Correction Final Study Guide
D
A parole officer writes this document when a parole violation occurs and the offender does not cooperate or absconds from supervision. A. Offender risk assessment B. Full revocation C. Probation violation report D. Notice of violation
D
A very large percentage of arrested and jailed offenders make bond and are released within: A. Six weeks B. One month C. Two hours D. 48 hours
D
About how many hours a day do prison officials keep inmates locked in their cells? A. Four B. 24 C. Two D. Eight
D
About what percentage of inmates are female? A. 25 percent B. 48 percent C. 32 percent D. 7 percent
D
According to opponents of supermax prisons, what about these prisons constitute human rights violations? A. Too much work for inmates B. Excess of intellectual stimulation C. Overabundance of human contact D. None of the above
C
As long as the purpose of the confinement is to treat the sex offender, how long may a state commit an offender to an institution? A. Six months B. Two years C. Indefinitely D. Three months
D
As prison security level increases, what decreases? A. Physical barriers to escape B. Staff-to-inmate ratio C. Security D. Inmate movement
D
Crime is closely linked to which of the following? A. Little opportunity for legitimate economic success B. Poverty C. Drug use D. All of the above
A
During the mid-20th century, all states used what type of sentencing? A. Indeterminate B. Determinate C. Split sentencing D. Mandatory minimum
A
For states that still use indeterminate sentence and parole for release decisions, where are the parole board and post-release supervision usually located? A. In the department of corrections B. In the governor's officer C. In local sheriff's departments D. None of the above
C
Historically, what was the average age of a prison inmate? A. 45-50 B. 50-55 C. 30-35 D. 18-23
D
How are state parole authorities organized to handle the functions of the release decision and post-release supervision? A. A separate agency handles each function B. A separate authority makes the release decision, with the state department of corrections handling the post-release supervision C. The state department of corrections handles both functions D. States may use any of the above
D
How does the 2007 Second Chance Act propose to ease the re-entry process for individuals leaving prison? A. By providing rehabilitative treatment B. By providing job training C. By providing funding for prisoner mentoring programs D. All of the above
B
How have most jurisdictions responded to major increases in the prison population over the last two decades? A. They have released more offenders on parole B. They have built new prisons C. They have stopped incarcerating non-violent drug offenders D. They have put more inmates in the cells
C
How many states prohibit the death penalty for offenders who were younger than 18 at the time of their crime? A. 16 B. 36 C. all 50 D. None of them
C
In 1973, this Supreme Court decision created the due process requirements for revoking probation. A. Mempa v. Rhay B. Bell v. Wolfish C. Gagnon v. Scarpelli D. United States v. Birnbaum
D
In many states, which professions do ex-prisoners not face restrictions from employment? A. Dentistry and engineering B. Real estate and physical therapy C. Law and medicine D. Sales and marketing
B
In order to protect the public, state legislatures have been passing laws defining a new type of mental disorder that allows what diagnosis of sex offenders? A. Serial predators B. Sexual violent predators C. Schizophrenic D. Mentally ill
D
In presumptive sentencing, what do mitigating circumstances indicate to a judge? A. That the felon is a third-time offender B. Reasons to increase punishment C. That capital punishment is appropriate D. Reasons for leniency
C
In the late 18th century, after what age were juveniles considered to be responsible for their crimes and therefore able to be treated the same as adult offenders? A. 18 B. 21 C. 7 D. 16
A
In this case, the Supreme Court determined that a finding of guilt for juveniles had to meet the standard of beyond a reasonable doubt. A. In re Winship B. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania C. Breed v. Jones D. Schall v. Martin
D
In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that in hearings in which juveniles may be committed to an institution, they have the right to counsel, to notice of the charges against them, to question witnesses, and to protection against self-incrimination. A. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania B. In re Winship C. Kent v. United States D. In re Gault
C
In this type of release, inmates serve a determinate sentence and then are released with supervision. A. Conditional release B. Unconditional mandatory release C. Supervised mandatory release D. Mandatory release
C
In which case did the Supreme Court determine that probation is a privilege and not a right? A. Mempa v. Rhay B. Gagnon v. Scarpelli C. United States v. Birnbaum D. Morrissey v. Brewer
B
In which case did the Supreme Court set forth that juveniles must have "the essentials of due process?" A. In re Gault B. Kent v. United States C. Breed v. Jones D. In re Winship
D
In which case did the Supreme Court support the civil commitment of those who have committed violent sex offenses? A. Kansas v. Crane B. Kansas v. Hendricks C. Selling v. Young D. All of the above
C
Jail inmates may only have non-contact visits. What type of visitor is the exception? A. Family B. Close friends C. Attorneys D. Spouses
C
Most new jails are constructed and managed using which concept? A. Second-generation B. First-generation C. Direct supervision D. None of the above
C
On which model is shock probation based? A. General deterrence B. Broken windows probation C. Specific deterrence D. None of the above
A
The growth of the federal prison population has resulted from the federal government's authority to prosecute new crimes that were difficult for local jurisdictions to handle. Which act is a good example of the creation of these new crimes? A. The Volstead Act B. The Sentencing Reform Act C. The Three Penitentiary Act D. The Stamp Act
C
The major component of this alternative to incarceration is military regimentation, discipline, exercise, and hard work. A. Minimum-security prison B. Intensive supervised probation C. Boot camp D. House arrest
B
The number of juvenile arrests is relatively stable except for increases in what kind of crime? A. Juvenile street crime B. Juvenile violent crime C. Juvenile drug crime D. Juvenile property crime
D
This 1981 Supreme Court decision set forth that housing two inmates in a cell designed for one did not violate the Eighth Amendment's protection from cruel and unusual punishment. A. Brucino v. Carlson B. Morrissey v. Brewer C. Bell v. Wolfish D. Rhodes v. Chapman
D
These are sentences that run at the same time. A. Indeterminate sentences B. Determinate sentences C. Consecutive sentences D. Concurrent sentences
C
This U.S. penologist advocated the Irish System in the United States and became the first superintendent of the Elmira Reformatory. A. Sir Walter Crofton B. Sanford Bates C. Zebulon R. Brockway D. Alexander Maconochie
D
This disease is most commonly spread through the bloodstream as a result of drug users sharing needles. A. Polio B. Tuberculosis C. Pneumonia D. Hepatitis C
D
This early form of parole, originated on Norfolk Island in the 19th century, allowed the release of prisoners who had proven themselves through work and good behavior. A. Open institution B. Leave system C. Ticket of marks D. Ticket of leave
D
This is a form of restitution in which offenders repay their victims directly for their losses and harm caused by the offense. A. Fines B. Offender restitution C. Victim costs D. Victim compensation
D
This is sometimes referred to as "community control." A. Electric monitoring B. Intensive supervised probation C. Asset forfeiture D. House arrest
D
This is the process during which officials determine whether a juvenile case should be dismissed, handled informally, or referred to the juvenile court? A. Consent decree B. Order C. Referral D. Intake
A
This sentencing model calls for fixed sentences so that the punishment fits the crime. A. Just deserts model B. Classical model C. Justice model D. Rehabilitative model
B
This style of supervising community offenders emphasizes assisting the offender with problems, providing counseling, and ensuring that the offender successfully completes supervision. A. Surveillance style B. Casework style C. Regular style D. Intensive-supervision style
A
This type of supervision is used only after low-risk offenders demonstrate a good adjustment to supervision. A. Administrative supervision B. Regular supervision C. Intensive supervision D. Minimum supervision
C
This was an early English term for a jail. A. Lockup B.Workhouse C. Gaol D. Jail
B
What are mentally ill inmates more likely than other types of offenders to do? A. Use illicit drugs B. Recidivate C. Rehabilitate D. All of the above
D
What are prison security levels designed to match? A. Staff resources B. Physical security C. Risk of inmate violence and escape D. All of the above
D
What are staff that provide rehabilitative activities sometimes called? A. Sergeants B. Uniformed staff C. Psychologists D. Professional staff
D
What brought about the creation of the central agencies to ensure consistency of standards and to guide prison administration? A. Increasing prisoner litigation regarding conditions of confinement B. The need for quality and efficiency C. Increasing political and public interest in how states ran their prison systems D. All of the above
D
What does the term "parole" mean? A. Promise to return B. On my word C. I'll be back D. Word of honor
B
What dual problem do mentally ill inmates represent in jails and prisons? A. Clothing and visitation B. Control and treatment C. Programs and parole D. Housing and feeding
B
What elected official oversees the operation of the jail? A. Prosecutor B. Sheriff C. Local magistrate D. Chief of police
A
What is a lifetime incarceration rate? A. The chances of going to prison over an entire lifetime B. The percentage of U.S. citizens who are in prison C. A snapshot of those in prison at any given time D. It is the same as the crime rate
C
What is a plea bargain? A. The defendant waives a jury trial in exchange for a trial by judge B. The defendant pleads not guilty and goes to trial C. The defendant pleads guilty in exchange for a reduced sentence without going to trial D. The defendant agrees to a reduced sentence after a trial
C
What is a pledge of money or property in exchange for a promise to return for further criminal processing? A. Plea bargain B. Surety C. Bail D. ROR
A
What is a prison sentence that is suspended on the condition that the offender follow certain rules and commit no further crimes? A. Probation B. Parole C. Community corrections D. Deferred sentencing
A
What is a purpose of reentry courts? A. To review inmates' reentry plans and progress B. To find jobs for inmates C. To try inmates on new charges D. None of the above
A
What is a reason that states have adopted sentencing guidelines? A. Sentencing guidelines provide uniformity, ensuring that similar crimes merit similar sentences B. Judges weren't providing written explanations for their decisions C. It was believed that judges were too harsh on offenders D. All of the above
D
What is another main factor that differentiates jails from prisons besides the number of admissions? A. Sentence B. Overcrowding C. Type of inmate D. Length of stay
D
What is another type of correctional system and/or agency in the United States? A. Immigration facilities B. Private prisons C. Military prisons D. All of the above
D
What is included in a presentence investigation(PSI)? A. Information about the prosecution B. The offender's final sentence C. A list of sentences from similar cases D. The range of allowable sanctions
A
What is one of the reasons that the current prison population is larger and more diverse than in the past? A. Many property and drug offenders who previously did not get sent to prison have been incarcerated B. There are more people in the United States C. A larger percentage of people are committing murder D. None of the above
D
What is the average age of arrested gang members? A. 10-12 B. 15-16 C. 21 D. 17-18
C
What is the chief executive officer of a prison usually called? A. Chief B. Captain C. Warden D. Boss
A
What is the custody and security component within a prison often called? A. Correctional services B. Treatment C. Correctional administration D. Unit management
B
What is the greatest cause of death among jail inmates other than illness or natural causes? A. Homicide B. Suicide C. Drugs D. AIDS
D
What is the largest professional organization for corrections in the United States? A. Correctional Peace Officers Foundation B. American Jail Association C. National Correction Industries Association D. American Correctional Association
A
What is the least severe type of sanction used for inmate discipline by most correctional systems? A. Warning B. Restriction to quarters C. Disciplinary transfer D. Loss of privileges
B
What is the legal exception related to a youth's age, alleged offense, and court history that can place a youth under the jurisdiction of the adult criminal court? A. Status offense B. Statutory exclusion C. Waiver to adult court D. None of the above
A
What is the primary function of prisons? A. To hold convicted felons, usually serving a sentence of a year or more B. To hold defendants awaiting trial C. To hold all misdemeanors and felons of all sentence lengths D. To hold drug offenders
D
What is the process of moving a juvenile offender to adult court for criminal processing because of the serious nature of the juvenile's crime? A. Remand B. Waiver to adult court C. Bind over D. All of the above
D
What is the process to promote and recognize improvement in the management of correctional agencies through the administration of voluntary standards? A. Policy implementation audit B. Prison accreditation C. Policy audit D. ACA accreditation
C
What is the rank of the highest ranking uniformed officer? A. Sergeant B. Lieutenant C. Major D. Captain
D
What is the security level of the U.S. Penitentiaries? A. Low-security B. Minimum-security C. Medium-security D. High-security
D
What issues do female inmates face that are different from those of male inmates? A. Work opportunities B. Vocational training C. Health care D. All of the above
B
What kind of application process is used to determine whether correctional job candidates have issues that could put them in a compromising situation or make them more likely to accept a bribe? A. Policy audit B. Integrity interview C. General interview D. Internal classification system
D
What kind of caseload includes offenders with very high risk or needs? A. Standard B. Regular C. Special D. Intensive-supervision
C
What may the PSI also be used for? A. Setting up please bargains B. Determining the amount of bail C. Classifying offenders to determine program needs in prison D. All of the above
A
What percentage of all prison inmates do men constitute? A. 93 percent B. 27 percent C. 99 percent D. 51 percent
B
What type of crime is punishable by one year or more of incarceration? A. Misdemeanor B. Felony C. Both felonies and misdemeanors D. Neither felonies nor misdemeanors
B
What was the first stage of the Irish System of release? A. Ticket of leave B. Solitary confinement C. Special prison D. Open institution
C
What was the first supermax prison in the United States? A. Pelican Bay B. Leavenworth C. Alcatraz D. USP Marion
C
When and where was the first juvenile court established? A. New York City, 1910 B. Los Angeles, 1941 C. Chicago, 1899 D. Albany, New York, 1929
C
When do state and federal prison systems screen inmates for tuberculosis? A. When an individual inmate shows symptoms B. A year into incarceration C. At intake D. Whenever they have the funding
C
When treating a sex offender under civil commitment, what is expected? A. Other facility residents can be a mix of civil commitments and criminals B. Treatment need not to be geared toward release of the resident C. Confinement is in a non-punitive setting D. All of the above
A
Where was the first penitentiary established? A. Philadelphia B. Chicago C. Los Angeles D. New York City
B
Which administrative function is not a typical responsibility of the central organization of a correctional agency? A. New prison construction B. Inmate management C. Budget development/accounting D. All of the above are typical responsibilities
B
Which best describes children who may be without a parent or guardian, possibly because the parent is physically or mentally unable to act in that capacity? A. Neglected B. Dependent C. Superpredators D. Delinquent
C
Which company received the first private contract to house adult offenders? A. The Geo Group B. Cornell Correctional Companies C. Corrections Corporation of America D. None of the above
C
Which constitutional amendment refers to "cruel and unusual punishment?" A. Fifth B. Fourth C. Eighth D. Sixth
B
Which constitutional amendment states that excessive bail may not be required? A. Fourth B. Eighth C. First D. Fourteenth
D
Which does the Balance and Restorative Justice Perspective use to help juvenile drug users end their dependence? A. Supervision B. Treatment C. Diversion D. All of the above
D
Which era of corrections developed with the distinct provision that the community can be an essential part of the correctional process? A. Retributive B. Rehabilitative C. Institutional D. Reintegrative
C
Which federal institutions have special missions, such as the detention of pretrial offenders or containment of extremely dangerous inmates? A. Federal correctional institutions B. Federal prison camps C. Administrative facilities D. None of the above
A
Which institutions feature dormitory housing, a relatively low staff-to-inmate ratio, and limited or no perimeter fencing? A. Minimum-security B. Medium-security C. High-security D. Low-security
B
Which is a primary reason for new jail construction over the past decade? A. Local citizens like new jails B. The number of successful legal challenges by jail inmates for overcrowding has increased C. Building new jails is a good move for politicians D. Jails are relatively inexpensive to build and staff
A
Which is a problem with the system of bail as a requirement for release? A. The bail process discriminates against the poor B. Bail does not allowed freedom to be bought C. The availability of financial resources and the ability to "make bail" is closely related to the risk of the offender D. All of the above
B
Which is a standard condition of probation? A. The probationer may not operate an automobile B. The probationer must remain employed C. The probationer must give anti-crime talks at schools D. The probationer must live at a halfway house
B
Which is key to controlling inmates' behavior? A. Intimidating inmates through punishment B. Clear, consistent policies and procedures C. Employing more correctional staff than there are inmates D. Good staff morale
A
Which is not a category of prohibited act according to the Bureau of Prisons policy? A. Supermax B. Greatest C. Moderate D. High
A
Which is not a contributing factor to the aging of the prison population? A. Prison is very stressful and causes inmates to age prematurely B. Mandatory sentences and sentencing guidelines have taken away judicial discretion which kept some older offenders on probation rather than in prison C. The overall U.S. population is aging D. Inmates are serving longer sentences in prison
A
Which is not a major step in the sentencing and release process for discretionary parole? A. A period of solitary confinement and work B. Supervision in the community under specific conditions C. An indeterminate sentence with a minimum time to serve before parole eligibility and a maximum term to be served if not paroled D. Consideration of release by a parole board
C
Which is not a possible result if the court finds that a probationer is in violation? A. The court may add conditions and restore to probation B. The court may revoke probation and order imprisonment under the original sentence C. The court has no discretion and must order imprisonment under the original sentence D. The court may reprimand and restore to supervision
C
Which is not a prison security level? A. Intake B. Community C. Federal D. High/close
D
Which is not a reason for the increase in jail population? A. More felons sentenced to a short jail term and probation B. The public's "tough on crime" attitude C. More inmates in jail due to prison overcrowding D. Fewer arrests
D
Which is not a sentencing option? A. Capital punishment B. Community service C. Probation D. Parole
A
Which is not a status offense? A. Burglary B. Running away C. Drinking alcohol D. Truancy
A
Which is not a type of issue dealt with by correctional agency legal offices? A. Prosecuting inmates who commit crimes while in prison B. Giving general advice regarding implementation of programs in line with past legal decisions C. Reviewing policy for legal impact D. Responding to inmate lawsuits
D
Which is not an advantage of a diversionary treatment program? A. They cost considerably less than criminal justice proceedings B. They reduce the demands on the court and prosecutors to process the case as a criminal activity C. Offenders avoid the stigma associated with a criminal conviction D. It increases a defendant's appearances before the court
B
Which is not an alternative to bail? A. Personal recognizance B. Preventive detention C. Collateral D. Third-party custody
C
Which is not one of the large jurisdictions that holds more than a third of all female offenders? A. California B. The federal system C. New York D. Texas
D
Which is not one of the three variations of the legal process of transferring juvenile offenders to adult court? A. Direct file B. Waiver C. Statutory exclusion D. Plea bargain
B
Which is not part of the mission statement of most prisons? A. To prepare offenders for release and transition to the community B. To physically discipline inmates who break the rules C. To protect inmates and staff from harm in the prison environment D. To protect the public from further criminality, by keeping inmates inside
B
Which is one of the six factors inherent in correctional settings that hamper the provision of health services? A. Abundant financial resources B. Lack of a constituency for inmate health services C. Correctional institutions that prioritize inmate health care D. Good staff recruitment
C
Which is the incorrect way to run a jail? A. By having professional staff B. By having a consistent routine of operations C. By force D. By having clear procedures
D
Which is the most important element in the operations and policies of all correctional facilities? A. The facility itself B. The services provided C. Physical security D. The staff
D
Which is true of private correctional facilities? A. They contract with governments to provide offender security, housing, and programs B. They are operated by non-governmental agencies C. They are operated in a for-profit manner D. All of the above
D
Which of the following does not define a pretrial diversion program? A. It offers people charged with crimes alternatives to traditional criminal justice proceedings B. It occurs between the formal filing of charges and the final judgment of guilt C. The accused participates on a volunteer basis only D. All of the above define pretrial diversion programs
A
Which of the following is an aspect of straight adult incarceration? A. No separate accommodations B. Differentiation in programming or job assignment C. Separate housing D. All of the above
C
Which offense makes up a relatively high proportion of female arrests? A. Murder B. DUI C. Larceny-theft D. Burglary
A
Which offenses contributed to the most significant increase in the number of prison inmates? A. Drug and public-order offenses B. Child molestation and stalking C. White-collar crimes D. Murder and rape
B
Which probation style mimics the community policing philosophy and partners with citizens groups, churches, and other neighborhood organizations? A. Intensive-supervision probation B. Broken-windows probation C. Special conditions of probation D. Public-safety probation
D
Which state has no federal prisons of any kind? A. Georgia B. Texas C. California D. Utah
B
Which step does not occur during the formal revocation of parole? A. Preliminary revocation hearing B. Trail by jury C. Reprimand, modification of conditions, or return to prison D. Determination of a violation
B
Which supervision level requires five contacts per month with at least one positive contact? A. Basic high B. Intensive C. Basic medium D. Supermax
D
Which term best describes a new offense committed by a parolee? A. Technical violation B. Conditional violation C. Special violation D. New-crime violation
C
Which term best describes children who have a parent or guardian, but are not receiving proper care or have a home situation that is harmful to them? A. Dependent B. Status offenders C. Neglected D. Delinquent dependent
C
Which type of supervision is typically satisfactory for offenders who pose little risk to the community? A. Administrative supervision B. Intensive supervision C. Minimum supervision D. Regular supervision
B
Which was not a requirement of the English Penitentiary Act of 1779? A. Secure and sanitary B. Confining several inmates to a cell C. Systematic Inspections D. Abolition of fees charged to inmates
B
Who are the primary victims of sexual assaults? A. The mentally ill B. Females C. Juveniles D. Males
B
Who does not report to the unit manager? A. Case managers B. The warden C. Education advisors D. Mental health advisors
A
Who initiated the concept of "good time?" A. Alexander Maconochie B. The U.S. Supreme Court C. Jeremy Bentham D. Cesare Beccaria
D
Who might be confined in a modern jail? A. Individuals held for the military B. Probation, parole, and bail bond violators C. Mentally ill people D. All of the above
D
Why are judges now giving women longer sentences? A. Women are committing many more serious crimes B. Judges believe there should be as many women in prison as men C. Women demand to be treated equally to men D. Judges have less discretion with sentencing guidelines and mandatory prison sentences
D
Why do some states use supermax prisons for inmates who have not committed a violent act in prison? A. To control overcrowding in regular prisons B. To better control mentally ill inmates C. To protect elderly and juvenile inmates D. To reduce gang activity
D
Why is the prison population getting older? A. New sentencing models remove judges' discretion to consider age B. The U.S. population is aging C. Prison sentences are longer than they used to be D. All of the above