CPT EXAM

To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified professionals must complete a minimum of _____ hours of continuing education credits and maintain a current certificate in ________________ and, if living in North America, automated external defibrillation.

20; cardiopulmonary resuscitation

If an activity requires a functional capacity of 6 METs, what is the total oxygen consumption of someone performing that activity?

21 mL/kg/min 1 MET is equal to 3.5 mL/kg/min, so 6 METs = 6 x 3.5 mL/kg/min = 21 mL/kg/min

Which category of hip muscles is primarily responsible for hip adduction?

Medial muscles The medial hip muscles (i.e., those hip muscles closer to the midline of the body), including the pectineus, adductor brevis, adductor longus, gracilis, and adductor magnus, are primarily responsible for hip adduction.

General trends reveal that members of which of the following populations are MOST LIKELY to be performing higher levels of physical activity in unsupervised settings?

Men

The most commonly reported knee injury involves damage to the __________.

Menisci

Movement in Sagittal plane

Flexion: Decreasing the angle between two bones Extension: Increasing the Angle between two bones Dorsiflexion: Moving the top of the foot toward the shin (only at the ankle) Plantar flexion: moving the sole of the foot downward (pointing the toes)

A company experiences a yearly loss and one of the partners uses that loss to offset profits from another business. This is an example of __________.

Flow-through taxation

Which of the following MUST be consumed in the diet?

Folate Vitamins must be consumed through food with only three exceptions: vitamin K and biotin can also be produced by normal intestinal flora (bacteria that live in the intestines and are critical for normal gastrointestinal function), and vitamin D can be self-produced with sun exposure.

After proximal stability is established in the lumbar spine, the focus of the stability and mobility training phase shifts to establishing _______________.

Mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine A programming sequence that promotes stability and mobility within the body will adhere to the basic principle that proximal stability facilitates distal mobility. With this in mind, the next step after establishing stability in the lumbar spine is to address mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine.

Which of the following is an adaptation specifically seen with regular weightbearing exercise?

Increase in bone density The concept of the SAID principle is that the body will adapt to the specific challenges imposed upon it, as long as the program progressively overloads the system being trained. Studies have shown that weightbearing exercise promotes improved bone density, which is a key factor in the prevention of osteoporosis, particularly in women.

Most health benefits occur with at least __________ a week of moderate-intensity physical activity, such as brisk walking. Additional benefits occur with more physical activity.

150 minutes

You have just taken on a new 48 year old male client and completed a thorough health history. Upon completion of the health history you identify that he has been walking at a moderate intensity for 30 minutes,3 days per week for the past 3 months, has a BMI of 28, a blood pressure of 142/86, and a total cholesterol level of 203 mg/dl. Based on the gathered information provided how many risk factors does this client have?

+ 3 age 48 +1 blood pressure 142/86 +1 total Cholesterol 203 mg/dl +1 ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 120

The contraindications to stretching are as follows:

-A fracture site that is healing -Acute soft-tiss -An area of infection -A hematoma or other indication of trauma -Pain in the affected area -Restrictions from the client's doctorProlonged immobilization of muscles and connective tissueJoint swelling (effusion) from trauma or disease -Presence of oseoporosis or rheumatoid arthritisA history of prolonged corticosteroid use

The purposes of the pre-participation screening include the following:

-Identifying the presence or absence of known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, or signs or symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease -Identifying individuals with medical contraindications (health conditions and risk factors) who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity until those conditions have been corrected or are under control -Detecting at-risk individuals who should first undergo medical evaluation and clinical exercise testing before initiating an exercise program -Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically supervised programs

During the administration of any exercise test involving exertion, trainers must always be aware of identifiable signs or symptoms that merit immediate test termination and possible referral to a qualified healthcare professional. These symptoms include:

-Onset of angina, chest pain, or angina-like symptoms -Significant drop (>10 mmHg) in systolic blood pressure (SBP) despite an increase in exercise intensity -Excessive rise in blood pressure (BP): SBP >250 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) >115 mmHg Excess fatigue, shortness of breath, or wheezing (does not include heavy breathing due to intense exercise) Signs of poor perfusion: lightheadedness, pallor (pale skin), cyanosis (bluish coloration, especially around the mouth), nausea, or cold and clammy skinIncreased nervous system symptoms (e.g., ataxia, dizziness, confusion, syncope) Leg cramping or claudicationSubject requests to stop Physical or verbal manifestations of severe fatigue Failure of testing equipment ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 196

Buying decisions are emotionally driven, meaning that prospective clients will think with logic, but act on emotion.

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Given the propensity many individuals have toward poor posture, an initial focus of trainers should be to restore stability and mobility within the body and attempt to "straighten the body before strengthening it."

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It is recommended that personal trainers progress individuals with this injury first with straight-plane motions such as forward running, then side-to-side motions such as sidestepping, and then multidirectional motions such as carioca.

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No assessments of muscular strength or endurance are required prior to designing and implementing an exercise program during this phase. Assessments that should be conducted early in this phase include basic assessments of posture, balance, movement, and range of motion of the ankle, hip, shoulder complex, and thoracic and lumbar spine.

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While youth often excel at and enjoy these activities, older adults are generally less tolerant of stop-and-go game-type activities (along with heavy training loads, rapid increases in training load, and single-mode exercise).

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Most attorneys will advise against operating a business as a 50-50 partnership, even if it involves owners from the same family. A 50-50 partnership can result in a stalemate, because neither partner can institute policy without the permission of the other, since business decisions must be approved by a majority (50.1%) of the owners.

...don't do 50-50

What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client's health is considered at risk?

0.86 A female client's health is considered at risk when her WHR is above 0.86. For men, that threshold is above 0.95.

A male client who weighs 190 pounds has a one-repetition maximum of 225 pounds on the bench press exercise. His relative strength for this exercise is __________.

1.18 Relative strength is the maximum force a person is able to exert in relation to his or her body weight and is calculated using the formula: Relative strength = Absolute strength/Body weight, where Absolute strength is defined as the one-repetition maximum. In this case, Relative strength = 225 pounds/190 pounds = 1.18

Overweight or obese clients who are seeking to lose weight should perform a MINIMUM of _____ minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week.

150

Approximately what percent of the US population meets both aerobic activity and muscle strengthening guidelines?

20%

lb

3,500 calories = 1 lb. Therefore, a 1,000 calorie per day deficit will lead to a loss of 2 pounds per week. The Dietary Guidelines recommend that those trying to lose weight aim for a 500-calorie deficit per day, achieved through decreased caloric intake and/or increased physical activity. Over the course of a week, the 3,500 calorie deficit should lead to a loss of 1 pound. For optimal long-term success and overall health, gradual weight loss of no more than 1 to 2 pounds per week is best.

Carbohydrates, which are the body's preferred energy source, contain how many kilocalories per gram?

4 kcal/g

A competitive football player, whose sport requires an ability to accelerate quickly and run at high speeds, is interested in completing an assessment to serve as a baseline against which he can measure future improvements. Which test will BEST measure acceleration and speed?

40-yard dash

More than ____% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first six months.

50%

How often should low-back exercises be performed in order to yield the maximum benefit?

7 days/week While there is a common belief that exercise sessions should be performed at least three times per week, it appears that low-back exercises have the most beneficial effect when performed daily.

Which of the following is NOT one of the potential benefits of a sole proprietorship?

A corporate veil shields the owner from losses In a sole proprietorship, financial losses and liabilities are the sole responsibility of the owner. There is no corporate veil that shields the actions of the business from the personal responsibility of the owner, even if the owner conducts business under a different company name.

Trainers Voice

A loud, tense voice tends to make people nervous. Personal trainers should try to develop a voice that is firm and confident to communicate professionalism.

A male client performs the stork-stand balance test and is able to hold the position for 46 seconds. How would you rate this client's performance?

A male client who is able to hold the stork-stand position for 41 to 50 seconds is categorized as "good."pg 187

Which of the following individuals is MOST LIKELY to adhere to a supervised physical-activity program?

A middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control over his health

The movements that take place in the frontal plane are as follows:

Abduction Adduction Elevation Depression Inversion Eversion

An individual is using a resistance band to perform very short-duration (less than 2 seconds per stretch) hamstring stretches in sets of eight repetitions. What flexibility-training technique is this person using?

Active isolated stretching

What is arguably the most important and influential personal attribute variable when predicting adherence to physical activity?

Activity history

During what phase of the general adaptation syndrome will a client see progressive increases in muscle size and strength?

Adaptation phase

Movement in frontal plane

Adduction: Motion toward the midline Abduction: Motion away from the midline of the body Elevation: Moving to a superior position (only at the scapula) Depression: Moving to an inferior position (only at the scapula) Inversion: Lifting the medial border of the foot Eversion: Lifting the lateral border of the foot

What muscles are strengthened when a client performs side-lying leg lifts with the lower leg?

Adductors work concentrically in the upward phase and ecentrically in the downward phase.

The introduction of training with heart rates at and above VT1 takes place in which phase?

Aerobic-efficiency

At what stage of an exercise bout are phosphagen stores being replenished, remaining lactate being removed from the blood, and the metabolic rate decreasing?

After the cessation of exercise The energy produced after the cessation of exercise (excess postexercise oxygen consumption - EPOC) is used to replenish the depleted phosphagens, to eliminate accumulated lactate if it has not already been cleared from the blood, and to restore other homeostatic conditions (e.g., thermoregulation, tissue resynthesis). As the body returns to normal temperature, the metabolic rate will return to normal.

Which of the following postural deviations MOST LIKELY indicates that a client has medially (internally) rotated shoulders?

Anterior view: backs of hands are visible Scapular protraction can also be identified from the anterior view. If the knuckles or the backs of the client's hands are visible when the hands are positioned at the sides, this generally indicates internal (medial) rotation of the humerus and/or scapular protraction

Which type of yoga is also known as "power yoga"?

Ashtanga yoga

Clients who are beginning the basics of a particular movement and are ready for specific feedback are in which stage of motor learning?

Associative

A client's physician provides the following guideline regarding the mode of exercise for a new client: "Swimming is the recommended mode of exercise; upper-body resistance-training exercises are not appropriate." With which of the following conditions is this client MOST likely coping?

Asthma Swimming may be particularly beneficial for individuals with asthma because it allows them to inhale the moist air just above the surface of the water. For some clients with asthma, upper-body exercises such as arm cranking, rowing, and cross-country skiing may not be appropriate because of the higher ventilation demands.

A client performs regular moderate- to vigorous-intensity activity at 85% of his maximum heart rate. What is his fitness classification?

Average/good An individual in this category will perform "habitual physical activity: Regular moderate-to-vigorousIntensity" at 80-91% of maximum heart rate and 65-80% of %HRR/VO2max or VO2R. pg401

Which of the following is NOT among the 10 insights gleaned from the experiences of the National Weight Control Registry?

Avoid the scale while it is not advisable to become obsessive about weight to the nearest 0.01 pounds, people who maintain their weight loss keep tabs on the scale, weighing themselves at least once per week.

_______________ provides an objective ratio describing the relationship between body weight and height.

BMI

Which of these medications causes a dose-related decrease in a person's resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates?

Beta blockers

In which section of a business plan should a personal trainer identify the operating model and how it is different or unique when compared to other training studios in the area?

Business description The business description should accomplish the following: Identify the operating model and how it is different or unique when compared to other training studios in the areaDescribe the fitness industry specific to the local marketProvide details such as the number and location of competitors, how many employees they have, and the number of clients to whom they provide servicesList the members of the management team, highlighting their knowledge, skills, and experience

Which of the following business structures has double taxation as one of its primary disadvantages?

C-corporation C-corporations, or C-corps, are taxed as a company first and then any profits that are remaining may be provided to shareholders. Since the shareholders must then pay taxes on their dividends, C-corps are said to provide double taxation.

What is the only macronutrient whose stored energy generates adenosine triphosphate (ATP) anaerobically?

Carbohydrate

A client complains of pain in the wrist during sleep and numbness and loss of grip strength during exercise. What injury is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms?

Carpal tunnel syndrome

Contributing to cell membrane function, making bile acids essential for fat absorption, metabolizing fat-soluble vitamins, and making vitamin D are all functions of which nutrient?

Cholesterol

For clients with which of the following diseases or disorders is it MOST important to develop a "regular" pattern of activity that does not result in post-activity malaise?

Chronic fatigue syndrome

In your notes regarding a client performing the external and internal shoulder rotation tests, you recorded that the client displayed potential tightness in the infraspinatus and teres minor. What might you have observed during the test that led to that conclusion?

Client displayed inability to internally rotate the forearm 70 degrees toward the mat -If a client displays an inability to internally rotate the forearm 70 degrees, or shows discrepancies between the limbs, there are two possible reasons: potential tightness in the lateral rotators of the arm (i.e., infraspinatus and teres minor) or the joint capsule and ligaments may be tight and limit rotation.

Which of the following statements about flexibility is CORRECT?

Collagen is made up of proteins that limit motion and resist stretch. Structures containing large amounts of collagen tend to limit motion and resist stretch. Thus, collagen fibers are the main constituents of tissues such as ligaments and tendons that are subjected to a pulling force. Regarding the other options, flexibility decreases with aging, females are generally more flexible than males, and scar tissue limits flexibility.

The non-correctible factors related to postural deviations are as follows:

Congenital conditions (e.g., scoliosis) Some pathologies (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis) Structural deviations (e.g., tibial or femoral torsion, femoral anteversion) Certain types of trauma (e.g., surgery, injury, amputations

Which of the following standards has been used when a plaintiff is prevented from receiving remuneration following an injury due to the fact that he was found to have played a minor role in his own injury?

Contributory negligence

Which hormone promotes triglyceride breakdown to aid in maintaining blood glucose?

Cortisol

Which slow-acting hormone stimulates the mobilization of free fatty acids from adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver, and decreases the rate of glucose utilization in the cells?

Cortisol

Which of the following occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed and the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased?

Extinction

________________ involves the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program.

Decisional balance

Which of the following movements takes place in the frontal plane

Depression of the scapulae

A client with which of the following conditions should receive comprehensive nutrition counseling before beginning an exercise program?

Diabetes It is especially important for people with diabetes to balance nutrition intake with exercise and insulin or other medications in order to maintain a regular blood sugar level throughout the day. All individuals with diabetes who have not already had a comprehensive nutrition consultation prior to beginning an exercise program should be referred to a registered dietitian for an evaluation and nutrition education.

_______________ represents the pressure that is exerted on the artery walls as blood remains in the arteries during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle.

Diastolic blood pressure Diastolic blood pressure represents the pressure that is exerted on the artery walls as blood remains in the arteries during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle, or between beats when the heart relaxes. It is the minimum pressure that exists within one cardiac cycle.

A trainer receives a bonus for meeting performance objectives on a quarterly basis. Is this personal trainer more likely a direct employee or an independent contractor

Direct employee

Which of the following is an appropriate response to a client who mentions being sore following a weekend tennis tournament?

Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected areas

Which medication has no primary affect on heart rate, but can cause dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to water and electrolyte imbalances?

Diuretics Diuretics are medications that increase the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys. They have no primary effect on the heart rate, but they can cause water and electrolyte imbalances, which may lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias.

Which stretching technique is MOST appropriate for deconditioned clients to perform DURING a workout?

Dynamic stretching Dynamic stretching is the best choice for clients during a workout regardless of fitness level. Myofascial release, proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation, and static stretching are more suitable during the warm-up and cool-down

A client who is also a high school soccer player is interested in using the glycemic index to guide him as he "refuels" after practices and matches. Which of the following would be the BEST snack choice?

Dried fruit High-GI carbohydrates, including dried fruit, are best for refueling. Rye bread is a medium-GI carbohydrates, while oatmeal and strawberries are low-GI carbohydrates. p. 178-178

Which exercise variable is it MOST appropriate for a personal trainer to manipulate in the early stages of an exercise program?

Duration Exercise duration is probably the most appropriate variable to manipulate initially, building the exercise session by 10%, or five to 10 minutes every week or two over the first four to six weeks. Thereafter, and once adherence is developed, trainers can implement progressions by increasing exercise frequency and then exercise intensity.

A skilled performance athlete who has established good flexibility would like to address functional flexibility during his pre-exercise stretching routine. What two types of stretching would be the BEST choices for this client?

Dynamic stretching and ballistic stretching Dynamic and ballistic stretches are appropriate during a pre-exercise stretching routine for athletes interested in improving their functional flexibility.

The metabolic syndrome is defined as the presence of three or more of the following components:

Elevated waist circumference Men >40 inches (102 cm) Women >35 inches (88 cm) Elevated triglycerides >150 mg/dL Reduced HDL cholesterol Men <40 mg/dL Women <50 mg/dL Elevated blood pressure >130/85 mmHg Elevated fasting blood glucose >100 mg/dL

What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic cardiorespiratory exercise?

Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles A physical-performance advantage of reduced blood viscosity, which is a direct result of the increased blood volume, is that it enhances oxygen delivery to the active skeletal muscles, because the blood flows more easily through the vessels, including the capillaries. The other three choices are associated with increases in heart size and volume.

What hormone dilates the respiratory passages and reduces digestive activity and bladder emptying during physical activity?

Epinephrine

Which mechanism of thermoregulation is the major contributor during exercise?

Evaporation

Measuring VO2max in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of _______________ during maximal exercise.

Exhaled air VO2max, an excellent measure of cardiorespiratory efficiency, is an estimation of the body's ability to use oxygen for energy, and is closely related to the functional capacity of the heart. Measuring VO2max in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of exhaled air during maximal exercise.

Diagnosing the cause of a client's lordosis posture and prescribing an exercise program to treat it is within a personal trainer's scope of practice.

False Fitness professionals must never "diagnose" a client's condition or "prescribe" any treatment.

According to the general scope of practice for fitness professionals, personal trainers can rehabilitate clients who are recovering from musculoskeletal injuries.

False Personal trainers can design exercise programs once clients have been released from rehabilitation, but they cannot "rehabilitate" clients after injury.

Barring structural differences in the skeletal system, a pronated ankle ________________.

Forces internal rotation of the tibia and slightly less internal rotation of the femur

Low-back exercises performed for maintenance of health need not emphasize strength; rather, more repetitions of less-demanding exercises will assist in the enhancement of endurance and strength......

Given that endurance has more protective value than strength, strength gains should not be overemphasized at the expense of endurance.

A client comes to you with recommendations from her doctor regarding exercise with greater trochanteric bursitis. One of the focuses or her training should be strengthening which of the following muscle groups?

Gluteals When working with a client with greater trochanteric bursitis, strengthening the gluteals and deeper hip rotator muscles is important to maintain adequate strength. Stretching of the iliotibial band complex, hamstrings, and quadriceps should be the focus to ensure proper lower-extremity mobility.

A client who just found out she is pregnant asks what foods to eat to increase her intake of folic acid. What would be the BEST response?

Green leafy vegetables, organ meats, dried peas, beans, and lentils Citrus fruits, berries, and vegetables are good sources of vitamin C; green leafy vegetables, fruit, dairy, and grain products are good sources of vitamin K; and milk, liver, eggs, and peanuts are good sources of choline.

Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem?

Health belief model

Which of the following must be included as part of every client's pre-participation screening?

Health-risk appraisal

Which of the following is NOT a cause to immediately stop a cardiorespiratory exercise test?

Heavy breathing due to intense exercise While shortness of breath, wheezing, and difficult or labored breathing are on the list of symptoms that call for an immediate end to an exercise test, heavy breathing due to the intensity of the exercise is not.

For which of the following clients would a medical exam and graded exercise test be recommended before training begins?

High-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise A medical exam is recommended for moderate-risk clients engaged in vigorous exercise and for high-risk clients engaged in moderate or vigorous exercise both a GXT and medical exam are recommended.

The coupling relationship between tight __________ and __________ is defined as the lower-cross syndrome.

Hip flexors; erector spinae Tight or overdominant hip flexors are generally coupled with tight erector spinae muscles, producing an anterior pelvic tilt. This coupling relationship between tight hip flexors and erector spinae is defined as the lower-cross syndrome. A posterior pelvic tilt is caused by tightness in the rectus abdominis and hamstrings.

During the Thomas Test, you observe that the client's back of the leg does not touch the table but the knee flexes to 90 degrees. What muscle(s) should you suspect of being tight?

Iliopsoas When tight, the iliopsoas prevents the hip from rotating posteriorly which does not allow the thigh to touch the table.

Which of the following injuries is primarily caused by training errors among athletes?

Iliotibial band syndrome

When training clients in their homes, personal trainers can have clients provide the music for each session.

In effect, the clients are then using these recording for their own private, non-commercial enjoyment during exercise.

Which of the following is NOT a method the body uses to preserve blood volume during steady-state exercise?

Increasing stroke volume The following changes take place to preserve blood volume: A progressive increase in heart rate at steady-state exercise to maintain cardiac output and offset the small decrease in stroke volume associated with the fluid lossA compensation in blood pressure via further vasoconstriction in the non-exercising regions to maintain peripheral resistance and blood pressureA release of hormones—antidiuretic hormone, or vasopressin, and aldosterone—to help reduce water and sodium losses from the body

Two personal trainers are working in the same market, one as a direct employee and one as an independent contractor. Which one is more likely to be earning a higher per-session training fee?

Independent contractor While many employers offer competitive per-session training fees, they are often lower than what the trainer could make working independently. However, it is important to keep in mind that to qualify for a car loan or a mortgage, an individual has to be able to demonstrate that he or she has a job with a consistent, steady stream of income.

What is the first phase of healing after an injury occurs?

Inflammation phase The first phase of healing is the inflammatory phase, which can typically last for up to six days, depending on the severity of the injury. The focus of this phase is to immobilize the injured area and begin the healing process. Increased blood flow occurs to bring in oxygen and nutrients to rebuild the damaged tissue.

Which of the following intervention strategies would be LEAST APPROPRIATE when working with someone in the precontemplation stage?

Introduce different types of exercise activities to find something the individual enjoys

Which of the following minerals has a recommended dietary allowance (RDA) that is more than twice as high for women than it is for men?

Iron

Which of the following is a contraindication to stretching ?

Joint hypermobility

During the talk test, a client is able to speak, but not very comfortably. At approximately what intensity is this client working?

Just above VT1

Which term, also the name of a type of yoga, is synonymous with what is also called "serpent power," or the coiled-up energy contained in the body?

Kundalini

Which of the following muscles is part of the outer layer of the core?

Latissimus dorsi The outermost layer consists of larger, more powerful muscles that span many vertebrae and are primarily responsible for generating gross movement and forces within the trunk. Muscles in this region include the rectus abdominis, erector spinae, external and internal obliques, iliopsoas, and latissimus dorsi.

Which of Newton's laws of motion is described as follows? A body at rest will stay at rest and a body in motion will stay in motion (with the same direction and velocity) unless acted upon by an external force.

Law of inertia

Which pair of shoulder muscles is BEST strengthened by shoulder shrugs performed with resistance?

Levator scapulae and trapezius These two muscles that act at the shoulder girdle to elevate the scapula are effectively targeted by shoulder shrugs.

During what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model is the application of external resistance to functional movement patterns a primary focus?

Load training

A muscle with which of the following muscle arrangements has the LOWEST force production, but the HIGHEST speed of contraction?

Longitudinal Penniform muscles, which include unipennate, bipennate, and multipennate muscles, are designed for higher force production than longitudinal muscles. Longitudinal muscles are long and thin and have parallel fibers that run in the same direction as the length of the muscle. This type of fiber arrangement allows for speed of contraction.

Which of the following techniques will reduce the balance challenge of an exercise?

Lowering the center of mass

When trying to meet the objective of the stability and mobility training phase by reestablishing appropriate levels of stability and mobility through the kinetic chain, a personal trainer should begin by targeting which region of the body?

Lumbar spine The process begins by targeting an important proximal region of the body, the lumbar spine, which encompasses the body's center of mass and the core. As this region is primarily stable, programming should begin by first promoting stability of the lumbar region through the action and function of the core. Once an individual demonstrates the ability to stabilize this region, the program should then progress to the more distal segments.

Motivation

Motivation is defined as the psychological drive that gives behavior direction and purpose.

The birddog is an effective exercise for which of the following muscles that act at the trunk?

Multifidi The multifidi, which contribute to spinal stability during trunk extension, rotation, and side-bending, are effectively targeted by the birddog.

Static balance exercises often involve _______________.

Narrowing the base of support

When developing SMART goals, which of the following types of goals should be AVOIDED?

Negative goals

Which contemporary form of mind-body exercise includes a moderate-level aerobic component that fosters spontaneity?

Nia

After performing skinfold measurements with a male client, his body-fat percentage is calculated to be 26%. How would you rank this client in terms of body-fat percentage?

Obese In males, a body-fat percentage of 25% or higher is considered obese.

Which of the following is an example of a multiplanar movement from the anatomical position?

Opposition of the thumb

Weightbearing and resistance-training activities are MOST important for clients with which of the following diseases or disorders?

Osteoporosis

When blood is flowing through the heart, where does it go after passing through the tricuspid valve?

Right ventricle Blood passes through the tricuspid valve on its way from the right atrium to the right ventricle.

What is the most influential source of self-efficacy information?

Past performance experience

________________ is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program.

Perceived lack of time

The potential determinants for physical activity can be broken down into three categories

Personal attributes • Environmental factors • Physical-activity factors

During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should a client be working at an RPE of 3 to 4?

Phase 1

During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should low zone 2 intervals be introduced into a client's program?

Phase 2

During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should a trainer administer the VT2 threshold test to determine HR at VT2?

Phase 3

During which phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model should assessments of muscular strength and endurance be introduced?

Phase 3

Which of the primary energy systems supplies enough energy for no more than 10 seconds of all-out exertion?

Phosphagen system

Which contemporary form of mind-body exercise involves floor work and as well as work done on a machine called a reformer?

Pilates

Very little of the __________ a person consumes is used for energy production.

Protein Of the three macronutrients, relatively little protein is used for energy production except in extreme cases of caloric restriction. Protein is principally used in the growth and repair of tissue or is excreted.

Motivational interviewing is most commonly done during which stage of the client-trainer relationship?

Planning

What is the most important tool when dealing with a client who is at risk for relapse?

Planning ahead and being prepared

A client reports feeling terrible pain in the heel during his first few steps each morning, which then dissipates as he walks around the house. What is the MOST likely cause of this pain?

Plantar fasciitis

Which of the four components of blood carries hormones, food materials, ions, and gases throughout the body?

Plasma

__________ is the practice of voluntary breath control, consisting of conscious inhalation, retention, and exhalation.

Pranayama

A client's blood-pressure reading is 124/78 mmHg. How should the personal trainer classify this client?

Prehypertension Individuals are classified as prehypertensive when systolic blood pressure is 120-139 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure is 80-89 mmHg.

A prospective client tells you that he has been going for 2-mile walks a couple of times each week for the past two months, and that he joined the gym because he is finally ready to adopt a more structured workout regimen. What is this individual's stage of change?

Preparation

A competitive soccer player, whose sport requires an ability to accelerate, decelerate, change direction, and then accelerate again, is interested in completing an assessment to serve as a baseline against which he can measure future improvements. Which test will BEST measure these sports skills?

Pro agility test

"I will perform a full-body resistance-training workout twice every week" is an example of which type of goal?

Process goal

Which of the following goals BEST represents the statement "I want to bicep curl 10lb dumbells for 10 repetitions by April"?

Product goal

The three components of properly phrased feedback are BEST presented in what order?

Provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving The correcting of errors, which may be seen as the more "negative" point, should be sandwiched between reinforcement and motivation.

Which of the following activities falls outside a personal trainer's scope of practice?

Providing progressive exercise prescriptions Many states allow exercise "prescriptions" to be developed only by a licensed doctor. Therefore, it is important that trainers provide exercise programs, not exercise prescriptions. Although the difference between these terms may sound like a technicality, it could become an important issue in a courtroom.

Which of these assessments measures a client's muscular endurance?

Push-up test The push-up test measures upper-body endurance, specifically of the pectoralis muscles, triceps, and anterior deltoids. Due to common variations in upper-body strength between men and women, women should be assessed while performing a modified push-up

While performing the bend and lift screen on a new client you observe that the downward (eccentric) movement is initiated at the knees. What would you suspect is causing the compensation?

Quadriceps and hip flexor dominance Movement initiated at the knees may indicate quadriceps and hip flexor dominance, as well as insufficientactivation of the gluteus group.

Standing on a single leg and taking a step mandates stability in each of the following regions EXCEPT the __________.

Raised leg Standing efficiently on a single leg mandates stability in the stance-leg, hip, and torso, while simultaneously exhibiting mobility in the raised leg if stepping is involved.

Which of the following presents the four stages of the client-trainer relationship in their proper order?

Rapport, investigation, planning, action

Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the anterior, inferior surface of the pelvis in an effort to maintain a neutral pelvic position?

Rectus abdominis Maintenance of a neutral pelvic position is achieved via opposing force-couples between four major muscle groups that all have attachments on the pelvis. The rectus abdominis pulls upward on the anterior, inferior pelvis, while the hip flexors pull downward on the anterior, superior pelvis. On the posterior surface, the hamstrings pull downward on the posterior, inferior pelvis, while the erector spinae pull upward on the posterior, superior pelvis.

During the hurdle step screen, you observe that the client exhibits an anterior pelvic tilt with a forward torso lean. What muscles should you suspect of being underactive or weak?

Rectus abdominis and hip extensors If a client exhibits an anterior tilt with a forward torso lean, he or she likely has overactive or tight stance-leg hip flexors and underactive or weak rectus abdominis and hip extensors.

During the Thomas Test, you observe that when the client holds the back and sacrum flat, the back of the lowered thigh touches the table, but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What muscle(s) should you suspect of being tight?

Rectus femoris When a client is unable to flex the knee to 80 degrees, a personal trainer should suspect tightness in the rectus femoris, which does not allow the knee to bend.

What should a personal trainer do if a client insists on using dietary supplements despite the trainer's assurance that his or her fitness goals can be met without them?

Refer the client to a registered dietitian or physician

A personal trainer who is seeking clarification from a client by trying to restate the main points and feelings in a client's communication is using which method of effective listening?

Reflecting

A belief in personal control over health outcomes is a consistent predictor of unsupervised exercise activity participation among healthy adults.

Regarding the other options, the drop-out rate in vigorous-intensity exercise programs is almost twice as high as in moderate-intensity activity programs; those who perceive their health to be poor are unlikely to start or adhere to an activity program; and obese individuals are typically less active than normal-weight individuals, and are less likely to adhere to supervised exercise programs.

Which of the following documents represents a client's voluntary abandonment of the right to file a lawsuit against the personal trainer?

Release of liability waiver This document is used to release a personal trainer from liability for injuries resulting from a supervised exercise program, and represents a client's voluntary abandonment of the right to file a lawsuit.

Which type of yoga program is BEST suited for individuals who are new to yoga?

Restorative yoga

The sinoatrial node (SA node), which is sometimes called the pacemaker of the heart, is located in which chamber of the heart?

Right atrium

Movement in TRANSVERSE plane

Rotation- Internal (inward) or external (outward) turning about the vertical axis of the bone Pronation- Rotating the hand and wrist medially from the bone Supination-Rotating the hand and wrist laterally from the bone Horizontal Flexion (adduction)- From the 90-degree abducted arm position, the humerus is flexed (adducted) in toward the midline of the body in the transverse plane Horizontal Extension(abduction)- Return of the humerus from horizontal flexion

Which type of movement has the GREATEST need for thoracic mobility?

Rotational movements

When performing a shoulder screen and observing the client from a posterior view, a trainer notices an outward protrusion of the vertebral borders, but not the inferior angles, of the scapulae. What deviation is most likely being observed?

Scapular protraction Noticeable protrusion of the vertebral (medial) border outward is termed "scapular protraction," while noticeable protrusion of the inferior angle and vertebral (medial) border outward is termed "winged scapulae."

"Shoulder girdle" is the formal term for the _______________.

Scapulothoracic articulation

Clients working in the anaerobic-power training phase of the ACE IFT Model generally have goals related to _____________.

Short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events

Apley's scratch test is usually performed in conjunction with which of the following pairs of tests?

Shoulder flexion-extension test and internal-external rotation test of the humerus

Which of the following postural imbalances can be corrected through exercise?

Side dominance

The higher values found in the female RHR are attributed in part to:

Smaller heart chamber size Lower blood volume circulating less oxygen throughout the body Lower hemoglobin levels in women

The following list presents the four phases of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model in their proper order.

Stability and mobility training Movement training Load training Performance training

After proximal mobility is established in the pelvis and thoracic spine, the focus of the stability and mobility training phase shifts to establishing _______________.

Stability of the scapulothoracic joint and mobility of the glenohumeral joint A programming sequence that promotes stability and mobility within the body will adhere to the basic principle that proximal stability facilitates distal mobility. With this in mind, the next step after establishing mobility in the pelvis and thoracic spine is to address stability of the scapulothoracic spine and mobility of the glenohumeral joint.

A client you are training successfully completes the wood-chop spiral pattern in a half-kneeling position while extending their arms to increase the range of motion (long moment arm progression). What is the next progression?

Standing position with short moment arms.

Which of the following body positions may be interpreted by a client as aggressiveness on the part of the trainer?

Standing with hands on hips Why? An open, well-balanced, erect body position communicates confidence, while a rigid, hands-on-hips stance may be interpreted as aggressive.

Which stretching technique involves holding each stretch to the point of tension for 15 to 60 seconds?

Static stretching

A client leaves a gym bag on the front seat of his car each morning as a reminder to work out on his way home from work. What behavior-change strategy is he using?

Stimulus control

During a treadmill test, a client complains of leg cramping but feels that she will be able to finish the test. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

Stop the test immediately and possibly refer the client to her primary healthcare professional

What type of injury can be classified as longitudinal, oblique, transverse, or compression?

Stress fractures Longitudinal, oblique, transverse, and compression are the four types of stress fractures, which often occur in distance runners, track athletes, and court sport athletes (e.g., volleyball, basketball).

Which type of corporation is most typically used by personal-training businesses?

Subchapter S-corporations subchapter S-corporations, or S-corps, are the most "typical" type of corporation used by personal-training businesses that do not operate as sole proprietorships or partnerships.

An older adult client who is interested in trying mind-body exercise has decided that tai chi might be the best fit for her needs and abilities. Which form of tai chi would you recommend?

Sun style

The soleus, gastrocnemius, and plantaris are located in which compartment of the lower leg?

Superficial posterior compartment and serve as primary plantarflexors of the ankle joint.

When evaluating a new client's posture, a personal trainer notices a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with an accentuated lumbar curve and a backward shift of the upper trunk. What postural deviation does this client have?

Sway back

Which of the following is considered a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease?

Systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg Systolic blood pressure >140 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure >90 mmHg, confirmed by measurements on at least two separate occasions, is considered to be a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease.

Which form of mind-body exercise is BEST described as a form of moving meditation?

Tai chi

Which of these follow-up actions would be most appropriate for an individual who answers "yes" to questions on the PAR-Q?

Talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisal

Lateral epicondylitis is commonly known as __________.

Tennis elbow is defined as an overuse or repetitive-trauma injury of the wrist extensor muscle tendons near their origin on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.

In most cases, athletic performance will improve when the individual is

The American Dietetic Association recommends that athletes consume a comparable proportion of food from fat as the general population—that is, 20 to 25% of total calories. There is no evidence of a performance benefit from a very low-fat diet (<15% of total calories) or from a high-fat diet (>30% of total calories)

stroke volume

The amount of blood pumped during each heartbeat

Which of the following is NOT one of the key components of the marketing plan portion of the business plan?

The barriers of entry into the business The discussion of the barriers to entry, including the costs associated with starting a business, such as rental fees, equipment, employees, and marketing, are included in the risk analysis section of the business plan.

Which of the following is NOT a reason to stop a client while he or she is performing the sharpened Romberg test?

The client exceeds 30 seconds with good postural control During the sharpened Romberg test, the trainer should continue to time the client's performance until one of the following occurs: the client loses postural control and balance, the client's feet move on the floor, the client's eyes open, the client's arms move from the folded position, or the client exceeds 60 seconds with good postural control.

Which of the following actions would be most appropriate for an individual who has shortness of breath or difficulty breathing when they are at rest?

The individual should talk with a doctor and complete a medical exam before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisal

Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of "scope of practice"?

The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace A scope of practice defines the legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide, the settings in which those services can be provided, and the guidelines or parameters that must be followed.

Which of the following is an ADVANTAGE of working as an independent contractor?

The facility allows the trainer to establish all training fees.

When comparing the medial epicondyle of the humerus to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus, which of the following statements is correct?

The medial epicondyle is more toward the midline of the body than the lateral epicondyle The term "medial" means "toward the midline of the body," while the term "lateral" means "away from the midline of the body."

Which of the following is a DISADVANTAGE of working as a direct employee?

The personal trainer likely has to work an established minimum number of hours. the personal trainer likely has to work an established minimum number of hours. Many employers have requirements for the minimum number of hours that a direct employee must work and will terminate an employee if he or she fails to meet these requirements.

What is the BEST response if a prospective client is unable to adjust his or her schedule to fit into the time that the personal trainer has available?

The trainer should refer this client to another trainer working in the facility.

After several months of working with a client, a personal trainer notes that the client's self-efficacy and ability levels have improved. How should this affect the amount of external feedback the trainer provides to the client?

The trainer should taper the amount of external feedback As self-efficacy and ability build, trainers should taper off the amount of external feedback they provide, encouraging the clients to start providing feedback for themselves. Clients must learn to reinforce their own behaviors by providing internal encouragement, error correction, and even punishment.

three skinfold sites for women.

The triceps, thigh, and suprailium

Which of the following accounts for the unique position that personal trainers hold in the allied healthcare continuum?

They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians' general recommendations

Having friends or family members pay you directly for personal-training services instead of processing those fees through the fitness facility is a good way to supplement your income.--FALSE

This practice, which is known as "training under the table," is illegal, unethical, and in violation of the ACE Code of Ethics.

VT2 testing requires an individual to sustain the highest intensity possible during a single bout of stead-state exercise and mandates high levels of conditioning and experience in pacing.

Thus it is only recommended for well-conditioned individuals with performance goals

What is a PRIMARY goal of introducing interval training during phase 2 of a client's cardiorespiratory training program?

To improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exercise The goal of interval training will be to improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exercise performed at VT1, and to improve the client's ability to utilize fat as a fuel source.

What is the primary purpose of a fitness certification?

To protect the public from harm

What is the most important goal when working with special-population clientele?

To provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes The most important goal with all clients is to provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes.

When evaluating the risk of injury associated with a particular activity, a personal trainer finds that the frequency of occurrence is low or seldom, and the severity of injury is categorized as high or vital. What is the BEST course of action?

Transfer The best course of action in this situation is to transfer the risk, which involves moving the risk to others through waivers, insurance policies, etc.

Which of the following muscles plays a vital role (with the multifidi) in providing feedback to the central nervous system about spinal joint position before dynamic forces in the extremities destabilize the spine?

Transverse abdominis

People with low self-efficacy are more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are easy to accomplish.

True

Replacing body fluid as it is lost is an important guideline to follow whether exercising in the heat or in the cold.

True

Small-group personal training provides financial benefits to both the trainer and client.

True

When designing an exercise program for a beginning exerciser, it is generally best to focus on improving the client's posture before shifting the focus to enhancing muscular strength.

True

The strengthening of weakened muscles should begin with the performance of two to four repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for five to 10 seconds at less than 50% of maximal voluntary contraction in a supported, isolated environment.

True The strengthening of weakened muscles follows a progression model beginning with two to four repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for five to 10 seconds at less than 50% of MVC in a supported, more isolated environment. The next progression is to dynamic, controlled ROM exercises incorporating one to three sets of 12 to 15 repetitions.

Which of the three tests included in McGill's torso muscular endurance test battery is a timed test involving a static,isometric contraction of the anterior muscles, stabilizing the spine until the individual exhibits fatigue and can no longer hold the assumed position?

Trunk flexor endurance test

After how long a period of inactivity following an injury does disuse atrophy in the muscles surrounding the injury begin?

Two days Disuse atrophy of the muscles surrounding an injury may begin after just two days of inactivity.

A client's physician provides the following guideline regarding the intensity of exercise for a new client: "An RPE of 11 to 16 (6 to 20 scale) is the preferred exercise intensity." With which condition is this client MOST likely coping?

Type 2 diabetes Individuals with type 2 diabetes can exercise at a moderate intensity of 11 to 16 on the 6 to 20 ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) scale. The other three options all require a light to moderate intensity of 9 to 13 on the RPE scale. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th ed., p. 530

Which of the following types of physiological assessment is contraindicated for a client with asthma?

Ventilatory threshold test This type of testing is not recommended for: Individuals with certain breathing problems [asthma or other chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)]Individuals prone to panic/anxiety attacks, as the labored breathing may create discomfort or precipitate an attackThose recovering from a recent respiratory infection

When should behavior contracts and written agreements be revised or updated?

When goals are met or programs are modified

Which of the following statements about the ratings of perceived exertion scale is CORRECT?

When using ratings of perceived exertion, men tend to underestimate exertion, while women tend to overestimate exertion. Regarding the other choices, the 0-10 RPE scale does not directly correspond with heart rate, an RPE of 11 on the 6-20 scale is considered "fairly light," and most deconditioned individuals find using the RPE scale difficult, as they find any level of exercise to be fairly hard.

symptoms of altitude sickness?

While shortness of breath, headache, and nausea (along with lightheadedness) are all symptoms of altitude sickness, profuse sweating is one of the primary symptoms of heat exhaustion.

Which of the following exercises BEST addresses the rotational movement pattern during the movement-training phase?

Wood-chop The wood-chop is a rotational movement. The unilateral row is a pulling movement, the lunge is a single-leg movement, and the hip hinge is a bend-and-lift movement.

Which form of tai chi is the most practiced in the West today?

Yang style

In which zone of the three-zone training model is an individual exercising if he or she is working at a heart rate equal to his or her second ventilatory threshold?

Zone 3 zone 3 reflects heart rates at or above VT2, while zone 1 reflects heart rates below VT1 and zone 2 reflects heart rates from VT1 to just below VT2.

During a workout, you notice that a client displays a sudden lack of coordination and balance and, when asked, reports trouble seeing. What is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms?

a stroke The warning signs of a stroke are as follows: Sudden numbness or weakness of the face, arms, or legsSudden confusion or trouble speaking or understanding othersSudden trouble seeing in one or both eyesSudden walking problems, dizziness, or loss of balance and coordinationSudden severe headache with no known cause

Humans normally breathe approximately 5 to 6 liters of air per minute through the nose when at rest,

but use the mouth as the primary passageway for air when ventilation is increased to approximately 20 to 30 liters per minute during exercise.

During open kinetic chain (OKC) movements, a key role of the serratus anterior is to

control movement of the scapulae against a more fixed ribcage. During closed kinetic chain movements, however, where the distal segment is more fixed, a key role of the serratus anterior is to move the thorax toward a more fixed, stable scapulae.

For men, the three skinfold sites

chest, thigh, and abdomen.

The end-point of the talk test for VT1 (not the VT2 threshold test) is determined by

client's ability to recite the Pledge of Allegiance, or another memorized group of phrases.

You are performing the YMCA submaximal Step Test on a 40 year old, apparently healthy, female client who you have been working with for the past 4 weeks. After completing the minute assessment you immediatley have the client sit down and measure her heart rate for 1 minute. Her post exercise heart rate is recorded as 96 beats per minute. How would you classify this client's cardiorespiratory endurance ?

good pg 232

Some of the benefits of regular exercise include

improved cardiovascular function, lowered systolic and diastolic blood pressure, decreased body weight and fat mass, improved lipid profile, improved glucose control, decreased anxiety and depression, enhanced feelings of well-being, decreased incidence of several cancers (e.g., colon, breast, prostate), and decreased incidence of osteoporosis.

Self-efficacy

is defined as the belief in one's own capabilities to successfully engage in a behavior.

Cardiac output

is the product of stroke volume and heart rate, and therefore is defined as the amount of blood pumped per minute.

Atherosclerosis

is the underlying cause of cerebral and peripheral vascular diseases. Manifestations of atherosclerosis include angina, heart attack, stroke, and intermittent claudication.

The first objective when meeting a prospective client

is to first build a foundation for a personal relationship with the individual; gathering information on the client's goals and objectives is secondary.

Which of the following joints favors stability over mobility?

knee

To create more resistance with the same amount of weight,

move the weight farther from the working joint. To lessen the resistance as fatigue occurs, move the weight closer to the working joint.

The four primary types of tissue are

muscular, nervous, connective, and epithelial.

Stimulus control

refers to making adjustments to the environment to increase the likelihood of healthy behaviors. Simple and effective stimulus-control strategies may include choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work; keeping a gym bag in the car that contains all the required items for a workout; having workout clothes, socks, and shoes laid out for early morning workouts; and writing down workout times as part of a weekly schedule.

A process goal is

something that the client does, as opposed to something he or she achieves. Process goals are easy to track and provide short-term successes.

Individuals who are short in stature may not be good candidates for which type of testing?

step tests

During high-intensity exercise,

the total number of calories burned is much higher than during low-intensity exercise, and negates the higher percentage coming from fat. During low-intensity bouts, a higher percentage of calories is coming from fat, but the total number of fat calories is less than during high-intensity workouts. It is important to remember that the total number of calories burned is what determines weight loss, regardless of the source of those calories.

An elevated shoulder may present with an overdeveloped or tight upper trapezius muscle.

true

No assessments are recommended during the aerobic-base training phase of cardiorespiratory training.

true

One of the means of objectively assessing the success of a mind-body exercise program is to record baseline and serial blood-pressure measurements.

true

A personal trainer can accurately estimate VO2max from a client's heart-rate response to exercise.

true Research demonstrates that as workload increases, so do heart rate and oxygen uptake. In fact, heart rate and oxygen uptake exhibit a fairly linear relationship to workload. This relationship allows the personal trainer to accurately estimate VO2max from the heart-rate response to exercise with fairly good accuracy.

An umbrella liability policy provides added coverage for all of the other insurance that a person may have in place.

true The umbrella policy provides added coverage for all of the other insurance (e.g., auto, home, professional liability) that a person may have in place.

The location of the center of mass

varies in individuals by body shape, size, and gender, being slightly higher in males due to greater quantities of musculature in the upper body.

During submaximal exercise

ventilation increases linearly with oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production. This occurs primarily through an increase in tidal volume (i.e., the volume of air inhaled and exhaled per breath). At higher or near-maximal intensities (above VT2), the frequency of breathing becomes more pronounced and minute ventilation rises disproportionately to the increases in oxygen consumption. Tidal volume decreases as breathing rate increases.

Adherence is defined as

voluntary and active involvement in an exercise program