ft: a. Wait at least 24 hours after any scuba dive. Note: The recommended altitudes are actual flight altitudes above mean sea level and not pressurized cabin altitudes. This takes into consideration the risk of decompression of the aircraft during flight.

What are PIREPs and where are they usually found?

A pilot report (PIREP) provides valuable information regarding the conditions as they actually exist in the air -- information which cannot be gathered from any other source. Pilots can confirm the height of bases and tops of clouds, locations of wind shear and turbulence, and the location of inflight icing. There are two types of PIREPS: routine or "UA," and urgent or "UUA." PIREPs should be given to the ground facility with which communications are established (i.e., FSS, ARTCC, or terminal ATC). Altitudes are MSL, visibilities SM, and distances in NM.

What action should be taken if a pilot suspects carbon monoxide poisoning?

A pilot who suspects this condition exists should immediately shut off the heater and open all air vents. If symptoms are severe, or they continue after landing, the pilot should seek medical treatment.

How is the gear locked in the up position?

A positive "up" pressure is maintained on the landing gear by the hydraulic power pack. To accomplish this, the power pack automatically maintains an operating pressure of 1000 to 1500 PSI in the landing gear system.

Explain the arrangement and interpretation of the position lights on an aircraft.

A red light is positioned on the left wingtip, a green light on the right wingtip, and a white light on the tail.

How do you determine pivotal altitude for eights-on-pylons?

A rule of thumb for estimating pivotal altitude using true airspeed in no-wind conditions, or ground speed when the wind is blowing, is to square the speed and divide by 15 for miles per hour or 11.3 for knots.

What is a spin?

A spin in a small airplane or glider is a controlled (recoverable) or uncontrolled (possibly unrecoverable) maneuver in which the airplane or glider descends in a helical path while flying at an angle of attack (AOA) greater than critical AOA. Spins result form aggravated stalls in either a slip or a skid.

Describe several flight situations where an unintentional spin may occur.

A stall/spin situation may occur in any phase of flight but is most likely to occur in the following situations: a. Engine failure on takeoff during climbout -- pilot tries to stretch glide to landing area by increasing back pressure or makes an uncoordinated turn back to departure runway at a relatively low airspeed. b. Crossed-controlled turn from base to final (slipping or skidding turn) -- pilot overshoots final (possibly due to a crosswind) and makes an uncoordinated turn at a low airspeed. c. Engine failure on approach to landing -- pilot tries to stretch glide to runway by increasing back pressure. d. Go-around with excessive nose-up trim -- pilot applies power with full flaps and nose-up trim combined with uncoordinated use of rudder. e. Go-around with improper flap retraction -- pilot applies power and retracts flaps rapidly resulting in a rapid sink rate followed by an instinctive increase in back pressure.

What are standard atmosphere temperature and pressure lapse rates?

A standard temperature lapse rate is one in which the temperature decreases at the rate of approximately 3.5F or 2C per 1,000 ft up to 36,000 ft. Above this point, the temperature is considered constant up to 80,000 ft. A standard pressure lapse rate is one in which pressure decreases at a rate of approximately 1 in Hg per 1,000 ft of altitude gain to 10,000 ft.

What is a steep spiral?

A steep spiral is nothing more than a constant gliding turn, during which a constant radius around a point on the ground is maintained similar to the maneuver "turns around a point." The radius should be such that the steepest bank will not exceed 60 degrees.

What is a surface analysis chart?

A surface analysis chart is an analyzed chart of surface weather observations. It depicts the distribution of multiple items, including sea level pressure; the positions of highs, lows, ridges, and troughs; the location and character of fronts; and the various boundaries such as drylines, outflow boundaries, sea-breeze fronts, and convergence lines. The chart is produced eight times daily.

What is a TRSA?

A terminal radar service area (TRSA) consists of airspace surrounding designated airports wherein ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft. Pilot participation is urged but not mandatory.

What simple and fundamental weight check can be made by all pilots before flight?

A useful load check can be made to determine if the useful load limit has been exceeded. This check may be a mental calculation if the pilot is familiar with the aircraft's limits and knows that unusually heavy loads are not aboard. The pilot needs to know the usefull load limit of the particular aircraft. This information may be found in the latest weight and balance report, in a logbook, or on a Major Repair and Alteration Form located in the aircraft. If the useful load limit is not stated directly, simply subtract the empty weight from the maximum takeoff weight.

Define the term "aeronautical decision making"

ADM is a systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances. The two most commonly used models for practicing ADM are the DECIDE model and the 3P model.

Describe the function of the following avionics equipment acronyms: AHRS, ADC, PFD, MFD, FD, FMS, TAWS.

AHRS -- attitude and heading reference system. Composed of three-axis sensors that provide heading, attitude, and yaw information for aircraft. AHRS are designed to replace traditional mechanical gyroscopic flight instruments and provide superior reliability and accuracy. ADC -- air data computer. An aircraft computer that receives and processes pitot pressure, static pressure, and temperature to calculate very precise altitude, indicated airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed, and air temperature. PFD -- primary flight display. A display that provides increased situational awareness to the pilot by replacing the traditional six instruments with an easy-to-scan display that shows the horizon, airspeed, altitude, vertical speed, trend, trim, rate-of-turn, and more. MFD -- multi-function display. A cockpit display capable of presenting information (navigation data, moving maps, terrain awareness, etc.) to the pilot in configurable ways; often used in concert with the PFD. FD -- flight director. An electronic flight computer that analyzes the navigation selections, signals, and aircraft parameters. It presents steering instructions on the flight display as command bars or crossbars for the pilot to position the nose of the aircraft over or follow. FMS -- flight management system. A computer system containing a database for programming of routes, approaches, and departures that can supply navigation data to the flight director/autopilot from various sources, and can calculate flight data such as fuel consumption, time remaining, possible range, and other values. TAWS -- terrain awareness and warning system. Uses the aircraft's GPS navigation signal and altimetry systems to compare the position and trajectory of the aircraft against a more detailed terrain and obstacle database. This database attempts to detail every obstruction that could pose a threat to an aircraft in flight.

What are the regulations pertaining to the use of supplemental oxygen on board a "pressurized" aircraft?

Above Flight Level 250: At least a ten-minute supply of supplemental oxygen, in addition to any oxygen required to satisfy 14 CFR 91.211, is available for each occupant of the aircraft for use in the event that a descent is necessitated by loss of cabin pressurization. Above Flight Level 350: At least one pilot at the controls of the airplane is wearing and using an oxtgen mask that is secured and sealed that either supplies oxygen at all times or automatically supplies oxygen whenever the cabin pressure altitude of the airplane exceeds 14,000 ft. Note: One pilot need not wear and use an oxtgen mask while at or below Flight Level 410 if two pilots are at the controls and each pilot has a quick donning type of oxtgen mask that can be placed on the face within 5 seconds. Also, if for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave the controls of the aircraft when operating at altitudes above Flight Level 350, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use an oxtgen mask until the other pilot ahs returned to that crewmember's station.

What is the definition of "absolute ceiling"?

Absolute ceiling is the altitude at which a climb is no longer possible.

What is an accelerated stall?

Accelerated stalls are stalls that occur at higher indicated airspeed and/or lower than anticipated pitch attitudes as a result of excessive loads being suddenly imposed on an aircraft during improperly executed steep turns, stall and spin recoveries, and pull-ups from steep dives.

What factors affect air density?

Air density is affected by changes in altitude, temperature, and humidity. High density altitude refers to thin air while low density altitude refers to dense air. The conditions that result in a high density altitude are high elevations, low atmospheric pressures, high temperatures, high humidity, or some combination of these factors. Lower elevations, high atmospheric pressure, low temperatures, and low humidity are more indicative of low density altitude.

What effect does atmospheric have on air density?

Air density is directly proportional to pressure. If the pressure is doubled, the density is doubled, and if the pressure is lowered, so is the density. This statement is true only at a constant temperature.

When are aircraft that are equipped with an anti-collision light system required to operate that light system?

Aircraft equipped with an anti-collision light system are required to operate that light system during all types of operations (day and night). However, the anti-collision lights need not be lighted when the pilot-in-command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.

During calm or nearly calm wind conditions, at an airport without an operating control tower, a pilot should be aware of what potentially hazardous situations?

Aircraft may be landing and/or taking off on more than one runway at the airport. Also, aircraft may be using an instrument approach procedure to runways other than the runway in use for VFR operations. The instrument approach runway may intersect the VFR runway. It is also possible that an instrument arrival may be made to the opposite end of the runway from which a takeoff is being made.

What is airport surveillance radar?

Airport surveillance radar (ASR) is approach control radar used to detect and display an aircraft's position in the terminal area. ASR provides range and azimuth information but does not provide elevation data. Coverage of ASR can extend up to 60 miles.

What instruments are affected when the static port freezes?

Airspeed indicator -- Accurate at the altitude frozen as long as the static pressure in the indicator and the system equals outside pressure. If the aircraft descents, the airspeed indicator would read high. If the aircraft climbs, the airspeed indicator will read low. Altimeter -- Indicates the altitude at which the system was blocked. Vertical speed -- Indicates level flight.

Where does hypoxia usually occur, and what symptoms should one expect?

Although deterioration in night vision occurs at a cabin pressure altitude as low as 5,000 ft, other significant effects of altitude hypoxia usually do not occur in the normal healthy pilot below 12,000 ft. From 12,000 ft to 15,000 ft of altitude, judgement, memory, alertness, coordination, and ability to make calculations are impaired, and headache, drowsiness, dizziness and either a sense of well-being or belligerence occur.

Continuous Flow The Basic - It Just Blows The most basic - and inexpensive - version pushes a standard rate of oxygen to each mask. At low altitudes, it pushes too much oxygen. The system is wasteful, so your bottle's endurance is cut back. But, most systems are designed to keep you safe up to 25,000 feet. _________ ___________ - You Dial It Moving a step up allows you to vary the rate of oxygen flow. In some cases, you'll actually dial an altitude into the regulator. In others, you'll simply set a flow rate. Some systems have a single regulator that controls the flow to every mask, and some have individual regulators for each mask. With the variable rate, you don't waste oxygen - so your endurance increases. But, your mask still limits you to 25,000 feet. _________ __________ - You Just Wear It The altitude compensating continuous-flow system automatically adjusts the oxygen flow rate as you climb or descend. You don't have to adjust it - you just wear it. Again, your mask limits you to 25,000 feet.

Altitude Adjustable Altitude Compensating

How is the landing gear position indicated in the cockpit?

Amber (gear up) and green (gear down) position indicator lights are provided in the cockpit. They are located adjacent to the landing gear control lever and indicate that the gear is either up or down and locked. Both indicators incorporate a press-to-test feature and also provide dimming shutters for night operation. Note: If one of the indicator lights should burn out, the design allows for replacement inflight, with the bulb from the other indicator light.

What is an AIRMET?

An AIRMET is an advisory of significant weather phenomena that describes conditions at intensities lower than those require the issuance of a SIGMETs. They are issued every 6 hours beginning at 0245 UTC. Pilots should use AIRMETs in the preflight and enroute phase of flight to enhance safety. AIRMET information is available in two formats: text bulletins (WA) and graphics (G-ARIMET). Unscheduled updates and corrections are issued as necessary. AIRMETs contain details about IFR, extensive mountain obscuration, turbulence, strong surface winds, icing, and freezing levels.

What is an ADIZ?

An Air Defense Identification Zone is airspace over land or water in which the identification, location, and control of civil aircraft is performed in the interest of national security

What is an "abbreviated" IFR flight plan?

An abbreviated IFR flight plan is an authorization by ATC requiring pilots to submit only that information needed for the purpose of ATC. It is frequently used by aircraft which are airborne and desire an instrument approach or by an aircraft on the ground which desires to climb to VFR-on-top conditions.

Define aircraft accident.

An aircraft accident means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.

Define aircraft incident.

An aircraft incident means an occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

Discuss variable-pitch propellers (constant speed).

An airplane equipped with a constant-speed propeller is capable of continuously adjusting the propeller blade angle to maintain a constant engine speed. For example, if engine RPM increases as a result of a decreased load on the engine (descent), the system automatically increases the propeller blade angle (increasing air load) until the RPM has returned to the preset speed. The propeller governor can be regulated by the pilot with a control in the cockpit, so that any desired blade angle setting (within its limits) and engine operating RPM can be obtained, thereby increaseing the airplane's efficiency in various flight conditions.

What is an asymmetrical flap emergency?

An asymmetric split flap situation is one in which one flap deploys or retracts while the other remains in position. The problem is indicated by a pronounced roll toward the wing with the least flap deflection when wing flaps are extended or retracted.

What provides hydraulic power to the landing gear system?

An electrically-driven hyrdaulic power pack provides all hydraulic power to the landing gear system. The power pack is located behind the firewall between the pilot's and copilot's rudder pedals.

What are "immediate action" items?

An immediate action item is an action that must be accomplished so expeditiously (in order to avoid or stabilize a hazaardous situation) that time is not available for the pilot/crewmember to refer to a manual or checklist. Once the emergency has been brought under control, the pilot refers to the actual checklist to verify that all immediate action items were accomplished. Only after this is done should the remained of the checklist be completed.

What effect does an increase in density altitude have on takeoff and landing performance?

An increase in density altitude results in: a. Increased takeoff distance (greater takeoff TAS required). b. Reduced rate of climb (decreased thrust and reduced acceleration) c. Increased true airspeed on approach and landing (same IAS). d. Increased landing roll distance. An increase in density altitude (decrease in air density) will increase the landing speed but will not alter the net retarding force. Thus, the airplane will land at the same indicated airspeed as normal but because of reduced air density the true airspeed will be greater. This will result in a longer minimum landing distance.

How does an altimeter work?

Aneroid wafers in the instrument expand and contract as atmospheric pressure changes, and through a shaft and gear linkage, rotate pointers on the dial of the instrument.

Name five hazardous attitudes that can affect a pilot's ability to make sound decisions and properly exercise authority.

Anti-authority -Follow the rules, they are usually right Impulsivity -Think first-not so fast Invulnerability -It could happen to me Macho -Taking chances is foolish Resignation -I can make a difference; I am not helpless

How is aircraft performance significantly affected as air becomes less dense?

As air becomes less dense, it reduces a. power because the engine takes in less air b. thrust because the propeller is less efficient in thin air c. lift because thin air exerts less force on airfoils

How is the CG affected during flight as fuel is used?

As fuel is burned during flight, the weight of the fuel tanks will change and as a result the CG will change. Most aircraft, however, are designed with the fuel tanks positioned close to the CG; therefore, the consumption of fuel does not affect the CG to any great extent. Also, the lateral balance can be upset by uneven fuel loading or burn-off. The position of the lateral CG is not normally computed for an airplane, but the pilot must be aware of the adverse effects that will result from a laterally unbalanced condition.

What symptoms can a pilot expect from hyperventilation?

As hyperventilation "blows off" excessive carbon dioxide from the body, a pilot can experience symptoms of lightheadedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling in the extremities, and coolness, and react to them with even greater hyperventilation. Incapacitation can eventually result from uncoordination, disorientation, and painful muscle spasms. Finally, unconsciousness can occur.

What is "ear block?"

As the aircraft cabin pressure decreases during ascent, the expanding air in the middle ear pushes open the Eustachian tube and escapes down to the nasal passages, thereby equalizing in pressure with the cabin pressure. But this is not automatic during descent, and the pilot must periodically open the Eustachian tube to equalize pressure. An upper respiratory infection or a nasal allergic condition can produce enough congestion around the Eustachian tube to make equalization difficult. Consequently, the difference in pressure between the middle ear and aircraft cabin can build to a level that holds the Eustachian tube closed, making equalization difficult if not impossible. An ear block produces severe pain and loss of hearing that can last from several hours to several days.

Where is the lowest pivotal altitude likely to occur in eights-on-pylons?

As the airplane heads into the wind, the ground speed decreases; consequently the pivotal altitude is lower and the airplane must descend to hold the reference line on the pylon.

Where is the highest pivotal altitude likely to occur in eights-on-pylons?

As the airplane turns downwind the ground speed increases; consequently the pivotal altitude is higher and the airplane must climb to hold the reference line on the pylon.

How does air density affect aircraft performance?

As the density of air increases (lower density altitude), airplane performance increases and conversely, as air density decreases (higher density altitude), airplane performance decreases. A decrease in air density means a high density altitude; an increase in air density means a lower density altitude.

Dividing the wingspan by the average chord gives the ________ _________. ____________ __________ is especially important in reducing the amount of induced drag produced by a wing.

Aspect ratio

Explain the use of the "Five P" model to assess risk associated with each of the five factors.

At key decision points, application of the 5P checklist should be performed by reviewing each of the critical variables: Plan -- weather, route, publications, ATC reroutes/delays, fuel onboard/remaining Plane -- mechanical status, automation status, database currency, backup systems Pilot -- illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, eating Passengers -- pilot/nonpilots, nervous or quiet, experienced or new, business or pleasure Programming -- autopilot, GPS, MFD/PFD; anticipate likely reroutes/clearances; questions to ask -- What is it doing? Why is it doing it? Did I do it?

Where should the highest pitch attitude occur in a lazy eight?

At the 45 degree point the pitch attitude should be at a maximum and the angle of bank continuing to increase. Also, at the 45 degrees point, the pitch attitude should start to decrease slowly toward the horizon at the 90 degrees reference point.

The attitude indicator is subject to what errors?

Attitude indicators are free from most errors, but depending on the speed with which the erections system functions, there may be a sligh nose-up indication during a rapid acceleration and a nose-down indication during a rapid deceleration. There is also a possibility of a small bank angle and pitch error after a 180 degree turn. These inherent errors are small and correct themselves within a minute or so after returning to straight-and-level flight.

Explain what is meant by the term "automation bias" and discuss how it can increase risk.

Automation bias is the relative willingness of a pilot to trust and use automated systems. By failing to monitor the systems and failing to check the results of the processes of those systems, the pilot becomes increasingly detached from aircraft operation, which significantly increases risk.

What does the term "automation management" refer to?

Automation management is the demonstrated ability to control and navigate an aircraft by means of the automated systems installed in the aircraft. It includes understanding whether and when to use automated systems, including, but not limited to, the GPS, and the autopilot.

What does the term 75% brake horsepower mean?

BHP is the power delivered at the propeller shaft (main drive or main output) of an aircraft engine. 75% BHP means you are delivering 75 percent of the normally rated power or maximum continuous power available at sea level on a standard day to the propeller shaft.

What error is the heading indicator subject to?

Because of precession, caused by friction, the heading indicator will creep or drift from a heading to which it is set. 15 degrees of error per hour of operations.

The aircraft is not inspected for flight under IFR. You are not current to fly IFR. You flight is from Big City Regional Airport located in Charlie airspace, to Tiny City Airport located in Golf airspace, 25 miles away. You carry cargo for compensation. Current METARs and TAFs call for clear skies and 2 SM visibility in haze. Legally, how will you conduct the flight?

Because the examiner has asked how you can conduct this flight legally, your answer must demonstrate knowledge of the SVFR regulation and procedures, but you can still acknowledge the risk involved in flying low during periods of low visibility. CFIT awareness is key to this part of the discussion. To conduct this flight legally, I will: -Request a SVFR from ATC to depart Big City. I will choose an altitude that will allow me to remain in Golf airspace once cleared of the Charlie 5 NM ring. -Remain at an altitude in Golf airspace while en route (most likely below 1,200 ft AGL). -Being mindful of a possible transition area around Tiny City, I will remain in Golf airspace (may be below 700 ft AGL). -Land as usual. I may not have radar coverage or flight following at those low altitudes. I must plan carefully and maintain awareness of obstacles and terrain along my flight, and maintain situational awareness to avoid CFIT.

What is an aircraft registration certificate?

Before an aircraft can be flown legally, it must be registered with the FAA Aircraft Registry. The Certificate of Aircraft Registration, which is issued to the owner as evidence of the registration, must be carried in the aircraft at all times.

How can tasks be completed in a timely manner without causing a distraction from flying?

By planning, prioritizing, and sequencing tasks, a potential work overload situation can be avoided. As experience is gained, a pilot learns to recognize future workload requirements and can prepare for high workload periods during times of low workload.

_________ _________ ___________ is a term that describes the equivalent altitude inside the cabin--it is the primary factor in the effectiveness of a pressurization system. __________ _________ ____________ is the difference between the cabin air pressure and the outside air pressure.

Cabin pressure altitude Cabin differential pressure

What is carbon monoxide poisoning?

Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas contained in exhaust fumes. When breatherd, even in minute quantities over a period of time, it can significantly reduce the ability of the blood to carry oxygen. Consequently, effects of hypoxia occur.

What conditions are favorable for carburetor icing?

Carburetor ice is most likely to occur when temperatures are below 70F and the relative humidity is above 80 percent. However, due to the sudden cooling that takes place in the carburetor, icing can occur even with temperatures as high as 100F and humidity as low as 50 percent. This temperature drop can be as much as 60 to 70F. Therefore, at an outside temperature of 100F, a temperature drop of 70F results in an air temperature in the carburetor of 30F.

What basic equation is used to determine center of gravity?

Center of gravity is determined by dividing total moments by total weight

What minimum flight visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in the following situations?

Class C, D, or E Airspace (controlled airspace) -Less than 10,000 ft MSL: --Visibility: 3 statute miles --Clearance: 500 below, 1000 above and 2,000 horizontal -At or above 10,000 ft MSL: --Visibility: 5 statute miles --Clearance: 1000 above, 1000 below, 1 sm horizontal Class G airspace (uncontrolled airspace) 1,200 ft or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude): -Day --Visibility: 1 statute mile --Clearance: clear of clouds -Night --Visibility: 3 statute miles --Clearance: 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal More than 1,200 ft above the surface but less than 10,000 ft MSL: -Day --Visibility: 1 statute mile --Clearance: 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal -Night --Visibility: 3 statute miles --Clearance: 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal More than 1,200 ft above the surface and at or above 10,000 ft MSL: --Visibility: 5 statute miles --Clearance: 1,000 below, 1,000 above, 1 sm horizontal

Name the three types of structural ice that may occur in flight.

Clear icing -- or glaze ice, is a glossy, clear or translucent ice formed by the relatively slow freezing of large, supercooled water droplets. Clear icing conditions exist more often in an environment with warmer tempeartures, higher liquid water contents, and larger droplets. It forms when only a small portion of the drop freezes immediately while the remaining unfrozen portion flows or smears over the aircraft surface and gradually freezes. Rime Icing -- a rough, milky, and opaque ice formed by the instantaneous freezing of small, supercooled water droplets after they strike the aircraft. Rime icing formation favors colder temperatures, lower liquid water content, and small droplets. It grows when droplets rapidly freeze upon striking an aircraft. The rapid freezing traps air and forms a porous, brittle, opaque, and milky-colored ice. Mixed Icing -- a mixture of clear ice and rime ice, mixed ice forms as an airplane collects both rime and clear ice due to small-scale variations in liquid water content, temperature, and droplet sizes. Mixed ice appear as layers of relatively clear and opaque ice when examined from the side. Mixed icing poses a similar hazard to an aircraft as clear ice. It may form horns or other shapes that disrupt airflow and cause handling and performance problems. Note: In general, rime icing tends to occur at temperatures colder than -15C, clear icing when the temperature is warmer than -10C, and mixed ice at temperatures in-between. This is only general guidance. The type of icing will vary depending on the liquid water content, droplet size, and aircraft-specific variables.

How does a continuous flow oxygen system operate?

Continuous flow oxygen systems are usually provide for passengers. the passenger mask will typically has a reservoir bag the collects oxygen from the continuous flow of oxygen system during the time when the mask user is exhaling. The oxygen collected in the bag allows a higher inspiratory flow rate during the inhalation cycle, which reduces the amount of air dilution. Ambient air is added to the supplied oxygen during inhalation after the reservoir bag oxygen is depleted. The exhaled air is released to the cabin.

What are cowl flaps?

Cowl flaps are located on the engine acowling and allow the pilot to control the operating temperature of the engine by regulating the amount of air circulating within the engine compartment. Cowl flaps may be manually or electrically activated and usually allow for a variety of flap positions.

What is a DVFR flight plan?

Defense VFR; VFR flights into a coastal or domestic ADIZ/DEWIZ are required to file DVFR flight plans for security purposes. The flight plan must be filed before departure.

Define the term "density altitude."

Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. Under standard atmospheric condition, air at each level in the atmosphere has a specific density, and under standard conditions, pressure altitude and density altitude identify the same level. Therefore, density altitude is the vertical distance above sea level in the standard atmosphere at which a given density is found.

The DECIDE model of decision-making involves which elements?

Detect a change needing attention Estimate the need to counter or react to a change Choose the most desirable outcome for the flight Identify actions to successfully control the change Do something to adapt to the change Evaluate the effect of the action countering the change

What actions should be taken if preignition is suspected?

Detonation and preignition often occur simultaneously and one may cause the other. Since either condition causes high engine temperature accompanied by a decrease in engine performance, it is often difficult to distinguish between the two. Using the recommended grade of fuel, and operating the engine within its proper temperature, pressure, and RPM ranges, reduces the chance of detonation or preignition.

What is detonation?

Detonation is an uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinder's combustion chamber If not corrected lead to failure of the piston, cylinder, or values also cause engine overheating, roughness, or loss of power

What action should be taken if detonation is suspected?

Detonation may be avoided by following these basic guidelines during the previous phases of ground and flight operations: a. Make sure the proper grade of fuel is being used. b. While on the ground, keep the cowl flaps (if available) in the full-open position. c. During takeoff and initial climb, use an enriched fuel mixture, as well as a shallower climb angle to increase cylinder cooling. d. Avoid extended, high power, steep climbs. e. Develop habit of monitoring engine instruments to verify proper operation.

What are several types of oxygen systems in use?

Diluter-demand, pressure-demand, and continuous flow

What is DME?

Distance measuring equipment. Provides distance and ground speed info when receiving a VORTAC or TACAN facility. Reliable signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line-of-sight altitude. DME operates on ultra-high-frequency spectrum between 960-1215 MHz (distance info is slant-range, not horizontal)

Where are Air Defense Identification Zones normally located?

Domestic ADIZ -- located within the United States along an international boundary of the United States Coastal ADIZ -- located over the coastal waters of the United States Distant Early Warning Identification Zone -- located over the coastal waters of the State of Alaska Land-based ADIZ -- located over US metropolitan areas, which is activated and deactivated as needed, with dimensions, activation dates and other relevant information disseminated via NOTAM

For a pilot who has been taking an over-the-counter (OTC) cold medication, how do the various environmental factors the pilot is exposed to in flight affect the drug's physiological impact on the pilot?

Drugs that cause no apparent side effects on the ground can create serious problems at relatively low altitudes. Even at typical general aviation altitudes, the changes in concentrations of atmospheric gases in the blood can enhance the effects of seemingly innocuous drugs and result in impaired judgement, decision-making, and performance.

What is one method of prioritizing tasks to avoid an overload situation?

During any situation, and especially in an emergency, remember the phrase "aviate, navigate, and communicate."

If the engine begins to run rough when flying through heavy rain, what actions should be taken?

During flight through heavy rain, it is possible for the induction air filter to become water saturated. This situation will reduce the amount of available air to the carburetor resulting in an excessively rich mixture and a corresponding loss of power. Carburetor heat may be used as an alternate source of air in such a situation.

What major problems can be caused by ground effect?

During landing -- At a height of approximately one-tenth of a wing span above the surface, drag may be 50 percent less than when the airplane is operating out of ground effect. Therefore, any excess speed during the landing phase may result in a significant float distance. In such cases, if care is not exercised, the pilot may run out of runway and options at the same time. During takeoff -- Due to the reduced drag in ground effect, the aircraft may seem capable of takeoff well below the recommended speed. However, as the airplane rises out of ground effect with a deficiency of speed, the greater induced drag may result in very marginal climb performance, or the inability of the airplane to fly at all. In extreme conditions such as high gross weight and high density altitude, the airplane may become airborne initially with a deficiency of speed and then settle back to the runway.

How can a pilot determine if a VOR or VORTAC has been taken out of service for maintenance?

During periods of routine or emergency maintenance, coded identification (or code and voice, where applicable) is removed from certain FAA NAVAIDs. Removal of identification serves as a warning to pilots that the facility is officially off the air for tune-up or repair and may be unreliable even though intermittent or constant signals are received.

When are flight crewmembers required to wear their seatbelts?

During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station (also, during takeoff and landing only, the shoulder harness, if installed).

Why should taxiing on a slush, snow, or ice covered taxiway in a retractable gear airplane be avoided?

During thawing conditions, mud and slush can be thrown into wheel wells during taxiing and takeoff. If it then freezes during flight, this mud and slush could create landing gear operational problems. The practice of recyling the gear after a takeoff can be used as a preventive procedure. However, the safest procedure is to avoid these surface conditions with retractable gear aircraft.

______ _______, or oscillatory lateral instability, is usually a consequence of too much dihedral effect, form the combination of actual dihedral, sweepback, a high wing configuration, relatively small vertical tail, and/or other factors. In Dutch roll, the airplane makes a continuous back-and-forth rolling and yawing motion with the roll out of phase with the yaw. Dutch roll is usually dynamically stable, that is, the oscillations tend to decrease in amplitude, but if the oscillation is weakly damped it could continue for a relatively long time, making it objectionable. In some airplanes, Dutch roll can be aggravated by the pilot's attempts to correct it, a form of pilot-induced oscillation.

Dutch roll

What are the three basic types of hydroplaning?

Dynamic -- Occurs when there is standing water on the runway surface. Water about 1/10 inch deep acts to lift the tire off the runway. The minimum speed at which dynamic hydroplaning occurs has been determined to be about 8.6 times the square root of the tire pressure in pounds per square inch. Viscous -- Occurs as a result of the viscous properties of water. A very thin film of fluid cannot be penetrated by the tire and the tire consequently rolls on top of the film. Viscous hydroplaning can occur at much slower speeds than dynamic hydroplaning but requires a smooth acting surface. Reverted Rubber Hydroplaning -- Occurs when a pilot, during the landing roll, locks the brakes for an extended period of time while on a wet runway. The friction creates heat which, combined with water, creates a steam layer between the aircraft tire and runway surface.

What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?

Each person making a VOR check shall enter the date, place and bearing error, and sign the aircraft log

If operations are not being conducted in airspace requiring a transponder, can an aircraft equipped with a transponder leave it off?

Each pilot operating an aircraft equipped with an operable ATC transpodner maintained in accordance with 14 CFR 91.413 or an ADS-B transmitter must operate the transponder/transmitter, including Mode C/S if installed, on the appropriate Mode 3/A code or as assigned by ATC. Each person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out must operate this equipment in the transmit mode at all times while airborne unless otherwise requested by ATC.

How is ear block normally prevented from occurring?

Ear block can normally be prevented by swallowing, yawning, tensing muscles in the throat or, if these do not work, by the combination of closing the mouth, pinching the nose closed and attempting to blow through the nostrils (Valsalva maneuver). It is also prevented by not flying with an upper respiratory infection or nasal allergic condition.

What is the most effective method of scanning for other air traffic?

Effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central vision field. Each moment should not exceed 10 degrees; and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable detection. Although horizontal back and forth eye movements seem preferred by most pilots, each pilot should develop a comfortable scanning pattern and then adhere to it to ensure optimum scanning.

What are eights-on-pylons?

Eights-on-pylons is a training maneuver that involves flying the airplane in circular paths, alternately left and right, in the form of a figure-8 around two selected points or pylons on the ground. No attempt is made to maintain a uniform distance from the pylon. Instead, the airplane is flown at such an altitude and airspeed that a line parallel to the airplane's lateral axis, and extending from the pilot's eye appears to pivot on each of the pylons.

What types of systems are used in the prevention and elimination of propeller ice?

Electrically heated boots -- Consist of heating elements incorporated into the boots which are bonded to the propeller. The ice buildup on the propeller is heated from below and then thrown off by centrifugal force. Fluid System -- Consists of an electrically driven pump which, when activated, supplies a fluid, such as alcohol, to a device in the propeller spinner which distributes the fluid along the propeller assisted by centrifugal force.

What type of navigational charts are used when operating at altitudes above 18,000 ft?

Enroute high altitude charts are designed for navigation at or above 18,000 ft MSL. This four-color chart series includes the jet-route structure; VHF NAVAIDS with frequency, identification, channel, geographic coordinates; selected airports, reporting point. These charts are revised every 56 days.

To summarize, describe the appropriate values to be obtained in a lazy eight at the entry, 45-, 90-, 135- and 180-degree points.

Entry -Level flight -Maneuvering or cruise speed (whichever is less) or manufacturer's recommended speed 45 degree point -Maximum pitch-up attitude -Bank angle at 15 degrees 90 degree point -Bank angle approximately 30 degrees -Minimum airspeed -Maximum altitude -Level pitch attitude 135 degree point -Maximum pitch-down attitude -Bank approximately 15 degrees 180 degree point -Level flight -Original heading (plus or minus 10 degrees) -Entry airspeed (plus or minus 10 knots) -Entry altitude (plus or minus 100 feet)

What are several factors that can reduce a pilot's ability to manage workload effectively?

Environmental Conditions -- temperature and humidity extremes, noise, vibration, and lack of oxygen Physiological stress -- fatigue, lack of physical fitness, sleep loss, missed meals (leading to low blood sugar levels), and illness. Psychological stress -- Social or emotional factors, such as a death in the family, a divorce, a sick child, or a demotion at work. This type of stress may also be related to mental workload, such as analyzing a problem, navigating an aircraft, or making decisions.

At the steepest point, the bank angle in an eights-on-pylon maneuver should be what value?

Establish the correct bank angle for the conditions, not to exceed 40 degrees.

What is the recommended entry speed for a steep turn?

Establish the manufacturer's recommended airspeed or if one is not stated, a safe airspeed not to exceed Va.

What effect does landing at high-elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind and airplane weight?

Even if you use the same indicated airspeed appropriate for sea level operations, true airspeed is faster, resulting in a faster ground speed (with a given wind condition) throughout the approach, touchdown, and landing roll. This means greater distance to clear obstacles during the approach, a longer ground roll, and consequently the need for a longer runway. All of these factors should be taken into consideration when landing at high-elevation fields, particularly if the field is short.

What are several examples of situations in which an ELT is not required equipment on board the aircraft? (91.207)

Examples of operations where an ELT is not required are: a. Ferrying aircraft for installation of an ELT b. Ferrying aircraft for repair of an ELT c. Aircraft engaged in training flights within a 50-nautical mile radius of an airport.

When operating an airplane with a constant-speed propeller, which condition induces the most stress on the engine?

Excessive manifold pressure raises the cylinder compression pressure, resulting in high stresses within the engine. Excessive pressure also produces high engine temperatures. A combination of high manifold pressure and low RPM can induce damaging detonation; however, it is a fallacy that (in non-turbocharged engines) that manifold pressure in inches of mercury (inches Hg) should never exceed RPM in hundreds for cruise power settings. The cruise power charts in the AFM/POH should be consulted when selecting cruise power settings. Whatever the combinations of RPM and manifold pressure listed in these charts -- they have been flight tested and approved by the airframe and powerplant engineers for the respective airframe and engine manufacturer.

Explain the term percent of mean aerodynamic chord (MAC).

Expression of the CG relative to the MAC is a common practice in larger aircraft. The CG position is expressed as a percent MAC (percent of mean aerodynamic chord), and the CG limits are expressed in the same manner. Normally, an aircraft will have acceptable flight characteristics if the CG is located somewhere near the 25% average chord point. This means the CG is located one-fourth of the total distance back from the leading edge of the average wing section.

FAR Part 91 requires you to have an oxygen supply of at least 10 minutes for each aircraft occupant when flying a pressurized airplane above __________.

FL250

A pilot can decrease the likelihood of a CFIT accident at the destination by identifying what risk factors prior to flight?

Factors such as airport location, runway lightning, weather/daylight conditions, approach specifications, ATC capabilities and limitations, type of operation, departure procedures, controller/pilot phraseology, and crew configuration should all be considered prior to flight.

What are several factors that reduce situational awareness?

Factors that reduce SA include fatigue, distractions, unusual or unexpected events, complacency, high workload, unfamiliar situations, and inoperative equipment.

How is density altitude determined?

First find pressure altitude and then correct it for nonstandard temperature variations. Because density varies directly with pressure, and inversely with temperature, a given pressure altitude may exist for a wide range of temperatures. However, a known density occurs for any one temperature and pressure altitude. Regardless of the actual altitude at which the airplane is operating, it will perform as though it were operating at an altitude equal to the existing density altitude.

What types of systems are used in the prevention and elimination of windshield ice?

Fluid system -- Consists of an electrically-driven pump which may be activated to spray a fluid, such as alcohol, onto the windshield to prevent the formation of ice. Electrical system -- Heating elements are embedded in the windshield or in a device attached to the windshield which when activated, prevents the formation of ice.

What additional equipment is required when operating above Flight Level 240?

For flight at and above 24,000 ft MSL: if VOR navigational equipment is required (appropriate to the ground facilities to be used) no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft within the 50 states and the District of Columbia at or above FL240 unless that aircraft is equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME) or a suitable RNAV system.

What is the relationship of lift, weight, thrust, and drag in steady, unaccelerated, level flight?

For the airplane to remain in steady, level flight, equilibrium must be obtained by a lift equal to the airplane weight and powerplant thrust equal to the airplane drag.

_________ ________ is based on the shape of the airplane, how well it is streamlined, and how much frontal area it has. _________ _________ is created when the airflow around one part of the airplane interacts with the airflow around an adjacent part. ________ ___________ ___________ is due to air molecules giving up some of their kinetic energy as they contact the skin surfaces of the airplane.

Form drag Interference drag Skin friction drag

Which type of precipitation produces most hazardous icing conditions?

Freezing rain produces the most hazardous icing conditions.

How does the aircraft cabin heat work?

Fresh air, heated by an exhaust shroud, is directed to the cabin through a series of ducts

______ ________ _________ This unit is installed in the engine's air intake system and incorporates a throttle plate to vary the engine's intake airflow. In addition, a mixture control valve operates in unison with the throttle plate. Manual mixture adjustments can be made with the mixture control to change the fuel flow in response to varying air densities. ________ __________ ________ The manifold valve distributes fuel evenly to all cylinders and provides a fuel shutoff when the mixture is placed in the idle-cutoff position. ________ ___________ _____________ The nozzles mix air with the fuel delivered from the manifold valve and inject it into the cylinder intake ports. This action atomizes the fuel, making it easier for the fuel to vaporize in the engine's cylinders. There is one nozzle per cylinder.

Fuel control unit Fuel Manifold Valve Fuel discharge nozzles

What is fuel injection?

Fuel injectors have replaced carburetors in some airplanes. Ina fuel injection system, the fuel is normally injected into the system either directly into the cylinders or just ahead of the intake valves; whereas in a carbureted system, the fuell enters the airstream at the throttle valve. There are several types of fuel injection systems in use today, and though there are variations in design, the operational methods are generally simple. Most designs incorporate an engine-driven fuel pump, fuel/air control unit, fuel manifold valve, discharge nozzles, auxiliary fuel pump, and fuel pressure/flow indicators.

For variable-pitch (constant speed) propellers, where does the fluid used to control the propeller condition come from?

Generally, the oil pressure used for pitch changes comes directly from the engine lubricating system. When a governor is employed, engine oil is used and the oil pressure is usually boosted by a pump that is integrated with the propeller governor.

_______ _______ is greatest close to the surface and decreases rapidly with height, becoming negligible at an altitude equal to about one wingspan

Ground effect

What is ground effect?

Ground effect occurs when an aircraft, operating approximately one wing span above the surface, experiences a reduction in induced drag and a resultant increase in the efficiency of the wing. This is due to the interference of the ground with the airflow patterns about the airplane or more specifically the wing's upwash, downwash, and wingtip vortices. Ground effect is the cushioning or pushing effect of the air as it is compressed by the airplane flying close to the ground.

What are turbochargers?

Higher performance aircraft typically operate at higher altitudes where air density is substantially less. The decrease in air density as altitude increases results in a decreased power output of an unsupercharged engine. By compressing the thin air be means of a air compressor, the turbocharged engine will maintain the preset power as altitude is increased. The turbocharger consists of a compressor to provide pressurized air to the engine, and a turbine driver by exhaust gases of the engine to drive the compressor.

What effect does a forward center of gravity have on an aircraft's flight characteristics?

Higher stall speed -- Stalling angle of attack reached at a higher speed due to increased wing loading. Slower cruising speed -- Increased drag, greater angle of attack required to maintain altitude. More stable -- The center of gravity is further forward from the center of pressure, which increases longitudinal stability. Greater back elevator pressure required -- Longer takeoff roll, higher approach speeds and problems with the landing flare.

Describe hydraulic power pack operation.

Hydraulic power pack operation is controlled by the landing gear lever. When the gear lever is selected in either the "Up" or "Down" position, a pressure switch will activate the pwoer pack and a selector valve is mechanically rotated. Depending on the position of the landing gear lever (and corresponding valve position), hydraulic pressure will be applied in the direction selected. This hydraulic pressure is applied to actuator cyinders, which extend or retract teh gear. WHen the landing gear has reached the desired position and the cycle is complete (a eries of electrical switches have closed or opened), an indicator light will illuminnate on the panel. In the "Gear Down" cycle only, the hydraulic power pack will continue to operate until system pressure is between 1,000 PSI to 1,500 PSI, at which time the pressure switch turns the power pack off. The hydraulic system normally maintains an operating pressure of 1,000 PSI to 1,500 PSI.

Describe the braking system on this aircraft.

Hydraulically actuated disk type brakes are used on each main gear wheel. A hydraulic line connects each brake to a master cylinder location on each pilot's rudder pedals. By applying pressure to the top of either the pilot's or copilot's set of rudder pedals, the brake may be applied.

Define the term hydroplaning.

Hydroplaning occurs when the tires are lifted off a runway surface by the combination of aircraft speed and a thin film of water present on the runway.

What is hyperventilation?

Hyperventilation is an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs, and it can occur subconsciously when a stressful situation is encountered in flight. This results in a significant decrease in the carbon dioxide content of the blood. Carbon dioxide is needed to automatically regulate the breathing process.

What is hypoxia?

Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the brain and other organs

How can hypoxia be avoided?

Hypoxia is prevented by heeding factors that reduce tolerance to altitude, by enriching the inspired air with oxygen from an appropriate oxygen system, and by maintaining a comfortable, safe cabin pressure altitude. For optimum protection, pilots are encouraged to use supplemental oxygen above 10,000 ft during the day, and above 5,000 ft at night. If supplemental oxygen is not available, a fingertip pulse oximeter can be very useful in monitoring blood O2 levels.

Give a brief explanation of the four forms of hypoxia.

Hypoxic -- the result of insufficient oxygen available to the body as a whole. The reduction in partial pressure of oxygen at high altitude is an example for pilots. Hypemic -- the blood is unable to transport a sufficient amount of oxygen to the cells; the result of oxygen deficiency in the blood rather than a lack of inhaled oxygen, CO2 poisoning is an example. Stagnant -- this results when the oxygen-rich blood in the lungs is not moving. It can result from shock, the heart failing to pump blood effectively, a constricted artery, and with excessive acceleration of gravity (Gs). Histotoxic -- inability of the cells to effectively use oxygen; it can be caused by alcohol and other drugs.

What additional equipment is required if an aircraft is operated for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from shore?

If an aircraft is operated for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from shore, approved flotation gear readily available to each occupant and at least one pyrotechnic signaling device.

How much will drag increase as airplane speed increases?

If an airplane in a steady flight condition at 100 knots is then accelerated to 200 knots, the parasite drag becomes four times as great, but the power required to overcome that drag is eight times the original value. Conversely, when the airplane is operated in steady, level flight at twice as great a speed, the induced drag is one-fourth the original value, and the power required to overcome that drag is only one-half the original value.

What action should be taken if a pilot or passenger suffers from motion sickness?

If suffering from airsickness while piloting an aircraft, open up the air vents, loosen clothing, use supplemental oxygen, and keep the eyes on a point outside the airplane. Avoid unnecessary head movements. Then cancel the flight and land as soon as possible.

What type of landing gear warning system is used?

If the manifold pressure is reduced to less than 12 inches at low altitudes with the master switch on, and the landing gear is not locked down, a switch on the throttle linkage will electrically actuate the gear warning circuit of the dual warning unit. An intermittent tone will be heard on the speaker. Also, if the wing flaps are extended beyond 20 degrees while the landing gear is in the retracted position, an interconnect switch in the wing flap system will cause the horn to sound.

What action should you take if your wind reference point appears to move ahead of the pylon? Move behind the pylon?

If the reference line appears to move ahead of the pylon, the pilot should increase altitude. If the reference line appears to move behind the pylon, the pilot should decrease the altitude. Varying rudder pressure to yaw the airplane and force the wings and reference line forward or backward to the pylon is a dangerous technique and must not be attempted.

If you fail to report a change in arrival time or forget to close your flight plan, when will search and rescue procedures begin?

If you fail to report or cancel your flight plan within 1/2 hour after your ETA, search and rescue procedures are started

What are several factors that may contribute to impairment of a pilot's performance?

Illness Medication Stress Alcohol Fatigue Emotion

At what two points will your wings be level in a chandelle?

Immediately before entering the chandelle and upon rollout at the 180 degrees point.

What constitutes a change in flight plan?

In addition to altitude or flight level, destination and/or route change, increasing or decreasing the speed of the aircraft constitutes a change in flight plan. Therefore, anytime the average true airspeed at cruising altitude between reporting points varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater, ATC should be advised.

Where is altitude encoding transponder equipment required?

In general, the regulations require aircraft to be equipped with Mode C transponders when operating: a. At or above 10,000 ft MSL over the 48 contiguous states or the District of Columbia, excluding airspace below 2,500 ft AGL; b. Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 ft MSL; c. Within and above all Class C airspace, up to 10,000 ft MSL; d. Within 10 miles of certain designated airports, excluding airspace which is bother outside the Class D surface area and below 1,200 ft AGL; e. All aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous United States ADIZ.

What are the various sources that may be used to power the gyroscopic instruments in an airplane?

In some airplanes, all the gyros are vacuum, pressure, or electrically operated; in others, vacuum or pressure systems provide the power for the heading and attitude indicators, while the electrical system provides the power for the turn coordinator. Most airplanes have at least two sources of power to ensure at least one source of bank information if one power source fails.

How is accidental gear retraction prevented on the ground?

Inadvertent gear retraction is prevented by a safety (squat) switch on the nose gear. Whenever the nose gear strut is compressed (weight of the airplane on the ground), this switch electrically prevents operation of the landing gear system.

Three stages of a spin:

Incipient Fully Developed Recovery

How does weight affect takeoff and landing perforamnce?

Increased gross weight can produce these effects: a. higher liftoff and landing speed required; b. Greater mass to accelerate or decelerate (slow acceleration/deceleration); c. Increased retarding force (drag and ground friction); and d. Longer takeoff and ground roll The effect of gross weight on landing distance is that the airplane will require a greater speed to support the airplane at the landing angle of attack and lift coefficient resulting in an increased landing distance.

What airplane characteristics will be observed in the following wind shear situations? -a sudden increase in headwind -a sudden decrease in headwind

Increased headwind -- As a tailwind shear to a constant heading, an increase in airspeed and altitude occurs along with a nose-up pitching tendency. The usual reaction is to reduce both power and pitch. This reaction can be dangerous if the aircraft suddenly encounters a downdraft and tailwind. Now the situation demands the exact opposite of the pilot's initial reaction: a need for more performance from the lane instead of less (more power/increased pitch attitude). Decreased headwind -- As a headwind shears to a calm or tailwind, pitch attitude decreases, airspeed decreases , and a loss of altitude occurs. The required action is more power and higher pitch attitude to continue a climb or remain on the glide slope.

What effect does temperature have on air density?

Increasing the temperature of a substance decreases its density. Conversely, decreasing the temperature increases the density. Thus, the density of air varies inversely with temperature. This statement is true only at a constant pressure.

What are the different types of aircraft speeds?

Indicated - read of the instrument, uncorrected for instrument or system errors Calibrated - IAS corrected for instrument position errors; obtained from the POH/AFM for various flap and landing gear configurations Equivalent - CAS corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at altitude True - CAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure Groundspeed - TAS corrected for wind; speed across the ground

Define and state how you would determine the following altitudes.

Indicated altitude -- the altitude read directly from the altimeter (uncorrected) after it is set to the current altimeter setting. Pressure altitude -- the height above the standard datum plane indicated when the altimeter setting window is adjusted to 29.92. It is used for computer solutions to determine density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed. True altitude -- the true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level. Airport, terrain, and obstacle elevations found on aeronautical charts are true altitudes. Density Altitude -- pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations. Directly related to an aircraft's takeoff, climb, and landing performance. Absolute altitude -- the vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain.

Define induced drag.

Induced drag (DI) is that portion of total drag associated with the production of lift. Induced drag increases with a decrease in airspeed. The lower the airspeed, the greater the angle of attack required to produce lift equal to the airplane's weight, and therefore the greater the induced drag.

What are the four types of Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories?

Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories are forecasts to advise enroute aircraft of the development of potentially hazardous weather. The four types are the SIGMET, the convective SIGMET, the AIRMET and the center weather advisory. All heights are referenced MSL, except in the case of ceilings (CIG) which indicate AGL.

What are some of the elements inside and outside the aircraft that a pilot must consider to maintain situational awareness?

Inside the aircraft -- the status of aircraft systems, pilot, and passengers Outside the aircraft -- awareness of where the aircraft is in relation to terrain, traffic, weather, and airspace

ICEFLAGS

Inversion Illusion: If you pitch down too quickly from a climb to straight-and-level, you can get the illusion that you're tumbling backwards. The real danger with this that it makes you want to push the aircraft even more nose-low, which puts you into a dive attitude. Even worse, the more you push forward, the more intense the illusion can become. Coriolis Illusion: Coriolis illusion happens when you're in a constant turn long enough for the fluid in your ears to stop moving. As we mentioned before, when the fluid in your ears stops moving, your brain thinks it is 'straight-and-level'. At this point, if you move your head too quickly, such as looking at something in the cockpit, you can start the fluid in your ears moving in an entirely different axis. This makes you feel like the airplane is maneuvering in a way that it isn't, and if you aren't careful, you can put your plane in a dangerous attitude. Elevator Illusion: One of the most challenging things about flying in the clouds, especially in the summer, is that there's usually some turbulence as well. Elevator illusion happens when you catch an updraft, and your plane is abruptly accelerated vertically. Even though your plane is most likely in straight-and-level flight, you feel like you need to push the nose forward, entering a dive attitude. False Horizon: Dark nights tend to eliminate reference to a visual horizon Leans: The Leans happen when you enter a banked turn too slowly. For example, if you don't roll quickly enough into a left turn, the fluid in your ears won't start moving, and your brain thinks you're still straight-and-level. If you correct your wings back to level flight abruptly, your ears and brain think they're banking in the opposite direction (to the right). This makes you feel like you need to roll the airplane back to the left, or lean your body in that direction to be 'upright'. If you find yourself pressed against your flight instructor in the clouds, chances are you have the leans. Autokinesis: Caused by staring at a single point of light against a dark background for more than a few seconds After a few moments, the light appears to move on its own Graveyard Spiral: Like the name suggests, graveyard spirals aren't good. If you stay in a turn long enough, the fluid in your ears stops moving. As you return to level flight, you feel like you've turned in the opposite direction, and you return back to the original turn. Because airplanes lose altitude in a turn unless you add back pressure, the airplane starts descending. Because you think you're in a wings-level descent, you pull back on the yoke. But what really happens is you tighten the spiraling turn, and lose even more altitude. Somatogravic: When you accelerate quickly, the 'otolith' organs in your ears think you are pitching nose-up. This makes you want to push the nose of your plane forward, and you enter a nose-low dive attitude. The opposite is true of rapid deceleration. As you slow, you feel like you're pitching forward, and you tend to pitch up into a nose-high stall attitude.

What are the limitations of the vertical speed indicator?

It is not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized. Sudden or abrupt changes in the aircraft attitude will cause erroneous instrument readings as airflow fluctuates over the static port. Both rough control technique and turbulent air result in unreliable needle indications.

What does "flight in the region of reversed command" mean?

It means that a higher airspeed requires a lower power setting, and a lower airspeed requires a higher power setting to hold altitude. It does not imply that a decrease in power will produce lower airspeed. The region of reversed command is encountered in the low-speed phases of flight. Flight speeds below the speed for maximum endurance (lowest point on the power curve) require higher power settings with a decrease in airspeed. Because the need to increase the required power setting with a decreased speed is contrary to the "normal command" of flight, flight speeds between minimum required power setting (speed) and the stall speed (or minimum control speed) is termed the region of reversed command, a decrease in airspeed must be accompanied by an increased power setting in order to maintain steady flight.

What does "flight in the region of normal command" mean?

It means that while holding a constant altitude, a higher airspeed requires a higher power setting, and a lower airspeed requires a lower power setting. The majority of all airplane flying (climb, cruise, and maneuvers) is conducted in the region of normal command.

How does the airspeed indicator operate?

It measures the difference between the impact pressure from the pitot head and atmospheric pressure from the static source.

What does the mixture control do?

It regulates the fuel-to-air ratio.The purpose of a mixture control is to prevent the mixture from becoming too rich at high altitudes, due to decreasing air density. It is also used to lean the mixture during cross-country flights to conserve fuel and provide optimum power.

What information does the turn coordinator provide?

It shows the yaw and roll of the aircraft around the vertical and longitudinal axes. The miniature airplane indicates direction of the turn as well as rate of turn. When aligned with the turn index, it represents a standard rate turn of 3 degrees per second. The inclinometer of the turn coordinator indicates the coordination of aileron and rudder. The ball indicates whether the airplane is in coordinated flight or is in a slip or skid.

How does the heading indicator operate?

It uses the rigidity in space. The rotor turns in a vertical plane, and the compass card is fixed to the rotor. Since the rotor remains rigid ins pace, the points on the card hold the same position in space relative the vertical plane. As the instrument case and the airplane revolve around the vertical axis, the card shows clear, accurate heading information.

If an airplane is skidding towards the outside of a steep turn, which wing will stall first?

It will have a tendency to roll to the inside of the turn because the inside wing stalls first.

What is the most important aspect of managing an autopilot/FMS?

Knowing at all times which modes are engaged, which modes are armed to engage, and being capable of verifying that armed functions (e.g., navigation tracking or altitude capture) engage at the appropriate time.

How is steering accomplished on the ground?

Light airplanes are generally provided with nosewheel steering capabilities through a simple system of mechanical linkages connected to the rudder pedals. When a rudder pedal is depressed, a spring-loaded bungee (push-pull rod) connected to the pivotal portion of a nosewheel strut will turn the nosewheel.

Where can a pilot find the location of airborne/ground checkpoints and VOT testing stations?

Locations of airborne check points, ground check points and VOTs are published in the Chart Supplement US.

___________ _____________ is achieved in most airplanes by locating the center of gravity slightly ahead of the center of lift of the wings, which makes the airplane tend to pitch down. This nose-heaviness is balanced in flight by a downward force generated by the horizontal tail. On many airplanes, the horizontal stabilizer and elevator form a cambered airfoil with the greater curvature on the bottom surface to create this ____-_______ ______. Others use a symmetrical airfoil so that the left and right parts are interchangeable.

Longitudinal stability tail-down force

Concerning wind shear detection, what does the abbreviation LLWAS indicate?

Low-Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS) is a computerized system that detects the presence of a possible hazardous low-level wind shear by continuously comparing the winds measured by sensors installed around the periphery of an airport with the wind measured at the center of the airport. If the difference between the center field wind sensor and a peripheral wind sensor becomes excessive, a thunderstorm or thunderstorm gust front wind shear is possible.

What effect does an aft center of gravity have on an aircraft's flight characteristics?

Lower stall speed -- Less wing loading Higher cruise speed -- Reduced drag, smaller angle of attack required to maintain altitude Less stable -- Stall and spin recovery more difficult; when angle of attack is increased it tends to result in additional increased angle of attack.

MCPRAWN

MOA Controlled Firing Area Prohibited Area Restricted Area Alert Area Warning Area National Security Area

How does the magnetic compass work?

Magnetized needles fastened to a float assembly , around which is mounted a compass card, aligned themselves parallel to the earths lines of magnetic force in a bowl filled with white-kerosene

What are the altitude, airspeed, bank, and heading tolerances for a steep turn?

Maintain the entry altitude, plus or minus 100 feet, airspeed plus or minus 10 knots, bank plus or minus 5 degrees; and roll out on the entry heading, plus or minus 10 degrees

During the steep spiral, how will you maintain a turn of constant radius around the selected spot on the ground?

Maintaining a constant radius during the maneuver will require correction for wind drift by steepening the bank on downwind headings and shallowing the bank on upwind headings. During the descending spiral, the pilot must judge the direction and speed of the wind at different altitudes and make appropriate changes in the angle of bank to maintain a uniform radius.

Define the terms "maximum range" and "maximum endurance."

Maximum range is the maximum distance an airplane can fly for a given fuel supply and is obtained at the maximum lift/drag ratio (L/Dmax). For a given airplane configuration, the maximum lift/drag ratio occurs at a particular angle of attack and lift coefficient, and is unaffected by weight or altitude. Maximum endurance is the maximum amount of time an airplane can fly for a given fuel supply and is obtained at the point of minimum power required since this would require the lowest fuel flow to keep the airplane in steady, level flight.

How is the gear locked in the down position?

Mechanical down lock are incorporated into the nose and main gear assembly.

Where are microbursts most likely to occur?

Microbursts can be found anywhere there is convective activity. They may be embedded in heavy rain associated with a thunderstorm or in light rain in benign-appearing virga. When there is little or no precipitation at the surface accompanying the microburst, a ring of blowing dust may be the only visual clue of its existence.

When conducting IFR flight operations, what minimum altitudes are required over surrounding terrain?

Minimum altitudes are: a. Mountainous terrain--at least 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown. Part 95 designates the location of mountainous terrain. b. Other than mountainous terrain--at least 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown.

What valuable information can be determined from a Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD)?

Most favorable altitude -- based on winds and direction of flight. Areas of possible icing -- by noting air temperatures of +2 C to -20 C. Temperature inversions -- a temperature increase with altitude can mean a stable layer aloft reducing the chance for convective activity. Turbulence -- by observing abrupt changes in wind direction and speed at different altitudes.

How does carbon monoxide poisoning occur, and what symptoms should a pilot be alert for?

Most heaters in light aircraft work by air flowing over the manifold. Use of these heaters while exhaust fumes are escaping through manifold cracks and seals is responsible for several nonfatal and fatal aircraft accidents from carbon monoxide poisoning each year. A pilot who detects the odor of exhaust or experiences symptoms of headache, drowsiness, or dizziness while using the heater should suspect carbon monoxide poisoning.

You have 400 hours total time. You completed a one hour checkout yesterday in your new employer's aircraft, resulting in your high performance endorsement. Your assignment is a sightseeing flight around town for three large business men. You will be at max gross weight. With the hot, humid summer day, your aircraft will require about half of the available runway for liftoff. Will you accept this flight assignment? Why or why not?

Most pilots give an answer they think the examiner wants to hear: "No, because there are several risk factors." However, that may not be the best answer. Let the examiner hear your thought processes. Specifically: -Assuming the aircraft is somewhat similar to what I am used to flying (for example, C-182 versus C-172) then the one hour checkout for a 400-hour pilot should be safe. However, if the aircraft is very different (glass cockpit Cirrus versus standard cockpit C-172), then the one hour checkout may not be sufficient. -If the checkout was performed at max gross weight, then this flight should be no problem. -If I carefully calculate the takeoff distance and feel confident in the available runway, then takeoff should be no problem for me as a pilot with 400 hours. -My short answer is that if I have similar flight experiences, then yes, I will accept this flight assignment. This is a good flight to stretch my comfort level.

What is the cause of motion sickness, and what are its symptoms?

Motion sickness is caused by continued stimulation of the inner ear, which controls the pilot's sense of balance. The symptoms are progressive. First, the desire for food is lost. Then, saliva collects in the mouth and the person beings to perspire freely. Eventually, the person becomes nauseated and disoriented, and may have a headache and a tendency to vomit. If the air sickness becomes severe enough, the pilot may become completely incapacitated.

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include...

NWKRAFT

No person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with a blood alcohol level of what value?

No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft while having .04% by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

What are the regulations concerning use of supplemental oxygen on board an aircraft?

No person may operate a civil aircraft of US registry: a. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 ft MSL up to and including 14,000 ft MSL, unless, for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes, the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen. b. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 ft MSL, unless the required flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at those altitudes. c. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 ft MSL, unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen.

Position lights are required to be on during what period of time?

No person may operate an aircraft during the period from sunset to sunrise unless the aircraft has lighted position lights.

Where are aerobatic flight maneuvers not permitted?

No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight-- a. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement; b. Over an open air assembly of persons; c. Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport; d. Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal airway; e. Below an altitude of 1,500 ft above the surface; or f. When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.

When are the operation of portable electronic devices not allowed on board an aircraft (14 CFR 91.21)

No person may operate, nor may any operator or pilot-in-command of an aircraft allow the operation of any portable electronic device on any of the following US registered aircraft: a. Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operator certificate or an operating certificate, or b. Any other aircraft while it is operated under IFR.

What is required to operate an aircraft towin an advertising banner?

No pilot of a civil aircraft may tow anything with that aircraft except in accordance with the terms of a certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.

Can any kind of oxygen be used for aviator's breathing oxygen?

No, oxygen used for medical purposes or welding normally should not be used because it may contain too much water. The excess water could condense and freeze in the oxygen lines when flying at high altitudes. Specifications for "aviator's breathing oxygen" are 99.5% pure oxygen with not more than two milliliters of water per liter of oxygen.

Can the landing gear be retracted with the hand-operated pump?

No, retraction of the landing gear cannot be accomplished with the emergency hand pump.

Will an aircraft always be capable of climbing to and maintaining its service ceiling?

No. Depending on the density altitude, an airplane may not be able to reach its published service ceiling on any given day.

Can a pilot with a commercial certificate and multi-engine land rating carry passengers in a single-engine airplane?

No. Unless the pilot holds a category, class and type rating (if a class and type rating is required) that applies to that aircraft, the pilot may not act as pilot-in-command in this situation.

If a formation flight has been arranged in advance, can passengers be carried for hire?

No; no person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Are there any over-the-counter medications that could be considered safe to use while flying?

No; pilot performance can be seriously degraded by both prescribed and over-the-counter medications, as well as by the medical conditions for which they are taken. Many medications have primary effects that may impair judgement, memory, alertness, coordination, vision, and the ability to make calculations. Also, any medication that depresses the central nervous system can make a pilot more susceptible to hypoxia.

As a flight crewmember, you discover you have high blood pressure. You are in possession of a current medical certificate. Can you continue to exercise the privileges of your certificate?

No; the regulations prohibit a pilot who possesses a current medical certificate from performing crewmember duties while the pilot has a known medical condition or an increase of a known medical condition that would make the pilot unable to meet the standards for the medical certificate.

A pressure altimeter is subject to what limitation?

Non-standard pressure and temperature: a. Temperature variations expand or contract the atmosphere and raise or lower pressure levels that the altimeter senses. On a warm day -- The pressure level is higher than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude. On a cold day -- The pressure level is lower than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates higher than actual altitude. b. Changes in surface pressure also affect pressure levels at altitude. Higher than standard pressure -- The pressure level is higher than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude. Lower than standard pressure -- The pressure level is lower than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates higher than actual altitude.

What are NOTAMs?

Notice to Airmen - time critical aeronautical information which is of either a temporary nature or not sufficiently known in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other operational publications receives immediate dissemination via the National NOTAM system.

Discuss the importance of understanding the procedure for the positive exchange of flight controls.

On flight with more than one pilot in the cockpit, accidents occur due to a lack of communication or a misunderstanding as to who actually has control of the aircraft. When control of the aircraft is transferred between two pilots, it is important to acknowledge this exchange verbally. The pilot relinquishing control of the aircraft should state, "You have the flight controls." The pilot assuming control of the aircraft should state, "I have the flight controls," and then the pilot relinquishing control should restate, 'You have the flight controls." Following these procedures reduces the possibility of confusion about who is flying the aircraft at any given time.

How will you use the 3P model to recognize and mitigate risks throughout a flight?

Once a pilot has completed the 3P decision process and selected a course of action, the process begins again because the circumstances brought about by the course of action requires analysis. The decision-making process is a continuous loop of perceiving, processing and performing.

Explain how often a pilot should use the 3P model of ADM throughout a flight.

Once a pilot has completed the 3P decision process and selected a course of action, the process beings again because the circumstances brought about by the course of action requires analysis. The decision-making process is a continuous loop of perceiving, processing and performing.

Explain the use of a "personal minimums" checklist and how it can help a pilot control risk.

One of the most important concepts that safe pilots understand is the difference between what is "legal" in terms of the regulations, and what is "smart" or "safe" in terms of pilot experience and proficiency. One way a pilot can control the risks is to set personal minimums for items in each risk category. These are limits unique to that individual pilot's current level of experience and proficiency.

What is one method you can use to identify risk before departure?

One way a pilot can limit exposure to risks is to set personal minimums for items in each risk category. These are limits unique to that individual pilot's current level of experience and proficiency. Pilot -- experience/recency (takeoffs/landings, hours in make/model), physical/mental condition (IMSAFE) Aircraft -- fuel reserves, VFR day/night, aircraft performance (W&B, density altitude, etc.), aircraft equipment (avionics familiarity, charts, survival gear) Environment -- airport conditions (runway condition/length), weather (winds, ceilings, visibilities) External pressures -- allowance for delays, diversion, cancellation, alternate plans, personal equipment available for alternate plans (phone numbers, credit cards, medications)

What requirements must be satisfied prior to operations into, within or across an ADIZ?

Operational requirements for aircraft operations associated with an ADIZ are as follows: Flight Plan -- An IFR or DVFR flight plan must be filed with the appropriate aeronautical facility Two-way Radio -- An operating two-way radio is required Transponder -- Aircraft must be equipped with an operable radar beacon transponder having altitude reporting (Mode C) capabilities. The transponder must be turned on and set to the assigned ATC code. Position reports -- For IFR flights, normal position reporting. For DVFR flights, an estimated time of ADIZ penetration must be filed at least 15 minutes prior to entry. Aircraft position tolerances -- Over land, a tolerance of plus or minus 5 minutes from the estimated time over a reporting point and within 10 NM from the centerline of an intended track over an estimated reporting point. Over water, a tolerance of plus or minus 5 minutes from the estimated time over a reporting point or point of penetration and within 20 NM from centerline of an intended track over an estimated reporting point.

What causes spatial disorientation?

Orientation is maintained through the body's sensory organs in three areas: a. Visual -- the eyes maintain visual orientation; b. Vestibular -- the motion sensing system in the inner ear maintains vestibular orientation; c. Postural -- the nerves in the skin, joints, and muscles of the body maintain postural orientation. When human beings are in their natural environment, these three systems work well. However, when the human body is subjected to the forces of flight, these senses can provide misleading information resulting in disorientation.

What is spatial disorientation?

Orientation is the awareness of the position of the aircraft and of oneself in relation to a specific reference point. Spatial disorientation specifically refers to the lack of orientation with regard to position in space and to other objects.

What are the various compass errors?

Oscillation error—Erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control technique. Deviation error— Due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in the aircraft. Variation error—Angular difference between true and magnetic north; reference isogonic lines of variation. Dip errors: a. Acceleration error— On east or west headings, while accelerating, the magnetic compass shows a turn to the north, and when decelerating, it shows a turn to the south. Remember: ANDS Accelerate North Decelerate South b. Northerly turning error—The compass leads in the south half of a turn, and lags in the north half of a turn. Remember: UNOS Undershoot North Overshoot South

What regulations apply to medical certification?

Part 67 -- Medical Standards and Certification

Explain the use of a personal checklist such as "IM SAFE" to determine personal risks.

Personal, self-assessment checklists assist pilots in conducting preflight checks on themselves, reviewing their physical and emotional states that could have an effect on their performance. The "IM SAFE" checklist reminds pilots to consider the following: Illness -- Do I have any symptoms? Medication -- Have I been taking prescription or over-the-counter drugs? Stress -- Am I under psychological pressure from my job? Do I have money, family, or health problems? Alcohol -- Have I been drinking alcohol within 8 hours? Within 24 hours? Fatigue -- Am I tired and not adequately rested? Emotions -- Am I fully recovered from any extremely upsetting events?

Why is use of "sterile cockpit" procedures important when conducting taxi operations?

Pilots must be able to focus on their duties without being distracted by non-flight-related matters unrelated to the safe and proper operation of the aircraft. Refraining from nonessential activities during ground operations is essential. Passengers should be briefed on the importance of minimizing conversations and questions during taxi as well as on arrival, from the time landing preparations begin until the aircraft is safely parked.

Discuss the limits of an attitude indicator.

Pitch and bank limits depend upon the make and model of the instrument. Limits in the banking plane are usually from 100-110 degrees, pitch limits are usually from 60-70 degrees. If either limit is exceeded, the instrument will tumble or spill giving incorrect indications until reset. Some modern attitude indicators will not tumble.

____________ is the term that describes the wing's outline as seen from above.

Planform

What types of systems are used in the prevention and elimination of airframe ice?

Pneumatic -- A deice type of system; consists of inflatable boots attached to the leading edges of the wings and tail surfaces. Compressed air from the pressure side of the engine vacuum pump is cycled through ducts or tubes in the boots causing the boots to inflate. Most systems also incorporate a timer. Hot Air -- An anti-ice type system; commonly found on turboprop and turbojet aircraft. Hot air is directed from the engine (compressor) to the leading edges oft he wings.

The airspeed indicator is subject to what errors?

Position error -- Caused by the static ports sensing erroneous static pressure; slipstream flow causes disturbances at the static port, preventing actual atmospheric pressure measurement. it varies with airspeed, altitude, and configuration, and may be a plus or minus value. Density error -- Changes in altitude and temperature are not compensated for by the instrument. Compressibility error -- Caused by the packing of air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indications. It is usually not a factor.

What is meant by the terms "power loading" and "wing loading"?

Power loading is expressed in pounds per horsepower and is obtained by dividing the total weight of the airplane by the rated horsepower of the engine. It is a significant factor in the airplane's takeoff and climb capabilities. Wing loading is expressed in pounds per square foot and is obtained by dividing the total weight of the airplane in pounds by the wing area (including ailerons) in square feet. It is the airplane's wing loading that determines the landing speed.

What is a power-off 180 accuracy approach and landing?

Power-off accuracy approaches and landings are made by gliding, with the engine idling, from a specific point on downwind to touchdown, in a normal landing attitude at or within 200 feet beyond the specified touchdown point.

What is preignition?

Preignition occurs when the fuel/air mixture ignites prior tot he engine's normal ignition event. Premature burning is usually caused by a residential hot spot in the combustion chamber, often created by a small carbon deposit on the spark plug, a cracked spark plug insulator, or other damage in the cylinder that causes a part to heat sufficiently to ignite the fuel/air charge

What are three methods of determining pressure altitude?

Pressure altitude can be determined by either of two methods: a. By setting the barometric scale of the altimeter to 29.92 and reading the indicated altitude, or b. By applying a correction factor to the indicated altitude according to the reported "altimeter setting." c. By using a flight computer.

Why is pressure altitude important?

Pressure altitude is important as a basis for determining airplane performance as well as for assigning flight levels to airplanes operating above 18,000 ft.

Define the term "pressure altitude."

Pressure altitude is the height above a standard datum plane. An altimeter is a sensitive barometer calibrated to indicate altitude in the standard atmosphere. If the altimeter is set for 29.92 in Hg Standard Datum Plane, the altitude indicated is the pressure altitude -- the altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to the sensed pressure.

What is primary radar and secondary radar?

Primary radar -- A radar system in which a minute portion of a radio pulse transmitted from a site is reflected by an object and then received back at that site for processing and display at an Air Traffic Control facility. Secondary radar -- A radar system in which the object to be detected is fitted with a transponder. Radar pulses transmitted from the searching transmitter/receiver (interrogator) site are received in the transponder and used to trigger a distinctive transmission from the transponder. The reply transmission, rather than the reflected signal, is then received back at the transmitter/receiver site for processing and display at an Air Traffic Control Facility.

What procedures are recommended prior to beginning a lazy-eight maneuver?

Prior to performing a lazy eight, the airspace behind and above should be clear of other air traffic. The maneuver should be entered from straight-and-level flight at normal cruise power and at the airspeed recommended by the manufacturer or at the airplane's design maneuvering speed.

Planning for a rejected takeoff is essential to the safety of every flight. What calculation must be made prior to every takeoff?

Prior to takeoff, the pilot should have in mind a point along the runway at which the airplane should be airborne. If that point is reached and the airplane is not airborne, immediate action should be taken to discontinue the takeoff. If properly planned and executed, the airplane can be stopped on the remaining runway without using extraordinary measures, such as excessive braking that may result in loss of directional control, airplane damage, and/or personal injury.

Describe runway end identifier lights (REIL)

REILS are installed at many airfields to provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular runway. The system consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold. REIL may be either omnidirectional or unidirectional facing the approach area.

What is RNAV?

RNAV (area navigation) provides enhanced anvigational capability to the pilot, by computing the airplane position, actual track and ground speed, then providing meaningful information relative to a route of flight selected by the pilot. Typical RNAV equipment provides the pilot with distance, time, bearing and crosstrack error relative to the selected TO or "active" waypoint and the selected route. Present day RNAV includes INS, LORAN, VOR/DME, and GPS systems.

_________ _______ is complete pressurization loss within 1 to 10 seconds, and an __________ __________ decompression is complete pressurization loss in less than 1 second.

Rapid decompression explosive decompression

Will notification to the NTSB always be necessary in any aircraft accident even if there were no injuries?

Refer to the definition of "accident." An aircraft accident can be substantial damage and/or injuries, and the NTSB always requires a report if this is the case.

What is the definition of the term "relative humidity"?

Relative humidity refers to the amount of water vapor in the atmosphere, and is expressed as a percentage of the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold. This amount varies with the temperature -- warm air can hold more water vapor and colder air can hold less.

____________ _________ is directly opposite the flight path of the airplane. The angle between the chord line of the wing and the relative wind is the ______________ of _____________.

Relative wind angle of attack

What categories of aircraft cannot be used in the carriage of persons or property for hire?

Restricted category Limited category Experimental

What are the two fundamental properties of a gyroscope?

Rigidity in Space -- A gyroscope remains in a fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning Precession -- The tilting or turning of a gyro in response to a deflective force. The reaction to this force does not occur at the point where it was applied; it occurs at a point 90 degrees later in the direction of rotation. The rate at which the gyro precesses is inversely proportional to the speed of the rotor and proportional to the deflective force.

What is the definition of "risk"?

Risk is the future impact of a hazard that is not controlled or eliminated.

Define the term "risk management."

Risk management is a decision-making process designed to systematically identify hazards, assess the degree of risk, and determine the best course of action. It is a logical process of weighing the potential costs of risks against the possible benefits of allowing those risks to stand uncontrolled.

A pilot flying an aircraft certificated for flight in known icing should be aware of a phenomenon known as "roll upset." What is roll upset?

Roll upset is an uncommanded and uncontrolled roll phenomenon associate with severe in-flight icing. It can occur without the usual symptoms of ice accumulation or a perceived aerodynamic stall. Pilots flying certificated FIKI aircraft should be aware than severe icing is a condition outside of the aircraft's certification icing envelope. The roll upset that occurs may be caused by airflow separation (aerodynamic stall), which induces self deflection of the ailerons and loss of or degraded roll handing characteristics. The aileron deflection may be caused by ice accumulating in a sensitive area of the wing aft of the deicing boots.

What color are runway edge lights?

Runway edge lights are white. On instrument runways, however, yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 ft or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings.

What are several types of illusions in a flight which may lead to errors in judgement on landing?

Runway width illusion -- Narrower than usual runway creates illusion aircraft is higher than actual; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal. Runway and terrain slope illusion -- Upsloping runway/terrain creates illusion aircraft is higher than actual; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal. Downsloping runway/terrain has the opposite effect. Featureless terrain illusion -- An absence of ground features creates illusion that aircraft is higher than actual; pilots tends to fly a lower approach than normal. Atmospheric illusions -- Rain on windscreen creates illusion of greater height; atmospheric haze creates illusion of greater distance from runway; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal.

Define the term "situational awareness."

SA is the accurate perception and understanding of all the factors and conditions within the four fundamental risk elements (Pilot, Aircraft, Environment, External pressures) that affect safety before, during, and after the flight.

Define the term "single-pilot resource management."

SRM is the art and science of managing all the resources (both on board the aircraft and from outside sources) available to a single pilot (prior to and during flight) to ensure that the successful outcome of the flight is never in doubt. SRM helps pilots learn to execute methods of gathering information, analyzing it, and making decisions.

Define the term "serious injury."

Serious injury means any injury which: a. Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received; b. Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose); c. Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage; d. Involves any internal organ; or e. Involves second- or third-degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface.

Define the term "service ceiling."

Service ceiling is the maximum density altitude where the best rate-of-climb airspeed will produce a 100 feet-per-minute climb at maximum weight while in a clean configuration with maximum continuous power.

Explain how 75% BHP can be obtained from your engine.

Set the throttle (manifold pressure) and propeller (RPM) to the recommended values found in the cruise performance chart of your POH.

What information do short-range surface prognostic charts provide?

Short-range surface prognostic (prog) charts provide a forecast of surface pressure systems, fronts and precipitation for a 2 1/2 day period. They cover a forecast area of the 48 contiguous states and coastal waters. Predicted conditions are divided into five forecast periods: 12, 18, 24, 48 and 60 hours. Each chart depicts a snapshot of weather elements expected at the specified valid time. Charts are issued four times a day and can be used to obtain an overview of the progression of surface weather features during the included periods.

What are the three principal types of thunderstorms?

Single Cell -- also called ordinary cell thunderstorms, this type consists of only one cell; they are easily circumnavigated except at night or when embedded in other clouds. Single cell thunderstorms are rare, as almost all thunderstorms are multi-celled. Multicell (cluster and line) -- consists of a cluster of cells at different stages of their life cycles. As the first cell mature, it is carried downwind, and a new cell forms upwind to take its place. A multi-cell may have a lifetime of several hours (or more), which makes it tougher to circumnavigate than a single-cell thunderstorm. May have supercells embedded within them. Supercell -- consists primarily of a single, quasi-steady rotating updraft that persists for an extended period of time. Updraft speeds may reach 9,000 fpm (100 knots). They may persist for many hours (or longer) and their size and persistence make them tough to circumnavigate.

What are some basic characteristics of a microburst?

Size: less than 1 mile in diameter as it descends from the cloud base; can extend 2 1/2 miles in diameter near ground level. Intensity: downdrafts as strong as 6,000 ft per minute; horizontal winds near the surface can be as strong as 45 knots resulting in a 90-knot wind shear (headwind to tailwind change for traversing aircraft). Duration: an individual microburst will seldom last longer than 15 minutes from the time it strikes the ground until dissipation. Sometimes microbursts are concentrated into a line structure, and under these conditions activity may continue for as long as an hour.

What will the turn indicator indicate when the aircraft is in a "skidding" or a "slipping" turn?

Skid -- the ball in the tube will be to the outide of the turn; too much rate of turn for the amount of bank. Slip -- The ball in the tube will be on the inside of the turn; not enough rate of turn for the amount of bank.

What are microbursts?

Small-scale intense downdrafts which, on reaching the surface, spread outward in all directions from the downdraft center. This causes vertical and horizontal wind shears that is extremely hazardous to aircraft, especially at low altitudes. They are not easily detected because they are so small

What are spoilers?

Spoilers are devices located on the upper surface of a wing which are designed to reduce lift by spoiling the airflow above the wing. They are typically used as speed brakes to slow the airplane down

What is the standard atmosphere at sea level?

Standard atmosphere at sea level includes a surface temperature of 59F or 15C, and a surface pressure of 29.92 in Hg or 1013.2 millibars.

What standards must you maintain when executing a steep spiral?

Start at an altitude that will allow a series of three 360 degree turns. Maintain the specified airspeed plus or minus 10 knots, roll out toward object or specified heading plus or minus 10 degrees, and do not exceed 60 degrees of bank while applying wind drift correction to track a constant radius circle around a defined reference point.

What is a steep turn?

Steep turns are those resulting from a degree of bank (more than approximately 45 degrees) at which the overbanking tendency of an airplane overcomes stability, and the bank tends to increase unless pressure is applied to the aileron controls to prevent it. Maximum turning performance is attained and relatively high load factors are imposed.

What are several options that a pilot can employ to decrease workload and avoid becoming overloaded?

Stop, think, slow down, and prioritize. Tasks such as locating an item on a chart or setting a radio frequency may be delegated to another pilot or passenger; an autopilot, if available, may be used; or ATC may be enlisted to provide assistance.

Describe the types of icing found in stratiform clouds, and the types found in cumuliform clouds.

Stratiform clouds -- both rime icing and mixed icing are found in stratiform clouds. Icing in middle and low-level stratiform clouds is confined, on average, to a layer between 3,000 and 4,000 ft thick. A change in altitude of only a few thousand feet may take the aircraft out of icing conditions, even if it remains in clouds. The main hazard lies in the great horizontal extent of stratiform cloud layers. Cumuliform Clouds -- icing is usually clear or mixed with rime in the upper levels. The icing layer is smaller horizontally but greater vertically than in stratiform clouds. Icing is more variable in cumuliform clouds because the factors conducive to icing depend on the particular cloud's stage of development. Icing intensities may range from a trace in small cumulus to severe in a large towering cumulus or cumulonimbus, especially in the upper portion of the cloud where the updraft is concentrated and supercooled large drops (SLDs) are plentiful.

What are the three main types of aircraft icing?

Structural, induction, instrumentation

Define the term "substantial damage."

Substantial damage means damage or failure which adversely affects structural strength, performance or flight charactersitics of the aircraft and which normally requires major repair or replacement of the affected component.

What are the different methods available for leaning aircraft engines?

Tachometer Method -- For best economy operation, the mixture is first leaned from full rich to maximum power (peak RPM), then the leaning process is slowly continued until the engine starts to run rough. Then, enrich the mixture sufficiently to obtain a smoothly firing engine. Fuel Flowmeter Method -- Aircraft equipped with fuel flowmeters require that you lean the mixture to the published POH or marked fuel flow to achieve the correct mixture. Exhaust Gas Temperature Method -- Lean the mixture slowly to establish peak EGT then enrich the mixture by 50 degrees rich (cooler) of peak EGT. This will provide the recommended lean condition for the established power setting.

What effect does wind have on aircraft performance?

Takeoff -- The effect of a headwind is that it allows the aircraft to reach the lift-off speed at a lower ground speed, which will increase airplane performance by shortening the takeoff distance and increasing the angle of climb. The effect of a tailwind is that the aircraft will need to achieve greater ground speed to get to lift-off speed. This decreases aircraft performance by increasing takeoff distance and reducing the angle of climb. Landing -- The effect of wind on landing distance is identical to its effect on takeoff distance. A headwind will lower ground speed and increase airplane performance by steepening the approach angle and reducing the landing distance. A tailwind will increase ground speed and decrease performance by decreasing the approach angle and increasing the landing distance. Cruise flight -- Winds aloft have a somewhat opposite effect on airplane performance. A headwind will decrease performance by reducing ground speed, which in turn increases the fuel requirement for the flight. A tailwind will increase performance by increasing the ground speed, which in turn reduces the fuel requirement for the flight.

Define the term "task management."

Task management is the process by which pilots manage the many, concurrent tasks that must be performed to safely and efficiently operate an aircraft.

What color are taxiway centerline lights?

Taxiway centerline lights are steady-burning green light

What color are taxiway edge lights?

Taxiway edge lights emit blue light and are used to outline the edges of taxiways during periods of darkness or restricted visibility conditions.

How does the pilot control temperature in the cabin?

Temperature is controlled by mixing outside air (cabin air control) with heated air (cabin heat control) in a manifold near the cabin firewall. This air is then ducted to vents located on the cabin floor.

When is the use of the "Five P" checklist recommended?

The "five P" concept relies on the pilot to adapt a scheduled review of the critical variables at points in the flight where decisions are most likely to be effective. These key decision points include preflight, pre-takeoff, hourly or a the midpoint of the flight, pre-descent, and just prior to the final approach fix (or, for VFR operations, just prior to entering the traffic pattern). They also should be used anytime an emergency situation arises.

How is the 3P model different from the DECIDE model of ADM?

The 3P process is a continuous loop of the pilot's handling of hazards. The DECIDE model and naturalistic decision-making focus on particular problems requiring resolution. Therefore, pilots exercise the 3P process continuously, while the DECIDE model and naturalistic decision-making result from the 3P process.

Describe a Ceiling and Visibility Analysis (CVA).

The CVA product provides a real-time analysis of current observed and estimated ceiling and visibility conditions across the continental United States (CONUS). The product is primarily intended to hep the general aviation pilot (particularly the VFR-only pilot) avoid IFR conditions.

Give a brief description of GPS.

The Global Positioning System is a space-based radio navigation system used to determine precise position anywhere in the world. The 24-satellite constellation is designed to ensure at least five satellites are always visible to a user worldwide. A minimum of four satellites is necessary for receivers to establish an accurate three-dimensional position.

What is a Graphical Forecast for Aviation (GFA)?

The Graphical Forecast for Aviation (GFA) is intended to provide the necessary aviation weather information as a complete picture of the weather that may impact flight in the continental United States. The webpage includes observational data, forecasts, and warnings that can be viewed from 14 hours in the past to 15 hours in the future, including thunderstorms, clouds, flight category, precipitation, icing, turbulence and wind.

What is an HSI?

The HSI (horizontal situation indicator) is a flight navigation instrument that combines the heading indicator with a CDI, in order to provide the pilot with better situational awareness of location with respect to the courseline.

Describe how the 3P model can be used for practical risk management.

The Perceive, Process, Perform (3P) model for risk management offers a simple, practical, and systematic approach that can be used during all phases of flight. To use it, pilots will: Perceive the hazards for a flight, which are present events, objects, or circumstances that could contribute to an undesired future event. Think through circumstances related to the PAVE risk categories. The fundamental question to ask is, "what could hurt me, my passengers, or my aircraft?" Process the hazards by evaluating their impact on flight safety. Think through the Consequences of each hazard, Alternatives available, Reality of the situation, and External pressures (CARE) that might influence their analysis. Perform by implementing the best course of action. Transfer (Can the risk decision be transferred to someone else? Can you consult someone?); Eliminate (Is there a way to eliminate the hazards?); Accept (Do the benefits of accepting risk outweigh the costs?); Mitigate (What can you do to reduce the risk?) (TEAM)

What is necessary for structural icing to occur?

The aircraft must be flying through visible water such as rain or cloud droplets; temperature must be at the point where moisture strikes the aircraft at 0C or colder.

When operating an aircraft in, or in close proximity to, a night operations area, what is required of an aircraft?

The aircraft must: -Be clearly illuminated -Have position lights, or -Be in an area marked by obstruction lights.

What are the limitations of the airspeed indicator?

The airspeed indicator is subject to proper flow of air in the pitot/static system.

What function does the avionics power switch have?

The avionics power switch controls power form the primary bus to the avionics bus. The circuit is protected by a combination power switch/circuit breaker. Aircraft avionics are isolated from electrical power when the switch is in the "Off" position. Also, if an overload should occur in the system, the avionics power switch will move to the "Off" psoition, causing an interruption of power to all aircraft avionics.

In the event of an engine failure, what airspeed should you use to achieve the most distance forward for each foot of altitude lost?

The best glide speed is the one at which the airplane will travel the greatest forward distance for a given loss of altitude in still air. This speed corresponds to an angle of attack resulting in the least drag on the airplane and giving the best lift-to-drag ratio (L/Dmax)

Describe a typical cabin pressure control system.

The cabin pressure control system provides cabin pressure regulation, pressure relief, vacuum relief, and the means for selecting the desired cabin altitude in the isobaric and differential range. In addition, dumping of the cabin pressure is a function of the pressure control system. A cabin pressure regulator, an aoutflow valve, and a safety valve are used to accomplish these functions.

Define the term "center of gravity."

The center of gravity (CG) is the point about which an aircraft would balance if it were possible to support the aircraft at that point. It is teh mass center of the aircraft, or the theoretical point at which the entire weight of the aircraft is assumed to be concentrated. The CG must be within specific limits for safe flight.

Where must the airworthiness certificate be located?

The certificate must be displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.

What is a Convective Outlook (AC)?

The convective outlook (AC) is a narrative and graphical outlook of the potential for severe (tornado, wind gusts 50 knots or greater, or hail 1 inch or greater in diameter) and non-severe (general) convection and specific severe weather threats during the following 8 days. It defines areas of marginal risk (MRGL), slight risk (SLGT), enhanced risk (ENH), moderate risk (MDT), or high risk (HIGH) of severe weather based on a percentage probability.

At a minimum, the pilot flying with advanced avionics must know how to manage what three primary items?

The course deviation indicator (CDI), the navigation source, and the autopilot.

Since temperature and pressure decrease with altitude, how will air density be affected overall?

The decrease in temperature and pressure have conflicting effects on density as you go up in altitude, but the fairly rapid drop in pressure with increasing altitude is usually the dominating factor. Hence, the density is likely to decrease with altitude gain.

In a chandelle, constant bank and changing pitch occur in what part of the maneuver?

The first 90 degrees of turn require a constant 30 degrees of bank and a gradual and constant change in pitch attitude.

What practical application provides a pilot with an effective method to practice SRM?

The five P checklist consists of "the Plan, the Plane, the Pilot, the Passengers, and the Programming." It is based on the idea that the pilot has essentially five variables that impact his or her environment and that can cause the pilot to make a single critical decision, or several less critical decisions, that when added together can create a critical outcome.

Explain the function of the "float" in a "float-type" carburetor system.

The float-type carburetor acquires its name from a float, which rests on fuel within the float chamber. A needle attached to the float opens and closes an opening at the bottom of the carburetor bowl. This meters the correct amount of fuel into the carburetor depending upon the position of the float, which is controlled by the level of fuel in the float chamber. When the level of the fuel forces the float to rise, the needle valve closes the fuel opening and shuts off the fuel flow to the carburetor. The needle valve opens again when the engine requires additional fuel. The flow of the fuel/air mixture to the combustion chambers is regulated by the throttle valve, which is controlled by the throttle in the flight deck.

If icing has been inadvertently encountered, how would your landing approach procedure be different?

The following guidelines may be used when flying an airplane which has accumulated ice: a. Maintain more power during the approach than normal. b. Maintain a higher airspeed than normal. c. Expect a higher stall speed than normal. d. Expect a longer landing roll than normal e. A "no flaps" approach is recommended f. Maintain a consistently higher altitude than normal. g. Avoid a missed approach (get it right the first time)

What types of weather information will you examine to determine if wind shear conditions might affect your flight?

The following should be examined for clues of potential microburst/windshear conditions affecting the flight: TAFs -- examine the terminal forecast for convective activity. METARs -- inspect for windshear clues (thunderstorms, rainshowers, blowing dust). Severe weather watch reports -- check for issuance since severe convective weather is a prime source for microbursts and windshear. LLWAS reports -- Low Level Windshear Alert System, designed to detect wind shifts between outlying stations and a reference station. TDWR -- Terminal Doppler Weather Radar, deployed at 45 airports across the United States; detects microbursts, gust fronts, wind shifts and precipitation intensities and provides severe weather alerts and warnings to ATC and pilots. SIGMETs and convective SIGMETs -- may provide essential clues. Visual clues from the cockpit -- heavy rain (in a dry or moist environment) which can be accompanied by curling outflow, a ring of blowing dust or localized dust in general, flying debris, virga, a rain core with rain diverging away horizontally from the rain core, or tornadic features (funnel clouds, tornadoes). At night, lightning may be the only visual clue. PIREPs -- reports of sudden airspeed changes in he airport approach or landing corridors provide indication of the presence of windshear. Airborne weather radar -- to detect convective cells.

What four strokes must occur in each cylinder of a typical four-stroke engine in order for it to produce full power?

The four strokes are: Intake -- fuel mixture is drawn into cylinder by downward stroke. Compression -- mixture is compressed by upward stroke. Power -- spark ignites mixture forcing piston downward and producing power. Exhaust -- burned gases pushed out of cylinder by upward stroke.

What is the definition of the term "freezing level" and how can you determine where that level is?

The freezing level is the lowest altitude in the atmosphere over a given location at which the air temperature reaches 0C. It is possible to have multiple freezing layers when a temperature inversion occurs above the defined freezing level. A pilot can use current icing products and forecast icing products, as well as the freezing level graphics chart to determine the approximate freezing level. Other potential sources of icing information are: area forecasts, PIREPs, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, surface analysis charts, low-level significant weather charts, and winds and temperatures aloft (for air temperature at altitude).

How does the attitude indicator work?

The gyro in the attitude indicator is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon rigidity in space for its operation. The horizon bar represents the true horizon and is fixed to the gyro; it remains in a horizontal plane as the airplane is pitched or banked about its lateral or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the airplane relative to the true horizon.

What limitations does the magnetic compass have?

The jewel-and-pivot type mounting gives the float freedom to rotate and tilt up to approximately 18° angle of bank. At steeper bank angles, the compass indications are erratic and unpredictable.

In a chandelle, constant pitch and changing bank occur in what part of the maneuver?

The last 90 degrees of turn requires a very gradual change in bank from 30 degrees to 0 degrees and a constant pitch attitude so as to arrive at minimum airspeed as the airplane is rolled out to a wings-level attitude.

What color are the lights marking the ends of the runway?

The lights marking the ends of the runway emit red light toward the runway to indicate the end of the runway to a departing aircraft, and green light outward from the runway end to indicate the threshold to landing aircraft.

Describe a low-level significant weather chart.

The low-level significant weather (SIGWX) charts provide a forecast of aviation weather hazards and are primarily intended to be used as guidance products for preflight briefings. The forecast domain covers the CONUS and the coastal waters for altitudes Flight Level 240 and below. The chart depicts weather flying categories, turbulence, and freezing levels and provides a "snapshot" of weather expected at the specified valid time. The charts are issued four times per day by the NWS AWC. Two charts are issued: a 12-hour and a 24-hour prog.

What information is provided by a maximum elevation figure on a sectional chart?

The maximum elevation figure (MEF) represents the highest elevation, including terrain and other vertical obstacles (towers, trees, etc.), within a quadrant. MEF figures are depicted in thousands and rounded to the nearest hundred feet above mean sea level. The last two digits of the number are not shown. The chart legend also provides the highest terrain elevation for the entire chart.

Which instruments contains gyroscopes?

The most common instruments containing gyroscopes are the turn coordinator, heading indicator, and attitude indicator.

If the weight of an aircraft is within takeoff limits but the CG limit has been exceeded, what actions can the pilot take to correct the situation?

The most satisfactory solution to this type of problem is to shift baggage, passengers, or both in an effort to make the aircraft CG fall within limits.

How often must electronic navigation databases used for IFR flight be updated?

The navigation database is updated every 28 days. Obstacle databases may be updated every 56 days, and terrain and airport map databases are updated as needed.

State the objective of learning a power-off 180 degree accuracy approach and landing.

The objective is to instill the judgement and procedures necessary for accurately flying the airplane, without power, to a safe landing. The ability to estimate the distance an airplane will glide and maintain the proper glide path while maneuvering the airplane is the real basis of all power-off accuracy approaches and landings.

What is the objective of performing an accelerated stall?

The objective of demonstrating accelerated stalls is not to develop competency in setting up the stall, but rather to learn how they may occur and to develop the ability to recognize such stalls immediately, and to take prompt, effective recovery action.

What is the objective of a steep spiral?

The objective of this maneuver is to improve pilot techniques for airspeed control, wind drift control, planning, orientation, and division of attention. The steep spiral is not only a valuable flight training maneuver, but has practical application by providing a procedure for dissipating altitude while remaining over a selected spot in preparation for landing, especially for emergency forced landings.

If a loss of oil pressure occurs accompanied by a rising oil temperature, which is indicated?

The oil required for cooling has been lost, and an engine failure is imminent. The throttle should be reduced, and a suitable landing area should be established as soon as possible. Use minimum power to reach the emergency landing area.

Where are accident or incident reports filed?

The operator of an aircraft shall file any report with the field office of the Board nearest the accident or incident. NTSB contact information can be found at www.ntsb.gov.

When is immediate notification to the NTSB required?

The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur: a. Flight control system malfunction b. Crewmember unable to perform normal duties c. Turbine engine failure of structural components d. In-flight fire e. Aircraft collision in-flight f. Property damage, other than aircraft, estimated to exceed $ 25,000 g. Overdue aircraft (believed to be in an accident) h. Release of all or a portion of a propeller blade from an aircraft. i. Complete loss of information (excluding flickering) from more than 50 percent of an aircraft's EFIS cockpit displays.

After an accident or incident has occurred, how soon must a report be filed with the NTSB?

The operator shall file a report on NTSB Form 6120.1 or 6120.2, available from NTSB field offices or from the NTSB, Washington D.C., 20594: a. Within 10 days after an accident; b. When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing. A report on an "Incident" for which notification is required as described shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the NTSB.

What factors would contribute to a change in center of gravity location during the flight?

The operator's flight manual should show procedures which fully account for variations in CG travel during flight caused by variable such as the movement of passengers and the effect of the CG travel due to fuel used.

If the weight and balance of an aircraft has changed due to the addition or removal of fixed equipment in the aircraft, what responsibility does the owner or operator have?

The owner or operator of the aircraft should ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft records when repairs or modifications ahve been accomplished. Weight changes must bea ccounted for and proper notations made in weight and balance records. The appropriate form for these changes is "Major Repairs and Alterations."

Who is resposnible for wake turbulence avoidance, the pilot or the air traffic controller?

The pilot is responsible. Acceptance of instructions from ATC (traffic information, follow an aircraft, visual approach clearance), is acknowledgement that the pilot has accepted responsibility for his/her own wake turbulence separation.

In what three areas must a pilot be proficient when using advanced avionics or any automated system?

The pilot must know what to expect, how to monitor the system for proper operation, and be prepared to promptly take appropriate action if the system foes not perform as expected.

How does a pilot determine the status of a light system at a particular airport?

The pilot needs to check the A/FD and any NOTAMs to find out about available lighting systems, light intensities and radio-controlled light system frequencies.

What are the limitations of the heading indicator?

The pitch and bank limits depend upon the make and model of the instrument. Limits in the banking plane are usually from 100 degrees to 110 degrees, and the pitch limits are usually from 60 to 70 degrees. If either limit is exceeded, the instrument will tumble or spill and will give incorrect indications until realigned. A number of mdoern attitude indicators do not tumble.

Discuss fixed-pitch propellers.

The pitch of this propeller is fixed by the manufacturer and cannot be changed by the pilot. Two types of fixed-pitch propellers are: Climb propeller -- has a lower pitch, therefore less drag. Results in higher RPM and more horsepower being developed by the engine; increases performance during takeoffs and climbs, but decreases performance during cruising flight. Cruise propeller -- has a higher pitch, therefore more drag. Results in lower RPM and less horsepower capability; decreases performance during takeoffs and climbs, but increases efficiency during cruising flight.

What instruments operate from the pitot/static system?

The pitot/static system operates the altimeter, vertical speed indicator, and airspeed indicator.

If an airplane has anti-icing and or/ deicing equipment installed, can it be flown into icing conditions?

The presence of anti-icing and deicing equipment does not necessarily mean that an airplane is approved for flight in icing conditions. The AFM/POH, placards, and manufacturer should be consulted for specific determination of approvals and limitations.

What does the propeller control do?

The propeller control regulates propeller pitch and engine RPM as desired for a given flight condition. The propeller control adjusts a propeller governor which establishes and maintains the propeller speed, which in turn maintains the engine speed.

What is a propeller governor?

The propeller governor, with the assistance of a governor pump, controls the flow of engine oil to or from a piston in the propeller hub. When the engine oil, under high pressure from the governor pump, pushes the piston forward, the propeller blades are twisted toward a high pitch/low RPM condition. When the engine oil is released from the cylinder, centrifugal force, with the assistance of an internal spring, twists the blades toward a low pitch/high RPM condition.

You have 5 hours logged in the make and model of aircraft flown by your new employer. The aircraft will be loaded to max gross weight, but not over. On board will be the boss's wife, elderly mother-in-law, and two-year old daughter. The weather is generally VFR but typical afternoon thunderstorms are forecasted all along your route. What are your thoughts about this flight assignment?

The question is testing your ability to recognize possible risk factors. Your answer should discuss your tolerance for handling multiple simultaneous risk factors, and ways to mitigate or reduce these risk factors. I would first make an honest assessment of my ability to handle multiple simultaneous risk factors, including unfamiliarity with the plane, flight at max gross weight, passengers who may become a distraction, and possible weather. I could mitigate/reduce these risk factors by arranging the takeoff time for early morning to avoid thunderstorms, or arranging to get more time in the aircraft at gross weight before the departure day, etc. I might also consider refusing the flight assignment if appropriate mitigation actions can't be taken.

Are flight crewmembers allowed the use of any medications while performing required duties?

The regulations prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties while using any medication that affects the faculties in any way contrary to safety. The safest rule is not to fly as a crewmember while taking any medication, unless approved to do so by the FAA.

What regulations apply, and what common sense should prevail, concerning the use of alcohol?

The regulations prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties within 8 hours after drinking any alcoholic beverage or while under the influence of alcohol. However, due to the slow destruction of alcohol, a pilot may still be under its influence 8 hours after drinking a moderate amount of alcohol. Therefore, an excellent rule is to allow at least 12 to 24 hours from "bottle to throttle," depending on the amount of alcoholic beverage consumed.

What procedure should be followed in an asymmetrical flap emergency?

The roll encountered in a split flap situation is countered with opposite aileron. The yaw caused by the additional drag created by the extended flap will require substantial opposite rudder, resulting in a cross-control condition. Almost full aileron may be required to maintain a wings-level attitude, especially at the reduced airspeed necessary for approach and landing. The approach to landing with a split flap condition should be flown at a higher than normal airspeed. The pilot should not risk an asymmetric stall and subsequent loss of control by flaring excessively. The airplane should be flown onto the runway so that the touchdown occurs at an airspeed consistent with a safe margin above flaps-up stall speed.

How can a hyperventilating condition be reversed?

The symptoms of hyperventilation subside within a few minutes after the rate and depth of breathing are consciously rbought back to normal. The buildup of carbon dioxide in the body can be hastened by controlled breathing in and out of a paper bag held over the nose and mouth.

What does the throttle do?

The throttle allows the pilot to manually control the amount of fuel/air charge entering the cylinders. This in turn regulates engine manifold pressure.

How does the turn coordinator operate?

The turn part of the instrument uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn. A gyro reacts by trying to move in reaction to the force applied, thus moving the miniature aircraft in proportion to the rate of turn. The inclinometer in the instrument is a black glass ball sealed inside a curved glass tube that is partially filled with a liquid. The ball measures the relative strength of the force of gravity and the force of inertia caused by a turn.

What causes carburetor icing and what are the first indications of its presence?

The vaporization of fuel, combined with the expansion of air as it passes through the carburetor, causes a sudden cooling of the mixture. The temperature of the air passing through the carburetor may drop as much as 60F within a fraction of a second. Water vapor is squeezed out by this cooling, and, if the temperature in the carburetor reaches 32F or below, the moisture will be deposited as frost or ice inside the carburetor. For airplanes with a fixed pitch propeller, the first indication of carburetor icing is a loss of RPM. For airplanes with controllable-pitch (constant speed) propellers, the first indication is usually a drop in manifold pressure.

Why does the manufacturer provide various manifold pressure/prop settings for a given power output?

The various power MAP/RPM combinations are provided so the pilot has a choice between operating the aircraft at best efficiency (minimum fuel flow) or operating at best power/speed condition. An aircraft engine operated at higher RPMs will produce more friction and, as a result, use more fuel. On the other hand, an aircraft operating at higher and higher altitudes will not be able to continue to produce the same constant power output due to a drop in manifold pressure. The only way to compensate for this is by operating the engine at a higher RPM.

How does the vertical speed indicator work?

The vertical speed indicator is a pressure differential instrument. Inside the instrument case is an aneroid very much like the one in an airspeed indicator. Both the inside of this aneroid and the inside of the instrument case are vented to the static system, but the case is vented through a calibrated orifice that causes the pressure inside the case to change more slowly than the pressure inside the aneroid. As the aircraft ascends, the static pressure becomes lower and the pressure inside the case compresses the aneroid, moving the pointer upward, showing a climb and indicating the number of feet per minute the aircraft is ascending.

What are flaps, and what is their function?

The wing flaps are movable panels on the inboard trailing edges of the wings They are hinged so that they may be extended downward into the flow of air beneath the wings to increase both lift and drag. Their purpose is to permit a slower airspeed and a steeper angle of descent during a landing approach. In some cases, they may also be used to shorten the takeoff distance.

On a VFR night flight, the weather includes scattered, isolated thunderstorms. You are on a 1-mile final to Big City Regional Airport when a lightning strike from an approaching thunderstorm hits the ground control box, disabling airport lights. Beacon, runway, and taxiway lights are all dark. However, the FBO, ramp and terminal area is clearly illuminated. What will you do?

There is no right answer, except of course include that you will remain clear of the thunderstorm. This question is designed to put you in a bad situation to see what you'll do. On a 1-mile final you have very little time, so you must think fast. Show your aeronautical decision making by evaluating the elements aloud. A few things to consider in your discussion: -I would test to confirm radio communications with ATC. -If I decide to land: 1. Negative: Landing in the face of a thunderstorm is generally not the best idea. I must be prepared for possible wind gusts and wind shear. 2. Positive: Landing will get the aircraft on the ground as soon as possible and out of the path of the approaching thunderstorm. There is probably a centerline and other runway markings that will be illuminated by my landing light. 3. Lights from the terminal may blind me--or help me. -If aborting landing: 1. Good: I could reenter the traffic pattern and evaluate the situation from traffic pattern altitude. This assumes I can remain clear of the thunderstorm. 2. Better: I would circle in the clear sky outside the thunderstorm until it passes, and then land. This assumes that I can remain clear of other traffic that may be doing the same thing. Because my plane was not hit by lightning, I can probably still communicate with other pilots even if I can't communicate with ATC. 3. Best: I would depart the area and land someplace else. This option assumes that I have radio communications and am equipped with an alternate.

How far should one pylon be from the other pylon in eights-on-pylons?

They should be of sufficient distance apart to permit straight and level flight between pylons.

Automation management is a good place to practice the standard callout procedures. What are standard callouts?

To assist in maintaining situational awareness, professional flight crews often use standard callouts. For example, the non-flying pilot may call 2,000 and 1,000 feet prior to reaching an assigned altitude. The callout may be "two to go" and "one to go." Single-pilot operations can also benefit form this practice by adopting standard, set callouts that can be used in the different segments of flight. Examples of standard callouts are: Power set, Airspeed Alive, Rotate, Positive Rate--Gear Up, Localizer Alive, Glideslope Alive, Nav Source Verified, Approach Mode Armed, Approach Mode Active, Final Approach Fix

How do you maintain altitude in a steep turn?

To maintain bank angle and altitude, as well as orientation, requires an awareness of the relative position of the horizon to the nose and the wings. If the altitude begins to increase or decrease, changing elevator back pressure can be used to alter the altitude; however, a more effective method is a sligh increase or decrease in bank angle to control small altitude deviations. If the altitude is decreasing, reducing the bank angle a few degrees helps recover or stop the altitude loss trend; if the altitude is increasing, increasing the bank angle a few degrees will help recover or stop the altitude increase trend.

How long will a flight plan remain on file after the proposed departure time has passed?

To prevent computer saturation in the en route environment, parameters have been established to delete proposed departure flight plans which have not been activated. Most centers have this parameter set so as to delete these flight plans a minimum of 2 hours after the proposed departure time or Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)

What are the two types of drag?

Total drag may be divided into two parts: the wing drag (induced), and drag from everything but the wings (parasite)

What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?

Touchdown speed should be as slow as possible consistent with safety. After the nosewheel is lowered to the runway, moderate braking should be applied. If deceleration is not detected and hydroplaning is suspected, the nose should be raised and aerodynamic drag utilized to decelerate to a point where the brakes become effective.

If you encounter in-flight icing, and ATC asks you to report your conditions, what are the official reportable icing values that you are expected to use?

Trace, light, moderate, severe

When flying a TAA, what are several procedures that help ensure that situational awareness is enhanced, not diminished, by the automation?

Two basic procedures are to always double-check the system and to use verbal callouts. At a minimum, ensure the presentation makes sense. Was the correct destination fed into the navigational system? Callouts, even for single-pilot operations, are an excellent way to maintain situational awareness as well as manage information.

What is the maximum speed allowed when operating inside Class B airspace, under 10,000 ft and within a Class D surface area?

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 ft above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or CLass D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots. This restriction does not apply to operations conducted within a Class B airspace area. Such operations shall comply with the "below 10,000 ft MSL" restriction" No person shall operate an aircraft below 10,000 ft MSL, at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots

How can the use of the "PAVE" checklist during flight planning help you to assess risk?

Use of the PAVE checklist provides pilots with a simple way to remember each category to examine for risk during flight planning. The pilot divides the risks of flight into four categories: Pilot -- general health, physical/mental/emotional state, proficiency, currency Aircraft -- airworthiness, equipment, performance capability Environment -- weather hazards, terrain, airports/runways to be used, conditions External pressures -- meetings, people waiting at destination, desire to impress someone, etc.

What is the condition known as vapor lock?

Vapor lock is a condition in which AVGAS vaporizes in the fuel line or other components between the fuel tank and the carburetor. This typically occurs on warm days on aircraft with engine-driven fuel pumps that suck fuel from the tank(s). Vapor lock can be caused by excessively hot fuel, low pressure, or excessive turbulence of the fuel traveling through the fuel system. In each case, liquid fuel vaporizes prematurely and blocks the flow of liquid fuel to the carburetor. Various steps can be taken to prevent vapor lock. The most common is the use of boost pumps located in the fuel tank that force pressurized liquid fuel to the engine.

What effect does humidity have on air density?

Water vapor is lighter than air, so moist air is lighter than dry air. As the water vapor content of the air increases, the air becomes less dense, increasing density altitude and decreasing performance. It is lightest or least dense when it contains the maximum amount of water vapor. Humidity alone is usually not considered an important factor in calculating density altitude and airplane performance, but it does not contribute.

What basic equation is used in all weight and balance problems to find the center of gravity location of an airplane and/or its components?

Weight x Arm = Moment Weight = Moment / Arm Arm = Moment / weight CG = Moment / weight

Why is wind shear an operational concern to pilots?

Wind shear is an operational concern because unexpected changes in wind speed and direction can be potentially very hazardous to aircraft operations at low altitudes on approach to and departing from airports.

Define "wind shear," and state the areas in which it is likely to occur.

Wind shear is the rate of change of wind velocity (direction and/or speed) per unit distance; conventionally expressed as vertical or horizontal wind shear. It may occur at any level in the atmosphere but three areas are of special concern: a. Wind shear with a low-level temperature inversion; b. Wind shear in a frontal zone or thunderstorm; and c. Clear air turbulence (CAT) at high levels associated with a jet stream or strong circulation.

What is a Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FB)?

Winds and temperatures aloft are forecast for specific locations in the contiguous US and also for a network of locations in Alaska and Hawaii. These forecasts, called FBs, are issued 4 times daily. In an FB, a 4-digit code group shows wind direction, in reference to true north, and wind speed in knots, with an additional 2-digit cpde group showing forecast temperatures in degrees Celsius. Wind forecasts are not issued for altitudes within 1,500 ft of a location's elevation.

Does the pivotal altitude change in eights-on-pylons?

Yes, the pivotal altitude is critical and will change with variations in ground speed. Since the headings throughout the turns continually vary from directly downwind to directly upwind, the ground speed will constantly change. This will result in the proper pivotal altitude varying slightly throughout the eight. Therefore, adjustment must be made for this by climbing and descending as necessary to hold the reference line or point on the pylons. This change in altitude will be dependent on how much the wind affects the ground speed.

Can ATC provide inflight assistance in avoiding thunderstorms and severe weather?

Yes, to the extent possible, controllers will issue pertinent information on weather or chaff areas and assist pilots in avoiding such areas when requested. Pilots should respond to a weather advisory by either acknowledging the advisory or by requesting an alternate course of action as appropriate. However, the controller's primary responsibly is to provide safe separation between aircraft. Additional services such as weather avoidance assistance can only be provided to the extent that it doesn't interfere with their primary function. ATC radar limitations and frequency congestion may also limit the controller's capability to assist.

Is the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses required when operating an aircraft on the ground?

Yes; each person on board a US registered civil aircraft must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt, and if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff and landing.

What are the altitude, airspeed and heading tolerances allowed when performing a lazy eight?

You should achieve the following throughout the maneuver: a. Approximately 30 degrees bank at the steepest point. b. Constant change of pitch, roll rate, and airspeed. c. Altitude tolerance at 180 degree points, plus or minus 100 feet from entry altitude d. Airspeed tolerance at the 180 degree point, plus or minus 10 knots from entry airspeed. e. Heading tolerance at the 180 degree point, plus or minus 10 degrees

What should your speed be upon completion of the chandelle?

You should begin a coordinated constant-rate rollout from the 90 degrees point to the 180 degrees point, plus or minus 10 degrees just above a stall airspeed, and maintaining that airspeed momentarily avoiding a stall.

What action is recommended if you inadvertently encounter icing conditions?

You should leave the area of visible moisture. This might mean descending to an altitude below the cloud bases, climbing to an altitude above the cloud tops, or turning to a different course. If unable to leave the area of visible moisture, the pilot must move to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing. If you're going to climb, do so quickly; procrastination may leave you with too much ice. If you're going to descend, you must know the temperature of the air and the type of terrain below.

You are on downwind at Big City Regional with paying passengers on board when suddenly you hear strange noises form the engine and feel a serious vibration. Holes in the engine cowl confirm a failed cylinder. Winds on the ground are about 10 knots. What will you do?

Your answer msut demonstrate your understanding of engine operations, the underlying implication of a failed cylinder, emergency procedures for your aircraft, and actions you will consider (and their associated risk factors). A failed cylinder means the aircraft has an engine failure. I would follow the correct emergency procedure for my aircraft per the POH/AFM. I would declare an emergency. A commercial pilot must not hesitate to gather all possible resources to aid in handling an emergency, including contacting other available crew members and ground personnel. I would consider other possible closer landing areas, such as another runway or taxiway. Other options might be the grassy area between runways, or even an emergency field off the airport. If I end up making a crosswind and/or downwind landing, this presents additional risk and aircraft performance implications.

Your assignment is a solo flight to reposition the aircraft to the company's maintenance base at Tiny City Airport, 25 NM away, for a 100-hour inspection. You will overfly the 100-hour inspection during the reposition for maintenance. Does this concern you in any way?

Your answer must demonstrate your knowledge of 100-hour inspections and when they are due as well as an understanding of airworthiness directives. -This is not a flight for compensation or hire; therefore, having this flight within the 100-hour inspection is not required. -The hours flown beyond this 100-hour interval will affect future flights as the hours-over will be deducted from the next 100-hour due time. -I am concerned about possible reoccurring airworthiness directives, as many ADs come due "coinciding with the next regularly scheduled inspection." I would research the possibility of an applicable reoccurring AD and if one exists, this flight will require a special flight permit. The 10-hour grace period for the 100-hour inspection does not apply to the AD.

Your boss has dispatched you to pick up an airplane just "returned to service." The plane has had an engine overhaul, and a new interior and full suite of new next-generation avionics installed. What will you do?

Your answer must demonstrate your understanding of flying a "returned to service" aircraft. You should also discuss the risk associated with the first few hours of flight after an aircraft has had extensive maintenance and your possible limitations with unfamiliar avionics. Specifically: -Before takeoff, I'll ensure that the aircraft maintenance records are full signed off and all required inspections are signed off: 1. A new pitot-static/altimeter and transponder inspection may be required. 2. A GPS manual/quick reference is required to be on board for flights under IFR. 3. Portions of this work (avionics suite) may require an FAA Form 337. I will interview the technician about possible differences I should use in power settings and oil usage during the engine break-in time. The first hours after major alterations are the riskiest. I will plan to fly with alternative airports close by all along the route, and I will fly at higher altitudes to give me more time to respond in the event that a problem should develop. During all phases of flight, I will pay particularly close attention in monitoring engine gauges. I will complete online research and download manuals for the new avionics to familiarize myself as best as possible with their operations before flight. I will also look for online simulators and tutorials. I will depart and fly day VFR on the trip home. This will give me more confidence during flight with unfamiliar avionics.

The company's maintenance base is at Tiny City Airport, 25 NM away. Your assignment is a solo reposition flight to Tiny City to have an inoperative landing light fixed. Your landing is expected to be at sunset. NOTAMs indicate that runway lights are out. It is an asphalt runway. What are your thoughts about this flight?

Your answer must demonstrate your understanding of requirements for flight with inoperative equipment. This question is also testing your ability to recognize possible risk factors. You should show your thought process by identifying these risk factors and possible steps you could take to mitigate them, and discussing your tolerance for handling multiple simultaneous risk factors. I would have to meet the requirements for flight with inoperative equipment (such as disconnecting and placarding of the inoperative equipment). This flight presents a number of risk factors, including the external factor of rushing to try to arrive before dark versus landing after dark on a dark runway without a landing light, and a possible landing on a runway without runway lights. I would need to be confident in my ability to handle these (and potentially other) multiple simultaneous risk factors. I would research way to mitigate or reduce the risk factors with this flight. For example, is the problem with the landing light due only to a burnt-out bulb? If so, what is required to replace the bulb? Can I drive to Tiny City to pick up the maintenance technician to repair the light, and then fly him back home on the aircraft with the landing light operative? I would also consider refusing the flight assignment if appropriate mitigation actions can't be taken.

It's a very hot summer day with very high humidity. The 6-place single engine aircraft you are to fly is loaded to maximum gross weight with your employer's computer equipment and accessories. Talk me through your expectations for this takeoff and any deviations from a normal takeoff you might choose to use.

Your answer must demonstrate your understanding of the effects of atmospheric conditions on the airplane's takeoff performance, and what actions you would take in terms of calculations or procedures as a result. -Atmospheric conditions can adversely affect ground roll and takeoff performance. I will calculate takeoff performance with due diligence. -I might choose to perform a short-field takeoff procedure to ensure runway length is sufficient. -I will ensure that the computer equipment is secured. A short-field takeoff attitude may cause items to shift, and I anticipate the possibility of turbulence on a hot, humid day. I don't want shifting cargo.

You are on a close-in base at Tiny City Airport with paying passengers on board when suddenly you see another aircraft on final, which will conflict. What will you do?

Your answer must discuss right-of-way rules as well as specific actions you will take in this situation. I would follow right-of-way rules. However, a commercial pilot is always prepared to give up his right of way for the safety of flight. If I encountered this situation, I would: -Add full power and perform a maximum climb either straight ahead or to the right, or do a level left-360 degree turn if spacing permits. -Attempt to communicate with the other pilot, in a professional manner, after both planes are out of harm, to inform him of my intentions to follow him.

On a later night VFR flight, about 50 miles from your destination, you notice the ammeter is discharging and your interior lights are beginning to fade. Calls to ATC go answered. There are two possible alternative airports near your route; both are very small and without services of any kind. You have two paying passengers on board, both in the back seat. Weather is clear and calm. What will you do?

Your answer must include an understanding of the electrical system and the underlying implication of an ammeter discharging. With the ammeter discharging, I am about to lose electrical power and with it, electrical accessories. I would: -Move my flashlights to within easy reach -Recycle the master switch (alternator side on a split switch) to reset a possible overvoltage relay problem -Prepare for possible complete electrical failure -Turn off all unnecessary electrical equipment -If the transponder is to be left on (airspace requirements), tune it to 7600 -Inform passengers of the situation and how they may be of assistance to me -Obtain a VFR sectional chart and be prepared to navigate without radio systems -Maintain my situational awareness -Obtain the POH and review electrical system checklists. -Choose between continuing to my destination versus landing as soon as practical: 1. If I do not have VFR charts available, the best choice is to land as soon as practical. However, if I land as soon as practical I risk having stranded passengers and having no way to repair the aircraft. 2. If I have VFR charts, the weather is clear and calm, and I'm flying under VFR, continuing to the destination is an acceptable choice. If I continue to the destination, I'll consider how I will navigate there, activate pilot-controlled lighting, enter the traffic pattern, and land without flaps and landing light.

You've been hired by a parachute operator to fly a 6-place single engine airplane. Your job is to climb to 10,000 ft MSL and level off, at which point parachuters will climb outside the aircraft and hang on to your strut before free-falling. You'll make about five such flights each day. The aircraft is within max gross weight, but the passenger seats have been removed so that 10 passenger with parachutes can sit on the floor during flight. They will scoot along the floor to the front-door opening to exit. What are your thoughts about aircraft handling characteristics?

Your answer must include considerations and effects related to center of gravity and aircraft performance of flight under the described scenario. I anticipate: -Possible CG variances as the passengers move around and exit the aircraft. This will affect stall speed, stability and performance. - A lateral CG imbalance when passengers are hanging on the wing strut. This may require me to switch fuel tanks. -The weight change when passengers exit the aircraft will affect aircraft performance, especially at 10,000 ft MSL. -A change in aircraft performance, assuming that the door has been removed. -Flight at slow speeds while passengers are hanging on the strut. After parachuters exit the aircraft, I would descend quickly, without overcooling the engine, so that I am ready to pick up the next load of passengers.

You've been hired by a banner tow organization to fly a C-172. Flying straight and level while towing a banner normally results in a slower-than-normal airspeed, higher-than-normal angle of attack, and higher-than-normal power settings. What engine-gauge indications would you expect to see and how will you control the engine?

Your answer must include the following elements. Be prepared to discuss what the engine gauges tell you about the health of the engine. -I would be concerned about possible engine overheating. A high angle of attack restricts air flow in and around the engine. Higher power settings also add to engine heat. -I would pay close attention to engine gauges available in the plane, specifically exhuast gas temperature (EGT), oil temperature, and engine temperature. -I would control engine cooling by using the highest possible airspeed, lowest possible angle of attack, and lowest possible power settings. I would also open all engine vents and richen the fuel/air mixture

Your flight assignment is a commercial sightseeing flight for 2 passengers. Your flight will be around the city and last about 30 minutes. What requirements must you need to be PIC on this flight for hire?

Your answer must include the required pilot currency items and drug-testing requirements. To be the pilot in command for this flight, I must meet the normal pilot currency requirements: -a flight review within the last 24 calendar months -a current second class medical certificate -3 takeoffs and landings performed within the previous 90 days Drug testing is required for pilots of any passenger-carrying flight for compensation or hire. To meet this requirement, I must: -Be enrolled in an FAA-approved anti-drug program either as an independent pilot or as part of my employer's program. -Have passed a drug test within that program. -Keep a copy of the drug test results for my files.

It's 3:00am. You are three hours into a late night cross-country. You are returning home, solo. The weather is clear and calm, and you are VFR at 9,500 ft MSL and getting massive tailwinds. But you are very sleepy and having difficulty staying awake. It's another hour flight time home. What will you do?

Your answer must include the risk factors associated with not being mentally alert, demonstrate an understanding of possible physiological effects of flight, and discuss possible mitigation actions. Too many accidents occur in the last miles of a long trip because the pilot was unwilling to divert or land knowing they were so close to home. If I'm flying while tired or not mentally alert, my risk increases due to reduced situational awareness, hindered ADM, and possible physiological consequences (such as falling asleep while piloting). The physiological aspects of flight at 9,500 ft for long durations include possible hypoxia. Many pilots start to feel slightly hypoxic at altitude below those required for supplemental oxygen. Actions I can take to counter these effects: -Descend to a lower altitude. Breather supplemental oxygen if available. -Direct air vents into my face, sing, keep busy--anything I can do to regain mental alertness. -Land as soon as practical, walk around, drink coffee, and then take off and continue the trip. -Land as soon as practical; call it a night even if I have to nap on the FBO couch or in the plane. Proper preflight planning could have helped me in this situation. I should consider carrying a portable oxygen bottle anytime I have a late night flight, or any night flight after a long day, when flying above 5,000 ft.

You have flown through 8 states and have made 18 IFR IAPs in the past 3 days. The weather is now clear and cold. A blanket of snow completely covers the ground. Upon arrival to Tiny City Airport, you notice the runway has not been cleared. What will you do?

Your answer must include the soft-field landing procedure for your aircraft, and discussion of risk factors and possible mitigations. If I proceed with landing at Tiny City Airport, I would follow the soft-field landing procedure for my aircraft. This includes keeping the nose wheel off the ground as long as possible, and minimizing braking. I would attempt to mitigate the risk factors associated with a soft-field, potentially deep, slippery runway by: -Attempting to call UNICOM to see if the attendant can tell me how deep the snow is. -Considering a low approach over the runway to see what I can see and to look for possible drifts or snow banks. -Calling FSS to inquire about runway conditions at nearby airports for a possible diversion I will give myself plenty of time to evaluate alternatives and set up the airplane properly. I won't hesitate to fly out of my way to where runway and services are better. This scenario reveals insufficient preflight planning. By making a phone call to FSS or the FBO to learn about local airport conditions, I can avoid this situation in the future. Perhaps the reason for poor planning is my fatigue--I've flown a lot of hours in the past 3 days. This is risky. Did I pass the "I'MSAFE" checklist?

You land for fuel at Tiny City Airport. To remain within aircraft max gross weight, you can only fuel to a total of 30 gallons. A 30-gallon load will just enable you to make it home with the required reserve without another fuel stop. What are your thoughts for accurately measuring fuel?

Your answer must reflect your understanding of fuel measurement and consumption, and risk factors related to calculation of minimum fuel reserves. -A safe pilot does not depend on aircraft fuel gauges or leave the responsibility for fueling to the line attendants. -Risk increases if I have only "just enough" fuel to meet minimum fuel reserves. Am I familiar enough with this plane to accurately calculate fuel burn? -I could use a calibrated fuel stick (if available) to determine the fuel based on time rather than gallons. Ideally I could use a visual indication--such as fueling to the top or to the tabs, and then draining down as needed from there.

As a professional, commercial pilot, in what ways do you think you should alter your normal flight procedures when you are carrying passengers on board for hire?

Your answer should display your understanding of what it means to be a professional. Perhaps you do feel that normal flight procedures should be altered; however, most examiners want to hear that you always act professionally when flying, not just when carrying passengers for hire. Your answer could include: Theoretically, I would make no changes to my normal flight procedures. I fully prepare for every flight. I fully utilize al available resources, maintain my skills, and fly to the best of my abilities. Having said that, paying passengers expect me to be aware of their needs during flight and to communicate with them during the flight. They expect me to make in-flight decisions conservatively.

Tell me about the emergency equipment and survival gear you normally carry on board for routine flights?

Your answer should show your understanding of where most accidents occur, how quickly you could expect rescue operations, and the specific emergency equipment and survival gear you carry. Most accidents occur close to the home airport (which is where most flights occur). Rescue could easily take 48 hours or longer if I am not on a flight plan, and as a result, I would carry survival gear on routine flights. Specifically: -Water and shelter are required. -Basic first aid supplies are necessary. -A fire extinguisher is more than a luxury item. -The ELT battery may be activated manually.

Explain the following types of NOTAMs: (D) NOTAMS, FDC NOTAMs, Pointer NOTAMs, Military NOTAMs, SAA NOTAMs, and FICON NOTAMs.

a. (D) NOTAMs -- Information that requires wide dissemination via telecommunication and pertains to en route navigational aids, civil public-use airports listed in the AFD, facilities, services, and procedures. b. FDC NOTAMs -- Flight information that is regulatory in nature including, but not limited to, changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage. c. POINTER NOTAMs -- Issued by a flight service station to highlight or point out another NOTAM; such as an FDC NOTAM. These NOTAMs assist users in cross-referencing important information that may not be found under an airport or NAVAID identifier. d. MILITARY NOTAMs -- Pertain to US Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy navigational aids/airports that are part of the NAS. e. SAA NOTAMs -- Issued when Special Activity Airspace will be active outside the publishe d schedule times and when required by the published schedule. Pilots are still repsonsible for checking published schedule times for Special Activity Airspace as well as any NOTAMs for that airspace. f. FICON NOTAMs -- field conditions NOTAM; provide contaminant measurements for paved runways.

What are some recommended practices that can assist a pilot in maintaining situational awareness during taxi operations?

a. A current airport diagram should be available for immediate reference during taxi b. Monitor ATC instructions/clearances issued to other aircraft for the "big picture." c. Focus attention outside the cockpit while taxiing. d. Use all available resources (airport diagrams, airport signs, markings, lighting, and ATC) to keep the aircraft on its assigned taxi route. e. Cross-reference heading indicator to ensure turns are being made in the correct direction and that you're on the assigned taxi route. f. Prior to crossing any hold short line, visually check for conflicting traffic; verbalize "clear left, clear right." g. Be alert for other aircraft with similar call signs on the frequency. h. Understand and follow all ATC instructions and if in doubt--Ask!

What are several examples of aviation hazards?

a. A nick in the propeller blade b. Improper refueling of an aircraft c. Pilot fatigue d. Use of unapproved hardware on aircraft e. Weather

What factors affect the performance of an aircraft during takeoffs and landings?

a. Air density (density altitude) b. Surface wind c. Runway surface d. Upslope or downslope of runway e. Weight f. Powerplant thrust

What are examples of where an airplane would be operating in the region of reversed command?

a. An airplane performing a low airspeed, high-pitch attitude, powered approach for a short-field landing. b. A soft-field takeoff and climb where the pilot attempts to climb out of ground effect without first attaining normal climb pitch attitude and airspeed, is an example of inadvertently operating in the region of reversed command at a dangerously low altitude.

What are the components of a cabin pressure control system?

a. Cabin pressure regulator -- Controls cabin pressure to a selected value in the isobaric range and limits cabin pressure to a preset differential value in the differential range. b. Cabin air pressure safety valve -- A combination pressure relief, vacuum relief, and dump valve. -Pressure relief valve: prevents cabin pressure from exceeding a predetermined differential pressure above ambient pressure. -Vacuum relief valve: prevents ambient pressure from exceeding cabin pressure by allowing external air to enter the cabin when the ambient pressure exceeds cabin pressure. -Dump valve: actuated by a cockpit control which will cause the cabin air to be dumped to the atmosphere. c. Instrumentation -- Several instruments used in conjunction with the pressurization controller are: -Cabin differential pressure gauge -- Indicates difference between inside and outside pressure; should be monitored to ensure that the cabin does not exceed maximum allowable differential pressure. -Cabin altimeter -- This is a check on system performance. Sometimes differential pressure and cabin altimeter combined into one: -Cabin rate-of-climb -- Indicates cabin rate-of-climb or descent.

What factors can make a pilot more susceptible to hypoxia?

a. Carbon monoxide inhaled in smoking or from exhaust fumes b. Anemia (lowered hemoglobin) c. Certain medications d. Small amounts of alcohol e. Low doses of certain drugs (antihistamines, tranquilizers, sedatives, analgesics, etc.) Also, extreme heat or cold, fever, and anxiety increase the body's demand for oxygen, and hence its susceptibility to hypoxia.

What are several examples of common errors that can occur when using a checklist?

a. Checklist items are missed because of distraction or interruption b. Checklist items are incorrectly performed (hurrying checklist; reading item but not verifying or setting). c. Failure to use the appropriate checklist for a specific phase of flight. d. Too much time is spent with head down, reading the checklist and compromising safety. e. Checklist is not readily accessible in the cockpit. f. Emergency/abnormal procedures checklist is not readily available. g. Memory items are accomplished but not confirmed with the checklist.

What standards must you maintain when executing an accelerated stall?

a. Clear the area b. Select an entry altitude that will allow the task to be completed no lower than 3,000 ft AGL. c. Establish the configuration as specified by the evaluator. d. Set power appropriate for the configuration, such that the airspeed does not exceed the maneuvering speed (Va), flap extension speed (Vfe), landing gear extended speed (Vle), and any other POH/AFM limitation. e. Establish and maintain a coordinated turn in a 45 degree bank, increasing elevator back pressure smoothly and firmly until an impending stall is reached . f. Acknowledge the cues and recover promptly at the first indication of an impending stall (e.g., aircraft buffet, stall horn, etc.) g. Execute a stall recovery in accordance with procedures set forth in the POH/AFM h. Retract the flaps to the recommended setting, if applicable; retract the landing gear, if retractable, after a positive rate of climb is established. i. Accelerate to Vx or Vy speed before the final flap retraction; return to the altitude, heading, and airspeed specified by the evaluator

Give some examples of charts and reports useful in determining the potential for and location of thunderstorms along your route.

a. Convective Outlook (AC) -- a narrative and graphical outlook of areas of slight, moderate, or high risk of severe thunderstorms for a 24-hour period. b. Significant Weather Chart (SIGWX) -- provides a forecast of aviation weather hazards; depicts a snapshot of weather expected at the specified valid time. c. Weather Radar Observations -- (and their resultant images) are graphical displays of precipitation and non-precipitation targets detected by weather radars (NEXRAD). Regional and national radar mosaics can be found on the websites of the NWS, AWC, all NWS weather forecast offices (WFOs), as well as commercial aviation weather providers. d. Convective SIGMETs (WST) -- issued for any convective situation involving severe, embedded, and lines of thunderstorms. e. Pilot Reports (PIREPs) -- help determine actual conditions along your planned route of flight. f. Supplementary weather products -- can be used for enhanced situational awareness; supplementary weather products must only be used in conjunction with one or more NWS primary weather products.

What procedures should be used in avoiding wake turbulence when departing a runway and while enroute VFR?

a. Departing behind a larger aircraft: note the larger aircraft's rotation point, rotate prior to larger aircraft's rotation point. Continue climb above the larger aircraft's climb path until turning clear of its wake. b. Intersection takeoffs on the same runway: be alert to adjacent larger aircraft operations, particularly upwind of your runway. If intersection takeoff clearance is received, avoid a subsequent heading which will cross below the larger aircraft's path. e. Departing or landing after a larger aircraft executing a low approach, missed approach or touch-and-go landing: ensure that an interval of at least 2 minutes has elapsed before you take off or land. Because vortices settle and move laterally near the ground, the vortex hazard may continue to exist along the runway, particularly in light quartering wind situations. d. Enroute VFR (thousand foot altitude plus 500 feet): avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft's path. If a larger aircraft is observed above or on the same track (meeting or overtaking), adjust your position laterally, preferably upwind.

Are there any disadvantages associated with fuel-injected engines?

a. Difficulty in starting a hot engine b. Vapor locks during ground operations on hot days c. Problems associated with restarting an engine that quits because of fuel starvation

What are two common methods of checklist usage?

a. Do-Verify method: consists of the checklist being accomplished in a variable sequence without a preliminary challenge. After all of the action items on the checklist have been completed, the checklist is then read again while each item is verified. The DV method allows the pilot/flight crew to use flow patterns from memory to accomplish a series of actions quickly and efficiently. b. Challenge-Do-Verify method: consists of a pilot/crewmember making a challenge before an action is initiated, taking the action, and then verifying that the action item has been accomplished. The CDV method is most effective in two-pilot crews where one crewmember issues the challenge and the second crewmember takes the action and responds to the first crewmember, verifying that the action was taken.

Where can NOTAM information be obtained?

a. FSS b. DUATS vendors c. Notices to Airmen Publicaiton (NTAP) -- published every 28 days; data of a permanent nature can be published in the NTAP as an interim step between publication cycles of the Chart Supplement US an aeronautical charts. d. NOTAMs are available at the FAA website:

What are the two main advantages of a dual ignition system?

a. Increased safety -- in case one system fails the engine may be operated on the other until a landing is safely made. b. More complete and even combustion of the mixture, and consequently improved engine performance; i.e., the fuel/air mixture will be ignited on each side of the combustion chamber and burn toward the center.

A majority of controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) accidents have been attributed to what factors?

a. Lack of pilot currency b. Loss of situational awareness c. Pilot distractions and breakdown of SRM d. Failure to comply with minimum safe altitude e. Breakdown in effective ADM f. Insufficient planning, especially for the descent and arrival segments

What procedures should be used in avoiding wake turbulence when landing?

a. Landing behind a larger aircraft, on the same runway: stay at or above the larger aircraft's final approach flight path. Note its touchdown point and land beyond it. b. Landing behind a larger aircraft, on a parallel runway closer than 2,500 ft: consider possible drift to your runway. Stay at or above the larger aircraft's final approach flight path and note its touchdown point. c. Landing behind a larger aircraft on a crossing runway: cross above the larger aircraft's flight path. d. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft on the same runway: note the larger airccraft's rotation point, and land well before the rotation point. e. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft on a crossing runway: note the larger aircraft's rotation point. If it is past the intersection, continue the approach, and land prior to the intersection. If the larger aircraft rotates prior to the intersection, avoid flight below the larger aircraft's flight path. Abandon the approach unless a landing is ensured well before reaching the intersection.

When would a pilot lean a normally-aspirated direct-drive engine?

a. Lean anytime the power setting is 75 percent or less at any altitude. b. At high-altitude airports, lean for taxi, takeoff, traffic pattern entry and landing. c. When the density altitude is high (Hot, High, Humid). d. For landings at airports below 5,000 ft density altitude, adjust the mixture for descent, but only as required. e. Always consult the POH for proper leaning procedures.

During your preflight planning, what type of meteorological information should you be aware of with respect to icing?

a. Location of fronts -- the front's location, type, speed, and direction of movement. b. Cloud layers -- the location of cloud bases and tops; this is valuable when determining if you will be able to climb above icing layers or descend beneath those layers into warmer air; reference PIREPS and area forecasts. c. Freezing levels -- important when determining how to avoid icing and how to exit icing conditions if accidentally encountered. d. Air temperature and pressure -- icing tends to be found in low-pressure areas and at temperatures at or around freezing.

Describe several operational techniques that will help you avoid a CFIT accident.

a. Maintain situational awareness at all times. b. Adhere to safe takeoff and departure procedures. c. Familiarize yourself with surrounding terrain features and obstacles. d. Adhere to published routes and minimum altitudes. e. Fly a stabilized approach f. Understand ATC clearances and instructions. g. Don't become complacent.

What are the six types of signs installed on airports?

a. Mandatory instruction signs -- Red background/white inscription; denotes hazardous areas. b. Location signs -- Black background/yellow inscription; used to identify either a taxiway or runway on which an aircraft is located. c. Direction signs -- Yellow background/black inscription; identifies designation(s) of intersection taxiways leading out of intersection that pilot would expect to turn onto or hold short of. d. Destination signs -- Yellow background/black inscription; signs have arrow showing direction of taxi route to that destination. e. Information signs -- Yellow background/black inscription; provide pilot information on such things as areas that cannot be seen by control tower, radio frequencies, noise abatement procedures, etc. f. Runway distance remaining signs -- Black background with white numerical inscription; indicates distance (in thousands of feet) of landing runway remaining.

When attempting to avoid turbulence around thunderstorms, explain several operational procedures a pilot should never attempt.

a. Never land or take off in the face of an approaching thunderstorm. A sudden gust front of low-level turbulence could cause loss of control. b. Never attempt to fly under a thunderstorm even if you can see through to the other side. Turbulence and wind shear under the storm could be hazardous. c. Never attempt to fly under the anvil of a thunder storm. There is a potential for severe and extreme clear air turbulence. d. Never fly without airborne radar into a cloud mass containing scattered embedded thunderstorms. Scattered thunderstorms not embedded usually can be visually circumnavigated. e. Never trust the visual appearance to be a reliable indicator of the turbulence inside a thunderstorm. f. Never assume that ATC will offer radar navigation guidance or deviations around thunderstorms. g. Never use data-linked NEXRAD mosaic imagery as the sole means for negotiating a path through a thunderstorm area (tactical maneuvering).

What are the requirements to operate within Class A airspace?

a. Operated under IFR and in compliance with an ATC clearance received prior to entering the airspace; b. Equipped with instruments and equipment required for IFR operations; c. Flown by a pilot rated for instrument flight; and d. Equipped, when in Class A airspace, with: -A radio providing direct pilot/controller communication on the frequency specified by ATC in the area concerned; and -The applicable equipment specified in 14 CFR 91.215 (transponder regulations).

Explain the operation of a carburetor.

a. Outside air first flows through an air filter, usually located at an air intake in the front part of the engine cowling. b. The filtered air flows into the carburetor and through a venturi, a narrow throat in the carburetor. c. When the air flows through the venturi, a low-pressure area is created, which forces the fuel to flow through a main fuel jet located at the throat. d. The fuel then flows into the airstream where it is mixed with the flowing air. e. The fuel/air mixture is then drawn through the intake maniforl and into the combustion chambers where it is ignited.

What additional procedures can be used for maintaining situational awareness in technically advanced aircraft?

a. Perform verification checks of all programming prior to departure. b. Check the flight routing -- ensure all routing matches the planned route of flight. c. Always verify waypoints d. Make use of all onboard navigation equipment e. Match the use of the automated system with pilot proficiency -- stay within personal limitations. f. Plan a realistic flight route to maintain situational awareness -- ATC doesn't always give you direct routing. g. Be ready to verify computer data entries -- incorrect keystrokes can lead to loss of situational awareness.

What instruments are affected when the pitot tube freezes?

a. Pitot tube blocked and associated drain hole remains clear -- Airspeed decreases to zero, altimeter and vertical speed read normal. b. Pitot tube and drain hole blocked -- Airspeed indicator acts as an altimeter; reads high in climb and low in descent. Altimeter and vertical speed read normal.

Are there any exceptions allowed concerning portable electronic equipment on board aircraft? (14 CFR 91.21)

a. Portable voice recorders b. Hearing aids c. Heart pacemakers d. Electric shavers e. Any other portable electronic device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.

What is the recommended recovery procedure for a roll upset?

a. Reduce the angle of attack by increasing airspeed. If in a turn, roll wings level. b. Set appropriate power and monitor the airspeed and angle of attack. A controlled descent is a vastly better alternative than an uncontrolled descent. c. If flaps are extended, do not retract them unless it can be determined that the upper surface of the airfoil is clear of ice, because retracting the flaps will increase the AOA at a given airspeed. d. Verify that wing ice protection is functioning normally by visual observation of the left and right wing.

When flying an airplane without onboard thunderstorm detection equipment, describe procedures a pilot can take to avoid thunderstorms and/or the turbulence associated with them.

a. Remember that the data-linked NEXRAD mosaic imagery shows where the weather was, not where the weather is. The weather conditions may be 15 to 20 minutes older than the age indicated on the display. b. Listen to chatter on the ATC frequency for PIREPs and other aircraft requesting to deviate or divert. c. Ask ATC for radar navigation guidance or to approve deviations around thunderstorms, if needed. d. Use data-linked weather NEXRAD mosaic imagery (i.e., FIS-B) for route selection to avoid thunderstorms entirely (strategic maneuvering). e. Advise ATC, when switched to another controller, that you are deviating for thunderstorms before accepting to rejoin the original route. f. Always ensure that after an authorized weather deviation, before accepting to rejoin the original route, that the route of flight is clear of thunderstorms. g. Avoid by at least 20 miles any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving an intense radar echo. This is especially true under the anvil of a large cumulonimbus. h. Circumnavigate the entire area if the area has 6/10 thunderstorm coverage. i. Remember that vivid and frequency lightning indicates the probability of a severe thunderstorm.

Preflight planning for taxi operations should be an integral part of the pilot's flight planning process. What information should this include?

a. Review and understand airport signage, markings and lighting. b. Review the airport diagram, planned taxi route, and identify any "hot spots." c. Review the latest airfield NOTAMs and ATIS (if available) for taxiway/runway closures, construction activity, etc. d. Conduct a pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing that includes the expected/assigned taxi route and any hold short lines and restrictions based on ATIS information or previous experience at the airport. e. Plan for critical times and locations on the taxi route (complex intersections, crossing runways, etc.). f. Plan to complete as many aircraft checklist items as possible prior to taxi.

What are the various types of runway markings (precision instrument runway) and what do they consist of?

a. Runway designators -- Runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic azimuth of the centerline of the runway, measured clockwise from the magnetic north. b. Runway centerline marking -- Identifies the center of the runway and provides alignment guidance during takeoff and landings; consists of a line of uniformly-spaced stripes and gaps. c. Runway aiming point marking -- Serves as a visual aiming point for a landing aircraft; two rectangular markings consist of a broad white stripe located on each side of the runway centerline and approximately 1,000 ft from the landing threshold. d. Runway touchdown zone markers -- Identify the touchdown zone for landing operations and are coded to provide distance information in 500 ft increments; groups of one, two, and three rectangular bars symmetrically arranged in pairs about the runway centerline. e. Runway side stripe markings -- Delineate the edges of the runway and provide a visual contrast between runway and the abutting terrain or shoulders; continuous white stripes located on each side of the runway. f. Runway should markings -- May be used to supplement runway side stripes to identify pavement areas contiguous to the runway sides that are not intended for use by aircraft; painted yellow. g. Runway threshold markings -- Used to help identify the beginning of the runway that is available for landing. Two configurations: either eight longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline, or the number of stripes is related to the runway width.

Explain how runway surface and gradient affect performance.

a. Runway surface -- Any surface that is not hard and smooth will increase the ground roll during takeoff. This is due to the inability of the tires to smoothly roll along the runway. Although muddy and wet surface conditions can reduce friction between the runway and the tires, they can also act as obstructions and reduce the landing distance. b. Braking effectiveness -- The amount of power that is applied to the brakes without skidding the tires is referred to as braking effectiveness. Ensure that runways are adequate in length for takeoff acceleration and landing deceleration when less than ideal surface conditions are being reported, as it affects braking ability. c. Runway gradient or slope -- A positive gradient indicates that the runway height increases, and a negative gradient indicates that the runway decreases in height. An upsloping runway impedes acceleration and results in a longer ground run during takeoff. However, landing on an upsloping runway typically reduces the landing roll. A downsloping runway aids in acceleration on takeoff resulting in shorter takeoff distances. The opposite is true when landing, as landing on a downsloping runway increases landing distances.

What are some of the main elements of aircraft performance?

a. Takeoff and landing distance b. Rate-of-climb c. Ceiling d. Payload e. Range f. Speed g. Maneuverability h. Stability i. Fuel Economy

What equipment would be considered hydraulic on this aircraft?

a. The retractable landing gear b. The emergency hand pump c. The hydraulically-actuated brake on each main gear d. The air/oil nose gear shock strut

When receiving taxi instructions from a controller, pilots should always read back what information?

a. The runway assignment b. Any clearance to enter a specific runway c. Any instruction to hold short of a specific runway or line up and wait

What two factors should be considered in choosing the type of survival equipment to carry for a flight over an uninhabited area?

a. The type of climate b. The type of terrain

What are some basic operational advantages when conducting high-altitude operations?

a. True airspeeds increase with altitude b. Winds aloft are stronger providing tailwind opportunities e. Capability to see and avoid thunderstorms d. Better visibility e. Less turbulence f. Above the weather instead of in it g. Reduced chance for icing h. Conflicts with other air traffic reduced

When must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

a. Unless each occupant of the aircraft is weating an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds: -A bank of 60 degrees relative to the horizon; or -A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to the horizon b. This regulation does not apply to: -Flight tests for pilot certification or rating; or -Spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations for any certificate or rating when given by a certified flight instructor or an Airline Transport Pilot.

Climb performance is a result of using the aircraft's potential energy provided by one, or a combination of two, factors. What are those two factors?

a. Use of excess power above that required for level flight. An aircraft equipped with an engine capable of 200 horsepower (at a given altitude) but using 130 horsepower to sustain level flight (at a given airspeed) has 70 excess horsepower available for climbing. b. Use of the aircraft's kinetic energy. An aircraft can trade off its kinetic energy and increase its potential energy by reducing its airspeed. The reduction in airspeed will increase the aircraft's potential energy, making the aircraft climb.

What are some of the most common operational causes of detonation?

a. Using a lower fuel grade than that specified by the aircraft manufacturer. b. Operating with extremely high manifold pressures in conjunction with low RPM. c. Operating the engine at high power settings with an excessively lean mixture. d. Extended ground operations or steep climbs where cylinder cooling is reduced.

What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?

a. VOT Check +- 4 degrees b. Ground Checkpoint +- 4 degrees c. Airborne Checkpoint +- 6 degrees d. Dual VOR check; 4 degrees e. Select a radial over a known ground point; +- 6 degrees

What are the different types of rotating beacons used to identify airports?

a. White and green -- lighted land airport b. White and yellow -- lighted water airport c. Green, yellow, and white -- lighted heliport d. White (dual peaked) and green -- military airport

What are several recommended methods for managing checklist accomplishment?

a. the pilot should touch/point at each control, display or switch b. verbally state the desired status of the checklist item. c. when complete, announce that "______ checklist is complete."

_________-______ systems enable pilots to vary oxygen delivery according to altitude and the pressure in the oxygen tank. These systems can have one main control for setting the altitude. Adjustable flow can also be achieved on a constant-flow system by using an adjustable flow meter in the tube to each individual oxygen mask or cannula that is plugged into the system. Each person can adjust their own oxygen flow to the correct altitude using their own flow valve. An ______-___________ system is a further improvement of the adjustable-flow design. The system uses a barometric control regulator that automatically adjusts the rate of oxygen flow for the altitude. Because of its ease of use and efficiency, the altitude-compensated system is popular in high-performance airplanes.

adjustable-flow altitude-compensated

How does the vacuum system operate?

air is drawn into the vacuum system by the engine driven vacuum pump. it first goes through a filter, which prevents foreign matter from entering the vacuum pressure system. The air then moves through the attitude and heading indicators, where it causes the gyros to spin. A relief valve prevents the vacuum pressure, or suction, from exceeding prescribed limits. After that, the air is expelled overboard or used in other systems, such as for inflating pneumatic deicing boots.

A _____________-___________ ______________ enables you to obtain the best combination of manifold pressure and RPM in different phases of flight to achieve a high rate of climb, increase cruise airspeed, or extend endurance by reducing fuel consumption.

constant-speed propeller

If you're carrying portable oxygen on-board, or your airplane's limited to 25,000 feet, you'll most likely have a "_______-_________" oxygen system. If you're flying something that can get higher, you'll probably have a "________ __________" system. And, if you're going higher than 40,000 feet, you'll use a "_________-___________" system.

continuous-flow diluter demand pressure-demand

What function does the voltage regulator have?

controls the rate of charge to the battery by stabilizing the gen or alternator electrical output. The gen/alt voltage output is usually slighter higher than the battery voltage.

As an airplane with an automatic wastegate climbs, the wastegate gradually closes to maintain the maximum allowable manifold pressure. After the wastegate closes fully, further increases in altitude cause the manifold pressure to decrease. This altitude is reported by the aircraft manufacturer in the POH, and is called the aircraft's __________ _____________. If the manifold pressure begins decreasing before the aircraft reaches the critical altitude, you should have the engine and turbocharging system inspected by a qualified maintenance technician to determine why.

critical altitude

The ______-______ ________ occurs when the flight controls are crossed, meaning that rudder pressure is being applied in one direction while ailerons are applied in the opposite direction. The most likely time for this is during a poorly executed turn to final approach for a landing.

crossed-controlled stall

Above 25,000 feet, your re-breather mask can't keep the oxygen percentage high enough to keep you safe. Aircraft that operate above 25,000 feet and up to 40,000 feet use a "________-___________" oxygen system.

diluter-demand

Unlike a continuous-flow system, the __________-____________ mask doesn't constantly pump oxygen. Instead, it only supplies oxygen as you breathe. Since it automatically mixes oxygen and air only as you inhale, a __________-______________ system generally lasts longer than continuous flow.

diluter-demand diluter-demand

Stability in yaw, or resistance to undesired rotation around the vertical axis is called _______ _________. The vertical tail and the sides of the fuselage contribute forces that help to keep the airplane's longitudinal axis aligned with the relative wind.

directional stability

Pressurization systems include a ______ __________ that can depressurize the cabin in an emergency.

dump valve

The ________ _________ __________ uses an electric motor that is mechanically connected to the landing gear. The motor is reversible so that it can both raise and lower the gear and drives a series of rods, levers, cables, and bellcranks that form what is essentially a motorized jack.

electrical gear system

An _______ ______ ________ is most likely to occur during a go-around from a landing approach. As power is applied for the go-around, the normal tendency is for the nose to pitch up, and if positive pressure is not used to counteract the strong trim forces, the nose will continue to pitch up.

elevator trim stall

Water vapor is added to the atmosphere through __________ and _____________. ________________ occurs when heat is added to liquid water, changing it to gas. ______________ is the changing of ice directly to water vapor, bypassing the liquid state. Water vapor is removed from the atmosphere by ___________ and _____________. _____________ occurs when the air becomes saturated, and water vapor in the air becomes liquid. __________ is when water vapor freezes directly to ice. Of course, liquid water can also freeze, and ice can melt into liquid water.

evaporation and sublimation evaporation sublimation condensation and deposition condensation deposition

As a reminder to pilots, most airplanes with retractable gear have a __________ _________ _________ that will sound when the airplane is configured for landing and the gear is not down and locked. Usually, the horn is linked to some combination of throttle setting, flap position, or airspeed indication. If the system detects that the gear is retracted when the airplane is at an airspeed, power setting, or flap setting that would be used for landing, the warning horn sounds. The horn generally sounds different than the stall warning horn, so that you know it is a gear warning.

gear warning horn

The range of possible blade angles for a constant-speed propeller is called the propeller's ___________ _________ and is defined by the limits of the blade's travel between high and low blade angle pitch stops.

governing range

A _________ ________ _________ is often found on airplanes with electric gear systems. The crank is employed to turn the gears that operate the actuators manually instead of through the electric motor. If you fly an airplane with a hydraulic system, you might use a __________ __________ _____________ _____________ to extend the gear when the primary pump fails. You supply the necessary hydraulic fluid pressure to the actuator cylinders by pumping a hand pump. A __________ ____________ is another method of gear extension used on airplanes that have hydraulic gear systems. A control lever is used to open a valve that releases the system pressure. Hydraulic pressure equalizes on both sides of the gear actuators and allows the landing gear to fall into position through the force of gravity and aerodynamic loads. In the ___________ __________ ____________ ___________, compressed gas is used to apply the pressure to extend the gear if the hydraulic part of a gear system fails.

hand crank system hydraulic hand pump system freefall system carbon dioxide pressurized system

Other airplanes utilize a __________ _________ ________ to actuate the linkages that raise and lower the gear. When you move the gear switch to the retract position, hydraulic fluid, like that used in brake systems, is pressurized and directed into the gear-up line. The fluid flows through sequence valves and downlocks to the nose gear and main gear actuating cylinders. A similar process occurs during gear extension. The pump that pressurizes the fluid in the system can be either engine driven or electrically powered. If an electrically powered pump is used, the system is referred to as an ____________ ________________. A hydraulic fluid reservoir contains any excess fluid. The reservoirs have dipsticks or other means to check the fluid level before flight.

hydraulic gear system electrohydraulic system

What is a "pressurized" aircraft?

in a pressurized aircraft, the cabin, flight compartment, and baggage compartments are incorporated into a sealed unit which is capable of containing air under a pressure higher than outside atmospheric pressure. Air is pumped into the cabin by cabin superchargers and released by a device called a outflow valve. On aircraft powered by turbine engines, bleed air form the engine compressor section is used to pressurize the cabin, and piston-powered aircraft may use air supplied from each engine turbocharger through a sonic venturi. Since the superchargers provide a constant inflow of air to the pressurized area, the outflow valve, by regulating the air exit, is the major controlling element in the pressurization system.

What does the ammeter indicate?

it shows if the alternator/generator is producing an adequate supply electrical power to the system by measuring the amperes of electricity, and also indicates whether the battery is reeving an electrical charge. If the needle indicates a plus value, it means that the battery is being charged. If the needle indicate a minus value, it means that the generator or alternator output is inadequate and energy is beng drawn from the batter to supply the system.

Stability around the longitudinal axis, or ______ ______, is the tendency of the airplane to return to a wings-level attitude following a roll deviation.

lateral stability

The _______ ____ is defined as the load the wings are supporting divided by the total weight of the airplane.

load factor

A high performance airplane's power is typically measured by the amount of air pressure in the intake manifold. This pressure is referred to as the ____________ _____________ ___________. A __________ __________ __________ measures the MAP in the intake system in inches of mercury (Hg), and often includes colored range marks to indicate the engine's operating limits.

manifold absolute pressure (MAP) manifold pressure gauge

For a flight below 18,000 ft MSL, a _________ ________ is a popular alternative to an oronasal mask. Some of the advantages of a cannula are an unrestricted ability to eat, drink, and talk, as well as the ability to use a standard headset and microphone.

nasal cannula

The most common oxygen mask used with the continuous-flow system is an ____________ ___________ design. Oronasal simply means that the face mask covers both the nose and mouth, while rebreather refers to the fact that oxygen is diluted with a portion of exhaled air, and is then re-inhaled. Re-inhaling a diluted mixture wastes less oxygen and extends the duration of the oxygen supply.

oronasal rebreather

Define parasite drag.

parasite drag is the part of total drag created by the form or shape of airplane parts. if airspeed is doubled, parasite drag is quadrupled. It is the drag that is not associated with the production of lift and includes the displacement of the air by the aircraft, turbulence generated in the airstream, or a hindrance of air moving over the surface of the aircraft and airfoil. There are three types of parasite drag: form drag, interference drag, and skin friction drag.

The angle between the chord line of the propeller blade and the relative wind is the ________ _______. Because the forward speed of the airplane reduces the pitch angle, a fixed-pitch propeller produces less thrust the faster the airplane goes.

pitch angle.

How does a pressure demand oxygen system operate?

pressure demand oxygen systems are similar to diluter demand oxygen equipment, except that oxygen is supplied to the mask under pressure at the cabin altitudes above 34,000 ft. pressure demand regulators create airtight and oxygen tight seals, but that also provide a postive pressure application of oxygen to the mask face piece that allows the users lungs to be pressurized with oxygen, this makes them safe at altitudes above 40,000 ft. Some systems may have a pressure demand mask with the regulator attached directly to the mask, rather than mounted on the instrument panel or other area within the flight deck.

A __________-____________ system forces pressurized oxygen into your lungs as you breathe. The high pressure, combined with 100% oxygen, keeps the oxygen's partial pressure high enough for your lungs to absorb a safe level of O2.

pressure-demand

Most retractable landing gear systems incorporate a switch that prevents the retraction of the gear when the airplane is on the ground. The ____ ________, sometimes referred to as a __________ ___________, is usually installed on one of the main gear struts. When the strut is compressed, the switch disconnects the electrical circuit to the motor or mechanism that powers retraction. That way, if you move the gear switch in the cockpit to the UP position when weight is on the gear, such as during taxi, the gear does not retract and the gear warning horn sounds as an alert to the unsafe condition.

safety switch squat switch

To regulate the amount of air pressure in the cabin, an ___________ ________ opens and closes to allow the pressurized air to vent out of the cabin at a controlled rate. Another valve, the _______/_________ __________, vents the pressurized air overboard if the outflow valve fails. This valve is similar in design to the outflow valve, but is set to open at a higher cabin differential pressure--it opens automatically when the maximum cabin differential pressure is exceeded.

safety/dump valve

If you pull up too quickly during recovery from a stall, you can trigger a _________ ___________. This usually happens as a result of an attempt to hasten a stall recovery, either by increasing the angle of attack too quickly, or by not decreasing the angle of attack enough in the first place.

secondary stall

If an airplane has strong directional stability relative to its lateral stability, it might display _______ _____. When a bump or gust produces a side slip in an airplane with spiral instability, its powerful directional stability tends to yaw the airplane back into alignment with the relative wind. As the outside wing travels faster it generates more lift, tending to roll the airplane in the direction of the yaw. This rolling force overcomes the relatively weak dihedral effect, allowing the roll to progress. As the vertical component of lift decreases, the relative wind has an upward component, and as the airplane swings into alignment with the airstream, the nose begins to drop. This results in a gradually tightening spiral dive known as the graveyard spiral. Despite the name, which dates from the days when pilots attempted flight into IFR conditions without adequate instruments, spiral instability is generally considered less objectionable than Dutch roll. A certain degree of spiral instability is considered acceptable, so designers usually try to minimize Dutch roll by placing more emphasis on directional stability.

spiral instability

The ratio of the root chord to the tip chord is the __________ of the wing. Rectangular wings have a taper ratio of one, and delta wings have a taper of zero. One of the first things aeronautical engineers realized is that the area of a wing nearest the fuselage does most of the lifting, but the wingtips provide relatively little lift. They learned that tapering the wing saved precious weight and distributed the load more efficiently.

taper

Adding the induced drag to the parasite drag gives ____ ______.

total drag

A turbocharger has two main components--the ____________ section and the __________ section. In the ______ section, the engine's exhaust gases drive a turbine wheel, which turns the impeller's drive shaft. The __________ section draws air into the compressor section, where the impeller compresses it to produce high pressure, high density air, which is delivered to the cylinders. Forcing too much air into the cylinders can cause detonation and severe engine damage. A valve called a ____________ is usually installed to control the amount of boost by varying the amount of exhaust that flows through the turbine. When closed, the waste gate routes most of the exhaust gases through the turbine. When open, the wastegate allows the exhaust to bypass the turbine and flow directly out through the exhaust pipe. Some wastegates are manually controlled by the pilot, and others are automatically controlled. At relatively low altitudes, if all of the pressure of the exhaust is used to drive the turbine, the compressor provides too much intake air pressure. Using a manifold pressure that exceeds the engine's limitations is called ______________.

turbine compressor turbine compressor wastegate overboost

_____________ compresses intake air before it enters the combustion chamber, providing a much higher manifold pressure than on a nonturbocharged engine. This higher manifold pressure allows you to climb higher and attain higher true airspeeds. You can often climb above adverse weather.

turbocharging

You are currently en route to your destination and the sun has set. When can you begin logging flight time as "night" flight time?

"Night" is defined as the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac and converted to local time. All flight time that occurs during this period of time is considered "night" flight time.

What regulations apply to medical certification?

14 CFR Part 67 -- Medical Standards and Certifications

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

15 degrees C and 29.92" Hg.

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only...

30 days after the date of the move.

What is a Kinds of Operations Equipment List (KOEL)? (23.1583)

A Kinds of Operations Equipment List (KOEL) identifies the systems and equipment upon which type certification for each kind of operation was predicated (i.e., day or night VFR, day or night IFR, icing conditions) and which must be installed and operable for the particular kind of operation indicated. The KOEL is located in the Limitations section of the FAA-approved airplane flight manual.

What are Special Airworthiness Information Bulletins? Are they regulatory?

A Special Airworthiness Information Bulletin (SAIB) is an information tool that alerts, educates, and makes recommendations to the aviation community. SAIBs contain non-regulatory information and guidance that does not meet the criteria for an airworthiness direction (AD). Guidance on when to use an SAIB and how to develop and issue an SAIB is provided in FAA Order 8110.100. Additional information can be found at http://rgl.faa.gov/

What are "Special Flight Permits," and when are they necessary (91.213, 21.197)

A Special Flight Permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight. These permits are typically issued for the following purposes: a. Flying an aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of storage. b. Delivering or exporting an aircraft. c. Production flight testing new-production aircraft. d. Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger. e. Conducting customer demonstration flights in new-production aircraft that have satisfactorily completed production flight tests.

Discuss what qualifies as a commercial pilot operation.

A commercial pilot intending to conduct operations as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire should look cautiously at any proposal for revenue operating flights. The following facts should be considered: a. Part 61 states that you may be paid for acting as PIC of an aircraft engaged in carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. However, Part 61 does not mention that if you are acting completely by yourself, you could be considered a commercial operator, and as such, be subject to an entirely different set of regulations. b. A commercial pilot certificate by itself does not allow you to act as a commercial operator. It only allows you to work for a commercial operator and be paid for your service, with certain exceptions. c. As a commercial pilot, certain commercial operations are allowed without being in possession of an "Operating Certificate." Examples of such operations include student instruction, certain nonstop sightseeing flights, ferry or training flights, aerial work operations including crop dusting, banner towing, aerial photography, powerline or pipeline patrol, etc. These operations are listed in 14 CFR 119.1. Exam Tip: During the practical test, your knowledge of commercial pilot privileges and limitations will be evaluated. Know the pertinent regulations well, with emphasis on 14 CFR 61.133, 91.147, 119.1, 135.1 and Part 136. Also recommended is a review of FAA Advisory Circular (AC) 120-12, Private Carriage versus Common Carriage of Persons or Property, located in Appendix 1 of this guide.

What is the definition of a complex airplane? (61.1)

A complex airplane is defined as an airplane that has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller, including airplanes equipped with an engine control system consisting of a digital computer and associated accessories for controlling the engine and propeller, such as a full authority digital engine control (FADEC).

To act as pilot-in-command of a high-performance aircraft, what flight experience requirements must be met? (14 CFR 61.31)

A high-performance airplane is an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower. To act as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane, a person must have: a. Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane; and b. Been found proficient in the operation and systems of that airplane; and c. Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a high-performance airplane.

If your route of flight takes you toward a low-pressure system, in general what kind of weather can you expect? What if you were flying toward a high-pressure system?

A low-pressure system is characterized by rising air, which is conducive to cloudiness, precipitation and bad weather. A high-pressure system is an area of descending air, which tends to favor dissipation of cloudiness and good weather.

What privileges apply to a commercial pilot?

A person who holds a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft: a. Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. b. For compensation or hire. Note: 14 CFR 61.133 also states that a commercial pilot must be qualified and comply with the applicable parts of the regulations that apply to the particular operation being conducted (for example, Part 91 or 135).

What is a "ridge?"

A ridge (also called a ridge line) is an elongated area of relatively high atmospheric pressure. Air moving out of a high or ridge depletes the quantity of air; therefore, these are areas of descending air. Descending air favors dissipation of cloudiness; hence the association of high pressure and good weather.

What is the duration of a second-class medical certificate for operations requiring a commercial pilot certificate? (61.23)

A second-class medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of the 12th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on the certificate for operations requiring a commercial certificate.

What class of medical certificate is required for commercial pilots? (61.23)

A second-class medical certificate is required in order to exercise commercial pilot privileges.

What is a supplemental type certificate?

A supplemental type certificate (STC) is the FAA's approval of a major change in the type design of a previously approved type-certificated product. The certificate authorizes an alteration to an airframe, engine, or component that has been granted an approved type certificate. Sometimes alterations are made that are not specified or authorized in the TCDS. When that condition exists, an STC will be issued. STCs are considered a part of the permanent records of an aircraft and should be maintained as part of that aircraft's logs.

What is a "trough"?

A trough (also called a trough line) is an elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure. At the surface, when air converges into a low, it cannot go outward against the pressure gradient, and it cannot go downward into the ground; it must go upward. Therefore, a low or trough is an area of rising air. Rising air is conducive to cloudiness and precipitation; hence the general association of low pressure and bad weather.

What are two types of ADs?

ADs are divided into two categories: Those of an emergency nature requiring immediate compliance prior to further flight, and those of a less urgent nature requiring compliance within a specified period of time.

When would a commercial pilot be required to hold a type rating? (61.31)

According to 14 CFR 61.31, a person who acts as a pilot-in-command of any of the following aircraft must hold a type rating for that aircraft: a. Large aircraft (gross weight over 12,500 pounds, except lighter-than-air) b. Turbojet-powered airplanes c. Other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft type certificate procedures.

When may a commercial pilot log flight time as second-in-command time? (61.51)

According to 14 CFR 61.51, a pilot may log second-in-command time only for that flight time during which that person: a. Is qualified according to the second-in-command requirements of 14 CFR 61.55, and occupies a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the aircraft's type certificate; or b. Holds the appropriate category, class, and instrument rating (if an instrument rating is required for the flight) for the aircraft being flown, and more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted.

What documents are required on board an aircraft prior to flight? (91.203, 91.9)

Airworthiness Certificate Registration Certificate Radio Station License (if operating outside of U.S.; an FCC regulation) Operating Limitations -- AFM/POH and supplements, placards, markings Weight and Balance Data -- current Compass Deviation Card External Data Plate/Serial Number

If the annual inspection date has passed, can an aircraft be operated to a location where the inspection can be performed?

An aircraft overdue for an annual inspection may be operated under a Special Flight Permit issued by the FAA for the purpose of flying the aircraft to a location where the annual inspection can be performed. However, all applicable ADs that are due must be complied with before the flight.

What is an airworthiness certificate?

An airworthiness certificate is issued by the FAA to all aircraft that have been proven to meet the minimum requirements of 14 CFR Part 21 and that are in condition for safe operation. Under any circumstances, the aircraft must meet the requirements of the original type certificate or it is no longer airworthy. Airworthiness certificates come in two different classifications: standard airworthiness and special airworthiness.

What are "airworthiness directives?"

An airworthiness directive (AD) is the medium the FAA uses to notify aircraft owners and other potentially interested persons of unsafe conditions that may exist because of design defects, maintenance, or other causes, and to specify the conditions under which the product may continue to be operated. ADs are regulatory in nature, and compliance is mandatory. It is the aircraft's owner's or operator's responsibility to ensure compliance with al pertinent ADs.

When are emergency ADs issued?

An emergency AD is issued when an unsafe condition exists that requires immediate action by an owner/operator. The intent of an emergency AD is to rapidly correct an urgent safety-of-flight situation. All known owners and operators of affected U.S.-registered aircraft or those aircraft that are known to have an affected product installed will be sent a copy of an emergency AD. Exam Tip: ADs and Recurring ADs--Be capable of finding and explaining the status of all ADs and recurring ADs that exist for your aircraft. Locate and tab prior to the practical test.

What are "isobars?"

An isobar is a line on a weather chart which connects areas of equal or constant barometric pressure.

What is ATIS?

Automatic Terminal Information Service -- the continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information in selected high activity terminal areas. Its purpose is to improve controller effectiveness and to relieve frequency congestion by automating the repetitive transmission of essential but routine information. The information is continuously broadcast over a discrete VHF radio frequency or the voice portion of a local NAVAID, and updated upon the receipt of any official hourly and special weather.

Explain the difference between being "current" and being "proficient."

Being "current" means that a pilot has accomplished the minimum FAA regulatory requirements within a specific time period to exercise the privileges of their certificate. It means that the pilot is "legal to make a flight, but it does not necessarily mean that the pilot is proficient or competent to make that flight. Being "proficient" means that a pilot is capable of conducting a flight with a high degree of competence or skill, and it requires that the pilot have a wide range of knowledge and skills. Being proficient is not about just being "legal" in terms of the regulations, but about being "smart" and "safe" in terms of pilot experience and proficiency.

Describe the different types of fronts.

COLD FRONT- occurs when a mass of cold, dense, and stable air advances and replaces a body of warmer air OCCLUDED FRONT- Fast moving cold front catches up with a slow-moving warm front. Two types: cold front occlusion and warm front occlusion WARM FRONT- Boundary area formed when a warm air mass contacts and flows over a colder air mass STATIONERY FRONT- When the forces of two air masses are relatively equal, the boundary or front that separates them remains stationery and influences the local weather for days

Define the term "private carriage."

Carriage for hire that does not involve holding out is "private carriage." Private carriage for hire is a carriage for one or several selected customers, generally on a long-term basis. The number of contracts must not be too great, otherwise it implies a willingness to make a contract with anybody. A carrier operating with 18 to 24 contracts has been labeled a common carrier because it has held itself out to serve the general public to the extent of its facilities. Private carriage has been found in cases where three contracts have been the sole basis of the operator's business. But the number of contracts is not the determining factor when assessing whether a particular operation is common carriage or private carriage; any proposal for revenue-generating flights that would most likely require certification as an air carrier should be examined closely if you intend to practice private carriage.

With respect to certification, privileges, and limitations of airmen, define the terms "Category," "Class," and "Type."

Category--a broad classification of aircraft (e.g., airplane, rotorcraft, glider, etc.) Class--a classification of aircraft within a category having similar operating characteristics (e.g., single-engine land, multi-engine land, etc.) Type--a specific make and basic model of aircraft including modifications that do not change its handling or flight characteristics (e.g., DC-9, B-737, etc.)

What are the general characteristics of the weather a pilot would encounter when operating near a cold front? A warm front?

Cold Front -- As the front passes, expected weather can include towering cumulus or cumulonimbus, heavy rain accompanied by lightning, thunder and/or hail; tornadoes possible; during passage, poor visibility, winds variable and gusting; temperature/dew point and barometric pressure drop rapidly. Warm Front -- As the front passes, expected weather can include stratiform clouds, drizzle, low ceilings and poor visibility; variable winds; rise in temperature. Note: The weather associated with a front depends on the amount of moisture available, the degree of stability of the air that is forced upward, the slope of the front, the speed of frontal movement, and the upper wind flow.

What does the term "commercial operator" refer to?

Commercial operator means a person who, for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier or foreign air carrier or under the authority of 14 CFR Part 375. Where it is doubtful that an operation is for "compensation or hire," the test applied is whether the carriage by air is merely incidental to the person's other business or is, in itself, a major enterprise for profit.

Define the term "common carriage."

Common carriage refers to the carriage of passengers or cargo as a result of advertising the availability of the carriage to the public. A carrier becomes a common carrier when it "holds itself out" to the public, or a segment of the public, as willing to furnish transportation within the limits of its facilities to any person who wants it. There are four elements in defining a "common carrier": a. A holding out or a willingness to b. transport persons or property c. From place to place d. For compensation.

What does "dew point" mean?

Dew point is the temperature to which a sample of air must be cooled to attain the state of saturation.

Is a commercial pilot required to log all flight time? (61.51)

Each person must document and record, in a manner acceptable to the Administrator, the training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating or flight review of 14 CFR Part 61. They must also document and record the aeronautical experience required for meeting the recent flight experience requirements of Part 61.

When logging flight time in your logbook, what minimum information is required for each entry? (61.51)

Each person must enter the following information for each flight or lesson logged: a. General--date; total flight time or lesson time; location where the aircraft departed and arrived, or for lessons in a flight simulator or flight training device, the location where the lesson occurred. b. Type of pilot experience or training--solo; pilot-in-command; second-in-command; flight and ground training received from an authorized instructor; training received in a flight simulator. flight training device, or aviation training device from an authorized instructor. c. Conditions of flight--day or night; actual instrument; simulated instrument conditions in flight, a flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device.

While you are performing a preflight inspection on your aircraft, an inspector from the FAA introduces herself and says she wants t conduct a ramp inspection. What documents are you required to show the inspector? (61.3)

Each person who holds an airman certificate, medical certificate, authorization, or license required by 14 CFR Part 61 must present it and their photo identification for inspection upon a request from the Administrator; an authorized NTSB representative; any federal, state, or local law enforcement officer; or an authorized representative of the TSA.

What is a "flight information service" (FIS)?

Flight Information Service - Broadcast (FIS-B): ground broadcast service provided through the Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast (ADS-B) services network over the 928 MHz UAT data link. Provides properly-equipped aircraft with flightdeck display of aviation weather and aeronautical information.

What instruments and equipment are required for VFR night flight? (91.205)

For VFR flight at night, all the instruments and equipment for VFR day flight are required, plus the following: Fuses -- one spare set or three fuses of each kind required accessible to the pilot in flight Landing light -- if the aircraft is operated for hire Anticollision light systems -- approved aviation red or white Position lights -- (navigation lights) Source of electrical energy -- adequate for all installed electrical and radio equipment

What instruments and equipment are required for VFR day flight? (91.205)

For VFR flight during the day, the following instruments and equipment are required: Anticollision Light System -- aviation red or white for small airplanes certificated after March 11, 1996 Tachometer for each engine Oil pressure gauge for each engine Manifold Pressure Gauge (for each altitude engine, i.e., turbocharged) Altimeter Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine Oil Temperature Gauge for each air-cooled engine Fuel gauge indicating the quantity in each tank Flotation gear -- if operated for hire over water beyond power-off gliding distance from shore Landing gear position indicator, if the airplane has retractable gear Airspeed indicator Magnetic direction indicator Emergency locator transmitter Safety belts

What is HIWAS?

Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service is a continuous broadcast of in-flight weather advisories including summarized aviation weather warnings, SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, CWAs, AIRMETS, and urgent PIREPs.

Define "holding out."

Holding out implies offering to the public the carriage of persons and property for hire either intrastate or interstate. This holding out that makes a person a common carrier can be done in many ways, and it does not matter how it is done. a. Signs and advertising are the most direct means of holding out but are not the only ones. b. A holding out may be accomplished through the actions of agents, agencies, or salesmen who may obtain passenger traffic from the general public and collect them into groups to be carried by the operator. c. Physically holding out without advertising, yet gaining a reputation to "serve all," is sufficient to constitute an offer to carry all customers. For example, the expression of willingness to all customers with whom contact is made that the operator can and will perform the requested service is sufficient. It makes no difference if the holding out generates little success; the issue is the nature and character of the operation. d. A carrier holding itself out as generally willing to carry only certain kinds of traffic is nevertheless a common carrier.

During the preflight inspection in an aircraft that doesn't have a MEL, you notice that an instrument or equipment item is inoperative. Describe how you will determine if the aircraft is still airworthy for flight.

I will ask myself the following questions to determine if I can legally fly the airplane with the inoperative equipment item: a. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment part of the VFR-day type certification? b. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment listed as "Required" on the aircraft's equipment list or "Kinds of Operations Equipment List (KOEL)" for the kind of flight operation being conducted? c. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment required by 14 CFR 91.205, 91.207, or any other rule of 14 CFR Part 91 for the specific kind of flight operation being conducted (e.g., VFR, IFR, day, night)? d. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment required to be operational by an airworthiness directive (AD)? If the answer is "Yes" to any of these questions, the aircraft is not airworthy and maintenance is required before I can fly. If the answer is "No" to all of these questions, then the inoperative instruments or equipment must be removed (by an A&P) from the aircraft or be deactivated and placarded "Inoperative." Exam Tip: If an instrument or equipment item is inoperative in your aircraft, be able to explain how you will determine if the aircraft is airworthy and legal for flight.

How are Special Flight Permits obtained?

If a special flight permit is needed, assistance and the necessary forms may be obtained from the local FSDO or Designated Airworthiness Representative (DAR).

What type of information is provided in an ATIS broadcast?

Information includes the time of the latest weather sequence, ceiling, visibility, obstructions to visibility, temperature, dew point (if available), wind direction (magnetic), and velocity, altimeter, other pertinent remarks, instrument approach and runway in use.

State the general characteristics in regard to the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the northern hemisphere.

Low pressure -- inward, upward, and counterclockwise High Pressure -- outward, downward, and clockwise

Describe the various types of weather observing programs now in use.

Manual observations -- Reports made from airport locations staffed by FAA or NWS personnel. AWOS -- Automated Weather Observing System; consists of various sensors, a processor, a computer-generated voice system and a transmitter to broadcast local, minute-by-minute weather data directly to the pilot. Observations will include prefix AUTO in data. AWOS broadcasts -- In addition to the AWOS computer-generated voice, some systems are configured to permit station personnel to append the automated report with an operator-generated message. ASOS/AWSS -- Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS)/Automated Weather Sensor System (AWSS), the primary surface weather observing system of the US provides the continuous minute-by-minute observations necessary to generate METARs and other aviation weather information. The information may be transmitted over a discrete VHF radio frequency or the voice portion of a local NAVAID.

Most of the Earth's weather occurs in what region of the atmosphere?

Most of the Earth's weather occurs in the troposphere, which begins at the Earth's surface and extends up to approximately 36,000 ft. As the gases in this layer decrease with height, the air becomes thinner and the temperature decreases from about 15 degrees C to -56.5 degrees C.

To act as pilot-in-command of a tailwheel airplane, what flight experience requirements must be met? (61.31)

No person may act as pilot-in-command of a tailwheel airplane unless that person has received and logged flight training from an authorized instructor in a tailwheel airplane and received an endorsement in the person's logbook from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a tailwheel airplane. The flight training must include at least the following maneuvers and procedures: normal and crosswind takeoffs and landings, wheel landings and go-around procedures.

Can a commercial pilot carry passengers in a restricted, limited, or experimental category aircraft?

No person may operate a restricted, limited, or experimental category aircraft carrying persons or property for hire.

Can a commercial pilot carry a passenger in an aircraft operated in formation flight? (91.111)

No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight

What regulations apply concerning the operation of an aircraft that has had alterations or repairs that may substantially affect its operation in flight? (91.407)

No person may operate or carry passengers in any aircraft that has undergone maintenance, preventative maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration that may have appreciable changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until an appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilot certificate a. flies the aircraft; b. makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made; and c. logs the flight in the aircraft records.

Does an airworthiness certificate have an expiration date?

No. A standard airworthiness certificate remains valid for as long as the aircraft meets its approved type design, is in a condition for safe operation, and the maintenance, preventative maintenance, and alterations are performed in accordance with 14 CFR Parts 21, 43, and 91.

As a flight crewmember, you discover you have high blood pressure. You are in possession of a current medical certificate. Can you continue to exercise the privileges of your certificate? (14 CFR 61.53)

No; the regulations prohibit a pilot who possesses a current medical certificate from performing crewmember duties while the pilot has a known medical condition or an increase of a known medical condition that would make the pilot unable to meet the standards for the medical certificate. Consult an AME before flying again.

Briefly describe 14 CFR Parts 117, 119, 121, 125, 135, 136, and 137.

Part 117--Flight and Duty Limitations and Rest Requirements: Flight Crewmembers Part 119--Certification: Air Carriers and Commercial Operators Part 121--Operating Requirements: Domestic, Flag, and Supplemental Operations Part 125--Certification and Operations: Airplanes having a seating capacity of 20 or more passengers or a maximum payload capacity of 6,000 lbs or more. Part 135--Operating Requirements: Commuter and On-Demand Operations Part 136--Commercial Air Tours and National Parks Air Tour Management Part 137--Agricultural Aircraft Operations

What are some examples of non-common carriage operations that involve the transportation of persons or property and may involve compensation, but are conducted under Part 91?

Part 91 Subpart F applies to large and turbine-powered multiengine airplanes and fractional ownership program aircraft. 14 CF 91.501 sets conditions on the amount and types of compensation for these operations. Examples include: a. Flights conducted by the operator of an airplane for the operator's own personal transportation, or the transportation of guests. b. Carriage of company officials, employees, and guests on an airplane operated under a time sharing, interchange, or joint ownership agreement. c. Carriage of property (except mail) incidental to business (limited compensation for expenses). d. Carriage of a group (with common purpose) when there is no charge, assessment or fee. e. Fractional ownership

How can flying an unfamiliar aircraft or an aircraft with unfamiliar avionics or flight display systems increase the total risk of a flight?

Pilot familiarity with all equipment is critical in optimizing both safety and efficiency. If a pilot is unfamiliar with any aircraft systems, this will add to workload and may contribute to a loss of situational awareness. This level of proficiency is critical and should be looked upon as a requirement, not unlike carrying an adequate supply of fuel. As a result, pilots should consider unfamiliarity with the aircraft and its systems a hazard with high risk potential. Discipline is key to success.

Does the weather data provided by commercial and/or third-party vendors satisfy the preflight action required by 14 CFR 91.103?

Pilots and operators should be aware that weather services provided by entitites other than the FAA, NWS, or their contractors (such as the DUATS and Lockheed Martin Flight Services DUATS II) might not meet FAA/NWS quality control standards. All operators and pilots contemplating using such services should request and/or review an appropriate description of services and provider disclosure. When in doubt, consult with an FAA Flight Service Specialist.

How ill establishing a personal minimums checklist reduce risk?

Professional pilots live by the numbers, and so should you. Pre-established hard numbers can make it a lot easier to make a smart go/no-go or divert decision than does a vague sense that you can "probably" deal with the conditions you face at any given time. In addition, a written set of personal minimums can make it easier to explain tough decisions to passengers who are, after all, trusting their lives to your aeronautical skill and judgement. Exam Tip: The evaluator will ask if you have established your own personal minimums. Prior to the checkride, complete a personal minimums worksheet if you have not already done so.

Determine if either of the following two scenarios are common carriage operations and, if so, why?

Scenario 1: I am a local businessman and require a package to be flown to a distant destination ASAP. I will pay you to fly my airplane to deliver this package. Scenario 2: I am a local businessman and require a package to be flown to a distant destination ASAP. You reply that you can do the job for a fee. You promptly line up a local rental aircraft you're checked out in and deliver the package. Scenario 2 would be considered a common carriage operation because you are holding out by indicating a general willingness to all customers with whom contact is made to transport persons or property from place to place for compensation.

What type of weather briefings are available from an FSS briefer?

Standard Briefing--Request anytime you are planning a flight and you have not received a previous briefing or have not received preliminary information through mass-dissemination media; e.g., TIBS, TWEB, etc. Abbreviated Briefing--Request when you need information to supplement mass-disseminated data, update a previous briefing, or when you need only one or two items. Outlook Briefing--Request whenever your proposed time of departure is six or more hours from the time of the briefing. This is for planning purposes only. Inflight Briefing -- Request when needed to update a preflight briefing.

If an aircraft has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours, under what condition may it continue to operate beyond the 100 hours without a new inspection? (91.409)

The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.

What is a type certificate data sheet?

The FAA issues a type certificate when a new aircraft, engine, propeller, etc., is found to meet safety standards set forth by the FAA. The type certificate data sheet (TCDS) lists the specifications, conditions and limitations under which airworthiness requirements were met for the specified product, such as engine make and model, fuel type, engine limits, airspeed limits, maximum weight, minimum crew, etc.

What are Minimum Equipment Lists?

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is a precise listing of instruments, equipment and procedures that allows an aircraft to be operated under specific conditions with inoperative equipment. The MEL is the specific inoperative equipment document for a particular make and model aircraft by serial and registration numbers (e.g., BE-200, N12345). The FAA-approved MEL includes only those items of equipment that the FAA deems may be inoperative and still maintain an acceptable level of safety with appropriate conditions and limitations. Note: Do not confuse a MEL with the aircraft's equipment list. They are not the same.

What is a METAR?

The aviation routine weather report (METAR) is the weather observer's interpretation of the weather conditions at a given site and time. It is used by the aviation community and the National Weather Service (NWS) to determine the flying category (VFR. MVFR. or IFR) of the airport, as well as produce the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).

Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition?

The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition.

What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument rating?

The pilot must hold an instrument rating in the same category and class, or the Commercial Pilot Certificate that is issued is endorsed with a limitation prohibiting the following: a. The carriage of passengers for hire in airplanes on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical miles; b. The carriage of passengers for hire in airplanes at night.

After aircraft inspections have been made and defects have been repaired, who is responsible for determining that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition? (91.7)

The pilot-in-command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in a condition for safe flight. The pilot-in-command shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy, mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur.

What is the primary means of obtaining a weather briefing?

The primary source of preflight weather briefings is an individual briefing obtained from a briefer at the FSS. These briefings, which are tailored to your specific flight, are available 24 hours a day through the use of the toll-free number (1-800-WX BRIEF).

Where can you find information on the placards and marking information required to be in the airplane?

The principal source of information for identifying the required airplane flight manuals, approved manual materials, markings, and placards is the FAA Type Certificate Data Sheet or aircraft specification issued for each airplane eligible for an airworthiness certificate. The required placards are also reproduced in the "Limitations" section of the AFM or as directed by an airworthiness directive (AD).

Are flight crewmembers allowed the use of any medications while performing their required duties? (14 CFR 61.53)

The regulations prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties while taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical condition that results in the person being unable to meet the requirements for the medical certificate necessary for the pilot operation. The safest rule is not to fly as a crewmember while taking any medication, unless approved to do so by the FAA. Consult an AME for advice.

If the isobars are relatively close together on a surface weather chart or a constant pressure chart, what information will this provide?

The spacing of isobars on these charts defines how steep or shallow a pressure gradient is. When isobars are spaced very close together, a steep pressure gradient exists, which indicates higher wind speeds. A shallow pressure gradient (isobars not close together) usually means wind speeds will be lower.

Explain the difference between a stable atmosphere and an unstable atmosphere. Why is the stability of the atmosphere important?

The stability of the atmosphere depends on its ability to resist vertical motion. A stable atmosphere makes vertical movement difficult, and small vertical disturbances dampen out and disappear. In an unstable atmosphere, small vertical air movements tend to become larger, resulting in turbulent airflow and convective activity. Instability can lead to significant turbulence, extensive vertical clouds, and severe weather.

What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds?

The stability of the atmosphere.

Where can you find a list of the medical conditions that would disqualify you from obtaining or holding a medical certificate? (14 CFR Part 67)

The standard for medical certification are contained in 14 CFR Part 67. There are 15 conditions that are considered disqualifying by history of clinical diagnosis.

Explain the limitations that apply to aircraft operations being conducted using an MEL.

The use of an MEL for a small, non-turbine-powered airplane operated under Part 91 allows for the deferral of inoperative items or equipment. The FAA considers an approved MEL to be a supplemental type certificate (STC) issued to an aircraft by serial number and registration number. Once an operator requests an MEL, and a Letter of Authorization (LOA) is issued by the FAA, then the MEL becomes mandatory for that aircraft. All maintenance deferrals must be done in accordance with the terms and conditions of the MEL and the operator-generated procedures document.

What are the requirements to act as pilot-in-command of a complex airplane? (61.31)

To act as pilot-in-command of a complex airplane, you must have: a. Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a complex airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane, and had been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; and b. Received a one-time endorsement in your logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies that you are proficient to operate a complex airplane.

To act as pilot-in-command of a pressurized aircraft, what flight experience requirements must be met? (61.31)

To act as pilot-in-command of a pressurized aircraft (an aircraft that has a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 ft MSL), a person must have received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor and obtained an endorsement in the person's logbook or training record from an authorized instructor who certifies the person has: a. Satisfactorily accomplished the ground training, which includes high-altitude aerodynamics, meteorology, respiration, hypoxia, etc.; and b. received and logged training in a pressurized aircraft, or in a flight simulator or flight training device representative of a pressurized aircraft, and obtained an endorsement in the person's logbook or training record from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of pressurized aircraft (must include normal cruise flight above 25,000 ft MSL, emergency procedures for rapid decompression, and emergency descent procedures).

When temperature and dew point are close together (within 5 degrees F), what type of weather is likely?

Visible moisture in the form of clouds, dew, or fog. These are also ideal conditions for carburetor icing.

Can onboard datalink weather (FIS-B) be useful in navigating an aircraft safely around an area of thunderstorms?

Weather data linked from a ground weather surveillance radar system is not real-time information; it displays recent rather than current conditions. This data is typically updated every 5 minutes, but can be as much as 15 minutes old by the time it displays in the cockpit. Therefore, FIS aviation weather products are not appropriate for tactical avoidance of severe weather such as negotiating a path through a weather hazard area.

What limitations apply to aircraft operations conducted using the deferral provision of 14 CFR 91.213(d)?

When inoperative equipment is found during preflight or prior to departure, the decision should be to cancel the flight, obtain maintenance prior to flight, or defer the item or equipment. Maintenance deferrals are not used for inflight discrepancies. The manufacturer's AFM/POH procedures are to be used in those situations.

How can you determine the stability of the atmosphere?

When temperature decreases uniformly and rapidly as you climb (approaching 3 degrees C per 1,000 ft), you have an indication of unstable air. If the temperature remains unchanged or decreases only slightly with altitude, the air tends to be stable. When air near the surface is warm and moist, suspect instability.

For an aircraft with an approved MEL, explain the decision sequence a pilot would use after discovering the position lights are inoperative.

With an approved MEL, if the position lights were discovered inoperative prior to a daytime flight, the pilot would make an entry in the maintenance record or discrepancy record provided for that purpose. The item is then either repaired or deferred in accordance with the MEL. Upon confirming that daytime flight with inoperative position lights is acceptable in accordance with the provisions of the MEL, the pilot would leave the position lights switch OFF, open the circuit breaker (or whatever action is called for in the procedures document), and placard the position light switch as INOPERATIVE.

As a commercial pilot, you obtain a job flying freight at night. Does your night currency count towards your currency to carry passengers during the day? (61.57)

Yes, provided that the landings at night were accomplished (within the preceding 90 days) in the same category, class and type (if a type rating is required) of the aircraft you will fly during the day.

Can a pilot legally conduct flight operations with known inoperative equipment on board? (91.213, AC 91-67)

Yes, under specific conditions. 14 CFR Part 91 described acceptable methods for the operation of an aircraft with certain inoperative instruments and equipment that are not essential for safe flight. These acceptable methods are: a. Operation of an aircraft with a Minimum Equipment List (MEL), as authorized by 14 CFR 91.213(a), or b. Operation of an aircraft without a MEL under 14 CFR 91.213(d) Exam Tip: Know this regulation well; unfamiliarity with 14 CFR 91.213 is a common weakness of applicants at all levels. You will need to demonstrate that you know this regulation and how to apply it.

Does an aircraft's registration certificate have an expiration date? (47.31, 47.40)

Yes. A Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued in accordance with 14 CFR 47.31 expires three years after the last day of the month in which it was issued. A temporary Certification of Registration is valid for no more than 90 days after the date the applicant signs the application.

To act as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft, what must a pilot have in his/hers physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?

a. A pilot certificate (or special purpose pilot authorization) b. A photo identification c. A medical certificate (with certain exceptions as provided in 14 CFR 61.3)

What pertinent information should a weather briefing include?

a. Adverse Conditions b. VFR Flight Not Recommended c. Synopsis d. Current Conditions e. Enroute Forecast f. Destination Forecast g. Winds Aloft h. Notices to Airmen i. ATC Delay j. Pilots may obtain the following from FSS briefers upon request: information on special use airspace (SUA) and SUA-related airspace, including alert areas, MOAs, MTRs (IFR, VFR, VR, and SR training routes), warning areas, and ATC assigned airspace (ATCAA); a review of the printed NOTAM publication; approximate density altitude data; information on air traffic services and rules; customs/immigration procedures; ADIZ rules; search and rescue; GPS RAIM availability for 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA or a time specified by the pilot; and other assistance as required.

If a pilot certificate is accidentally lost or destroyed, a pilot could continue to exercise the privileges of that certificate provided he/she follows what specific procedure? (14 CFR 61.29)

a. An application for the replacement of a lost or destroyed airman certificate issued under Part 61 is made by letter to the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration; and b. A person who has lost a certificate may obtain, in a form or manner approved by the FAA Administrator, a document conveying temporary authority to exercise the certificate privileges. The document may be carried as an airman certificate for up to 60 days pending the person's receipt of a duplicate certificate.

What are the eligbility requirements for a commercial pilot (airplane) certificate?

a. Be at least 18 years of age. b. Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. c. Hold at least a private pilot certificate. d. Hold at least a current Third Class Medical Certificate. e. Received the required ground and flight training endorsements. f. Pass the required knowledge and practical tests. g. Meet the aeronautical experience requirements. Exam Tip: The evaluator may ask you to demonstrate that you're current and eligible to take the practical test. When preparing for your practical test, verify that you have the required hours and that you're current, and don't forget to double-check all of your endorsements. Make sure that you have totaled all of the logbook columns and that the entries make sense.

While en route, how can a pilot obtain updated weather information?

a. FSS on 122.2 and appropriate RCO (remote communication outlet) frequencies b. ATIS broadcasts along the route of flight c. HIWAS (Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service) d. Datalink weather--cockpit display of FIS-B information e. ATC (workload permitting)

If the airworthiness certificate of a particular aircraft indicated one of the following categories, what significance would this have? a. Normal Category b. Utility Category

a. Normal category -- Aircraft structure capable of withstanding a load factor of 3.8 Gs without structural failure. Applicable to aircraft intended for non-aerobatic operation. b. Utility category -- Aircraft structure must be capable of withstanding a load factor of 4.4 Gs. This would usually permit limited aerobatics, including spins (if approved for the aircraft).

What are some examples of other sources of weather information?

a. Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS) (FSS) b. Weather and aeronautical information from numerous private industry sources. c. The Direct User Access Terminal System (DUATS) and Lockheed Martin Flight Services (DUATSII). d. In Alaska, Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) locations and telephone access to the TWEB (TEL-TWEB).

For an aircraft to be considered airworthy, what two conditions must be met?

a. The aircraft must conform to its type design (type certificate). Conformity to type design is attained when the required and proper components are installed to be consistent with the drawings, specifications, and other data that are part of the type certificate. Conformity includes applicable supplemental type certificate(s) (STC) and field-approval alterations. b. The aircraft must be in a condition for safe operation, referring to the condition of the aircraft with relation to wear and deterioration.

Explain how a pilot determines if an aircraft conforms to its approved type design and is in a condition for safe operation. (14 CFR Parts 21, 43, and 91)

a. To determine that the aircraft conforms to its type design, a pilot must determine that the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations have been performed in accordance with 14 CFR Parts 21, 43, and 91 and that the aircraft is registered in the United States. The pilot does this by ensuring that all required inspections, maintenance, preventive maintenance, repairs, and alterations have been appropriately documented in the aircraft's maintenance records. b. To determine that the aircraft is in condition for safe operation, the pilot conducts a thorough preflight inspection of the aircraft for wear and deterioration, structural damage, fluid leaks, tire wear, inoperative instruments and equipment, etc. If an unsafe conditions exists or inoperative instruments or equipment are found, the pilot uses the guidance in 14 CFR 91.213 for handling the inoperative equipment.

What are the requirements to remain current as a commercial pilot? (61.51, 61.57)

a. Within the preceding 24 months, the pilot must have accomplished a flight review given in an aircraft for which that pilot is rated by an authorized instructor and received a logbook endorsement certifying that the person has satisfactorily completed the review. b. To carry passengers, a pilot must have made, within the preceding 90 days: -Three takeoffs and landings as the sole manipulator of flight controls of an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type. -If the aircraft is a tailwheel airplane, the landings must have been made to a full stop. -If operations are to be conducted during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, with passengers on board, the pilot-in-command must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during that period in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type is required) of aircraft to be used. Note: Takeoffs and landings required by this regulation may be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device that is approved by the Administrator and used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a certificated training center. Exam Tip: The evaluator may ask you to demonstrate that you're current and eligible to take the practical test. When preparing for your practical test, verify that you have the required hours and that you're current, and don't forget to double-check all of your endorsements. Make sure that you have totaled all of the logbook columns and that the entries make sense.