comp tia exam

In Windows, a quick way to access Help is to press which keyboard key? A. F12 B. The Windows key on the keyboard C. F1 D. Alt

f1

Which of the following IP addresses would not be valid for a DNS server on the Internet? A. 10.25.11.33 B. 18.33.66.254 C. 155.118.63.11 D. 192.186.12.2

A. 10.25.11.33 DNS servers resolve hostnames to IP addresses. On the Internet, a DNS server needs to have a public IP address. The address 10.25.11.33 is in a private address space, so that address would not be valid for a DNS server on the Internet.

Which Ethernet specification would you be running if you needed to make a connection of 10 Gbps over a distance of 5 kilometers? A. 10GBaseER B. 10GBaseT C. 10GBaseSR D. 10GBaseLR

A. 10GBaseER If you need to make a connection that is 5 kilometers long, then you are limited to fiber-optic cable—specifically, single-mode fiber (SMF). The two common SMF standards are 10GBaseER and 10GBaseEW. (Think of the E as extended.) A T designation in an Ethernet standard refers to twisted pair. SR and LR are fiber standards that do not stretch for 5 kilometers.

What is the minimum amount of hard drive space needed for a 32-bit installation of Windows 8? A. 16 GB B. 20 GB C. 24 GB D. 28 GB

A. 16 GB The 32-bit installation of Windows 8 requires a minimum of 16 GB of hard drive space. 20 GB is required for 64-bit installations of Windows 8. Both 24 GB and 28 GB are wrong answers.

Which of the following is a Class C address? A. 192.168.5.5 B. 10.6.6.3 C. 172.6.8.9 D. 224.69.3.2

A. 192.168.5.5 The Class C range is 192-223. The class A range is 1-126. The class B range is 128-191. The 224 range is for multicasting.

Which of the following are valid examples of IPv6 addresses? (Choose all that apply.) A. 2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab B. ::ffff:c0a8:173 C. 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab D. 2001::1ab4::5468

A. 2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab B. ::ffff:c0a8:173 C. 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab An IPv6 address contains 128 bits, written in eight 16-bit fields represented by four hexadecimal digits. Option A contains all eight fields expressed in full. Option B is an IPv4 address expressed in IPv6 form. Option C is the same address as Option A, but written in accepted shorthand. Option D is not valid because the double colons (::) can be used only once within an address.

Which of the following operates in the 5.0 GHz range? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11

A. 802.11a 802.11a operates in the 5.0 GHz range. The other standards all operate in the 2.4 GHz range.

You are setting up a wireless network. Which wireless standards would give the users over 40 Mbps throughput? (Choose all that apply.) A. 802.11ac B. 802.11b C. 802.11 g D. 802.11n

A. 802.11ac C. 802.11 g D. 802.11n Three standards listed—802.11ac (1,300 Mbps), 802.11 g (54 Mbps), and 802.11n (600 Mbps)—give users the required throughput.

A computer using which of the following would be considered a legacy device? (Choose all that apply.) A. A 386 processor B. The IPX/SPX protocol C. An application developed in 1983 D. Only 1 GB RAM

A. A 386 processor B. The IPX/SPX protocol C. An application developed in 1983 Legacy systems are ones that use older hardware, software, or network protocols that are not commonly used today. A system with only 1 GB RAM might be underpowered, but that in and of itself does not make it a legacy system

Internal users suspect repeated attempts to infect their systems, as reported to them by pop-up messages from their antivirus software. According to the pop-up messages, the virus seems to be the same in every case. What is the most likely culprit? A. A server is acting as a carrier for a virus. B. A password attack is being carried out. C. Your antivirus software has malfunctioned. D. A DoS attack is underway.

A. A server is acting as a carrier for a virus. Some viruses won't damage a system in an attempt to spread into all the other systems in a network. These viruses use that system as the carrier of the virus. A password attack would not prompt your antivirus software to notify you. Your antivirus software could be malfunctioning, but it would not suggest the same virus is infecting you over and over again. A denial-of-service (DoS) attack would not prompt your antivirus to notify you.

Which of the following statements are not associated with a star network? (Choose all that apply.) A. A single cable break can cause complete network disruption. B. All devices connect to a central device. C. It uses a single backbone computer to connect all network devices. D. It uses a dual-ring configuration.

A. A single cable break can cause complete network disruption. C. It uses a single backbone computer to connect all network devices. D. It uses a dual-ring configuration. In a star network, all systems are connected using a central device, such as a hub or a switch. The network is not disrupted for other users when more systems are added or removed. The star network design is used with today's UTP-based networks.

Which of the following are services that a print server should provide? (Choose two.) A. Accepting print jobs from clients B. Turning off printers on demand C. Providing clients with the appropriate printer driver during installation D. Notifying users when the print job is complete

A. Accepting print jobs from clients C. Providing clients with the appropriate printer driver during installation Print servers should make printers available to clients and accept print jobs. They also process print jobs and manage print priorities. Finally, they provide client computers with the right print drivers when the clients attempt to install the printer. They do not turn printers off on demand nor provide notification that a job has printed.

What are two advantages that TCP has over UDP? (Choose two.) A. Acknowledged delivery B. Faster delivery C. Lower overhead D. Virtual circuits

A. Acknowledged delivery D. Virtual circuits TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that establishes virtual circuits and acknowledges delivery of packets. Because of these features, it has higher overhead than UDP and is a little slower.

Which Windows 7 utility allows you to view the health of virus protection and potential system problems? A. Action Center B. Security Center C. HomeGroup D. Troubleshooting

A. Action Center The Action Center in Windows 7 allows you to view security- and maintenance-related problems, such as virus protection status and potential system problems. Windows XP has a utility called Security Center. HomeGroup is a feature used to share files and printers between other Windows computers. The Troubleshooting utility is used to solve problems in the operating system but will not display virus protection status.

Which operating system uses the Pinwheel of Death as a proprietary screen crash? A. Apple B. LINUX C. Windows D. UNIX

A. Apple While Microsoft users have the BSOD to deal with, Apple users have also come to have the same negative feelings about the Pinwheel of Death. This is a multicolored pinwheel mouse pointer.

You are training a class of new technicians on troubleshooting motherboard issues. Which of the following are issues most likely caused by a failing CMOS battery? (Choose two.) A. BIOS time and setting resets B. Attempts to boot to the incorrect device C. Intermittent device failure D. BSOD/pinwheel errors

A. BIOS time and setting resets B. Attempts to boot to the incorrect device When the system is powered off, BIOS settings on a motherboard are maintained by the CMOS battery. If the battery fails, the system will likely forget the BIOS time and date settings and the boot order configuration. Replacing the CMOS battery will resolve the issue.

What is the light in the device that powers the LCD screen? A. Backlight B. Inverter C. Charger D. Reflector

A. Backlight The backlight is the light in the device that powers the LCD screen. It can go bad over time and need to be replaced, and it can also be held captive by the inverter. The inverter takes the DC power the laptop is providing and boosts it up to AC to run the backlight. If the inverter goes bad, you can replace it on most models (it's cheaper than the backlight).

Which of the following wireless communication standards is often described in terms of a wireless personal area network? A. Bluetooth B. Infrared C. Cellular D. Ethernet

A. Bluetooth Bluetooth networks are often called wireless personal area networks (WPANs).

Besides 802.11 standards, which wireless communication methods work in the 2.4 GHz range? (Choose all that apply.) A. Bluetooth B. Z-Wave C. Satellite D. 5 G mmWave E. Zigbee F. NFC

A. Bluetooth E. Zigbee Bluetooth and Zigbee also operate in the 2.4 GHz range. Z-Wave operates in the 800 MHz and 900 MHz ranges; satellite uses satellite waves; 5 G cellular mmWave is between 24 GHz and 86 GHz; and NFC uses 13.56 MHz.

You're the administrator for a large bottling company. At the end of each month, you routinely view all logs and look for discrepancies. This month, your email system error log reports a large number of unsuccessful attempts to log in. It's apparent that the email server is being targeted. Which type of attack is most likely occurring? A. Brute-force B. Backdoor C. Worm D. TCP/IP hijacking

A. Brute-force A brute-force attack is a type of password attack in which a password is guessed over and over, until the right password is guessed. A backdoor attack is an embedded account that allows unauthorized access through an unpatched coding hole. A worm is different from a virus in that it can reproduce itself, is self-contained, and doesn't need a host application to be transported. A TCP/IP hijacking attempt is an attack that attempts to redirect the TCP/IP conversation to the threat agent.

What is the lowest grade of UTP that is rated for 100 Mbps transmission? A. CAT-5 B. CAT-5e C. CAT-6 D. CAT-6a

A. CAT-5 CAT-5 was the first UTP standard ratified for 100 Mbps transmissions. Before that, CAT-3 was popular but only supported 10 Mbps. CAT-5e, CAT-6, and CAT-6a all support at least 1 Gbps and came after CAT-5.

When you turn on a desktop computer, you hear a loud squealing noise coming from inside the case. Which components are potential culprits for making the noise? (Choose all that apply.) A. CPU fan B. Power supply fan C. HDD D. SSD E. CPU F. RAM

A. CPU fan B. Power supply fan C. HDD Only components with moving parts can make ticking, clicking, or squealing noises. It's probably a fan of some sort (such as the CPU fan or power supply fan), or it could be a conventional hard drive. SSDs, CPUs, and RAM do not have moving parts and therefore could not be causing this problem.

You have just installed a wireless router on your home network. Which of the following should you do to make it highly secure? (Choose all that apply.) A. Change the default administrator name and password. B. Change the SSID. C. Enable WEP. D. Configure it to channel 11.

A. Change the default administrator name and password. B. Change the SSID. You should always change the default administrator name and password as well as the default SSID when installing a new wireless router. Enabling encryption is also a good idea, but WPA and WPA2 are better options than WEP. The channel has nothing to do with security.

Which of the following is used to attach media connectors to the ends of cables? A. Crimper B. Cable stripper C. Multimeter D. Tone generator

A. Crimper Wire crimpers look like pliers but are used to attach media connectors to the ends of cables. A cable stripper is used to remove the outer covering of the cable to get to the wire pairs within. A multimeter combines a number of tools into one. There can be slight variations, but a multimeter always includes a voltmeter, an ohmmeter, and an ammeter (and is sometimes called VOM as an acronym). A toner probe has two parts: the tone generator (called the toner) and the tone locator (called the probe). The toner sends the tone, and at the other end of the cable, the probe receives the toner's signal. This tool makes it easier to find the beginning and end of a cable.

You are setting up a small network that will not connect to the Internet. You want computers to be able to locate each other by using hostnames. What service will do this? A. DNS B. DHCP C. FTP D. APIPA

A. DNS DNS is typically known as a name resolver on the Internet, but it will work on private networks as well. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. DHCP automatically configures clients with IP address information. FTP is for file downloads. APIPA is a process used to assign clients a private IP address automatically when they can't reach the DHCP server.

You are setting up a small office network for a client. Which Internet service would you recommend to provide the best speed? A. DSL B. Dial-up C. Satellite D. BRI ISDN E. PRI ISDN

A. DSL Of the options listed, DSL provides the fastest speed. DSL can easily provide 12 Mbps downloads. Dial-up is limited to 56 Kbps, and BRI ISDN (128 Kbps) and PRI (about 1.5 Mbps) don't even come close. Satellite is also much slower than DSL.

You are manually configuring a TCP/IP host. Another administrator gives you the router's IP address. What is the TCP/IP term for this? A. Default gateway B. Subnet mask C. DNS server D. DHCP server

A. Default gateway The router is your doorway out into other networks, and it is known in TCP/IP terms as the default gateway. Without this configuration option, you would not be able to get to external networks. The subnet mask tells a host which network it's on. The DNS server resolves hostnames to IP addresses, and a DHCP server provides IP configuration information to hosts.

Which of the following utilities will rearrange the files on your hard disk to occupy contiguous chunks of space? A. Disk Defragmenter B. Windows File Explorer C. Scandisk D. Windows Backup

A. Disk Defragmenter Disk Defragmenter will rearrange blocks of files on a hard drive to create contiguous files and space. Windows File Explorer is used to navigate the filesystem. Scandisk is not a command. Windows Backup allows for file backups.

Which type of attack denies authorized users access to network resources? A. DoS B. Worm C. Trojans D. Social engineering

A. DoS Although the end result of any of these attacks may be denying authorized users access to network resources, a denial-of-service (DoS) attack is specifically intended to prevent access to network resources by overwhelming or flooding a service or network. Worms reproduce and move throughout the network to infect other systems. Trojans are programs that enter a system or network under the guise of another program. Social engineering is a process in which an attacker attempts to acquire information about your network and system by social means, such as talking to people in the organization.

You have fixed a printer problem and verified full functionality. What is the next step to take in the best practice methodology? A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. B. Conduct internal or external research. C. Review system and application logs. D. Establish a theory of probable cause.

A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. After verifying full system functionality and implementing preventive measures as needed, the final step in the best practice methodology is to document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Where is the Boot Configuration Data stored on a Windows 10 installation utilizing EFI? A. EFI System Partition B. WinRE partition C. Secure Boot partition D. C:\WINDOWS

A. EFI System Partition The Boot Configuration Data is stored in the EFI System Partition on an EFI installation of Windows 10. The WinRE partition is used for the Windows Recovery Environment. Secure boot is a feature of an EFI installation and does not contain its own partition. The C:\WINDOWS folder is where the installation of Windows exists.

You need to encrypt a single file on a Windows Desktop. Which technology should you use? A. EFS B. BitLocker C. NTFS D. BitLocker to Go

A. EFS The Encrypted File System (EFS) is a functionality of the Windows NTFS filesystem. EFS can encrypt individual files and folders. BitLocker is a full device encryption technology. NTFS is a filesystem that supports encryption and security, among other functionality. BitLocker to Go is used for full device encryption of removable drives.

Which editions of Windows 8 support EFS? (Choose all that apply.) A. Enterprise B. Pro C. RT D. Core

A. Enterprise B. Pro Both the Enterprise and Pro editions of Windows 8 support EFS. The RT edition is preinstalled on tablets and does not support EFS. The Core edition does not support EFS.

Which edition of Windows 8 includes Windows To Go? A. Enterprise B. Pro C. RT D. Core

A. Enterprise Windows To Go is available only in the Windows 8 Enterprise edition. Windows To Go allows for the operating system to boot and run from USB mass-storage devices, such as USB flash drives and external hard disk drives. Windows 8 Pro, RT, and Core do not include the Windows To Go feature.

Which of the following can you do to help to eliminate security problems? (Select the best answer.) A. Establish security policies and procedures B. Optimize drives C. Prevent booting into Safe Mode D. Prevent booting into Windows Recovery Environment

A. Establish security policies and procedures Establishing security policies and procedures will help to eliminate security problems and guide employees on what to do if they arise. Optimizing drives will defragment drives and has no consequence to security. Preventing booting into Safe Mode will only hinder diagnostics. Preventing booting into Windows Recovery Environment will hinder diagnostics.

Which of the following uses two ports? A. FTP B. SSH C. Telnet D. POP3

A. FTP FTP uses ports 20 and 21. POP3 uses port 110, SSH uses port 22, and Telnet uses port 23.

You turn on a desktop computer and it fails to boot. You hear a rhythmic ticking coming from inside the case. What is most likely the problem? A. Failed hard drive B. Failed motherboard C. Failed CPU D. Failed RAM E. A bomb

A. Failed hard drive Only components with moving parts can make ticking or clicking noises. (Bombs can too, but hopefully you recognized that as a fake answer!) This question assumes that the hard drive is an HDD and not an SSD, but none of the other components would make a ticking noise.

You need to secure your mobile device's lock screen with the highest level of protection. Which of the following should you use? (Choose the best answer.) A. Fingerprint lock B. Face lock C. Passcode lock D. Swipe lock

A. Fingerprint lock Fingerprint locks are the most secure of all the lock methods, since fingerprints are hard to duplicate. Face locks have a high number of false positives, which can be used to gain access to the phone. Passcode locks can be cracked or shoulder surfed. Swipe locks can be shoulder surfed and are usually simple.

Which partitioning type is required when you have UEFI firmware? A. GPT B. MBR C. POST D. Boot Sector

A. GPT When you have UEFI firmware, it is required to have the disk setup with a GUID Partition Table (GPT) partitioning type. The standard master boot record (MBR) partitioning type can be used with BIOS. Power on self-test (POST) is a routine the BIOS or firmware performs to test hardware before boot. The Boot Sector is contained on both MBR and GPT partitioning types.

You want to follow the rules of good security administration as set by CompTIA and vendors. To do so, which account should be disabled on most Windows operating systems for security reasons? A. Guest B. Print Operators C. Power Users D. Userone

A. Guest The Guest account should be disabled on the operating system, unless there is good reason to leave the account enabled. Print Operators is a group found on Windows servers. Power Users is a group found on both Windows workstations and servers. Userone is obviously a user account. Unless the user has left the organization, there should be no reason to disable the account.

Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 80? A. HTTP B. HTTPS C. Telnet D. POP3

A. HTTP HTTP uses port 80. HTTPS uses port 443; Telnet uses port 23; and POP3 uses port 110.

Which type of resources do you configure in Device Manager? A. Hardware B. Files and folders C. Applications D. Memory

A. Hardware Hardware resources are configured in the Device Manager console. Files and folders and applications are configured in the operating system GUI. Memory is configured in System Properties.

You are identifying the problem while troubleshooting a network issue. Which of the following are proper steps to help identify the problem? (Choose all that apply.) A. Inquire regarding infrastructure changes. B. Conduct internal or external research based on symptoms. C. Review the system and application logs. D. Determine the next steps to resolve the problem. E. Question the user and identify user changes to the computer.

A. Inquire regarding infrastructure changes. C. Review the system and application logs. E. Question the user and identify user changes to the computer. The three sub-steps to identify the problem are: question the user and identify user changes to computer; inquire regarding environmental or infrastructure changes; and review the system and application logs. Conducting internal or external research is part of establishing a theory of probable cause. Determining the next steps to resolve the problem is part of testing the theory to determine cause.

Which tool from Microsoft simplifies the process of creating a Windows 8 image for upgrading multiple machines and reduces the time each installation takes? A. MDT B. MAP C. MAB D. WVE

A. MDT The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) streamlines the process of creating a Windows 8 image for upgrading multiple machines and reduces time for each individual install. The Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit (MAP) is not an answer. MAB and WVE are not Microsoft tools.

Which of the following are features that allow 802.11ac to achieve higher data throughput? (Choose two.) A. MIMO B. Beamforming C. Channel bonding D. Code division multiplexing

A. MIMO C. Channel bonding The two technologies that 802.11ac employs to achieve high throughput are channel bonding and MIMO. Channel bonding is the combination of multiple smaller channels into one large channel for greater bandwidth. MIMO is enhanced over 802.11n to allow for more multiple inputs and outputs. 802.11ac also uses beamforming, but that helps the range, not the throughput.

You've discovered that credentials to a specific application have been stolen. The application is only accessed from one computer on the network. Which type of attack is this most likely to be? A. Man-in-the-middle B. Zero-day C. Denial-of-service (DoS) D. Smurf

A. Man-in-the-middle A man-in-the-middle attack intercepts data and then sends the information to the server as if nothing were wrong, while collecting the information. Zero-day attacks are attacks in which a developer has not properly patched a hole yet and is unaware of the hole. A denial-of-service (DoS) attack is used to disrupt legitimate requests from being answered. A smurf attack is a type of distributed denial-of-service (DDoS).

Which of the following is an online site, requiring Windows 8 or higher, where you can download apps, games, software, and so forth? A. Microsoft Store B. Windows Easy Transfer C. Windows Anytime D. Windows Roller

A. Microsoft Store The Microsoft Store, introduced with Windows 8 and requiring Windows 8 or higher, is an online site where you can download apps, games, software, and more. Windows Easy Transfer is a method of transferring files and settings that was introduced in Windows 7. Windows Anytime is an upgrade method used with Windows 7 and Vista. Windows Roller is a wrong answer.

What is the most common reason for an unexpected reboot? A. Overheating B. ESD damage C. RFI D. Memory leak

A. Overheating One common reason for shutdowns is overheating. Often when that is the case, however, the system reboots itself rather than just shutting down

You have been asked to identify the right type of cloud service to help the team of developers to provide programming elements such as runtime environments. Which service do you recommend? A. PaaS B. IaaS C. SaaS D. DaaS

A. PaaS Platform as a Service (PaaS) is probably the right level of service for the developer team. It provides infrastructure, like IaaS, and also supplies needed programming elements.

Which component of physical security addresses outer-level access control? A. Perimeter security B. Mantraps C. Multifactor authentication D. Strong passwords

A. Perimeter security Perimeter security is intended to delay or deter entrance into a facility. Mantraps are used for mid-layer access control to prevent tailgating. Multifactor authentication is used for mid- and inner-layer access control. Strong passwords are used for mid- and inner-layer access control.

What are the small dots on the screen that are filled with a color? A. Pixels B. Hypervisors C. Cells D. Capacitors

A. Pixels Pixels are the small dots on the screen that are filled with a color; as a group they present the image you see on the screen.

If you are going to run a network cable in the space above the drop ceiling in your office, which type of cable should you use? A. Plenum B. PVC C. Coaxial D. Fiber-optic

A. Plenum For areas where a cable must be fire retardant, such as in a drop ceiling, you must run plenum-grade cable. Plenum refers to the coating on the sleeve of the cable, not the copper or fiber within the cable itself. PVC is the other type of coating typically found on network cables, but it produces poisonous gas when burned.

A user complains of smoke and a foul odor coming from his desktop computer, so he shut it down. Which component is most likely causing the problem? A. Power supply B. RAM C. CPU D. Motherboard

A. Power supply

A user pushes the power button on her desktop computer but nothing happens. She double-checks that it is plugged in and that the wall outlet is working properly. Which components are most likely to cause this problem? (Choose two.) A. Power supply B. Motherboard C. Power cord D. CPU E. RAM

A. Power supply C. Power cord If the wall outlet is functioning and the power cable is connected properly (always check the obvious), then the most likely culprits are the power supply or the power cord. The motherboard, CPU, and RAM are unlikely to cause a complete power failure in a computer.

Which of the following partitions is specifically the partition from which the operating system boots? A. Primary partition B. Extended partition C. Dynamic partition D. Logical partition

A. Primary partition The operating system must boot from an active primary partition if MBR style partitioning is used. Extended partitions are used to contain logical partitions. There is no such thing as a dynamic partition.

When installing Windows 10, you can control telemetry data. In which step during setup is this configured? A. Privacy settings B. Cortana options C. Partitioning options D. Account creation

A. Privacy settings When installing Windows 10, you can control telemetry data in the privacy settings dialog box. The Cortana options allows you to control how Cortana is used. Disk partitioning is configured during the initial installation in order to direct Windows where to install. Account creation is performed to create the first user on the operating system.

Which type of server is responsible for preventing users from accessing websites with objectionable content? A. Proxy B. Web C. DHCP D. DNS

A. Proxy A proxy server can be configured to block access to websites that contain potentially dangerous or inflammatory material. Web servers host web pages, some of which may have objectionable content. DHCP servers provide clients with IP addresses, and DNS servers resolve host names to IP addresses.

Which type of coaxial cable is recommended for digital television cable signals? A. RG-6 B. RG-8 C. RG-58 D. RG-59

A. RG-6 The two RG standards used for cable television are RG-6 and RG-59. Of the two, RG-6 is better because it can run longer distances and can handle digital signals. RG-59 is for analog signals only. RG-8 is thicknet coax, and RG-58 is thinnet coax.

What devices transfer packets across multiple networks and use tables to store network addresses to determine the best destination? A. Routers B. Bridges C. Hubs D. Switches

A. Routers Routers are designed to route (transfer) packets across networks. They are able to do this routing, determining the best path to take, based on the internal routing tables that they maintain.

Which of the following delivers an upload speed equal to the download speed? A. SDSL B. VDSL C. VHDSL D. RADSL

A. SDSL Symmetric DSL (SDSL) offers an upload equal to the download speed. The other versions all have slower upload speed than download speed.

The interpreter in Linux between the operating system and the user is known as the ____________. A. Shell B. Translator C. Login D. GUI

A. Shell The shell is the interpreter in Linux between the operating system and the user. The translator is a wrong answer. Login is something you perform to access the shell. The graphical user interface (GUI) does not interpret commands and therefore not considered an interpreter.

As part of your training program, you're trying to educate users on the importance of security. You explain to them that not every attack depends on implementing advanced technological methods. Some attacks, you explain, take advantage of human shortcomings to gain access that should otherwise be denied. Which term do you use to describe attacks of this type? A. Social engineering B. IDS system C. Perimeter security D. Biometrics

A. Social engineering Social engineering uses the inherent trust in the human species, as opposed to technology, to gain access to your environment. IDS systems are network-based systems that detect intrusions. Perimeter security describes physical security. Biometrics describes an authentication method based on human physical traits.

A junior administrator comes to you in a panic. After looking at the log files, he has become convinced that an attacker is attempting to use a legitimate IP address to disrupt access elsewhere on the network. Which type of attack is this? A. Spoofing B. Social engineering C. Worm D. Password

A. Spoofing A spoofing attack is an attempt by someone or something to masquerade as someone else (IP address) and is often used to disrupt access. Social engineering is a process in which an attacker attempts to acquire information about your network and system by social means, such as talking to people in the organization. Worms reproduce and move throughout the network to infect other systems. Password attacks are used in an attempt to guess passwords.

You have a very small network in a home-based office, and you want to limit network access to only those hosts that you physically own. What should you utilize to make this possible? A. Static IP addresses B. Disabled DNS C. Default subnet mask D. Empty default gateway

A. Static IP addresses The advantage to assigning the IP addresses statically is that you can make certain which host is associated with which IP address, and then utilize filtering to limit network access to only those hosts. Disabling DNS will limit all hosts on a network from getting to the Internet and will not limit network access. A default subnet mask will not limit network access and will cause other problems. An empty default gateway will not limit network access.

Which feature allows you to recover the operating system to a prior point in time after you installed a faulty application or driver? A. System Restore B. Snap C. WinPE D. BOOTMGR

A. System Restore The System Restore feature allows you to recover the operating system to a prior point before the faulty application or driver was installed. Snap is a function of the Desktop interface that allows for easy resizing of Windows. WinPE is a preinstallation environment used for upgrading or installing Windows. BOOTMGR is the bootstrap program responsible for selecting the operating system on startup.

One of the users you support has a Windows 10 laptop that will not boot up. The user just installed brand new drivers for a graphics card. They need to access a tax application and their data files. What should you try first? A. System Restore B. Reset This PC C. Reimage the laptop D. Manually reinstall Windows 10

A. System Restore The System Restore option should be used first to restore the operating system to an earlier point before the problem. This will restore the device back to a previous state before the installation of the drivers. System Restore will not affect user data files. Reset This PC will roll back the PC to a period before the tax application was installed. Reimaging the laptop will erase all programs and data files. Manually reinstalling Windows 10 will erase all programs and data files.

Which of the following protocols uses TCP port 23? A. Telnet B. SSH C. FTP D. DNS

A. Telnet Telnet uses port 23. SSH uses port 22; FTP uses ports 20 and 21; and DNS uses port 53.

You have been troubleshooting a laptop for an hour and have established a theory of probable cause for the problem. What is the next step you should take? A. Test the theory to determine the cause. B. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. C. Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures. D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.

A. Test the theory to determine the cause. The second step in the best practice methodology to resolve problems is to establish a theory of probable cause, which has been done here. The next step is to test the theory to determine cause. After that, establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, verify full system functionality, and document findings.

You have been asked to set up client-side virtualization on a computer at work. The manager asks for a Type 2 hypervisor. What is the disadvantage of using that type of hypervisor? A. The guest OS will compete for resources with the host OS. B. The guest OS will be forced to a lower priortity with the CPU than the host OS. C. The guest OS will be forced to use less RAM than the host OS. D. The virtual guest OS will not be able to get on the physical network.

A. The guest OS will compete for resources with the host OS. A Type 2 hypervisor sits on top of an existing OS, meaning that OSs installed in VMs will compete for resources with the host OS. The amount of resources available to a guest OS can be configured. Virtual OSs can get on the physical network if configured properly.

Your boss needs you to present to upper management the need of a firewall for the network. What is the thesis of your presentation? A. The isolation of one network from another B. The scanning of all packets for viruses C. Preventing password attacks D. The hardening of physical security

A. The isolation of one network from another The thesis of your presentation should outline the need of a firewall to isolate the external network from the internal network. Firewalls will not scan packets for viruses. Firewalls will not prevent password attacks. Firewalls will not harden physical security.

James just moved a folder on the same partition. What will happen with the permissions for the folder? A. The permissions will be the same as they were before the move. B. The permissions will be inherited from the new parent folder. C. The permissions will be configured as the root folder for the drive letter. D. The permissions will be blank until configured.

A. The permissions will be the same as they were before the move. The permissions will be the same as before the move, since you are just moving the files and not creating a new entity. The permissions will not be inherited from the parent folder. The permissions will not be configured the same as the root folder. The permissions will not be blank.

What is normally performed when an employee is offboarded? A. Their user account is deleted. B. Their user account is unlocked. C. Their user account is created. D. Their user account's password is reset.

A. Their user account is deleted. When an employee is offboarded, their user account is deleted or disabled. A user account is not created, nor is its password reset, during the offboarding process. A user account normally is created during the onboarding process.

As part of your training program, you're trying to convince users to make backups on a regular basis. Which Apple app can be used to make backups of various types on a regular basis? A. Time Machine B. Finder C. VSS D. Keychain

A. Time Machine Time Machine is the Apple application that can be used to create backups on a regular basis. Finder is the macOS equivalent to Windows File Explorer. VSS is a Windows technology that is used to create snapshots of a volume. Keychain is a tool that saves credentials so that the user does not need to be prompted.

Which editions of Windows 7 cannot create a HomeGroup? A. Windows 7 Starter B. Windows 7 Home Premium C. Windows 7 Professional D. Windows 7 Enterprise E. Windows 7 Ultimate

A. Windows 7 Starter Windows 7 Starter edition can join a HomeGroup, but it cannot create a HomeGroup. Only Windows 7 Home Premium, Professional, Enterprise, and Ultimate can both create and join a HomeGroup.

Which of the following programs could be considered anti-malware? A. Windows Defender Security B. MDM C. Windows Action Center D. VirusTotal

A. Windows Defender Security Windows Defender Security is considered anti-malware and antivirus protection for the Windows operating system. Mobile device management (MDM) software is used to manage mobile devices. Windows Action Center is a notification center for action to be taken in the operating system. VirusTotal is a third-party site that analyzes virus signatures, but it does not protect you from them.

Which of the following is different from a virus in that it can reproduce itself, is self-contained, and doesn't need a host application to be transported? A. Worm B. Smurf C. Phish D. Trojan

A. Worm A worm is different from a virus in that it can reproduce itself, is self-contained, and doesn't need a host application to be transported. A smurf attack is a type of distributed denial-of-service (DDoS). A phishing attack is an attempt to gain a user's credentials to a network resource. Trojan horses are programs that enter a system or network under the guise of another program.

When configuring a DNS server, administrators must create which of the following? A. Zone file B. Hosts file C. Scope file D. DNS proxy

A. Zone file DNS server records are contained in the zone file, which must be configured by administrators. A hosts file is an alternative to using DNS (but that does not work well when scaling to the Internet). A scope is created on DHCP servers. There is no DNS proxy.

Which folder on a standard Windows 7 installation holds the boot configuration data (BCD) on the hidden system partition? A. \BOOT B. \START C. \SYSTEM32 D. \WINDOWS

A. \BOOT The hidden system partition on a Windows 7 installation holds the boot configuration data (BCD) in the \BOOT folder. There is no \STARTfolder with any Windows installations. The \SYSTEM32 folder holds system files, such as the kernel. The \WINDOWS folder contains the all the Windows binaries.

Which tool can be used to verify that a display driver is signed? A. dxdiag B. msinfo C. msconfig D. msinfo32

A. dxdiag The dxdiag tool is used to verify that display drivers are signed properly by the vendor. Msinfo is not a utility. Msconfig is used to configure service and program startup. Msinfo32 allows you to see all attached devices and the operating system environment.

Which Linux utility can be used to check and repair disks? A. fsck B. chkdsk C. du D. dumgr

A. fsck The fsck Linux utility is used to check and repair disks. The chkdsk utility is a Windows utility used to check and repair disks. The du utility is used to show the current disk usage. dumgr is not a utility and is a wrong answer.

You need to verify network connectivity for a host. Which tool should you use? A. ping B. net use C. sfc D. dism

A. ping The ping command is used to verify basic network connectivity to hosts, by sending a packet to the destination host in which it responds. The net use command is used to map network drives. The sfc command is used to scan the filesystem for corrupted system files. The dismcommand is an image-servicing tool used to add features to an operating system.

Which Linux command can be used to let you run a single command as another user? A. sudo B. su C. passwd D. ifconfig

A. sudo The sudo command can be used to run a single command as another user. The su command allows you to change user logins at the command line. The passwd command changes the user's password. The ifconfig command allows you to view and modify the wired network interface.

A new app developed for the Android platform has which extension? A. .sdk B. .apk C. .ipa D. .exe

B. .apk Android apps have an .apk (Android Package Kit) extension. Apps are developed with a software development kit (SDK), but .sdk is not a valid extension. Apple iOS apps use an .ipa (iOS App Store Package) extension. Only the Windows desktop operating system can execute .exe files.

Which bootrec option can be used in Windows to rebuild the boot configuration file? A. /FIXBOOT B. /REBUILDBCD C. /SCANOS D. /FIXMBR

B. /REBUILDBCD The /REBUILDBCD option can be used with the bootrec tool to rebuild the boot configuration data (BCD). The /FIXBOOT option writes a new boot sector to the system partition. The /SCANOS scans all other partitions that are found to have Windows installations. The /FIXMBR writes a new master boot record (MBR) to the partition.

Which of the following switches can be used with robocopy to mirror a complete directory tree? A. /s B. /mir C. /cdt D. /ah

B. /mir The robocopy command used with the /mir switch will mirror a directory tree file structure. The /s switch can be used to copy subdirectories, but not empty ones. The /cdt switch and the /ah switch are not valid for robocopy.

Which of the following is a Class A address? A. 192.168.5.5 B. 10.6.6.3 C. 172.6.8.9 D. 201.69.3.2

B. 10.6.6.3 The Class A range is 1-126. The class B range is 128-191. The Class C range is 192-223.

Which of the following is not a private IP address range? A. 10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255 B. 172.16.0.0-172.16.255.255 C. 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255 D. 192.168.5.5-192.168.255.255

B. 172.16.0.0-172.16.255.255 The class B range is 172.16.0.0-172.31.255.255. The other ranges are correct.

You need to install a 64-bit version of Windows 10. How much RAM is required? A. 1 GB B. 2 GB C. 4 GB D. 8 GB

B. 2 GB 2 GB of RAM is required for a 64-bit installation of Windows 10. 1 GB of RAM is required for a 32-bit installation of Windows 10. Both 4 GB and 8 GB are wrong answers. The more RAM installed in the computer, the better, but 2 GB is the requirement.

For a 64-bit installation of Windows 8, how much RAM is considered the minimum requirement? A. 1 GB B. 2 GB C. 4 GB D. 8 GB

B. 2 GB The 64-bit version of Windows 8 requires a minimum of 2 GB of RAM. The 32-bit version of Windows 8 requires a minimum of 1 GB of RAM. Both 4 GB and 8 GB are wrong answers.

You need to install a 64-bit version Windows 10. How much drive space is required? A. 16 GB B. 20 GB C. 24 GB D. 60 GB

B. 20 GB Windows 10 64-bit requires a minimum of 20 GB of free hard drive space. Windows 10 32-bit requires a minimum of 16 GB of free hard drive space. Both 24 GB and 60 GB are wrong answers. Although the more hard drive space, the better, only 20 GB is required for 64-bit Windows 10.

Transmitting at 10 Gbps, how far can signals on an MMF cable travel? A. 100 meters B. 550 meters C. 1 kilometer D. 40 kilometers

B. 550 meters Multimode fiber (MMF) can transmit up to 550 meters, depending on the Ethernet specification. Other standards using MMF can transmit only up to 300 meters. If you need to transmit up to 40 kilometers, you will need to use single-mode fiber (SMF).

You have been asked to install Linux in a VM on a Windows 10 client. The Windows 10 client needs 4 GB RAM, and Linux needs 2 GB RAM. How much RAM does the system need at a minimum? A. 4 GB B. 6 GB C. 8 GB D. Unable to determine from the question

B. 6 GB There needs to be enough RAM to support both OSs, so the answer is 6 GB. More is better, though!

Which of the following wireless IEEE standards operate on the 2.4 GHz radio frequency and are directly compatible with each other? (Choose two.) A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11ac D. 802.11 g

B. 802.11b D. 802.11 g Both 802.11b and 802.11 g operate in the 2.4 GHz range and use similar transmission standards. Many devices on the market are listed as 802.11b/g, meaning they will work with either system. Alternatively, 802.11a and 802.11ac operate in the 5 GHz range.

You're working late one night and notice that the hard drive on your new computer is very active even though you aren't doing anything on the computer and it isn't connected to the Internet. What is the most likely suspect? A. A spear phishing attack is being performed. B. A virus is spreading in your system. C. Your system is under a DoS attack. D. TCP/IP hijacking is being attempted.

B. A virus is spreading in your system. A symptom of many viruses is unusual activity on the system disk. The virus spreading to other files on your system causes this. A disk failure will not create high disk activity A spear phishing attack is a social engineering attack and will not create high disk activity. A denial-of-service attack will not create high disk activity. A TCP/IP hijacking attack will not create high disk activity.

A firewall operates by using a set of rules known as what? A. SLA B. ACL C. Whitelist D. DMZ

B. ACL The set of rules for access on a firewall is called an access control list (ACL). An SLA is an agreement on service level for QoS. A whitelist may be part of an ACL but is not the set of rules. A DMZ is a subnet located between an external network router and an internal router.

What are visual anomalies that appear on the screen called? A. Pixels B. Artifacts C. Cells D. Dead spots

B. Artifacts Artifacts are visual anomalies that appear on the screen. They might be pieces of images left over from a previous image or a "tear in the image" (it looks like the image is divided into two parts and the parts don't line up).

What are proprietary screen crashes called in Windows? A. Pin wheel B. BSOD C. Bomb screen D. PSOID

B. BSOD Once a regular occurrence when working with Windows, blue screens (also known as the Blue Screen of Death) have become much less frequent.

A vice president of your company calls a meeting with the IT department after a recent trip to competitors' sites. She reports that many of the companies she visited granted access to their buildings only after fingerprint scans, and she wants your company to use a similar technology. Of the following, which technology relies on a physical attribute of the user for authentication? A. Smart card B. Biometrics C. Geo-fencing D. Tokens

B. Biometrics Biometrics relies on a physical characteristic of the user to verify identity. Biometric devices typically use either a hand pattern or a retinal scan to accomplish this. Smart cards contain a private certificate key and are protected with a passphrase. Geo-fencing uses your GPS coordinates to assure that the authentication happens when you are in a defined geographic area. Tokens are rotating numerical keys that you must physically have with you.

Which of the following are advantages to using dial-up Internet service? (Choose two.) A. High speed B. Broad availability C. Low cost D. High security

B. Broad availability C. Low cost Dial-up Internet is archaic by today's standards, but it is widely available (anywhere there is phone service), and it's generally lower in cost than other Internet access methods. It's definitely not high speed, and its security is really no different from that of broadband Internet access methods.

____________________ is the type of media access method used by NICs that listen to or sense the cable to check for traffic and send only when they hear that no one else is transmitting. A. Token passing B. CSMA/CD C. CSMA/CA D. Demand priority

B. CSMA/CD Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) specifies that the NIC pause before transmitting a packet to ensure that the line is not being used. If no activity is detected, then it transmits the packet. If activity is detected, it waits until it is clear. In the case of two NICs transmitting at the same time (a collision), both NICs pause to detect and then retransmit the data.

Which of the following indicates that the fuser is not fusing the toner properly on the paper? A. Black spots B. Streaks C. Blank spots D. Garbled output

B. Streaks With laser printers, streaks usually indicate that the fuser is not fusing the toner properly on the paper. It could also be that the incorrect paper is being used. In laser printers, you can sometimes tell the printer that you are using a heavier paper. For dot-matrix, you can adjust the platen for thicker paper.

As the security administrator for your organization, you must be aware of all types of attacks that can occur and plan for them. Which type of attack uses more than one computer to attack the victim? A. DoS B. DDoS C. Worm D. Rookits

B. DDoS A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack uses multiple computer systems to attack a server or host in the network. A denial-of-service (DoS) is a one-on-one attack to disrupt service. Worms reproduce and move throughout the network to infect other systems, and therefore do not attack one victim. Rootkits are software programs that have the ability to hide themselves from the operating system.

You have just set up a network that will use the TCP/IP protocol, and you want client computers to obtain IP configuration information automatically. Which type of server do you need for this? A. DNS B. DHCP C. NAT D. IP configuration server

B. DHCP A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server provides IP configuration information to hosts when they join the network. A Domain Name System (DNS) server resolves hostnames to IP addresses. NAT translates private IP addresses into public IP addresses. There is no IP configuration server.

Which of the following is an area where you can place a public server for access by people you might not trust otherwise? A. NAT B. DMZ C. Intranet D. Internet

B. DMZ A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area where you can place a public server for access by people you might not trust otherwise. NAT is a service that maps private IP addresses to public IP addresses. The intranet is the internal network that should be protected. The Internet is the untrusted public network.

Which type of server resolves IP addresses to hostnames? A. HTTP B. DNS C. DHCP D. SQL

B. DNS DNS servers resolve IP addresses to hostnames. HTTP servers are web servers. DHCP servers provide automatic IP configurations. SQL is a database server.

If you can ping resources by IP address but not by name, ______________ is not functional. A. HTTP B. DNS C. DHCP D. ARP

B. DNS You may be able to ping the entire network using IP addresses, but most access is done by name, not IP address. If you can't ping resources by name, DNS is not functional, meaning either the DNS server is down or the local machine is not configured with the correct IP address of the DNS server.

What is one consequence of an overheating mobile device? A. Higher RAM usage B. Degraded battery life C. Inaccurate touchscreen response D. Inability to decrypt emails

B. Degraded battery life Degraded battery life can be expected from an overheating mobile device, if the problem persists for a long time. Higher RAM usage will not occur with overheating, but it could be a cause of overheating. Inaccurate touchscreen responses are not a symptom or consequence of overheating. The inability to decrypt emails depends on having the proper certificate installed.

Your boss is concerned that USB drives could infect the workstation. What can you do to mitigate this risk? A. Install current updates to the operating system B. Disable autorun for all media C. Enable BitLocker D. Enable BitLocker to Go

B. Disable autorun for all media Disabling autorun for all media will mitigate the risk of a potential virus being automatically run from USB drives. Installing current updates to the operating system will not prevent a USB drive from performing an autorun. Enabling BitLocker will not prevent autorun from launching. Enabling BitLocker to Go will not prevent autorun from launching.

Which of the following is the final step in the CompTIA troubleshooting method? A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. B. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. C. Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). D. Identify the problem.

B. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. The steps are as follows: Identify the problem. Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). Test the theory to determine cause. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

You need to protect your users from potentially being phished via email. What of the following should you use to protect them? A. Antivirus software B. End-user education C. SecureDNS D. The principle of least privilege

B. End-user education End-user education is the best way to protect your users from the threat of phishing via email. Antivirus software is used to prevent viruses, not phishing attempts. SecureDNS can be useful in protecting your users, but not from phishing emails. The principle of least privilege assigns only the permissions for that user's need to do their work, and no more.

Which device operates at layer 2? A. Router B. Switch C. Repeater D. Hub

B. Switch Switches operate at layer 2. Routers operate at layer 3. Repeaters and hubs operate at layer 1.

You need to install Windows 10 for your organization. Which edition should be installed to support DirectAccess? A. Education B. Enterprise C. Pro D. Pro for Workstations

B. Enterprise Windows 10 Enterprise is a volume-licensed edition of Windows that supports DirectAccess. Windows 10 Education is used by higher education and K-12 and does not support DirectAccess. Windows 10 Pro is a retail-licensed edition of Windows that does not support DirectAccess. Windows 10 Pro for Workstations is a retail-licensed edition that supports high-performance computing.

You are using the best practice methodology to troubleshoot a video problem. During which step should you question the obvious? A. Test the theory to determine cause. B. Establish a theory of probable cause. C. Identify the problem. D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.

B. Establish a theory of probable cause. The second step in the best practice methodology is to establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). While it makes sense to question the obvious at all times during troubleshooting, it officially falls under this step in the best practice methodology.

What type of device will block unwanted traffic from your network using a set of rules called an ACL? A. Router B. Firewall C. Bridge D. NAS

B. Firewall The job of a firewall is to block unwanted network traffic. Firewalls do this by using a list of rules called an access control list (ACL). Routers connect networks to each other, as do bridges. A network attached storage (NAS) device is like a dedicated file server.

Your iPad has an application that will not stop running. What feature/tool can you use to stop it? A. kill B. Force Quit C. Task Manager D. Close Quit

B. Force Quit By pressing the home button twice on an iPad, you can Force Quit and application that will not stop running. The kill utility can be used only at the command line of Linux/macOS. The Task Manager is a Windows utility. Close Quit is not a feature and therefore a wrong answer.

Which of the following Registry hives contains information about the computer's hardware? A. HKEY_CURRENT_MACHINE B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE C. HKEY_MACHINE D. HKEY_RESOURCES

B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE Registry hive contains information about the computer's hardware. It is also known as HKLM. HKEY_CURRENT_MACHINE and HKEY_MACHINE are not valid Registry hives. HKEY_RESOURCES was used with Windows 9x operating systems but is no longer used.

Your friend is concerned about the security of making an online purchase. What should you tell her to look for in the address bar of the web browser? A. HTTP B. HTTPS C. SSH D. TLS

B. HTTPS The HTTP protocol is inherently unsecure, but the HTTPS protocol is secure. (SSH and TLS are secure as well, but they are not protocols used to connect to websites.)

You have been asked by your manager to brief the group on security appliances. What is the difference between IDS and IPS? A. IDS is active, whereas IPS is passive. B. IDS is passive, whereas IPS is active. C. IDS monitors internal network traffic, whereas IPS monitors traffic coming from the Internet. D. IDS monitors traffic coming from the Internet, whereas IPS monitors internal network traffic.

B. IDS is passive, whereas IPS is active. IDS devices are passive. They will detect, log, and perhaps send an alert, but that's it. An IPS can take active steps to shut down an attack if it detects one. Both devices will monitor internal network traffic as well as incoming traffic.

What is the first step in the troubleshooting process for applications? A. Establish a theory B. Identify the problem C. Verify functionality D. Document findings

B. Identify the problem The most important step is the first step: identify the problem. Once you've identified the problem, you can then establish a theory. After a fix is in place, you should verify functionality. The final step is to document findings.

Your manager wants to use the cloud because everyone seems to be talking about it. What should you include when you are listing the benefits of using the cloud? (Choose all that apply.) A. Increased security B. Increased scalability C. Lower cost D. Improved reliability

B. Increased scalability C. Lower cost D. Improved reliability Cloud solutions are great for enhancing scalability and reliability while generally lowering costs. The biggest issue with cloud computing is security.

Which of the following is a macOS feature for password management? A. Spotlight B. Keychain C. Dock D. Gestures

B. Keychain Keychain is a tool that saves credentials so that the user does not need to be prompted. Spotlight is a utility in macOS that allows a search of the operating system and Internet for search terms. The Dock is the macOS application menu that is located on the bottom of the screen. Gestures allow you to use more than one finger on the trackpad to perform different functions.

Which of the following protocols was designed to access information stored in an information directory, such as employee phone books? A. FTP B. LDAP C. RDP D. CIFS

B. LDAP Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is designed to access information stored in an information directory typically known as an LDAP directory or LDAP database. This typically includes employee data and network configuration data. FTP is designed to transfer files. RDP is a remote desktop protocol, and CIFS is used to share files and printers.

Which of the following is a collection of two or more LANs, typically connected by routers and dedicated leased lines? A. WAN B. MAN C. PAN D. WMN

B. MAN Metropolitan area network (MAN) is the term occasionally used for a WAN that is confined to a certain geographic area, such as a university campus or city. A personal area network (PAN) is a LAN created by personal devices. A wide area network (WAN) is a collection of two or more LANs, typically connected by routers and dedicated leased lines. Wireless mesh networks (WMN) are a form of an ad hoc WLAN that often consist of mesh clients, mesh routers, and gateways.

As an administrator, you need to get an inventory of computers on your network and plan a rollout of Windows 7. Which tool can be used for this purpose? A. Sysprep B. Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit C. USMT D. WET

B. Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit The Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit can be used to plan a rollout of Windows 7 by gathering information from existing clients. Sysprep is used to generalize a Windows installation. The User State Migration Tool (USMT) is used to transfer user files and profiles to another computer after an upgrade. The Windows Easy Transfer (WET) tool is used to move a user's files to a new computer.

A user is in both the Sales group and the Marketing group. The Sales group has full permission at the share level, and the Marketing group has read-only permissions. The files on NTFS are secured with the Modify permission for the Sales group and the Read & Execute permission for the Marketing group. Which permissions will the user have? A. Full B. Modify C. Read-only D. Read & Execute

B. Modify Because the user is in both groups and the Sales group has full share permissions and the Sales group has modify NTFS permissions, the most restrictive of the two is Modify, so that will be the effective permission for the user. All of the other answers are incorrect.

A field technician reports back that the computer she is troubleshooting has exposed distended capacitors. Which component has most likely failed? A. Power supply B. Motherboard C. CPU D. RAM

B. Motherboard Capacitors store energy and are located on the motherboard and inside the power supply. Since the capacitors are exposed, it likely means the technician is seeing the problem on the motherboard. CPUs and RAM do not have capacitors

In Windows 7, what is the default setting for the UAC? A. Always notify. B. Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer. C. Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer (do not dim my desktop). D. Never notify.

B. Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer. The User Account Control (UAC) default is set to "Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer." "Always notify" will prompt you every time you make a change to the operating system. "Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer (do not dim my desktop)" will behave as the default but will not dim the desktop. "Never notify" effectively turns off the UAC.

What is the name of the pass that configures and creates the user environment during the setup process? A. Generalization B. OOBE C. Specialization D. WinPE

B. OOBE The Out-Of-Box Experience (OOBE) is the pass that is responsible for configuring and creating the user environment during the setup process. The Generalization pass is where the operating system detects hardware. The Specialization pass is where the operating system is configured during setup. The WinPE pass starts the procedure of installing the operating system.

Virtual memory is configured through which system tool? A. Taskbar B. System Properties C. Memory Manager D. Virtual Configuration

B. System Properties Virtual memory is configured in the System Properties applet. The taskbar is an element of the desktop; the memory manager is a process in the operating system for memory management; and virtual configuration is an invalid answer.

You are setting up a cloud contract with a provider. Your team needs the ability to increase capacity without intervention from the provider. What do you request? A. Rapid elasticity B. On-demand self-service C. Resource pooling D. Measured service

B. On-demand self-service The ability to expand services without provider intervention is called on-demand self-service. Rapid elasticity means you can quickly increase capacity, but it usually requires supplier intervention. Resource pooling is taking resources from multiple machines and making them available as one pool. Measured service is how many suppliers track usage and charge accordingly.

You have been asked to configure a client-side virtualization solution with three guest OSs. Each one needs Internet access. How should you configure the solution in the most cost-effective way? A. Three physical NICs B. One physical NIC, three virtual NICs, and one virtual switch C. One physical NIC, one virtual NIC, and three virtual switches D. One physical NIC, three virtual NIC, and three virtual switches

B. One physical NIC, three virtual NICs, and one virtual switch Each virtual machine will use its own virtual NIC. The virtual NICs will communicate with a virtual switch managed by the hypervisor. The virtual switch will communicate with the physical NIC.

Which of the following are used to prevent pop-unders from appearing? A. Anti-malware utilities B. Pop-up blockers C. Phishing sites D. Antivirus software

B. Pop-up blockers Pop-up blockers are used to prevent pop-ups and pop-unders from appearing. Anti-malware utilities will remove and prevent malware. Phishing sites are used to collect users credentials' by tricking users. Antivirus software is used to protect the operating system from viruses.

Windows 7 Ultimate can be upgraded to which edition of Windows 8? A. Enterprise B. Pro C. RT D. Core

B. Pro Windows 7 Ultimate can only be upgraded to Windows 8 Pro. Windows 7 Ultimate cannot be upgraded to Windows 8 Enterprise, because it is a volume license edition. Windows RT comes preinstalled on tablets. Core edition is a basic edition of Windows 8, and you cannot downgrade to this edition.

Which of the following technologies can operate in the 125 kHz to 134 kHz range? A. Bluetooth B. RFID C. NFC D. LTE

B. RFID Radio frequency identification (RFID) can operate in three frequency bands: 125 kHz to 134 kHz, 13.56 MHz, or 856 MHz to 960 MHz. Bluetooth is 2.4 GHz; NFC is 13.56 MHz; and LTE is between 600 MHz and 6 GHz.

If the permissions for a file are rwxrw-r-, what permissions apply for a user who is a member of the group to which the owner belongs? A. Read, write, and execute B. Read and write C. Read only D. No access

B. Read and write The effective permissions are read and write. From left to right, the permissions are rwx for the user, rw- for the group, and r- for everyone else. Since the user is only a member of the group applied to the file, they will have read and write permissions.

Which of the following security standards was the first to introduce a dynamic 128-bit per-packet security key? A. WEP B. TKIP C. AES D. CCMP

B. TKIP WEP could use a 64-bit or 128-bit security key, but it was a static key. TKIP introduced a dynamic per-packet key. AES and CCMP came after TKIP

You are troubleshooting a Windows-based desktop computer that is experiencing unexpected shutdowns. Which of the following would be a good next step to resolve the issue? (Choose all that apply.) A. Replace the motherboard, CPU, and RAM to see if it resolves the problem. B. Replace the RAM to see if it resolves the problem. C. Reinstall Windows to see if it resolves the problem. D. Replace the CPU to see if it resolves the problem.

B. Replace the RAM to see if it resolves the problem. D. Replace the CPU to see if it resolves the problem. Intermittent shutdowns are hard to troubleshoot but are most likely hardware related. When troubleshooting, always make one change at a time to try to resolve the issue. Replacing the RAM or the CPU to see if it resolves the problem could be a good next step, but replacing three components at once is too many changes unless you have specific reason to believe it is all three. Reinstalling Windows is probably overkill as well. Narrow down the issue before implementing sweeping solutions such as that.

Which of the following tools allows you to manually fix maliciously modified system files? A. regedit B. SFC C. bootrec D. UAC

B. SFC The System File Checker (SFC) allows you to manually scan for modified operating system files and repair them. Regedit is used to modify the Registry. Bootrec is used to repair the boot records on an operating system installation. User Account Control (UAC) is used to control access to administrative credentials.

Which the following uses port 22? A. FTP B. SSH C. Telnet D. POP3

B. SSH SSH uses port 22, POP3 uses port 110, FTP uses ports 20 and 21, and Telnet uses port 23.

What does a DHCP server need to be configured with to operate properly? A. DNS server B. Scope C. Range D. DHCP relay agent

B. Scope Every DHCP server needs to have a scope, which is the range of addresses available to clients, as well as other options that it can give to client computers. A DHCP server can optionally provide clients with the address of a DNS server. There is no DHCP range. A DHCP relay agent is a system configured on a subnet with no DHCP server that relays DHCP requests to the DHCP server.

Which Windows Update branch for Windows 10 will install features as they are released to the general public? A. Semi-Annual Channel B. Semi-Annual Channel (Targeted) C. Long-Term Servicing Channel D. Insider Program

B. Semi-Annual Channel (Targeted) The Semi-Annual Channel (Targeted) branch will install updates as they are released to the general public. The Semi-Annual Channel is normally delayed by 3-4 months. The Long-Term Servicing Channel never installs new features during the life of the version of Windows. The Insider Program allows for the installation of brand-new features before they are publically released.

What is a potential security issue with WAPs running on full signal power? A. Client signal drops B. Signals propagating past the physical organization's perimeter C. Data transmission over limits D. Unauthorized location tracking

B. Signals propagating past the physical organization's perimeter The potential security issue with WAPs running on full power is eavesdropping outside of the organization's physical perimeter. Client signal drops would not be effected by WAPs running in a high power mode. Data transmission over limits by clients would not be affected. Unauthorized location tracking would not be affected.

Which of the following is used by BitLocker to be able to encrypt a drive? A. EFS B. TPM C. UAC D. Aero

B. TPM BitLocker uses the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) to encrypt a drive and to store the decryption keys. Encrypted File System (EFS) is a filesystem-level encryption method. User Account Control (UAC) is used to control access to administrative rights. Aero is an interface that gives a glass-like design to Windows.

Where in Windows 7 can you manually create a restore point? A. The System Restore option, beneath System Tools B. The System Protection tab of System Properties C. In Backup, beneath Administrative Tools D. Windows 7 does not allow for the manual creation of restore points.

B. The System Protection tab of System Properties System Restore allows for both the automated and manual creation of restore points. You can manually create restore points via the System Protection tab of System Properties. Windows 7 does not include a System Tools applet. The option to create manual restore points does not exist in Backup.

By default, when setting up an Android device, what is the relevance to the Google account required? A. The device requires email setup. B. The account is used for cloud synchronizations. C. The account is used for desktop backups. D. The device requires registration.

B. The account is used for cloud synchronizations. By default, a Google account is required on Android devices; it is used to synchronize data and app purchases to the cloud. The device does not require email to be set up, but the account can be used for the setup. The account is not used for desktop backups. The device does not require registration.

What is a risk of using the autoreconnect feature on a mobile device? A. The device will reconnect to any SSID. B. The device could be exploited by an evil twin attack. C. The device's battery life could be shortened. D. You may exceed your cellular data plan's limits.

B. The device could be exploited by an evil twin attack. If autoreconnect is configured on an SSID, the device could be susceptible to an evil twin attack, in which the device connects to any device with the same SSID. The device will not reconnect to any SSID, only the SSID configured as autoreconnect. Battery life will remain unaffected with autoreconnect. Over limits can be avoided with autoreconnect, because the wireless network is used for data usage.

You have a Windows 10 Home laptop, and your organization has a Windows Server 2012 domain. You cannot find the option to join the domain. What could be the problem? A. The domain needs to be at least Windows 2016. B. The edition of the Windows 10 operating system needs to be upgraded. C. Windows 10 does not support joining to a domain. D. The operating system must be installed on a desktop in order to join a domain.

B. The edition of the Windows 10 operating system needs to be upgraded. The edition of Windows 10 needs to be Pro, Enterprise, or Education in order to join a domain. The domain version has no effect on joining of operating systems. Windows 10 supports joining to a domain, provided that it is not Windows 10 Home edition. There is no restriction for joining a domain for a laptop.

Your company hosts its own web server, and it allows consumers to make purchases via the server. The help line has been getting complaints that users are unable to access the secure portion of the website. You open the site and it seems fine, although the secure portion where transactions are completed is inaccessible. What is the most likely cause? A. The firewall is blocking TCP port 80. B. The firewall is blocking TCP port 443. C. The security module of the web server is malfunctioning. D. The web server is down.

B. The firewall is blocking TCP port 443. For secure transactions, the web server should be using HTTPS, which uses port 443. If non-secure portions of the website work, then the server is fine. It's most likely that the firewall is blocking inbound traffic on port 443.

You have been asked to configure a network for a small office. The wireless router is installed, and now you need to connect the client computers. What do you enter on the client computers to connect to the router? A. The administrator password B. The security passphrase C. The client's MAC address D. The default router password

B. The security passphrase To join the network, client computers need to find the SSID, ensure that the security settings are correct (to match the router), and enter the security passphrase. As an administrator, you should have configured this passphrase to be different from the router's administrator password.

A user is in the Sales group. The Sales group has no permissions at the share level. The files on NTFS are secured with the Modify permission for the Sales group. What permissions with the user have? A. The user will have the Modify permission when connecting from the network. B. The user will have the Modify permission when logged in locally to the computer. C. The user will have no access when logged in locally to the computer. D. The user will have read-only permissions when connecting from the network.

B. The user will have the Modify permission when logged in locally to the computer. The user will have only the Modify permission when logged in locally to the computer, since the filesystem is not shared with the appropriate permissions. The user will not have the Modify permission when connecting from the network. The user will still have the Modify permission when logged in locally, because of the NTFS permissions. The user will not have read-only permissions when connecting from the network.

Which of the following is a user interface feature designed by HTC? A. Type I B. TouchFLO C. Type II D. Container-based

B. TouchFLO Touch flow, or TouchFLO, is a user interface feature designed by HTC. It is used by dragging your finger up and down or left and right to access common tasks on the screen. This movement is akin to scrolling the screen up and down or scrolling the screen left and right.

What is the maximum number of physical CPUs supported by Windows 7 Enterprise? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

B. Two Windows 7 Enterprise supports two physical CPUs. Windows Home Premium supports one physical CPU. No other Windows 7 editions support more than two CPUs.

Which utility can assess whether the current operating system is upgradable to Windows 7? A. Upgrade Assistant B. Upgrade Advisor C. Sysprep D. Windows Anytime Upgrade

B. Upgrade Advisor The Upgrade Advisor is the Windows 7 utility used to assess whether the current operating system is upgradable to Windows 7. Upgrade Assistant is used with Windows 8/8.1 and Windows 10 for assessment. Sysprep is a utility to generalize a Windows installation prior to imaging. Windows Anytime Upgrade was used to upgrade between editions but is now defunct.

You have implemented a solution that resolved an audio problem on a laptop computer. Following the best practice methodology, what is the next step to take? A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. B. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures. C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem D. Review system and application logs.

B. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures. The fourth step in the best practice methodology is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution, which was done already. The next step is to verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures. The final step is to document findings, actions, and outcomes. Reviewing system and application logs is part of identifying the problem, which is the first step.

Which of the following was created to allow Windows 8 to boot from flash drives? A. BitLocker B. Windows To Go C. OneDrive D. Load2Go

B. Windows To Go Windows To Go was created to allow Windows 8 to boot from flash drives. BitLocker is a drive-level encryption technology. OneDrive is an online/cloud storage location accessed with a Microsoft account. Load2Go is not a Microsoft utility.

Which tool will allow you to diagnose why Windows Update keeps failing? A. ntbtlog.txt B. Windows Update Troubleshooter C. Windows Recovery Environment D. Safe Mode

B. Windows Update Troubleshooter Windows Update Troubleshooter can assist in diagnosing problems with Windows Update. The ntbtlog.txt file is used to diagnose problems with bootup. Windows Recovery Environment is used for problems with Windows outside of problems of Windows Updates. Safe Mode is a boot mode that loads minimal drivers and services.

You are currently in a Linux terminal session and in the /home/testuser/documents/mail directory. Which command will take you to /home/testuser/documents? A. cd. B. cd .. C. cd ... D. cd ∼

B. cd .. The command cd .. will take you one level back from the current working directory. The command cd. will do nothing, because the period signifies the current working directory. The command cd ... is not a valid command. The command cd ∼ will change directories to the home directory of the user.

Which tool allows you to report a remote computer's inventory of hardware? A. regedit.exe B. msinfo32.exe C. msconfig.exe D. dxdiag.exe

B. msinfo32.exe The msinfo32.exe tool allows for the remote reporting of a computer's hardware. regedit.exe is used to edit the Registry. msconfig.exeis used to change the startup of services and applications for the operating system. dxdiag.exe is used to diagnosis DirectX problems.

Which of the following commands can be used to configure a remote connection? A. regedit B. mstsc C. regsvr32 D. spl

B. mstsc The mstsc (Microsoft Terminal Services Client) command is used to configure and connect to remote connections over the network. The regedit command is used to edit the Registry, and regsvr32 is used to register DDLs. Spl is not a command.

Which of the following utilities is used to update Group Policy settings and replaces some of the functionality that previously existed with secedit? A. clobber B. gpupdate C. consolidate D. extract

B. mstsc The mstsc (Microsoft Terminal Services Client) command is used to configure and connect to remote connections over the network. The regedit command is used to edit the Registry, and regsvr32 is used to register DDLs. Spl is not a command.

Which of the following utilities allows you to test network connectivity? A. netstat B. ping C. telnet D. dxdiag

B. ping The ping utility allows you to test basic network connectivity by sending a small message to the destination address, and the destination will respond. The netstat displays network statistics. The telnet utility is used for console connectivity over the network. The dxdiag utility is used to test DirectX connectivity.

Which of the following Linux commands/utilities can be used to edit a file? A. ps B. vi C. rm D. ls

B. vi The vi command is used to edit files. The ps command lists processes running. The rm command removes files or directories. The lscommand lists files and folders in the filesystem.

Which of the following passwords is a secure password? (Choose the best answer.) A. serverpassword0ne B. $erVer1 C. *erverP%ssw#rd D. serverpassword1

C. *erverP%ssw#rd The password *erverP%ssw#rd uses uppercase and lowercase letters, symbols, and numbers, for a possible character base of 95 combinations per position. The password serverpassword0ne uses only lowercase and numbers, for a character base of 36 combinations per position; although it is longer than *erverP%ssw#rd, the complexity still falls short. The password $erVer1 uses uppercase and lowercase letters, symbols, and numbers, but it is too short. The password serverpassword1 is also long and uses lowercase and numbers, but it only has a character base of 36 combinations per position.

PowerShell script files are based on which programming framework? A. API B. PHP C. .NET D. ASP

C. .NET PowerShell script files are based on the .NET programming framework. An application programming interface (API) is a method of allowing access to a program's subroutines. PHP is a Linux-based web page scripting language. ASP is a Windows Internet Information Services (IIS) web page scripting language.

You are installing a single 802.11 g wireless network. The office space is large enough that you need three WAPs. What channels should you configure the WAPs on to avoid communication issues? A. 2, 5, and 7 B. 1, 8, and 14 C. 1, 6, and 11 D. 3, 6, and 9

C. 1, 6, and 11 There are 14 communication channels in the 2.4 GHz range, but only the first 11 are configurable. The three non-overlapping channels are 1, 6, and 11.

Which of the following is a Class B address? A. 192.168.5.5 B. 10.6.6.3 C. 172.6.8.9 D. 201.69.3.2

C. 172.6.8.9 The Class B range is 128-191. The class A range is 1-126. The Class C range is 192-223.

What is the maximum number of concurrent connections that can be made to a Windows 10 workstation? A. 10 connections B. 15 connections C. 20 connections D. 25 connections

C. 20 connections The maximum number of connections that can simultaneously be made to a Windows 10 workstation is 20.

You have been asked to configure a full mesh network with seven computers. How many connections will this require? A. 6 B. 7 C. 21 D. 42

C. 21 In a mesh network, the number of connections is determined by the formula x × (x - 1) ÷ 2. With seven computers, that amounts to 21 connections.

Remote computers and virtual machines are made available with Windows 7 using which port? A. 80 B. 139 C. 3389 D. 443

C. 3389 Remote computers and virtual machines can be connected via the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) using TCP port 3389. Port 80 is used with the HTTP protocol. Port 139 is used with the NetBIOS protocol. Port 443 is used with the Secure Socket Layer (SSL) protocol.

What level of QoS is designated for interactive voice and video? A. 1 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

C. 5 QoS level 5 is designated for interactive voice and video, with less than 100 ms delay. Level 1 is for background applications and is low priority. Level 4 is known as controlled load, which is lower priority than interactive voice and video. Level 6 only has 10 ms latency but is reserved for control traffic.

Which is an example of possible unauthorized account access? (Choose the best answer.) A. A login during normal business hours. B. A login to two different locations during normal hours. C. A login outside of business hours. D. A failed attempt at entering a password.

C. A login outside of business hours. A login outside of business hours is the best example of possible unauthorized account access. A login during normal business hours is normal. A login to two different locations during normal business hours could be normal, as long as it is not at the same time. A failed attempt at entering the proper password is not an example of a possible unauthorized account access.

As a best practice, after a set period of inactivity on a Windows workstation, what should happen? A. The system should shut down. B. The system should restart. C. A password-enabled screensaver should automatically start. D. The system should log out the user.

C. A password-enabled screensaver should automatically start. A screensaver should automatically start after a short period of idle time, and that screensaver should require a password before the user can begin the session again. The system should neither shut down nor restart, since work could still be open. For the same reason, the system should not log out the user.

Which of the following protocols is responsible for resolving IP addresses to hardware addresses? A. DNS B. DHCP C. ARP D. RARP

C. ARP The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolves IP addresses to hardware (MAC) addresses. RARP does the reverse—it resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. DHCP automatically configures TCP/IP clients.

What is a best practice for mitigating the risk of a contractor account that is forgotten about? (Choose the best answer.) A. Time restrictions B. Password complexity C. Account expiration D. Password expiration

C. Account expiration Account expiration is the best approach to mitigating the risk of a contractor account that is forgotten about. If an expiration for the account is set, it will automatically deny logins after the set time. Time restrictions will limit when the account can be logged into but will not deactivate the account. Password complexity will have no effect on mitigating the risk; it will only require a stronger password. Password expiration will have no effect on mitigating the risk; it will only require the password to be changed.

In order to curb software piracy, what must you do after installing Windows 7? A. Certify it B. Confirm it C. Activate it D. Register it

C. Activate it After installing Windows 7, you must activate it within 30 days. Certifying and confirming Windows 7 are not valid processes. You are not required to register Windows.

Which of the following is a type of connector used with coaxial cable? A. RG-6 B. RG-59 C. BNC D. SC

C. BNC Coaxial cable can use BNC connectors and F connectors. RG-6 and RG-59 are coaxial standards. SC is a fiber-optic connector.

A Windows user complains that her computer keeps crashing. What is the proprietary crash screen she is most likely seeing? A. Stop sign B. Pinwheel C. BSOD D. Black screen

C. BSOD When Windows-based systems crash, as can happen due to a memory, CPU, or motherboard problem, they will most likely display a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD). The good news is that the BSOD can often provide useful information, such as an error code, to help troubleshoot the problem. There is no stop sign proprietary crash screen, and the pinwheel is used in macOS and OS X. A black screen may indicate a system crash but is not proprietary to one operating system.

Which policy would you create to define the minimum specification if an employee wanted to use their own device for email? A. MDM B. AUP C. BYOD D. NDA

C. BYOD A bring your own device (BYOD) policy defines the minimum specifications for an employee's device used for work-related access. The mobile device management (MDM) software would usually police these specifications, but it would not define them. The acceptable use policy (AUP) is a code of conduct when dealing with organization resources. The non-disclosure agreement (NDA) is an agreement used when dealing with intellectual property.

Which of the following is the most common shell used with Linux? A. Tcl/Tk B. Terminal C. Bash D. SSH

C. Bash Bash is the most common command-line shell used with Linux. Tcl/Tk is a shell used with Linux, but it is very uncommon. Terminal is a utility used to access the command-line shell. SSH, or Secure Shell, is a secure protocol used to access the shell over a network.

You're in the process of securing the IT infrastructure by adding fingerprint scanners to your existing authentication methods. This type of security is an example of which of the following? A. Access control B. Physical barriers C. Biometrics D. Softening

C. Biometrics A fingerprint scanner, or any device that identifies a person by a physical trait, is considered a biometric security control. Access control is the system that controls access for users. Physical barriers are structures that limit physical access. Softening refers to weakening of security.

Which of the following devices work with MAC addresses to determine what to do with network traffic? (Choose two.) A. Hub B. Router C. Bridge D. Switch

C. Bridge D. Switch Bridges and switches are Layer 2 devices; therefore, they work with hardware (MAC) addresses. Hubs operate at Layer 1 and deal with bits, and routers operate at Layer 3 and work with logical IP addresses.

A desktop computer is experiencing continuous reboots. It gets to the BIOS screen and then reboots every time. Which two components are most likely to cause this problem? (Choose two.) A. Power supply B. RAM C. CPU D. Motherboard

C. CPU D. Motherboard Continuous reboots are most likely caused by the motherboard or CPU failing. It's possible it's the RAM, but less likely. The power supply is the least likely cause of the problem in this scenario.

A technician who has been troubleshooting a computer tells you that the system is having problems with overheating. Which component is most likely to cause this issue? A. Power supply B. Motherboard C. CPU D. RAM

C. CPU The processor runs the hottest of all computer components and is the most likely to overheat. Motherboards and RAM don't generate a lot of heat. Power supplies most often have fans to help dissipate heat, and don't run as hot as CPUs.

Which key combination can you use to bring up Spotlight from within an app? A. Control+Shift B. Option+Tab C. Command+spacebar D. Alt+Home

C. Command+spacebar The Command+spacebar key combination will bring up the Spotlight utility. Control+Shift, Option+Tab, and Alt+Home are wrong answers.

Which of the following replaces the MBR in 64-bit versions of the Windows operating system? A. LILO B. NFS C. GPT D. GRUB

C. GPT GUID Partition Tables (GPT) allocate a 64-bit logical block addressing entry to partition tables to accommodate larger drives. GPT has rapidly replaced the MBR style partition tables. LILO and GRUB are boot managers for Linux. NFS is a network filesystem used with Linux/UNIX operating systems.

You have been asked to advise a group of several universities that want to combine research efforts and store data in the cloud. Which type of cloud solution might be best for them? A. Public B. Private C. Community D. Hybrid

C. Community When multiple organizations with similar objectives want to combine efforts in a cloud, the best choice is generally a community cloud. This allows for the flexibility and scalability normally found in a public cloud, but it also limits the number of users to a smaller, trusted group.

What does the -p option with mkdir do? A. Prompts the user before creating files B. Prompts the user before creating subfolders C. Creates subfolders as well as folders D. None of the above

C. Creates subfolders as well as folders The -p option on the mkdir command allows subfolders to be created as well as the target folder. All other answers are incorrect.

Which type of server provides automatic IP configurations? A. HTTP B. DNS C. DHCP D. SQL

C. DHCP DHCP servers provide automatic IP configurations. DNS servers resolve IP addresses to hostnames. HTTP servers are web servers. SQL is a database server.

In general, how often should you update your antivirus definitions? A. Weekly. B. Monthly. C. Daily. D. Antivirus definitions do not need to be updated.

C. Daily. Antivirus definitions should be updated daily, because new viruses are identified by the minute. Updating antivirus definitions weekly or monthly will open you up to the possibility of infection.

Which of the following should be set to the IP address of the router interface connecting to the local network? A. IP address B. Subnet mask C. Default gateway D. DHCP server

C. Default gateway If the computer cannot connect to the default gateway, it will be confined to communicating with devices on the local network. This IP address should be that of the router interface connecting to the local network.

What is the name of the feature that allows for a weather application to be placed on the Windows 7 Desktop? A. Aero B. XP Mode C. Desktop Gadgets D. Sidebar

C. Desktop Gadgets The Desktop Gadgets feature allows for mini-programs to be placed on the Desktop of Windows 7. Aero is an interface that gives a glass-like design to Windows. XP Mode allows for Windows XP programs to be installed and run inside of Windows 7. Sidebar is a feature from Windows Vista.

You are using the best practice methodology to troubleshoot a printer. During which phase of the methodology should you use external research based on the symptoms? A. Identify the problem. B. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. C. Establish a theory of probable cause. D. Implement preventive measures.

C. Establish a theory of probable cause. The second step in the best practice methodology is to establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). As part of that, if necessary, conduct external or internal research based on symptoms.

You are installing a network at a friend's house, and it's impossible to run a network cable from one point in the house to another. He does not want to use wireless networking. Which of the following is the best option to get network connectivity between the two points? A. Power over Ethernet injector B. Power over Ethernet switch C. Ethernet over Power D. Bridge

C. Ethernet over Power Ethernet over Power can transmit network signals over power lines within a closed circuit, such as a house. It's the best choice. PoE devices provide power to devices that only have an Ethernet connection available. A bridge is for connecting disparate network segments and dividing collision domains.

Which of the following indicates that the toner cartridge is just about empty? A. Black spots B. Streaks C. Faded prints D. Garbled output

C. Faded prints In laser printers, faded output usually indicates that the toner cartridge is just about empty. You can usually remove it, shake it, and replace it and then get a bit more life out of it before it is completely empty, but it is a signal that you are near the end.

Of all the network cabling options, ____________________ offers the longest possible segment length. A. Unshielded twisted-pair B. Coaxial C. Fiber-optic D. Shielded twisted-pair

C. Fiber-optic Fiber-optic cable can span distances of several kilometers because it has much lower attenuation, crosstalk, and interference as compared to copper cables.

You are installing a file server for the accounting department. Where should this file server be located on the network? A. Outside of the firewall B. In the DMZ C. In the secure network D. On the router

C. In the secure network If the data on the server does not need to be accessed via the Internet, then the server should be in the most secure place possible, which is inside the firewall(s) in the secure network.

Which feature of Windows 7 allows files and folders to be grouped logically and appear as if they are in the same location even when they are not? A. HomeGroup B. Touch C. Libraries D. Snap

C. Libraries Libraries allow you to logically group files together, as opposed to moving them into the same directory. HomeGroup allows for the easy sharing of files and printers between others in the same HomeGroup. Windows Touch added touchscreen functionality to Windows 7. Snap is an easy way to resize windows by snapping them into sides of the Desktop.

What kind of mobile app is being used when the owner's phone displays a message on the screen and emits an extremely loud tone? A. Failed login restriction B. Antivirus C. Locator D. Remote wipe

C. Locator Locator apps can find the phone and then display a message that can be read even while the phone is locked. Locator apps also often give the user the option to make the phone blare a noise to aid in finding the device. Failed login restrictions will wipe a device if a specific number of wrong passwords are entered. Antivirus apps make sure that your phone does not get a virus, but they offer no way to message or locate the device. Remotely wiping a mobile device is a feature of locator apps, but it is not itself an app that displays messages and produces noises.

Which Active Directory component maps printers and drives during login? A. Home folders B. Organizational unit C. Login script D. Microsoft Management Console (MMC)

C. Login script A login script is used by Active Directory during login to map drives and printers. A home folder is a private network location in which the user can store their personal files. Organizational units (OUs) are used to group computers and users so that Group Policy can be applied. The MMC is used to manage various aspects of Active Directory and the local operating system.

You used the winver.exe utility and it reported Windows 10 Version 1703 (OS Build 15063.145). What is the current date of the last update? A. 63rd day of 2015 B. 145th day of 2015 C. March of 2017 D. The version needs to be looked up at Microsoft.com.

C. March of 2017 The date code of the edition is yymm, so 1703 is March of 2017. The 63rd day of 2015 and the 145th day of 2015 are incorrect answers, because the build number is the number of builds of Windows 10. The build number does translate to a version of Windows, but that information is in the date code and does not need looked up.

Which of the following includes a voltmeter, an ohmmeter, and an ammeter? A. Crimper B. Cable stripper C. Multimeter D. Tone generator

C. Multimeter A multimeter combines a number of tools into one. There can be slight variations, but a multimeter always includes a voltmeter, an ohmmeter, and an ammeter (and is sometimes called VOM as an acronym). Wire crimpers look like pliers but are used to attach media connectors to the ends of cables. A cable stripper is used to remove the outer covering of the cable to get to the wire pairs within. A toner probe has two parts: the tone generator (called the toner) and the tone locator (called the probe). The toner sends the tone, and at the other end of the cable, the probe receives the toner's signal. This tool makes it easier to find the beginning and end of a cable.

Which of the following is the online/cloud storage account (to which you can save or move files) that comes with your Microsoft account? A. eDirectory B. Cloud + C. OneDrive D. PostBox

C. OneDrive OneDrive is the online/cloud storage account that comes with a Microsoft account. eDirectory and PostBox are wrong answers. Cloud + is a CompTIA certification.

One of your users claims that their hard drive seems to be running slowly. Which tool can you use to check to see how fragmented the hard drive is? A. Disk Analyzer B. Disk Cleanup C. Optimize Drives D. chkdsk

C. Optimize Drives The Optimize Drive tool allows you to analyze and optimize disks for fragmentation. Disk Analyzer is not a tool. Disk Cleanup is a tool used to clean up space on a drive. Chkdsk is a tool used to check for drive errors.

When personal devices include networking capabilities and can communicate directly with one another, they create which type of network? A. WAN B. MAN C. PAN D. WMN

C. PAN A personal area network (PAN) is a LAN created by personal devices. A wide area network (WAN) is a collection of two or more LANs, typically connected by routers and dedicated leased lines. Occasionally, a WAN will be referenced as a metropolitan area network (MAN) when it is confined to a certain geographic area, such as a university campus or city. Wireless mesh networks (WMN) are a form of an ad hoc WLAN that often consist of mesh clients, mesh routers, and gateways.

Which feature allows you to use free space on an SD card to speed up a system? A. ReadyDrive B. Shadow Copy C. ReadyBoost D. BitLocker to Go

C. ReadyBoost ReadyBoost allows you to use free space on a USB drive or SD card to speed up a system. ReadyDrive is used with hybrid hard disk drives (H-HDD) to speed up a system. Shadow Copy is used to save copies of files in real time. BitLocker to Go allows you to secure data stored on a USB drive.

Which repair option keeps personal files and settings along with the default apps and those that you installed from the Microsoft Store? A. Reset B. Restore C. Refresh D. Replace

C. Refresh When you boot into the Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) and choose to refresh the installation, personal files and Microsoft Store apps will be retained. Reset will delete all personal files and installed applications other than the default applications. Restore will undo a recent system change and could potentially remove installed apps from the Microsoft Store. Replace is not an option when booting into the Windows Recovery Environment.

Which of the following protocols is responsible for sending email? A. IMAP4 B. POP3 C. SMTP D. SNMP

C. SMTP Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is responsible for sending email. IMAP4 and POP3 both receive email. SNMP is a network management protocol.

Which of the following has the goal of allowing a username/password combination to be entered once, and then allowing claims to be used for consecutive logins? (Choose the best answer.) A. Tokens B. Kerberos C. Single sign-on D. Multifactor authentication

C. Single sign-on The goal of single sign-on (SSO) is to allow a username/password combination. Once the combination is entered, claims are used to access additional resources. Tokens are given to the operating system after a user successfully logs in; they allow a user to access rights on the operating system. Kerberos is used (along with Active Directory) to authenticate a user on the Windows operating system. Multifactor authentication is the use of two or more factors to authenticate a user.

Which feature is used to align windows on the Desktop? A. Cortana B. Spotlight C. Snap Assist D. HomeGroup

C. Snap Assist Snap Assist allows for the quick snapping alignment of a window on the Desktop. Cortana is a digital person assistant. Spotlight will display a random wallpaper on the login screen. HomeGroup is a simple file and printer sharing feature.

Your help desk has informed you that they received an urgent call from the vice president last night requesting his login ID and password. When you talk with the VP today, he says he never made that call. What type of attack is this? A. Spoofing B. Replay C. Social engineering D. Trojan horse

C. Social engineering Spear phishing is a type of social engineering, where someone is trying to con your organization into revealing account and password information by pretending to be a high-level person. A spoofing attack is an attempt by someone or something to masquerade as someone else, with the intent of disrupting access. A replay attack is a form of a man-in-the-middle attack, where packets are replayed a critical time. Trojan horses are programs that enter a system or network under the guise of another program.

Which two TCP/IP protocols work at the Host-to-Host layer of the DoD model? (Choose two.) A. IP B. ARP C. TCP D. UDP

C. TCP D. UDP The two protocols that work at the Host-to-Host layer are TCP and UDP. IP and ARP both work at the Internet layer.

You are trying to delete a file on the local filesystem, but the operating system will not let you. What could be the problem? (Choose the best answer.) A. The NTFS Modify permission is applied to the file. B. The share permissions are not set to Full Control. C. The file attributes are set to Read-only. D. The file attributes are set to System.

C. The file attributes are set to Read-only. The file attributes are most likely set to Read-only, thus not permitting the file to be deleted. The Modify permission would not hinder the file from being deleted. The share permissions would not have any bearing on the problem, since the local filesystem is being accessed. The file attributes being set to System would not restrict a file from being deleted.

When a desktop computer boots up, there is no video on the LCD monitor, just a blank screen. The system makes one beep when it powers on, and air is coming out of the case fan. What is the most likely cause of the problem? A. The motherboard has failed. B. The video card has failed. C. The monitor is disconnected. D. The CPU or RAM has failed.

C. The monitor is disconnected. When troubleshooting, always question the obvious. In this case, the system beeps once, which is usually a signal from the BIOS that POST completed successfully, and air is coming from the system fan. All of that appears to be normal. Check to see that the monitor is connected properly to the desktop computer and that it's receiving power.

Which restriction will be imposed on Windows 10 users until they activate the operating system? A. They won't be able to launch applications. B. They won't be able to run Windows Updates. C. They won't be able to change the wallpaper. D. They won't be able to browse the Internet.

C. They won't be able to change the wallpaper. Users will not be able to change the wallpaper or personalize the operating system until it is active. Applications will still launch fine. Windows Updates will continue to function to keep Windows up-to-date. Browsing the Internet will not be affected.

What is the primary function of the SSID? A. To secure communication between a web server and a browser B. To secure communication between a server and a remote host C. To serve as a parameter used to identify a network and configure a wireless connection D. To serve as a type of password used to secure a wireless connection

C. To serve as a parameter used to identify a network and configure a wireless connection A service-set identifier (SSID) is the unique name given to the wireless network. All hardware that is to participate on the network must be configured to use the same SSID. Essentially, it is the network name. When you are using Windows to connect to a wireless network, all available wireless networks will be listed by their SSID.

Your manager wants you to install a networked Internet appliance that prevents network traffic-based attacks and includes anti-malware and anti-spam software. What should you install? A. NIPS B. NIDS C. UTM D. Endpoint management system

C. UTM It sounds like the manager wants a unified threat management (UTM) device. They are designed to be one-stop network protection devices. Networked intrusion detection and prevention systems will detect network attacks but do not have anti-malware or anti-spam capabilities. An endpoint management system is not a security appliance.

You have set up a wireless router on your network and configured it to use AES. What configuration option do you need to choose on the client computers? A. WEP B. WPA C. WPA2 D. TKIP

C. WPA2 If your router is using AES, the clients will need to use WPA2. TKIP is a protocol utilized by WPA. WEP is the weakest of the encryption options.

What is the most secure wireless encryption standard for 802.11 networks? A. WEP B. WPA C. WPA2 D. SAFER+

C. WPA2 WEP was the original encryption standard developed for Wi-Fi networks, but it is easily hacked. WPA is an upgrade, but WPA2 is more secure and incorporates the entire 802.11i standard. SAFER+ is used to encrypt Bluetooth communications.

You are solving a problem with a desktop computer that was caused by human error. When is the appropriate time to implement preventive measures, according to the best practice methodology? A. When documenting findings, actions, and outcomes B. When testing the theory to determine cause C. When verifying full system functionality D. When questioning the user to identify user changes

C. When verifying full system functionality The fifth step in the best practice methodology is to verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures. This step occurs after a plan of action to resolve the problem has been established and before findings, actions, and outcomes have been documented.

You need to put a connector on the end of an Ethernet crossover cable. The existing end has a white and green colored wire at pin 1. What color do you need to make pin 1 on the new end? A. White/green B. Green C. White/orange D. Orange

C. White/orange A crossover cable will flip pins 1 and 3 on each end. Therefore, this end needs to have the white/orange wire as pin 1. The correct order for this cable should be white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown.

Which wireless encryption protocol provides Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) encryption? A. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) B. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) C. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) D. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

C. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) offers the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) for encrypting wireless communications. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) offers weak 64- or 128-bit encryption. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) uses the RC4 encryption algorithm. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) is a part of the WPA encryption protocol.

You need install Windows 7 in a PXE environment. Which of the following can you use? A. winload.exe B. BOOTMGR C. WinPE D. winresume.exe

C. WinPE Windows Preinstallation Environment (WinPE) is used in a PXE environment to network boot an installation of Windows 7. Winload.exeassists in loading the operating system kernel. BOOTMGR is the bootstrap loader for selecting the operating system to boot. Winresume.exeresumes a prior session of Windows and is called by BOOTMGR.

Which tool do you use to create a restore point in Windows? A. Windows Backup B. Previous Version C. Windows Recover Environment D. Windows Preinstallation Environment

C. Windows Recover Environment The Windows Recover Environment allows you to create a restore point. Windows Backup restores only user data, not the Windows operating system. Previous Version is used with Volume Shadow Copy (VSS). Windows Preinstallation Environment is the mini-Windows version used for installation of Windows.

Which of the following utilities can be used in Linux to download patches for installation on a workstation? A. update B. Shell/terminal C. apt-get D. patch

C. apt-get The apt-get utility can be used to download and apply patches to a Linux installation. The update command is not a utility. Shell/terminal is an interface for interacting with the operating system with the command line. The patch command is not a utility.

You believe that there are corrupt clusters on your disk. Which tool should you use? A. Disk Management B. sfc C. chkdsk D. diskpart

C. chkdsk The chkdsk tool is used to check the disk and repair any bad clusters, if possible. The Disk Management console is used to manage disks. The System File Checker (sfc) is used to scan for corrupt operating system files. Diskpart is a command-line version of the Disk Management console.

Which of the following commands can be used to change the owner of a file to a new owner in Linux? A. cd B. chmod C. chown D. pwd

C. chown The chown command is used to change ownership of a file. The cd command changes the working directory. The chmod command changes permissions on files. The pwd command displays the current working directory.

If Windows is installed on a system with multiple hard drives, which tool can be used to verify that images are pointing to their intended drives? A. GRUB B. LILO C. diskpart D. Sysprep

C. diskpart The diskpart utility can be used to verify that an image is pointing to its respective drive. GRUB and LILO are boot loaders used with Linux. Sysprep is a tool used to prepare a Windows installation for imaging.

Which of the following Linux commands/utilities can be used to edit a wireless connection's configuration settings? A. dd B. apt-get C. iwconfig D. pwd

C. iwconfig The iwconfig command can be used to edit a wireless connection's configuration settings. The dd command is used to duplicate disks. The apt-get command is used with the APT package management system for downloading packages. The pwd command will show the current working directory.

Within a Linux terminal, you want to see all the files on your system in long format (using the -l option), including any hidden files (which requires the -a option). Which command should you use? A. ls -a | ls -l B. ls -s; ls -l C. ls -la D. ls -a\ls -l

C. ls -la The command ls -la will list all of the files in long format. The command ls -a | ls-l will not work. The ls -s; ls -a will show two listings: one with the size and the other with all of the files. The ls -a\ls -l command will show two listings—one with all files and the other in a long format—but will not show all files in a long format.

Which utility allows you to choose the default operating system to boot to in a multiboot installation? A. BOOTMGR B. winload.exe C. msconfig.exe D. winlogon.exe

C. msconfig.exe Msconfig.exe can be used to choose the default operating system to boot to. BOOTMGR is the bootstrap program responsible for operating system selection on startup. Winload.exe is responsible for loading the operating system kernel. Winlogon.exe is part of the system files that enable users to log in to the operating system.

Which of the following Linux commands will show you a list of running processes? A. ls B. cat C. ps D. su

C. ps The ps command will display a snapshot of the current running processes on a Linux operating system. The ls command will display a listing of files from the working directory. The cat command will display the contents of a file. The su command allows you to change user logins at the command line.

Which utility can be used to schedule a remote shutdown? A. taskmgr B. kill C. shutdown D. netstat

C. shutdown The shutdown utility can be used to schedule a remote shutdown—for example, shutdown /t 60 /m \\computer. The taskmgr utility is used to view tasks; kill is used to kill processes; and netstat is used view network statistics and activity.

You are installing Windows 8 on a solid-state drive (SSD). Which of the following can be used to reduce the number of write operations Windows makes, thereby optimizing Windows for the SSD? A. msd tiny B. diskpart ssd C. winsat formal D. mcat now

C. winsat formal You can use the winsat formal command to assess and tune a solid-state drive installation of Windows 8. MSD tiny is neither a command nor a utility. The diskpart utility is used as a drive-partition tool. Mcat now is neither a command nor a utility.

In a drive path, what does the system partition usually appear as? A. A B. H C. 1 D. 0

D. 0 The system partition normally appears as partition 0; it is also the partition that contains the BCD. The boot partition that contains the operating system files normally appears as partition 1.

What is the maximum amount of RAM supported in the 64-bit edition of Windows 7 Enterprise? A. 8 GB B. 16 GB C. 128 GB D. 192 GB

D. 192 GB The maximum amount of RAM supported in the 64-bit edition of Windows 7 Enterprise is 192 GB. A 64-bit installation of Windows 7 Home Premium supports 16 GB of RAM. The other answers are incorrect.

What port does the RDP protocol work on? A. 53 B. 143 C. 389 D. 3389

D. 3389 Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) works on port 3389. DNS works on port 53; IMAP4 works on port 143; and LDAP works on port 389.

Which of the following operates at a maximum of 2 MB? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11

D. 802.11 802.11a and 802.11g have a maximum rate of 54 MB, 802.11b has a maximum of 11 MB, and 802.11 has a maximum of 2 MB.

Which of the following has the largest cell size? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11

D. 802.11 802.11g has a distance that is the cell size of 125 ft. The others have a distance of 115 ft.

Which record type on a DNS server represents an IPv6 host? A. A B. MX C. CNAME D. AAAA

D. AAAA The AAAA (quad A) record is used to represent IPv6 hosts. IPv4 hosts need an A record. The CNAME record is used if one host has alias (multiple) names. MX is for a mail server.

You are running an 802.11 g wireless router in mixed mode. You have three 802.11 g wireless NICs using the router. A new user connects using an 802.11b wireless NIC. What will happen? A. The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11 Mbps, while the users with 802.11 g will access the network at 54 Mbps. B. The user with 802.11b will not be able to communicate on the network. C. The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11 Mbps. The users with 802.11 g will access the network at 54 Mbps, unless they are communicating with the 802.11b device, which will be at 11 Mbps. D. All users will access the network at 11 Mbps.

D. All users will access the network at 11 Mbps. The good news is that 802.11 g is backward compatible with 802.11b. The bad news is, if you run in a mixed environment, all devices that communicate with the WAP (or router) will be forced to slow down to accommodate the older technology.

____________________ is immune to electromagnetic or radio-frequency interference. A. Twisted-pair cabling B. CSMA/CD C. Broadband coaxial cabling D. Fiber-optic cabling

D. Fiber-optic cabling Companies that want to ensure the safety and integrity of their data should use fiber-optic cable because it is not affected by electromagnetic or radio-frequency interference. Even though some copper cables have shielding, they are not immune to EMI or RFI. This eliminates twisted-pair and coaxial. CSMA/CD is an access method, not a cable type.

Which of the following broadband technologies provides two dedicated, digital data channels that can be combined for greater throughput? A. DSL B. Cable C. Satellite D. BRI ISDN E. PRI ISDN

D. BRI ISDN Basic rate interface ISDN (BRI ISDN) provides two separate 64 Kbps B channels for data transmissions. These channels can be combined to increase throughput. A PRI ISDN uses 23 B channels. DSL, cable, and satellite do not offer multiple dedicated digital channels.

Which of the following is typically not a cause of system lockups? A. Memory issues B. Virus C. Video driver D. Bad NIC driver

D. Bad NIC driver A bad NIC driver would cause the NIC not to work but would not cause a system lockup.

Which of the following allows you to install Windows on a Mac machine and choose between operating systems upon boot up? A. Keychain B. Mission Control C. Finder D. Boot Camp

D. Boot Camp Boot Camp allows you to install Windows on a Mac. Keychain is a tool that saves credentials so that the user does not need to be prompted. Mission Control is a quick way on macOS to view what is currently running. Finder is the macOS equivalent to Windows File Explorer.

In Windows, which of the following is the filesystem of choice for CD media? A. NTFS B. EFS C. FAT32 D. CDFS

D. CDFS The CDFS filesystem is used for CD media. NTFS is the native filesystem for the Windows operating system. FAT32 is a filesystem that was popular with Windows 9x operating systems. EFS is a technology that encrypts files.

Which of the following are controls that are available on the side of the screen and consist of Search, Share, Start, Devices, and Settings? A. Ornaments B. Sidecars C. Gestures D. Charms

D. Charms Charms were introduced in Windows 8 and are available on the side of the screen for quick access to Search, Share, Start, Devices, and Settings. Ornaments and sidecars are incorrect answers. Gestures are actions performed with your finger on Windows 8 tablet installations.

You have discovered a fix for a broken laptop. Before implementing changes, what should you consider, according to the best practice methodology? A. The user's budget B. Company reputation C. Upgrade feasibility D. Corporate policies

D. Corporate policies According to the best practice methodology, you should always consider corporate policies, procedures, and impacts before implementing changes. The user's budget, company reputation, and upgrade feasibility are not mentioned in the best practice methodology to resolve problems.

Within the Services snap-in, services can be in any state except which of the following? A. Started automatically B. Started manually C. Disabled D. Detached

D. Detached A service can be in one of four states: started automatically, started automatically (delayed start), started manually, or disabled. A service cannot be in a detached state.

What is the name of the area at the bottom of a macOS screen where, by default, a bar of crucial icons appears? A. Footer B. Mission Control C. Taskbar D. Dock

D. Dock The Dock is the area at the bottom of the macOS screen that is used to launch applications. The footer is not a valid answer. Mission Control is a macOS feature that allows you to see all the applications running. The Taskbar is a Windows Desktop element that is used to track running applications and quickly launch them.

Previous versions of Windows included Windows Explorer. What is this utility called in Windows 8? A. Finder B. OneDrive C. File Manager D. File Explorer

D. File Explorer File Explorer was called Windows Explorer in prior operating systems. Finder is the Apple file manager in macOS. OneDrive is an online/cloud storage location accessed with a Microsoft account. File Manager is the original name of the file manager in Windows 3.1.

A physical star topology consists of several workstations that branch off a central device called a ____________________. A. NIC B. Bridge C. Router D. Hub

D. Hub A hub or a switch is at the center of a star topology. A NIC is a network card, which each computer must have to be on the network. Bridges and routers are higher-level connectivity devices that connect network segments or separate networks together.

Which device operates at layer 1? A. Router B. Switch C. Bridge D. Hub

D. Hub Hubs operate at layer 1. Switches and bridges operate at layer 2. Routers operate at layer 3.

Your company wants to move to a cloud provider to be able to scale resources quickly, but it is concerned about the security of confidential information. Which of the following types of cloud models might be the most appropriate for your company? A. Public B. Private C. Community D. Hybrid

D. Hybrid A hybrid cloud provides the best of public and private clouds. You get the scalability and cost effectiveness of a public cloud but the security that you need for important files on the private portion of the cloud.

A smurf attack attempts to use a broadcast ping on a network. The return address of the ping may be that of a valid system in your network. Which protocol does a smurf attack use to conduct the attack? A. TCP B. IP C. UDP D. ICMP

D. ICMP A smurf attack attempts to use a broadcast ping (ICMP) on a network. The return address of the ping may be that of a valid system in your network. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is not used with a smurf attack. The Internet Protocol (IP) is a suite of protocols and solely used with a smurf attack. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is not used with a smurf attack.

Which of the following protocols is used for secure delivery of email? A. SMTP B. SNMP C. POP3 D. IMAP4

D. IMAP4 IMAP4 and POP3 are the two protocols that are used for email delivery. Of the two, only IMAP4 provides security features. SMTP sends email. SNMP is a network management protocol.

Which of the following is the first step in the CompTIA troubleshooting method? A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. B. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. C. Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). D. Identify the problem.

D. Identify the problem. The steps are as follows: 1. Identify the problem. 2. Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). 3. Test the theory to determine cause. 4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. 5. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures. 6. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

The workstations on your network are configured to use a DHCP server. One of the workstations can't communicate with other computers. Its IP address is 169.254.1.18. What could be the problem? A. The subnet mask is wrong. B. It has a private IP address. C. The default gateway is wrong. D. It can't reach the DHCP server.

D. It can't reach the DHCP server. The address assigned to the computer is an APIPA address. Microsoft client computers (and others) will configure themselves with an address in this range if they are unable to reach a DHCP server.

Which of the following connector types is an MFF connector? A. BNC B. ST C. SC D. LC

D. LC The local connector (LC) is a mini form factor (MFF) fiber-optic connector developed by Lucent Technologies. If it helps, think of LC as "Little Connector."

When a user turns on his desktop computer, nothing appears on the screen. He hears three long beeps, followed by three short beeps, and three long beeps. What should you do as a next step? A. Replace the motherboard. B. Replace the RAM. C. Replace the CPU. D. Look up the beep code on the manufacturer's website

D. Look up the beep code on the manufacturer's website. This system is producing a beep code and not completing the POST process. Different BIOS manufacturers use different beep codes. Look up this beep code on the manufacturer's website before replacing any hardware.

When enabled, which feature of a wireless router allows only specified computers to access the network? A. Port forwarding B. WPS C. SSID D. MAC filtering

D. MAC filtering MAC filtering is a security option that can specify that only computers with specific MAC (hardware) addresses can access the network. Port forwarding is a feature of firewalls. WPS is an easy setup mechanism for wireless networks. SSID is the wireless network name.

You need to enforce profile security requirements on mobile devices. Which should you use to achieve this goal? A. AUP B. NDA C. BYOD D. MDM

D. MDM Mobile device management (MDM) software enables you to enforce profile security requirements on mobile devices. The acceptable use policy (AUP) is a code of ethics your users should follow when dealing with organizational resources. A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) is an agreement between an employee and the organization to protect intellectual property. A bring you own device (BYOD) policy contains how devices should be secured but provides no enforcement.

Which of the following networking hardware devices is capable of creating VLANs? A. Firewall B. Repeater C. Unmanaged switch D. Managed switch

D. Managed switch A managed switch can create virtual LANs (VLANs) using its management software. A firewall is a hardware or software solution that serves as your network's security guard. Repeaters and unmanaged switches cannot create VLANs.

When Windows 8 was initially released, what was the interface called? A. Starter B. Aero C. Charm D. Metro UI

D. Metro UI When Windows 8 was first released, the interface was called the Metro UI. It was later called the Windows 8 interface. Starter is an edition of Windows 7. Aero is the name of the interface for Windows 7. A charm describes the quick access menu on Windows 8 when the cursor is placed in the lower-left corner of the screen.

Which service allows users with private IP addresses to access the Internet using a public IP address? A. DHCP B. DNS C. DMZ D. NAT

D. NAT Network Address Translation (NAT) allows users to have a private IP address and still access the Internet with a public IP address. NAT is installed on a router and translates the private IP address into a public address for the user to access the Internet. DHCP assigns IP configuration information to clients. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A DMZ is an area on a network between an external router and an internal router.

What is the maximum number of IPv6 addresses that can be assigned to one IPv6 interface? A. One (unicast) B. Two (unicast and anycast) C. Three (unicast, anycast, and multicast) D. None of the above

D. None of the above An IPv6 interface is not limited in the number of addresses that it can be assigned, although there could be limitations based upon practicality.

What can you do if a program is not responding to any commands and appears to be locked up? A. Open the System Control Panel applet and choose Performance to see what process is causing the problem. B. Add more memory. C. Press Ctrl + Alt + Del to reboot the computer. D. Open Task Manager, select the appropriate task, and then click End Task.

D. Open Task Manager, select the appropriate task, and then click End Task. When a program is not responding to any commands, the process must be terminated via the Task Manager. You can end the process by opening the Task Manager, right-clicking the application, and selecting End Task. Viewing the performance will not make the process respond. Adding more memory is not possible without shutting down the computer. Pressing Ctrl + Alt + Del without any further action will not reboot the computer.

What should be implemented to mitigate the risk of a password from being shoulder surfed or keylogged? A. Antivirus B. Privacy screens C. Password complexity D. Password expiration

D. Password expiration Password expiration is a tactic to mitigate passwords from being shoulder surfed or keylogged. Although it won't remove the threat completely, requiring passwords to expire makes it less likely that the password could be used over a long period time. Antivirus will not prevent shoulder surfing by other users. Privacy screens would not prevent keyloggers from capturing a password. Password complexity makes it harder to shoulder surf a password but does not mitigate the risk of a keylogger.

You want to mitigate the threat of someone attaching a wireless access point to your wired network. What should you use to mitigate this threat? A. Firewall B. Data loss prevention (DLP) C. Active Directory D. Port security

D. Port security Implementing port security on your switches will allow you to restrict the MAC addresses that can communicate on a switch port. This allows you to mitigate this threat. A firewall will not prevent access to your internal network. Data loss prevention (DLP) is used to limit the exposure of your data, usually through email. Active Directory provides centralized authentication in a Windows Server-based domain environment.

You have a computer with four physical CPUs and 4 TB of RAM. Which edition of Windows 10 should you install? A. Education B. Enterprise C. Pro D. Pro for Workstations

D. Pro for Workstations Only Windows 10 Pro for Workstations supports four physical CPUs. Windows 10 Education supports two physical CPUs and 2 TB of RAM. Windows 10 Enterprise supports two physical CPUs and 2 TB of RAM. Windows 10 Pro supports two physical CPUs and 2 TB of RAM.

You are configuring two email servers on your company's network. Which network protocol do the servers use to transfer mail to each other? A. POP3 B. IMAP4 C. SNMP D. SMTP

D. SMTP Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to transfer email between servers. POP3 and IMAP4 are used to download email. SNMP is Simple Network Management Protocol and not related to email.

Which type of server is a database server? A. HTTP B. DNS C. DHCP D. SQL

D. SQL A SQL server is a database server. DNS servers resolve IP addresses to hostnames. HTTP servers are web servers. DHCP servers provide automatic IP configurations.

Which Windows 10 feature displays a random wallpaper on the login screen? A. Cortana B. Action Center C. UWP D. Spotlight

D. Spotlight The Spotlight feature will display a random wallpaper from Bing.com on the login screen. Cortana is a digital person assistant. The Action Center allows for quick control of features as well as notifications. The Universal Windows Platform (UWP) is a development platform.

Which term refers to copying data between a mobile device and a computer system in order to mirror such things as contacts, programs, pictures, and music? A. Calibration B. Remote wipe C. Pairing D. Synchronization

D. Synchronization Synchronizing a mobile device with a computer system allows you to mirror personal data between the devices, regardless of which one contains the most current data. Calibration refers to matching the device's and user's perceptions of where the user is touching the screen. Remote wipes allow you to remove personal data from a lost or stolen device. Pairing is what must be done in Bluetooth for two Bluetooth devices to connect and communicate.

Which partition contains the hardware-specific files needed to load Windows? A. Recovery B. Data C. Windows D. System

D. System The system partition contains the BCD folder, which tells the computer how to start Windows. The recovery partition is used if the operating system needs to be repaired. The data partition is where the user data is stored, if it is configured in this manner. The Windows partition is not technically a partition; it is considered the same as the system partition, which is where the Windows operating system files are located.

An application states that it requires 4 GB of memory. What does that mean? A. The application needs 4 GB of local storage. B. The application needs 4 GB of network storage. C. The application needs 4 GB of memory itself. D. The application needs 4 GB of memory on the operating system.

D. The application needs 4 GB of memory on the operating system. When RAM requirements are stated, they are inclusive of the operating system, so the RAM requirement is the total memory of the operating system. The application will have a separate specification for local or network storage.

A mobile device is running out of RAM. What could be the most likely problem? A. The device is not charged to capacity. B. The digitizer is not functioning properly. C. The device is in DND mode. D. The device has background applications open.

D. The device has background applications open. The device most likely has too many background applications open, using RAM. That the device is not charged to capacity would not affect RAM. A digitizer not functioning properly would resemble inaccurate touchscreen responses. If the device were in Do Not Disturb mode, the speakers would not work.

You have been asked to set up client-side virtualization on an office computer. The host OS is Windows 7, and there will be three Windows 7 guest OSs. Which of the following is true about the need for antivirus security? A. The host OS needs an antivirus program, but virtual machines can't be affected by viruses. B. The host OS antivirus software will also protect the guest OSs on the VMs. C. Installing antivirus software on the virtual switch will protect all guest OSs. D. The host OS and each guest OS need their own antivirus software installed.

D. The host OS and each guest OS need their own antivirus software installed. Each instance of the OS you are running requires its own security software.

What is a disadvantage of allocating too much storage for an application? A. The storage could fill up too quickly. B. The storage could need upgrading in the future. C. The storage might be used for other applications. D. The storage might go unused.

D. The storage might go unused. Allocating too much storage for an application might mean that the storage never gets used. Allocating too much storage has no effect on how fast storage gets filled. Storage might need to be downgraded in the future, not upgraded. It is not likely for another application to use the space that was originally allocated for a different application.

Which of the following makes it easier to find the beginning and end of a cable? A. Crimper B. Cable stripper C. Multimeter D. Tone generator

D. Tone generator A toner probe has two parts: the tone generator (called the toner) and the tone locator (called the probe). The toner sends the tone, and at the other end of the cable, the probe receives the toner's signal. This tool makes it easier to find the beginning and end of a cable. Wire crimpers look like pliers but are used to attach media connectors to the ends of cables. A cable stripper is used to remove the outer covering of the cable to get to the wire pairs within. A multimeter combines a number of tools into one. There can be slight variations, but a multimeter always includes a voltmeter, an ohmmeter, and an ammeter (and is sometimes called VOM as an acronym).

You want to upgrade from Windows Vista Home Basic edition to Windows 10. What are your options? A. Upgrade to Windows 10 Home. B. Upgrade to Windows 10 Pro. C. Upgrade to Windows 10 Enterprise. D. Upgrade first to Windows 7 Home Basic.

D. Upgrade first to Windows 7 Home Basic. You will need to upgrade to Windows 7 Home Basic first, since Windows 10 does not have a direct upgrade path from Windows Vista. Upgrading to Windows 10 Home can be achieved after upgrading to Windows 7 Home Basic. Upgrading to Windows 10 Pro or Windows 10 Enterprise directly cannot be achieved, even after upgrading to Windows 7 Home Basic. However, you can upgrade editions once you have upgraded to Windows 10.

Which of the following is the name of a secure point-to-point connection made over a public network? A. NAT B. APIPA C. VLAN D. VPN

D. VPN A virtual private network (VPN) is a secure point-to-point connection made over a public network. NAT translates private IP address to public IP addresses. APIPA is an automatic IP address assignment if a client computer can't reach a DHCP server. VLANs are virtual local area networks configured through switches.

Which of the following is a form of ad hoc WLAN? A. WAN B. MAN C. PAN D. WMN

D. WMN Wireless mesh networks (WMN) are a form of an ad hoc WLAN that often consist of mesh clients, mesh routers, and gateways. A personal area network (PAN) is a LAN created by personal devices. A wide area network (WAN) is a collection of two or more LANs, typically connected by routers and dedicated leased lines. Occasionally, a WAN will be referenced as a metropolitan area network (MAN) when it is confined to a certain geographic area, such as a university campus or city.

Which editions of Windows 7 include BitLocker? (Choose two.) A. Windows 7 Starter B. Windows 7 Home Premium C. Windows 7 Professional D. Windows 7 Enterprise E. Windows 7 Ultimate

D. Windows 7 Enterprise E. Windows 7 Ultimate Only Windows 7 Enterprise and Windows 7 Ultimate include BitLocker. Windows 7 Starter, Home Premium, and Professional do not include BitLocker.

In Windows, which utility is responsible for finding, downloading, and installing Windows patches? A. Device Manager B. Microsoft Management Console C. Download Manager D. Windows Update

D. Windows Update Windows Update is responsible for downloading and installing Windows service packs, patches, and security updates. Device Manager is used to view devices installed on the operating system. The Microsoft Management Console is a console that allows snap-ins for management. Download Manager is a component of Internet Explorer.

Which tool can evaluate your current system and determine whether it can be upgraded to Windows 8? A. Windows Compatibility Advisor B. Windows Upgrade Wizard C. Windows Administrative Tools D. Windows Upgrade Assistant

D. Windows Upgrade Assistant The Windows Upgrade Assistant enables you to determine whether your current operating system can be upgraded to Windows 8. Windows Compatibility Advisor is not a Windows tool. The Windows Upgrade Wizard is used to upgrade Windows 8. The Windows Administrative Tools will not perform this function.

Which of the following editions of Windows Vista can be upgraded to Windows 7 Professional? A. Windows Vista Starter B. Windows Vista Home Basic C. Windows Vista Home Premium D. Windows Vista Business E. Windows Vista Ultimate

D. Windows Vista Business Only Windows Vista Business can be upgraded to Windows 7 Professional. Windows Vista Starter, Home Basic, Home Premium, and Ultimate cannot be upgraded to Windows 7 Professional.

What type of backups is kept on site at the computer center for immediate recovery purposes? A. Man-in-the-middle B. Cloud copies C. Journal copies D. Working copies

D. Working copies Working copies are backups that are kept on site at the computer center for immediate recovery purposes. Man-in-the-middle is an attack where an eavesdropper listens between two people or devices. Cloud copies are backups that are sent to cloud storage and cannot be immediately recovered. Journal copies is a wrong answer.

You want to upgrade from 32-bit Windows 7 Professional to a 64-bit version of Windows 10. What are your options? A. Upgrade directly to Windows 10 Pro 64-bit. B. Upgrade first to Windows 10 Pro 32-bit, and then update to 64-bit. C. Upgrade to Windows 8.1 64-bit, and then upgrade to Windows 10 64-bit. D. You must perform a clean installation of Windows 10 Pro 64-bit.

D. You must perform a clean installation of Windows 10 Pro 64-bit. There is no way to directly convert a 32-bit installation of Windows to 64-bit Windows without performing a clean installation. Upgrading directly to Windows 10 Pro 64-bit is not possible. Upgrading to Windows 10 Pro 32-bit is possible, but you cannot upgrade to a 64-bit edition. Upgrading to Windows 8.1 64-bit is not possible.

Which of the following filesystems is a proprietary filesystem created by Microsoft for use with large flash drives? A. GPT B. NFS C. ext3 D. exFAT

D. exFAT The exFAT filesystem is a Microsoft proprietary filesystem created for large flash drives. GPT is a partition table type; NFS is a network filesystem used with Linux/UNIX; and ext3 is a filesystem used with Linux.

You believe that your system files are corrupted in Windows. You run the System File Checker. Which command should you run in order to make the System File Checker automatically repair your system files? A. sfc /recover B. sfc /repair C. sfc /verifyfile D. sfc /scannow

D. sfc /scannow The System File Checker (sfc) will scan for and fix missing or corrupted operating systems files. The command used to initiate an immediate scan is sfc /scannow. SFC /recover and SFC /repair are not valid options. SFC /verifyfile will check a single file, but the path must be specified.

Which command terminates a running process at the command line? A. pskill B. ps C. kill D. taskkill

D. taskkill The taskkill command terminates a running process via the command line. The pskill command is a System Internals tool; ps is the Linux/UNIX equivalent of tasklist; and pkill is not a command.

Which of the following components are only used to restore Windows from a suspended state? A. BCD B. ntoskrnl.exe C. winload.exe D. winresume.exe

D. winresume.exe Winresume.exe is used to load Windows from a suspended state. The Boot Configuration Data (BCD) is used to direct Windows to boot the proper installation. Ntoskrnl.exe is the Windows kernel. Winload.exe is used for the normal booting of the Windows operating system.

Which of the following is an IPv6 broadcast address? A. ::1 B. FE80:: C. FF00:: D. ::FFFF E. None of the above

E. None of the above IPv6 does not have broadcasts. IPv6 does have multicasts, which are a bit like targeted broadcasts. FF00:: is the first part of a multicast address.

What are the output voltages that have been commonly produced by PC power supplies over the years? (Choose five.) A. +3.3VDC B. -3.3VDC C. +5VDC D. -5VDC E. +12VDC F. -12VDC G. +110VDC H. -110VDC

A. +3.3VDC C. +5VDC D. -5VDC E. +12VDC F. -12VDC A PC's power supply produces +3.3VDC, +5VDC, -5VDC, +12VDC, and -12VDC from a 110VAC input.

You are attaching an external hard drive to a computer with USB 2.0 ports. The user is concerned about data transfer speed. What is the maximum speed of USB 2.0? A. 480 Mbps B. 5 Gbps C. 10 Gbps D. 20 Gbps

A. 480 Mbps USB 2.0 has a maximum speed of 480 Mbps. USB 3.0 is 5 Gbps; USB 3.1 is 10 Gbps; and USB 3.2 is 20 Gbps.

Which of the following uses would not require a custom configuration for a PC? A. A computer running Windows 10 with 1 TB of data and 250 GB of applications installed B. A computer running Windows IoT C. A design computer used to drive a lathe that makes automotive rims D. A computer to replace a Blu-ray player and DVR

A. A computer running Windows 10 with 1 TB of data and 250 GB of applications installed The Windows 10 computer can be built as a normal system with a 2 TB or 3 TB drive. Windows IoT typically runs on a thin client. A type of CAD/CAM workstation capable of CNC would be used to create automotive wheel rims. A NAS is an ideal choice to take the place of both the Blu-ray player and DVR.

Which of the following system types do not require a CPU enhancement of any sort? (Choose all that apply.) A. A/V editing workstation B. Gaming PC C. Graphic design workstation D. Virtualization workstation

A. A/V editing workstation B. Gaming PC C. Graphic design workstation Virtualization workstations are the only custom configuration that requires CPU enhancements. For these types of systems, more cores are better. A/V editing workstations, gaming PCs, and graphic design workstations do not require CPU enhancements.

Which of the following Windows Update options can be changed by the user in Windows 10? A. Active hours B. Disabling updates C. Download times D. Windows Update sources

A. Active hours The active hours of the operating system can be changed. During these times, the operating system will not reboot after the update has been installed. Disabling updates, changing download times directly, and changing Windows Update sources are not user-related tasks.

In addition to right-clicking the Desktop, how else can you access the Display Properties settings? A. By clicking the Settings gear in the Start menu B. By clicking the System icon under Control Panel C. By pressing Ctrl+Alt+Esc D. By pressing Ctrl+Alt+Tab

A. By clicking the Settings gear in the Start menu Clicking the Settings gear in the Start menu will open the Settings app. From there, the System category will allow you to change the Display Properties. Clicking the System icon under the Control Panel allows you to change system settings. Pressing Ctrl+Alt+Esc launches the Task Manager. Pressing Ctrl+Alt+Tab launches the Task View in Windows 10.

You need to install a new hard drive into a desktop computer, Which of the following is not one of the three major components of a hard disk drive system? A. Drive interface B. Disk controller C. Hard disk D. Host adapter

A. Drive interface A conventional hard disk drive system consists of the hard disk and its often-integrated controller as well as a host adapter to gain access to the rest of the computer system. The drive interface is a common component of the controller and host adapter.

Intel and AMD have integrated which of the following into their Atom and APU processor lines that had not been integrated before? A. GPU B. Math coprocessor C. FSB D. RAM controller

A. GPU These CPUs integrate the graphics processing unit (GPU). The Core i7 before them integrated the memory controller, eliminating the FSB. Math coprocessors have been integrated since the 80486DX.

Which of the following connector types are capable of conducting power and transmitting data? (Choose all that apply.) A. Lightning B. Molex C. USB-C D. DB-9 E. micro-USB

A. Lightning C. USB-C E. micro-USB USB cables and eSATA cables can transmit power and data. You will find Lightning, USB-C, and micro-USB connectors on the ends of USB cables. A Molex connector is power-only. A DB-9 is for serial cables and is data-only.

You are assembling a new computer and are looking at new cooling systems. Which of the following cooling systems requires the use of a pump? A. Liquid B. Thermal paste C. Heat sink D. Heat sink plus fan

A. Liquid Liquid cooling systems require a reservoir of liquid and a pump to circulate the liquid. It's possible that the system could malfunction, causing a mess inside the computer. Thermal paste is used to adhere a heat sink to a processor. Heat sinks and fans do not use pumps.

Which computer component contains all the circuitry necessary for other components or devices to communicate with one another? A. Motherboard B. CPU C. RAM D. Expansion bus

A. Motherboard The spine of the computer is the system board, otherwise known as the motherboard. All other computer components plug into the motherboard. On the motherboard, you will find the CPU, underlying circuitry, expansion slots, video components, RAM slots, and various other chips.

Your friend Joe plays video game tournaments online, and he read in an online forum that he should install multiple GPUs for better speed. You tell him that if he does that, he needs better cooling. Why is high-end cooling a requirement for gaming PCs? A. Multiple GPUs generate more heat and can cause components to fail. B. Gaming controllers have components for tactile realism that generate copious amounts of heat. C. Digital sound cards generate more heat than analog sound cards. D. Placing that many hard drives in such a small space generates too much heat.

A. Multiple GPUs generate more heat and can cause components to fail. Multiple video cards (to get multiple GPUs) can be a way to increase video performance. Such a configuration may generate too much heat for conventional cooling to dissipate before the system is damaged. The cooling has no effect on external controllers, and sound cards don't generate much heat, but analog would certainly generate more than digital.

All of the following systems benefit from increased RAM except ___________________. (Choose two.) A. Network-attached storage device B. Virtualization workstation C. Graphic design workstation D. Gaming PC

A. Network-attached storage device D. Gaming PC Virtualization and graphic design workstations benefit from as much RAM as can be installed. Network-attached storage devices and gaming PCs do not require a large amount of temporary storage of instructions and data. They are more about the rapid movement of graphical data toward an output device.

Your Core i5 fan has a four-pin connector, but your motherboard only has a single three-pin header with the CPU_FAN label. Which of the following will be the easiest solution to get the necessary cooling for your CPU? A. Plug the four-pin connector into the three-pin header. B. Buy a four-pin to three-pin adapter. C. Leave the plug disconnected and use only the heat sink. D. Add an extra chassis fan.

A. Plug the four-pin connector into the three-pin header. The easiest solution that works to cool your CPU is to connect the four-pin connector into the three-pin header. The missing pin allows you to control the speed of the fan. Without it, the fan will run at top speed, which is fine, albeit a little noisier. There is no four-pin to three-pin power adapter. The heat sink alone should not be relied upon for proper cooling of modern CPUs, and an extra chassis fan isn't designed to specifically help cool the CPU.

Which of the following best describes the concept of hot-swappable devices? A. Power does not need to be turned off before the device is inserted or removed. B. The device can be removed with power applied after it is properly stopped in the operating system. C. Care must be taken when swapping the device because it can be hot to the touch. D. The device can be swapped while still hot, immediately after powering down the system.

A. Power does not need to be turned off before the device is inserted or removed. Hot-swappable devices can be removed while the power to the system is still on. Warm-swappable devices need to be stopped in the operating system before being removed. The term has nothing to do with the heat level of the device.

Which of the following was a major change with the introduction of Windows 8? A. Start screen B. Gadgets C. Sidebar D. System tray

A. Start screen The Start screen was introduced with Windows 8 and replaced the Start menu, by providing a full-screen Start menu. Gadgets and the Sidebar were introduced in Windows Vista. The system tray is what the notification area is now called in the current operating system.

Marcus, a network technician, has been asked to build a virtualization workstation for his manager. Which of the following are not common requirements that Marcus should consider for this custom configuration? (Choose all that apply.) A. Surround sound B. Maximum RAM C. Large, fast hard drives D. Multiple CPU cores

A. Surround sound C. Large, fast hard drives Virtualization workstations need to maximize the amount of RAM as well as CPU cores. Each virtualized instance of an operating system will be assigned its own memory and processor resources, and those resources are essentially reserved and off-limits to other virtual operating systems. Therefore, maximize both of them. Audio isn't required on a virtualization workstation, so surround sound is not needed. Large fast hard drives will be nice but are not a primary requirement.

Due to government regulations, a client wants to preserve data for a long period of time. What kind of media is most commonly used when large amounts of data need to be archived on a regular basis? A. Tape B. Optical disc C. External hard drive D. Network share

A. Tape Although inefficient as an interactive medium, sequential tape-based storage continues to be developed in increasing capacities. Tape continues to be a good choice for frequently backing up large amounts of data for redundancy and archival purposes. Optical discs don't have the same capacity, and neither do external hard drives. The cloud could be an option, but that is different from a network share.

You are interested in purchasing a new monitor and notice the contrast ratio specification. What does that refer to? A. The ratio of luminance between the darkest and lightest colors that can be displayed B. A term that was used with LCDs but is not a valid specification for OLEDs C. The ratio of luminance between two adjacent pixels D. A feature that changes based on the resolution setting

A. The ratio of luminance between the darkest and lightest colors that can be displayed Contrast ratio is a selling point for LCDs and is relevant for all monitor types, including OLEDs. Higher contrast ratios mean the monitor displays darker blacks and brighter whites. The measure of luminance between adjacent pixels is known as contrast, not contrast ratio. Contrast ratio is not dependent upon resolution.

A video editor at your company wants a second monitor, claiming that having only one monitor limits her ability to work. Why do A/V editing workstations benefit from more than one monitor? A. Their software often has enough controls across their width that one monitor seems cramped. B. While one graphics adapter works on one rendering project, the other can simply display a normal desktop. C. Once the editing is complete, the second monitor is used to present the results to others on the team. D. Additional monitors are used for remote collaboration among other editors.

A. Their software often has enough controls across their width that one monitor seems cramped. Editors of this type of media have numerous controls and timelines to track. These constructs often lie along the bottom of the application and run horizontally. Subsequent monitors allow the editor to spread out her work without shrinking the view excessively.

Which of the following display interfaces is equivalent to DisplayPort with PCIe added in? A. Thunderbolt B. HDMI C. DVI D. VGA

A. Thunderbolt Intel and Apple collaborated on Thunderbolt to add PCIe to VESA's DisplayPort and to make the resulting interface smaller and less expensive to connect. HDMI, DVI, and VGA are not equivalent to DisplayPort with PCIe added in.

When installing multiple add-on cards of the same type, which type of cards might you need to bridge together to function as a single unit? A. Video B. Sound C. USB D. eSATA

A. Video PCIe video cards may be bridged together, enabling two cards to function as one system. Sound cards and I/O expansion cards such as USB and eSATA cards do not have bridging capabilities.

When replacing a power supply, which of the following tends to vary among power supplies and must be chosen properly to support all connected devices? A. Wattage B. Voltage C. Amperage D. Resistance

A. Wattage Power supplies are rated in watts. When you purchase a power supply, you should make sure the devices inside the computer do not require more wattage than the chosen power supply can offer. The voltage is fairly standard among power supplies, and it has nothing to do with the devices connected to the power supply. Amperage and resistance are not selling points for power supplies. Another thing that could vary is the number of power connectors—make sure the new power supply has enough to support all installed peripherals.

Which of the following allows you to navigate file⁄folder structures in Windows 10? A. Start menu B. File Explorer C. KDE D. GNOME

B. File Explorer The File Explorer allows you to navigate the file⁄folder structure in Windows 10. The Start menu allows you to launch applications. KDE and GNOME are Linux desktop shells.

Which of the following is a program that runs on top of the OS and allows the user to issue commands through a set of menus or some other graphical interface? A. Taskbar B. Shell C. Desktop D. Source

B. Shell The shell is a program that runs on top of the OS and allows user interaction with the operating system. The taskbar is an element of the Desktop. The Desktop does not allow for commands to be executed. Source is not related to the graphical interface.

You are training new technicians to install RAM and pointing out differences between packages. Which of the following are the numbers of pins that can be found on DIMM modules used in desktop motherboards? (Choose two.) A. 180 B. 184 C. 200 D. 204 E. 232 F. 240

B. 184 F. 240 DIMMs used in desktop motherboard applications have one of four possible pin counts. SDR SDRAM is implemented on 168-pin modules. DDR SDRAM is implemented on 184-pin modules. DDR2 and DDR3 are implemented on 240-pin modules with different keying, and DDR4 DIMMs have 288 pins. Older dual-channel DIMM modules have 232 pins. Modules with 200 and 204 pins are used in the SODIMM line, and there are no modules with 180 pins.

Which of the following resolutions is an example of a 16:10 aspect ratio? A. 1280 × 1024 B. 1920 × 1200 C. 800 × 600 D. 2048 × 1536

B. 1920 × 1200 Dividing 16 by 10 produces a value of 1.6. Dividing the first number of a 16:10 resolution by the second number always results in 1.6. Therefore, the answer is 1920 × 1200. Resolutions with a 4:3 aspect ratio produce the value 1.33, while 5.4 resolutions such as 1280 × 1024 produce the value 1.25. 16:9 aspect ratios have a value of 1.78.

Robin has been asked to lead training for new technicians at a local PC distributor specializing in gaming PCs. For which one of the following should she not recommend upgraded parts? A. High-end cooling B. A RAID array C. High-end video D. Better sound card

B. A RAID array Gaming PCs are not known for requiring fault tolerance or data persistence. RAID arrays, therefore, are generally not included. The other components are a benefit for gaming PCs, however.

VGA cables use what type of signal between the adapter and monitor? A. Digital B. Analog C. Composite D. Compressed

B. Analog VGA signals are analog, uncompressed, component signals that carry all of the video information for all three components of the original RGB signal. VGA signals are not digital, composite, or compressed.

You install a new NIC for a user, and he asks what it does. Which of the following best characterizes the functions of this device? A. Multimedia B. Communications C. Input/Output D. Storage

B. Communications A network interface card (NIC) is used as a communications device. It enables the computer to talk to other computers on a network. It does not provide multimedia, input/output (such as a USB port does), or storage capabilities.

The Windows File Explorer program can be used to do which of the following? (Choose two.) A. Browse the Internet B. Copy and move files C. Change file attributes D. Create backup jobs

B. Copy and move files C. Change file attributes The Windows File Explorer program can be used to copy and move files. Window File Explorer can also be used to change file attributes. Windows File Explorer cannot be used to browse the Internet or to create backup jobs.

You need to replace memory in a desktop PC and to go purchase RAM. When you are at the store, you need to find the appropriate type of memory. What memory chips would you find on a stick of PC3-16000? A. DDR-2000 B. DDR3-2000 C. DDR3-1600 D. PC3-2000

B. DDR3-2000 Remember the 8:1 rule. Modules greater than but not including SDR SDRAM are named with a number eight times larger than the number used to name the chips on the module. The initials PC are used to describe the module; the initials DDR are used for the chips; and a single-digit number after PC and DDR is used to represent the level of DDR. The lack of a single-digit number represents DDR as long as the number that is present is greater than 133 (such as PC1600). Otherwise, you're dealing with SDR (such as PC133). This means that PC3-16000 modules are DDR3 modules and are populated with chips named DDR3 and a number that is one-eighth of the module's numeric code: 2000.

Danielle has been asked to configure virtualization at her company. She recommends that her manager buy multicore processors. What justification should she give as to why virtualization workstations require as many CPU cores as possible? A. Each virtual machine has one or more cores installed directly in it. B. Each virtual machine makes use of actual CPU resources for processing instructions and data. C. Fault tolerance dictates that if one CPU core fails, there should be one or more in line to take its place. D. Because each guest operating system runs in its own space, multiple cores are required to store the collective data.

B. Each virtual machine makes use of actual CPU resources for processing instructions and data. Virtual machines do not imply virtual processing. The data storage, processing cycles, and RAM usage are all real. The separate hard drive and chassis for each operating system are virtual. The other answers all have at least one fundamental problem with their logic. CPU cores are not installed in virtual machines but in CPU packages within physical machines. CPU cores do not take over for each other. There is no fault tolerance among them. Storing data is the job of RAM, which should also be maximized for virtualization workstations.

Which of the following have been common methods to backlight an LCD monitor? (Choose two.) A. RGB OLEDs B. LEDs C. Incandescent bulbs D. Halogen bulbs E. Fluorescent bulbs

B. LEDs E. Fluorescent bulbs Early LCD monitors featured one or more fluorescent bulbs that were used to produce light that shone through the LCD panel. Modern LCD monitors have LED panels to generate the light, the advantage being that there is now a separate LED for each picture element instead of a common light source for the entire monitor. OLEDs do provide light, but RGB OLEDs are not used. Incandescent and halogen bulbs are not used for backlighting

A user with an iPhone 7 needs to charge her device and asks you to bring a cable. Which of the following connector types should you ensure that the cable has? A. Thunderbolt B. Lightning C. USB-C D. Micro-USB

B. Lightning Starting with the iPhone 5, Apple products use the proprietary Lightning connector for charging and connecting peripherals. Thunderbolt connectors are on MacBooks for peripherals. iPhones do not have built-in USB connectors.

Peter is configuring a NAS. Which of the following should be his least-important priority to include in his NAS? A. File sharing B. Maximum RAM C. Gigabit NIC D. Media streaming E. RAID array

B. Maximum RAM A NAS should support file sharing and media streaming, and have a Gigabit NIC card and a RAID array. Additional RAM in a NAS offers no advantage for the performance of the NAS past a certain point. The tasks the NAS is asked to perform do not require high performance.

You are configuring a virtualization workstation for your home use. Which of the following is required for your new system? A. Multiple host operating systems B. Maximum RAM allowed C. File sharing services D. Multiple NICs

B. Maximum RAM allowed Maximum RAM and CPU cores are the primary requirements for such systems. Although there are multiple guest operating systems, generally there is but one host to those guests. File sharing may be a service the administrator decides to offer, and multiple NICs might prove advantageous with virtual machines that are popular among the clients, but these workstations do not require either.

Which of the following is not an example of a connector for a standard peripheral input device? A. 1/8" jack B. Molex C. D-sub D. USB

B. Molex Peripherals most often use USB today, but they can also use D-sub connectors (rarely), and audio devices such as microphones and speakers use 1/8" jacks. Molex connectors are power connectors for PATA hard drives and optical drives.

Which of the following system types does not benefit from video enhancements? A. CAD/CAM design workstation B. Network-attached storage device C. A/V editing workstation D. Gaming PC

B. Network-attached storage device CAD/CAM design workstations, A/V editing workstations, and gaming PCs can all benefit from video enhancements. A NAS does not benefit from enhanced video and might not use a monitor at all.

A technician asks you how to get a computer's processor to run faster than it currently does. What is he trying to achieve? A. Hyperthreading B. Overclocking C. Virtualization D. Multicore support

B. Overclocking Overclocking is when someone sets the speed of the processor to run faster than it was rated for. While overclocking can make a computer faster, it can also cause the processor to overheat, and it voids the warranty. Hyperthreading allows for a processor core to handle multiple processes simultaneously. Virtualization is when you create multiple virtual machines on a computer. Multicore means that the processor has more than one core—it's not a configurable option.

You need to install a new video card into a desktop computer. What type of expansion slot is preferred today for high-performance graphics adapters? A. AGP B. PCIe C. PCI D. SATA

B. PCIe PCIe is the newest and fastest slot for video cards. AGP and PCI are legacy technologies. SATA is for hard drives.

In Windows, a deleted file can be retrieved using which of the following? A. My Computer icon B. Recycle Bin C. Control Panel D. Settings app

B. Recycle Bin The Recycle Bin is a temporary spot that files are deleted to but from where they can be retrieved if deleted mistakenly. The My Computer icon is another way to start the File Explorer. The Control Panel and Settings app are used to customize the operating system.

A client is looking for a desktop drive technology that saves money over SSDs but offers performance increases over HDDs and can be used to house the operating system. Which of the following is the best to recommend? A. Dual-drive technology B. SSHD C. NVMe D. Magnetic-only drive

B. SSHD A solid-state hybrid drive incorporates the features of both conventional magnetic-only hard drives and solid-state drives. As a result, the performance of an SSHD exceeds that of a hard drive but costs less than the equivalent-sized SSD. A dual-drive option still requires the purchase of a full-sized SSD. Adding the cost of the SSD and the HDD, the dual-drive solution does not satisfy the requirement of an affordable technology. NVMe is a form of solid-state drive and does not save money.

You are choosing an optical drive format for a client. Which optical disc format supports a data capacity of 25 GB? A. Double-sided, double-layer DVD+R B. Single-sided, single-layer Blu-ray Disc C. Double-sided, single-layer DVD-R D. Double-sided, single-layer DVD+R

B. Single-sided, single-layer Blu-ray Disc Blu-ray discs have a single-sided, single-layer capacity of 25 GB. A double-sided, single layer DVD can store about 9.4 GB, and a double-sided, double-layer DVD can store about 171 GB.

You press the front power button on a computer and the system boots. Later, you press it briefly and the system hibernates. When you press it again, the system resumes. You press and hold the button and the system shuts down. What is this feature called? A. Programmable power B. Soft power C. Relay power D. Hot power

B. Soft power Soft power is the feature whereby the front power button acts as a relay to initiate various system power changes, depending on the duration that the button is held. Programmable power, relay power, and hot power are not valid power options.

You have just replaced a processor in a computer and now need to add a cooling mechanism. What should you use to attach the cooling system to the processor? A. Heat sink B. Thermal paste C. Fan D. Superglue

B. Thermal paste Thermal paste is used to attach heat sinks and fans to processors. A heat sink usually gets attached to the processor using thermal paste, and then the fan is attached to the heat sink. Superglue would make it adhere, but it does not transfer heat properly—it would likely melt and cause a mess.

You are installing a new video card that has an HDMI port. Which of the following is true about HDMI cables? (Choose all that apply.) A. They can transmit analog or digital signals. B. They can transmit audio as well as video. C. They are not used to connect to projectors. D. They can use HDMI or mini-HDMI connectors.

B. They can transmit audio as well as video. D. They can use HDMI or mini-HDMI connectors. HDMI cables transmit digital video and audio signals. They can be used to connect to projectors or monitors. HDMI cables can have standard HDMI connectors, mini-HDMI connectors, or micro-HDMI connectors.

Which type of system simply needs to meet recommended requirements for standard versions of operating systems and support desktop applications? A. Thin client B. Thick client C. Network-attached storage device D. Virtualization workstation

B. Thick client Thick clients are standard desktop PCs. They stand in contrast to systems with specialized requirements, such as the remaining options.

If a program doesn't have a shortcut on the Desktop or in the Programs submenu, you can start it by which of the following methods? (Choose the best answer.) A. Using the shutdown command B. Typing the program name in the Start box C. Using the run command and typing in the name of the program D. Typing cmd in the Start box followed by the program name

B. Typing the program name in the Start box Typing the program name in the Start box allows you to launch the program. The shutdown command will shut down the operating system. Run is not a command; it is a dialog box. The cmd command starts the command-prompt application.

You have just found out that a new BIOS upgrade exists for your computer, and you obtain a copy to install it. Which of the following is most helpful when flashing the BIOS on a desktop computer system? A. DVD-ROM B. Uninterruptable power supply C. Internet connection D. Windows administrator password

B. Uninterruptable power supply None of the options are required, but a UPS is by far the most helpful among the answers in that loss of power during this procedure can range from annoying to devastating.

Which of the following is not a consideration when upgrading power supplies? A. You might find that you do not have a matching motherboard connector on your new power supply. B. You might find that your case has a nonremovable power supply. C. You might find that your power rating is not adequate on the new power supply. D. You might find that you do not have enough of the appropriate connectors coming from the power supply for the devices that you have installed.

B. You might find that your case has a nonremovable power supply. Personal computers do not have permanently installed power supplies. Like other electrical and electronic components, power supplies can and do fail on a regular basis. Permanently mounting a power supply to a chassis would be a disservice to the consumer. You should consider the cumulative power needs of your installed components, and you might have to obtain adapters and splitters if you do not have enough or you have the wrong types of connectors coming from the power supply.

Which of the following can you type in the Start menu in Windows to open a command prompt? (Choose two.) A. run B. cmd C. command D. open

B. cmd C. command You can open a command prompt by typing cmd or command in the Start menu. The command prompt utility will pop up in the search results.Run is not a command; it is a dialog box. Open is not a command; it is an operating system action.

You are installing a new video card into a PCIe slot. What is the combined total throughput of a PCIe 2.0 x16 slot? A. 500 MBps B. 1 GBps C. 16 GBps D. 32 GBps

C. 16 GBps The PCIe 1.1 specification provided 250 MBps of throughput per lane per direction. With the 2.x versions of PCIe, this rate was doubled to 500 MBps. As a result, each v2.0 lane is capable of a combined 1GBps. A x16 slot consists of 16 lanes, for a total bidirectional throughput of 16 GBps.

You are told by a technician over the phone that you need to bring replacement DDR SDRAM memory. What type of packaging is used for DDR SDRAM memory? A. 168-pin DIMM B. 224-pin DIMM C. 184-pin DIMM D. 240-pin DIMM

C. 184-pin DIMM DDR SDRAM is manufactured on a 184-pin DIMM. DIMMs with 168 pins were used for SDR SDRAM. 224-pin DIMMs do not exist. DIMMs with 240 pins are used for DDR2 and DDR3 SDRAM.

What is the minimum required memory for a 64-bit installation of Windows 10? A. 512 MB B. 1 GB C. 2 GB D. 4 GB

C. 2 GB The minimum amount of memory required for the 64-bit installation of the Windows 10 is 2 GB.

What is the minimum required memory for a 64-bit installation of Windows 7? A. 512 MB B. 1 GB C. 2 GB D. 4 GB

C. 2 GB The minimum amount of memory required for the 64-bit installation of the Windows 7 is 2 GB.

What is the minimum amount of free hard drive space required for the installation of Windows 7 64-bit? A. 1.5 GB B. 15 GB C. 20 GB D. 60 GB

C. 20 GB The minimum amount of free hard drive space required for Windows 7 64-bit is 20 GB.

Of the following voltage pairings, which one accurately represents the input and output, respectively, of power supplies and AC adapters? A. AC in, AC out B. DC in, DC out C. AC in, DC out D. DC in, AC out

C. AC in, DC out Power supplies and AC adapters use standard wall outlets for an input of AC voltage, which they convert to the DC voltages required by the components to which they supply power.

You are replacing a motherboard in a computer that uses an AMD Ryzen 3 processor. Which CPU socket type do you need to ensure that the motherboard has? A. AM2 B. AM3 C. AM4 D. LGA 1151

C. AM4 The AMD Ryzen 3, Ryzen 5, and Ryzen 7 CPUs use Socket AM4. AM2 and AM3 are used for older processors, such as the Phenom II, Athlon II, Sempron, and Opteron. Any socket that starts with LGA in its socket name is for Intel processors.

You are installing a new computer, and the user wants to use virtualization. Which two hardware components need to support virtual technology for this to work properly? (Choose two.) A. RAM B. Motherboard C. CPU D. BIOS

C. CPU D. BIOS For virtualization to work, both the CPU and BIOS need to support it. The operating system does as well. Virtualization support may need to be manually enabled in the BIOS. RAM does not need to support virtualization, and neither does the motherboard (except for the BIOS).

Which of the following connector types is typically not associated with hard drive use? A. USB-C B. eSATA C. DB-9 D. SCSI

C. DB-9 DB-9 connectors are most often used with serial cables and are not associated with hard drives. USB-C, eSATA, and SCSI are examples of connectors used with hard drives.

You have just purchased a motherboard that has an LGA 1156 socket for an Intel Pentium processor. What type of memory modules will you most likely need for this motherboard? A. DIP B. SIMM C. DIMM D. SODIMM

C. DIMM Pentium processors in a desktop always use DIMMs. DIPs and SIMMs are earlier forms of memory that have been obsolete for many years. SODIMMs are used in laptops.

You have been asked to install a new hard drive for a client. Which of the following is not a consideration when installing an internal storage device? A. You should match the form factor of the drive or adapt it to an available drive bay or slot. B. You should secure the drive with at least two screws on one side and preferably two on each side. C. Due to the high revolutions at which modern hard drives spin, you must secure an external power source because the internal power supplies do not have the capacity. D. You need to be sure that the routing of the drive's data cable, if applicable, does not obstruct the engineered flow of air across internal components.

C. Due to the high revolutions at which modern hard drives spin, you must secure an external power source because the internal power supplies do not have the capacity. Today's hard drives, regardless of their rpm, have standard internal power connections. The other options are valid concerns when installing an internal drive.

Maria is setting up a gaming PC and wants to know which type of video cables to purchase. Which of the following is the recommended video output technology for a gaming PC? A. DVI B. VGA C. HDMI D. YCbCr

C. HDMI Because of its exceptional capabilities of digital video and audio output, as well as its potential for support of future standards, HDMI is the video output technology of choice. VGA, DVI, and component video (YCbCr and YPbPr) can't make the same claim.

A motherboard failed on a desktop PC with an Intel Core i7-8700K processor. When looking for a replacement motherboard, which CPU socket does it need to have? A. LGA 1366 B. LGA 1150 C. LGA 1151 D. LGA 2066

C. LGA 1151 The Core i7-8700K is a Coffee Lake-series processor, which uses the LGA 1151 socket. LGA 1150 sockets are for older i7s, and the LGA 1366 socket is for even older ones than that. The LGA 2066 socket is for processors with a capital X at the end of their model number.

When purchasing a projector, which of the following is the most important characteristic to consider? A. Aspect ratio B. Maximum resolution C. Lumens D. Native resolution

C. Lumens When evaluating a projector, understand how many lumens it produces. You need to ensure that it will be bright enough for the environment in which it will be used. Most projectors can support multiple aspect ratios and resolutions.

What kind of peripheral is used to read credit cards to initiate financial transactions? (Choose all that apply.) A. Barcode reader B. Signature pad C. Magnetic reader D. Chip reader

C. Magnetic reader D. Chip reader Magnetic readers and chip readers can read credit and debit card information to initiate a financial transaction. Barcode readers read barcodes on packages. Signature pads allow for the digital input of someone's signature.

How do you increase the size of the taskbar? A. Right-click the mouse and drag the taskbar. B. Left-click the mouse and double-click the taskbar. C. Move the mouse pointer to the top of the taskbar, pausing until the pointer turns into a double-headed arrow, and then click and drag. D. Highlight the taskbar and double-click in the center.

C. Move the mouse pointer to the top of the taskbar, pausing until the pointer turns into a double-headed arrow, and then click and drag. You can increase the size of the taskbar size placing the cursor over the top of the taskbar and dragging it up.

Your goal is to build the fastest computer possible. Which of the following hard drive technologies should you choose for the fastest read performance? A. M.2 PCIe B. M.2 SATA C. NVMe PCIe D. NVMe SATA

C. NVMe PCIe M.2 and NVMe are both relatively new SSD options, and both are incredibly fast. NVMe is slightly faster, though. SATA is limited to 600 MBps transfer speeds, whereas PCIe is not. An NVMe PCIe card can sustain data read rates of about 3,500 MBps.

Which of the following is located on the rightmost portion of the taskbar? A. Start menu B. Quick Launch C. Notification area D. Shutdown options

C. Notification area The notification area is the area on the rightmost portion of the taskbar. It is used to display the date and time and running background applications. The Quick Launch and Start menu are located on the leftmost portion of the taskbar. Shutdown options are found inside the Start menu in Windows 10.

Your network uses thin clients. A new technician is amazed that the computers have no hard drives and asks, "If the operating system is not resident on the client, where is it found?" A. On a DVD inserted at bootup B. On a USB flash drive C. On the server for session-by-session client use D. Embedded in a flash module on the motherboard

C. On the server for session-by-session client use Clients request services of servers. Thin clients can request software services from their servers, whether in the form of running the software and passing the results to the client or passing the code of the software to the client to be executed by its processor and kept only in RAM.

You have been asked to set up a workstation for a new graphic designer at your company. Which of the following is not a requirement for a graphic design workstation? A. Fast hard drive B. Maximum RAM C. Powerful CPU D. High-end video

C. Powerful CPU Graphic design and CAD/CAM design workstations do not require a powerful CPU. They can use a fast hard drive because the artist works with large images that can take a long time to load or save. Maximum RAM is needed to hold the highly detailed, sometimes 3D, artwork before saving. High-end video is necessary for assisting in the rendering and display of the images.

Which of the following allows you to perform the most complete restart of the computer without removing power? A. Start ➢ Restart B. Start ➢ Hibernate C. Reset button D. Power button

C. Reset button The reset button causes the computer to return to nearly the same point it is in when you power it on, but without the need for power cycling. Using Restart in the Start menu does not reboot as deeply as the reset button. Hibernation is a power state that completely removes power after saving the contents of RAM to the hard drive; pressing the power button is required to resume the session in the same manner as starting the computer after a complete shutdown. The power button cannot be used as a method of restarting the system.

You have recently installed a NAS in your home so that all your family members could share media. You have a router and network cabling that supports Gigabit Ethernet. Why should you equip a NAS with a Gigabit NIC? A. All systems, including the NAS, should communicate at the same speed. B. The NAS should not be allowed to communicate at the higher speeds of the rest of the network or it will be overused. C. The NAS should exceed the communication speed of the clients to avoid a bottleneck. D. The operating system that a NAS runs is not compatible with Gigabit Ethernet.

C. The NAS should exceed the communication speed of the clients to avoid a bottleneck. Optimally, the NAS should communicate across a link that is the aggregate of all client links, but at the very least, the NAS's link should be a faster one to alleviate the potential bottleneck when all clients try to access the server simultaneously.

You have a motherboard with integrated video, and the video fails. You install a video add-on card. Which of the following statements are the most accurate? (Choose two.) A. The add-on card will not function properly because of the integrated video. B. The add-on card will function if it is bridged to the integrated video chipset. C. The add-on card will be detected automatically and function properly if it's PCIe. D. For the card to work properly, you might need to disable the integrated video in the BIOS. E. The add-on card will work properly by using the integrated card's video driver.

C. The add-on card will be detected automatically and function properly if it's PCIe. D. For the card to work properly, you might need to disable the integrated video in the BIOS. Most likely, the new card will be detected and function properly once the computer is booted up. However, the driver will need to be installed. Odds are the new card will be a different model from the integrated card, which will require a new driver. On some systems, you will need to go into the BIOS and disable the integrated adapter. Bridging happens between two PCIe video adapters, not an integrated video chipset.

You are installing peripherals on a new computer. Which of the following devices provides both input and output? A. Webcam B. Projector C. Touch screen D. KVM switch

C. Touch screen A touch screen provides video output, and users can touch the screen to provide input as well. A webcam is for video input, and a projector is for video output. A KVM switch lets users connect one keyboard, video, and mouse set to multiple computers and switch between them.

What type of pointing device features a ball and buttons on the top and a flat, steady surface on the bottom? A. Mouse B. Touch pad C. Trackball D. Track pad

C. Trackball A trackball is a sort of stationary upside-down mouse that has the ball for movement detection on the top of the device along with the keys. The ball is actuated by the thumb or fingers, not by moving the device along a flat surface or mouse pad. Trackballs are ideal where desk space is limited. Touch pads feature a touch-sensing surface with no ball for movement, while track pad is a more rare term meaning the same.

How do you connect a DVI-A interface on a peripheral to a DVI-D interface on the computer? A. With a DVI-I cable B. With a cable that is terminated on one end with a DVI-A connector and on the other end with a DVD-D connector C. You wouldn't interconnect those two interfaces D. With a standard DVI cable

C. You wouldn't interconnect those two interfaces Such a connection should not be made. DVI-I cables act like universal cables; they can connect two DVI-A interfaces or two DVI-D interfaces with adapters. Natively, they are used to connect two DVI-I interfaces, both of which are configured as either analog or digital. They are unable to convert the analog signal to a digital one, however. Analog and digital DVI interfaces are too disparate to interconnect.

You are choosing a flash standard for a client. They want the smallest flash cards possible. Which standard should you recommend? A. SD B. CompactFlash C. microSD D. miniSD E. xD

C. microSD The smallest of the options is microSD, at 15 mm × 11 mm. Perhaps "micro" gives it away, but that also makes it easy to remember. SD cards are 32 mm × 24 mm. CompactFlash cards are the largest, at 36 mm × 43 mm. MiniSD cards measure at 21.5 mm × 20 mm, and xD cards are 20 mm × 25 mm.

What is the minimum amount of memory required for a 32-bit installation of Windows 8.1? A. 128 MB B. 256 MB C. 512 MB D. 1 GB

D. 1 GB The minimum amount of memory required for the installation of the 32-bit Windows 8.1 operating system is 1 GB.

What is the maximum allowable length for the name of a file in Windows? A. 8 characters B. 32 characters C. 64 characters D. 255 characters

D. 255 characters The maximum allowable length for a filename is 255 characters.

You are installing a new hard drive and want to know if the operating system will be able to support it. What is the largest NTFS volume size supported, assuming a 64 KB cluster size as maximum? A. 1 TB B. 2 TB C. 128 TB D. 256 TB

D. 256 TB A fixed number of clusters is supported by each operating system, leading to a corresponding maximum volume size. If the maximum NTFS cluster size of 64 KB is used, NTFS can support a single-volume size of 64 KB less than 256 TB. When a cluster size of one sector, or 512 bytes (1/2 KB), is used, the maximum volume size reduces to 2 TB. Because of this math, 1 TB and 128 TB are incorrect answers.

Which of the following descriptions most closely matches that of a thin client? A. A high-resolution monitor, keyboard, and mouse B. A computer with a low-profile case C. A laptop D. A dumb terminal with a NIC

D. A dumb terminal with a NIC Although not all thin clients are devoid of local processing capability, some are. High-resolution graphics are not a requirement, but thin clients do require a system unit with a NIC.

You are installing a replacement monitor on a desktop computer. Which of the following is true regarding a monitor's refresh rate? A. As long as the graphics adapter can refresh the image at a particular rate, the attached monitor can accommodate that refresh rate. B. The refresh rate is normally expressed in MHz. C. The refresh rate is normally selected by using the controls on the front panel of the monitor. D. As you lower the resolution, the maximum refresh rate allowed tends to increase.

D. As you lower the resolution, the maximum refresh rate allowed tends to increase. As you lower the resolution, the maximum refresh rate allowed tends to increase. The refresh rate is most often expressed in cycles per second (Hz), not millions of cycles per second (MHz). You must usually select the refresh rate that you want from the display settings dialogs, not through the monitor's built-in menu system, although the monitor can often tell you the refresh rate that you're using. Finally, both the monitor and adapter must agree on the refresh rate you select. If either device does not support a particular refresh rate, such a rate cannot be used.

Which of the following is a common feature of a standard thick client? A. Has enhanced video capabilities B. Has a high-performance hard drive C. Has as much RAM installed as possible D. Can run a full version of Windows

D. Can run a full version of Windows These standard systems do not have any special requirements, only that they can run Windows and desktop applications. Thick clients do not need enhanced video, hard drives, or RAM.

You want to enhance your display capabilities. Which of the following is possible to do with multi-monitor settings? A. Connect multiple monitors to your computer only by using a graphics adapter with two video interfaces. B. Cause two different Desktops to merge onto the same monitor. C. Connect two laptops together so they display the same Desktop D. Display different parts of your Desktop on different monitors.

D. Display different parts of your Desktop on different monitors. The multi-monitor feature allows two monitors to display exactly the same thing (clone) or to extend your Desktop onto the second monitor. There is no need to use one adapter to achieve this result. In fact, the two adapters don't even have to use the same expansion-bus architecture. The two cards must, however, use the same graphics-adapter driver. Multi-monitor settings do not cause two Desktops to merge, nor do they allow two laptops to display the same Desktop.

Which part of the operating system can be described as extremely specific software written for the purpose of instructing the OS on how to access a piece of hardware? A. Source code B. Application C. Kernel D. Driver

D. Driver A driver is specifically written to instruct the operating system to communicate with a piece of hardware. Source code is the original code the software is written in. An application is a program written to perform a specific purpose to interact with the user. The kernel is the core of the operating system.

You have been hired as a consultant for a video editing company that needs all new workstations for its six editors. Which of the following is required when constructing an A/V editing workstation? A. Gigabit NIC B. Powerful processor C. Maximum RAM D. Fast hard drive

D. Fast hard drive A/V editing workstations require specialized audio and video cards and large and fast hard drives; they also benefit from dual monitors. A fast NIC, extra RAM, and a faster than normal processor do not support the requirements of A/V editors.

A client wants you to build a new PC for her, with a smaller case and lower power requirements. When selecting a motherboard, which form factor should you choose for a smaller size and lower power consumption? A. ATX B. AT C. Micro ATX D. ITX

D. ITX The ITX motherboard family consists of smaller boards that fit in standard or miniature cases and use less power than their larger counterparts. ATX are "standard" sized motherboards in today's world. AT is a legacy form factor that was bigger than ATX. Micro ATX is smaller than ATX, but larger than ITX motherboards.

You have been asked to configure a RAID 5 system for a client. Which of the following statements about RAID 5 is true? A. It provides fault tolerance but no performance improvement. B. It provides performance improvement but no fault tolerance. C. If multiple drives in the array fail, the data can be saved provided that one drive is still operational. D. It requires at least three drives to implement.

D. It requires at least three drives to implement. RAID 5 arrays require a minimum of three hard drives to implement. If one drive fails, the data is fine and the system can still function, albeit slowly. If more than one drive fails, the system will be inoperable. RAID 5 provides both fault tolerance and a performance improvement.

You find out that a disgruntled ex-employee's computer has a boot password that must be entered before the operating system is ever loaded. There is also a password preventing your access to the BIOS utility. Which of the following motherboard components can most likely be used to return the computer to a state that will allow you to boot the system without knowing the password? A. Cable header B. Power reset connector C. Toggle switch D. Jumper

D. Jumper Most motherboards have a jumper or similar momentary closure mechanism that will allow you to clear the CMOS memory of any user settings and cause the BIOS to use factory defaults, including no user or supervisor passwords.

Which operating system feature offers the ability for a single application to have multiple requests into the processor at one time? A. Multiuser mode B. Dystopia C. Preemption D. Multithreading

D. Multithreading When a program is multithreaded, it is written to allow for multiple requests into the processor at one time. Preemption, multiuser mode, and dystopia are not correct answers.

What is the single, fixed resolution of an LCD called? A. Default resolution B. Refresh rate C. Burned-in resolution D. Native resolution E. Aspect ratio

D. Native resolution An LCD's native resolution is the single, fixed resolution that provides optimal clarity. There is no default or burned-in resolution. The refresh rate is how quickly the image is re-drawn on the screen, and the aspect ratio is the ratio of the resolution.

You are installing a new graphics adapter in a Windows 10 system. Which of the following expansion slots is designed for high-speed, 3D graphics adapters? A. USB B. FireWire C. PCI D. PCIe

D. PCIe Although technically PCI could be used for graphics adapters, PCIe supports high-speed, 3D graphic video cards. PCIe offers better performance than older graphics adapters. USB and FireWire can stream video, but they are not used for attachment of internal graphics adapters.

You are purchasing a new video card in a desktop computer. For the best performance, which type of video card should you purchase? A. PCI x16 B. PCI x128 C. AGP D. PCIe x128 E. PCIe x16

E. PCIe x16 For a video card, the best standard currently available is PCIe, and the widest channel width is x16. There are no PCI x16 or PCI x128 slots, nor is there a PCIe x128 slot. AGP is an older video expansion standard that is now obsolete.

You are installing a new power supply in a desktop computer. Which of the following statements about power supplies is true? A. You must make sure that the voltage selector switch on the back of the power supply is switched to the lower setting if the computer is going to be used in Europe. B. SATA hard drives most often use the same type of power connector that PATA hard drives use. C. Power supplies supply power to ATX-based motherboards with connectors known commonly as P8 and P9. D. Power supplies convert AC input to DC output.

D. Power supplies convert AC input to DC output. PC power supplies accept alternating current (AC) as input and produce direct current (DC) for the internal components. Europe requires the voltage selector switch be set at the higher setting. SATA drives most often use a specific power connector that is not compatible with the Molex connector used by PATA drives. Legacy AT-based motherboards called for P8 and P9 connectors; ATX motherboards have a newer 20- or 24-pin single power connector.

To turn off a Windows 10 operating system gracefully, you should do which of the following? A. Run the turnoff command at a command prompt. B. Turn off the switch and unplug the machine. C. Press Ctrl+Alt+Del. D. Select Start, then the power icon, and then choose Shut Down.

D. Select Start, then the power icon, and then choose Shut Down. In Windows 10, when you click the Start button, a power icon is displayed on the lower left. From the power icon, you can sleep, reboot, or shut down the operating system. There is no command named turnoff. Tuning the power switch off and unplugging the machine are not graceful way to power off the operating system. Pressing Ctrl+Alt+Del alone will not power down the computer.

An engineer on your network is complaining that his CAD workstation is slow and he wants a GPU upgrade. Which of the following reasons is justification for having a powerful video card in a CAD/CAM workstation? A. Only powerful GPUs can stream graphical information efficiently. B. Manufacturing equipment is generally faster than design equipment, which needs faster GPUs to keep up. C. On a CAD system, the CPU defers to the GPU for all system processing requirements. D. The algorithms used in rendering graphics can be GPU-intensive.

D. The algorithms used in rendering graphics can be GPU-intensive. Quite simply, the rendering of 2D and 3D graphics makes use of complex algorithms that need all of the GPU power they can get to remain usable. CAD workstations deal with static images, not streaming video. Manufacturing equipment is generally slower than computers used for the design phase. The CPU still does its job, but CAD workstations call for high-end video, which includes graphics adapters with GPUs often more powerful than the system's CPU.

Why might you use a KVM switch? A. You have multiple Ethernet devices that need to communicate with one another. B. You need to be able to switch the voltage supplied to a particular device. C. You have a printer that is not attached to the network but you want multiple computers to be able to print to it. D. You have more than one server and don't want to buy certain external peripherals separately for each.

D. You have more than one server and don't want to buy certain external peripherals separately for each. KVM switches are ideal when you have multiple computers situated near one another and do not want to commit the extra desk space to each computer having its own keyboard, mouse, and monitor. KVMs are not designed for Ethernet devices or printers, and do not switch voltage.