Critical care master final sett

A manufacturing plant has exploded, and the nurse is assigned to triage burn victims as they arrive to the hospital. Which is the most important question for the nurse to ask prior to the arrival of victims?

"Are the burns associated with chemicals used in the plant?"

Autonomic Dysreflexia - what should be done during an episode?

(1st)- place client in high fowlers position, check for bladder distention, loosen restrictive clothing

Nursing Management of Circulatory

**MAIN GOAL: end organ perfusion** o Kidney monitored frequently (pickiest organ) - Assess I&O - Adequate urine output is 30 mL/hr - Observe patient for bleeding, cardiac tamponade, ventricular failure, infection, dysrhythmias, renal failure, hemolysis, and thromboembolism

Non-ST-Segment Elevation Myocardial Ischemia (NSTEMI)

*some blood flow* - parital occlusion of a major coronary vessel or complete occlusion of a minor coronary vessel causing REVERSIBLE partial thickness heart muscle damage - ST-segment DEPRESSION indicates diagnosis

Cardiogenic Shock Nursing Managment

- Deliver oxygen (non-rebreather face mask) - Insert arterial line - Insert PA catheter - Assess vital signs and symptoms Meds: - Give inotrops STAT (dobutamine and epinephrine) - Vasopressors - Nitroglycerins - Diuretics - Morphine

Interventions to prevent ventilator associated pneumonia

- Oral care and suctioning EVERY 4 hours - Brush teeth ever 12 hours - Conventional ETT should be replaced with subglottic secretion drainage - Turn patient EVERY 2 hours - Feedings and Fluids (tube feeding) *TURN,WATER,FEED*

ARF Nursing Interventions

- albuterol - ventilator support - prone positioning (helps hypoxia = back can expand more if laying on stomach)

Nursing Care during Ventilation

- keep head of bed at 30 degrees - use sedation and paralysis - infection control - PUD prophylaxis - VTE prophylaxis - Maintain skin integrity - Comfort - Nutrtion - Communicate needs (psychosocial) - Weaning Trial (30-120 minutes; use CPAP)

Chest Tube Nursing Management

- monitor I and O carefully - monitor the airway - bleeding - infection * DONT: clamp tube or elevate chest tube box above the chest *

Manifestation of Acute Coronary Syndrome

- stable and unstable angina - myocardial infarction - digestive chest pain (heartburn) - dizzy - diaphoresis - vasoconstriction - JVD - abnormal heart sounds (S4) - N/V - Fever o Initial: increased HR and BP o Later: decreased BP (decreased CO)

ARF Causes

- trauma - anaphylaxis - pneumonia - COPD - burns **ALOT OF THINGS**

Autonomic Dysreflexia - what is the treatment?

-Removal of the stimuli -patient needs to void/ bowel movement

basal skull fracture signs

-battle's sign (bruise over mastoid - behind ear) -raccoon eyes (black & blue eyes) -hemorrhage & CSF drainage leak - check for glucose

A client with subdural hematoma was given mannitol to decrease intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following results would best show the mannitol was effective? 1. Urine output increases 2. Pupils are 8 mm and nonreactive 3. Systolic blood pressure remains at 150 mm Hg 4. BUN and creatinine levels return to normal

1

A patient has developed acute renal failure (ARF) with a 24-hour urine output of 350 mL. The nurse should assess the patient for: Pruritus Polyphagia Cardiac arrhythmias Tetany

3)

A patient who received a kidney transplant returns for a follow-up visit to the outpatient clinic and reports a lump in her breast. Transplant recipients are: 1) At increased risk for cancer due to immunosuppression caused by cyclosporine (Neoral) 2) Consumed with fear after the life-threatening experience of having a transplant 3) At increased risk for tumors because of the kidney transplant 4) At decreased risk for cancer, so the lump is most likely benign

1) Cyclosporine suppresses the immune response to prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. The use of cyclosporine places the patient at risk for tumors.

You're developing a care plan with the nursing diagnosis risk for infection for your patient that received a kidney transplant. A goal for this patient is to: 1) Remain afebrile and have negative cultures 2) Resume normal fluid intake within 2 to 3 days 3) Resume the patient's normal job within 2 to 3 weeks 4) Try to discontinue cyclosporine (Neoral) as quickly as possible

1) The immunosuppressive activity of cyclosporine places the patient at risk for infection, and steroids can mask the signs of infection. The patient may not be able to resume normal fluid intake or return to work for an extended period of time and the patient may need cyclosporine therapy for life.

A 1-kg weight gain is equal to

1,000 mL of retained fluid.

Which sign indicated the second phase of acute renal failure? 1. Daily doubling of urine output (4 to 5 L/day) 2. Urine output less than 400 ml/day 3. Urine output less than 100 ml/day 4. Stabilization of renal function

1. Daily doubling of the urine output indicates that the nephrons are healing. This means the patient is passing into the second phase (dieresis) of acute renal failur

ARDS Treatment

1. nasal cannula (5-6 litters) 2. high flow nasal cannula (10 litters) 3. breathing mask 4. CPAP 5. BIPAP **have to have a respiratory drive or go to ventilator**

A patient is treated in the emergency department (ED) for shock of unknown etiology. The first action by the nurse should be to a. check the blood pressure. b. obtain an oxygen saturation. c. attach a cardiac monitor. d. check level of consciousness.

1.Correct Answer: B Rationale: The initial actions of the nurse are focused on the ABCs, and assessing the airway and ventilation is necessary. The other assessments should be accomplished as rapidly as possible after the oxygen saturation is determined and addressed.

The nurse has just admitted to the nursing unit a client with a basilar skull fracture who is at risk for increased intracranial pressure. Pending specific health care provider prescriptions, the nurse should safely place the client in which positions? Select all that apply. 1.Head midline 2.Neck in neutral position 3.Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees 4.Head turned to the side when flat in bed 5.Neck and jaw flexed forward when opening the mouth

123

17. A male client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing automatic dysreflexia. The nurse would avoid which of the following measures to minimize the risk of recurrence? a. Strict adherence to a bowel retraining program b. Keeping the linen wrinkle-free under the client c. Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs d. Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours

17. Answer D. The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder. Straight catheterization should be done every 4 to 6 hours, and foley catheters should be checked frequently to prevent kinks in the tubing. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas.

A nurse is reviewing the record of a child with increased ICP and notes that the child has exhibited signs of decerebrate posturing. On assessment of the child, the nurse would expect to note which of the following if this type of posturing was present? 1. Abnormal flexion of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities 2. Rigid extension and pronation of the arms and legs 3. Rigid pronation of all extremities 4. Flaccid paralysis of all extremities

2

The nurse is caring for a client following a kidney transplant. The client develops oliguria. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed as the treatment of oliguria? 1) Encourage fluid intake 2) Administration of diuretics 3) Irrigation of foley catheter 4) Restricting fluids

2)

You expect a patient in the oliguric phase of renal failure to have a 24 hour urine output less than: 1) 200ml 2) 400ml 3) 800ml 4) 1000ml

2)

Which of the following symptoms indicate acute rejection of a transplanted kidney? 1) Edema, nausea 2) Fever, anorexia 3) Weight gain, pain at graft site 4) Increased WBC count, pain with voiding

3)

A client has just received a renal transplant and has started cyclosporine therapy to prevent graft rejection. Which of the following conditions is a major complication of this drug therapy? 1) Depression 2) Hemorrhage 3) Infection 4) Peptic ulcer disease

3) Immunosuppresive drug.

A sample consensus formula for fluid replacement recommends that a balanced salt solution be administered in the first 24 hours of a burn in the range of 2 to 4 mL/kg/% of burn, with 50% of the total given in the first 8 hours postburn. A 176-lb (80-kg) man with a 30% burn should receive a minimum of how much fluid replacement in the first 8 hours?

2,400 mL

The most common early sign of kidney disease is: 1. Sodium retention 2. Elevated BUN level 3. Development of metabolic acidosis 4. Inability to dilute or concentrate urine

2.

A client has burns to his anterior trunk and left arm. Using the Rule of the Nines, what is the TBSA burned?

27%

A client received burns to his entire back and left arm. Using the Rule of Nines, the nurse can calculate that he has sustained burns on what percentage of his body?

27%

When a patient is admitted to the emergency department following a head injury, the nurse's first priority in management of the patient once a patent airway is confirmed is a. maintaining cervical spine precautions b. determining the presence of increased ICP c. monitoring for changes in neurologic status d. establishing IV access with a large-bore catheter

A

You suspect kidney transplant rejection when the patient shows which symptoms? 1) Pain in the incision, general malaise, and hypotension 2) Pain in the incision, general malaise, and depression 3) Fever, weight gain, and diminished urine output 4) Diminished urine output and hypotension

3) Symptoms of rejection include fever, rapid weight gain, hypertension, pain over the graft site, peripheral edema, and diminished urine output.

The nurse in the emergency department is triaging victims of an airpolalne crash. Prioritize the clients in the order in which they should be treated from first to last. 1- A 75 year old with a 2 inch laceration to the left forearm 2- A 22 year old with a 2 inch laceration to the chin, history of asthma, respirations 26 breaths/min, audible wheezing 3- A 14 year old with a 2 inch laceration to the chin, history of asthma, respirations 26 breaths/min, audible wheezing 4- A 22 year old female 36 weeks pregnant with contractions every 10 to 15 minutes

3,2,4,1

A client is brought to the emergency department with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns on the left arm, left anterior leg, and anterior trunk. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the total body surface area that has been burned?

36%

An emergency department nurse is evaluating a client with partial-thickness burns to the entire surfaces of both legs. Based on the rule of nines, what is the percentage of the body burned?

36%

A client received a kidney transplant 2 months ago. He's admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of acute rejection. Which of the following assessment findings would be expected? 1) Hypotension 2) Normal body temperature 3) Decreased WBC count 4) Elevated BUN and creatinine levels

4)

Adverse reactions of prednisone therapy include which of the following conditions? 1) Acne and bleeding gums 2) Sodium retention and constipation 3) Mood swings and increased temperature 4) Increased blood glucose levels and decreased wound healing.

4)

The client is to undergo kidney transplantation with a living donor. Which of the following preoperative assessments is important? 1) Urine output 2) Signs of graft rejection 3) Signs and symptoms of rejection 4) Client's support system and understanding of lifestyle changes.

4)

A client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should avoid which measure to minimize the risk of recurrence? 1. strict adherence to a bowel retraining program 2. keeping the linen wrinkle free under the client 3. avoiding unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs 4. limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours

4. limiting bladder cath to once q12h (the most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder . Straight cath should be performed q4-6 hrs and foley cath should be checked frequently for kinks in tubing . Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel irregularity is important .

an unconscious client assumes a decerebrate posture in response to any noxious stimuli. when drawing a blood sample, the nurse should expect the client to: A. rigidly extend all four extremities B. internally flex the arms and extend the legs C. tightly curl into a fetal position D. internally rotate the arms and legs

A

A patient has a nursing diagnosis of risk for ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion related to cerebral edema. An appropriate nursing intervention for the patient is a. avoiding positioning the patient with neck and hip flexion b. maintaining hyperventilation to a PaCO2 of 15 to 20 mm Hg c. clustering nursing activities to provide periods of uninterrupted rest d. routine suctioning to prevent accumulation of respiratory secretions

A

Client with diagnosis of SIADH. The nurse would expect to see what laboratory finding? A.Serum sodium 125. B.Serum potassium 2.7 C.Serum glucose 250 D.Serum chloride 110

A

What is the standard to evaluate the degree of impaired consciousness for a patient with an acute head trauma? A. Best eye opening, verbal response, and motor response B. National Institutes of Health (NIH) Stroke Scale C. Romberg test D. Widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respirations

A

A football player is thought to have sustained an injury to his kidneys from being tackled from behind. The ER nurse caring for the patient reviews the initial orders written by the physician and notes that an order to collect all voided urine and send it to the laboratory for analysis. The nurse understands that this nursing intervention is important for what reason? A) Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma and blood losses may be microscopic, so laboratory analysis is essential. B) Intake and output calculations are essential and the laboratory will calculate the precise urine output produced by this patient. C) A creatinine clearance study may be ordered at a later time and the laboratory will hold all urine until it is determined if the test will be necessary. D) There is great concern about electrolyte imbalances and the laboratory will monitor the urine for changes in potassium and sodium concentrations.

A Feedback: Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma; its presence after trauma suggests renal injury. Hematuria may not occur, or it may be detectable only on microscopic examination. All urine should be saved and sent to the laboratory for analysis to detect RBCs and to evaluate the course of bleeding. Measuring intake and output is not a function of the laboratory. The laboratory does not save urine to test creatinine clearance at a later time. The laboratory does not monitor the urine for sodium or potassium concentrations.

A hospitalized patient is in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. The nurse should implement which of the following? Select all that apply. A. Keep strict intake and output records. B. Closely monitor potassium levels. C. Administer dopamine to increase renal perfusion. D. Limit fluid intake. E. Administer laxatives to prevent fluid overload.

A, B, D

Initial Assessment: Primary Survey

A = Airway B = Breathing C = Circulation D = Disability E = Exposure F = Fracture

The nurse is planning the care of a patient with a major thermal burn. What outcome will the nurse understand will be optimal during fluid replacement?

A urinary output of 30 mL/hr

A nurse takes a shift report and finds he is caring for a patient who has been exposed to anthrax by inhalation. What precautions does the nurse know must be put in place when providing care for this patient? A) Standard precautions B) Airborne precautions C) Droplet precautions D) Contact precautions

A)

40. A patient in the rehabilitation phase of the burn injury is setting goals with the nurse. What goals would be appropriate at this time? (Mark all that apply.) A) Increased participation in activities of daily living B) Increased understanding of the planned follow-up care C) Increased control of treatment D) Adjustment to alterations in lifestyle E) Recognition of complications

A, B, D INCREASED PARTICIPATION IN ADLs, INCREASED UNDERSTANDING OF THE PLANNED FOLLOW-UP CARE, ADJUSTMENT TO ALTERATIONS IN LIFESTYLE **The major goals for the patient include increased participation in activities of daily living; increased understanding of the injury, treatment, and planned follow-up care; adaptation and adjustment to alterations in body image, self-concept, and lifestyle; and absence of complications.

The nurse receiving a patient from EMS who has been in a shooting and is brought to the emergency department with profuse bleeding from the abdomen. The patient has a NRB mask @ 15L and two large bore IV's are imitated Prioritize the nursing actions for this client. A-Assess vita signs B-Assess level of consciousness C-Infuse NS bolus as ordered D-Removed the patient's remaining clothing E-Obtain hgb/hct as ordered

A,C,B,D,E

37. Your patient is in the acute phase of a burn injury. One of the nursing diagnoses on the plan of care is ineffective coping due to burn injury and altered body image. What interventions can you institute to help this patient cope more effectively? (Mark all that apply.) A) Promote truthful communication B) Allowing the patient to set specific expectations C) Assist the patient in practicing appropriate strategies D) Stop the patient's manipulation of staff E) Give positive reinforcement when appropriate

A,C,E PROMOTE TRUTHFUL COMUNICATION, ASSIST THE PATIENT IN PRACTICING APPROPRIATE STRATEGIES, GIVE POSITIVE REINFORCEMENT WHEN APPROPRIATE **The nurse can assist the patient to develop effective coping strategies by setting specific expectations for behavior, promoting truthful communication to build trust, helping the patient practice appropriate strategies, and giving positive reinforcement when appropriate. The nurse should set specific expectations, not the patient. Each staff member needs to stop the manipulation of the patient with the involved staff member.

Which is most important to respond to in a patient presenting with a T3 spinal injury? A. Blood pressure of 88/60 mm Hg, pulse of 56 beats/minute B. Deep tendon reflexes of 1+, muscle strength of 1+ C. Pain rated at 9 D. Warm, dry skin

A. Blood pressure of 88/60 mm Hg, pulse of 56 beats/minute Neurogenic shock is a loss of vasomotor tone caused by injury, and it is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. The loss of sympathetic nervous system innervations causes peripheral vasodilation, venous pooling, and a decreased cardiac output. The other options can be expected findings and are not as significant. Patients in neurogenic shock have pink and dry skin, instead of cold and clammy, but this sign is not as important as the vital signs.

Which clinical manifestation do you interpret as representing neurogenic shock in a patient with acute spinal cord injury? A. Bradycardia B. Hypertension C. Neurogenic spasticity D. Bounding pedal pulses

A. Bradycardia Neurogenic shock results from loss of vasomotor tone caused by injury and is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. Loss of sympathetic innervation causes peripheral vasodilation, venous pooling, and a decreased cardiac output.

Nurse Oliver checks for residual before administering a bolus tube feeding to a client with a nasogastric tube and obtains a residual amount of 150 mL. What is appropriate action for the nurse to take? A. Hold the feeding B. Reinstill the amount and continue with administering the feeding C. Elevate the client's head at least 45 degrees and administer the feeding D. Discard the residual amount and proceed with administering the feeding

A. Hold the feeding

A patient with a head injury opens his eyes to verbal stimulation, curses when stimulated, and does not respond to a verbal command to move but attempts to push away a painful stimulus. The nurse records the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score as a.9. c.13. b.11. d.15.

ANS: B The patient has scores of 3 for eye opening, 3 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response.

An intubated patient receiving mechanical ventilation requires all of the following should be readily available but which piece of equipment absolutely has to be with the patient at all times, even during transport? A. Self-inflating bag-valve mask (e.g Ambu bag) B. IV pump C. Suctioning equipment D. Patent IV access

A. Self-inflating bag-valve mask (e.g Ambu bag)

When reviewing the patient's medication administration record (MAR) the notes the medication atropine listed. The nurse understands that this medication is administered for which problem? A. Symptomatic bradycardia B. Symptomatic tachycardia C. Supraventricular tachycardia D. Ventricular dysthymias

A. Symptomatic bradycardia

When assisting the physician with intubation, which order would the nurse question? A. To administer paralytic without adequate sedation B. Obtaining cultures before administering antibiotics C. To administer adequate sedation before paralytics D. Auscultating over the stomach

A. To administer paralytic without adequate sedation

A patient has arrived in the emergency room complaining of chest pain. The patient is confused and does not remember when the chest pain started. What laboratory test results in the highest priority in assisting the nurse in planning care for this patient? A. Troponin 3.6 ng/mL B. Creatinine 1.7 ng/mL C. Creatine kinase (CK) 50 units/L D. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L

A. Troponin 3.6 ng/mL

Urinary function during the acute phase of spinal cord injury is maintained with a. an indwelling catheter b. intermittent catheterization c. insertion of a suprapubic catheter d. use of incontinent pads to protect the skin

A. an indwelling catheterization

A nurse is planning care for a client who suffered a spinal cord injury (SCI) involving a T12 fracture 1 week ago. The client has no muscle control of the lower limbs, bowel, or bladder. which of the following should be the nurses' greatest priority? a. prevention of further damage to the spinal cord b. prevention of contractures of the lower extremities c. prevention of skin breakdown of areas that lack sensation d. prevention of postural hypotension when placing the client in a wheelchair

A. prevention of further damage to the spinal cord Rationale: The greatest risk to the client during the acute phase of a SCI is further damage to the spinal cord. Therefore, when planning care, the priority should be the prevention of further damage to the spinal cord by administration of corticosteroids, minimizing movement of the client until spinal stabilization is accomplished through either traction or surgery, and adequate oxygenation of the client to decrease ischemia of the spinal cord.

a nures in the critical care unit is completing an admission assessment of a client who has a gunshot wound to the head. which of the following assessment findings are indicative of increased ICP (select all that apply) A. headache B. dilated pupils C. tachycardia D. decorticate posturing E. hypotension

ABD

The nurse is monitoring a patient for increased ICP following a head injury. Which of the following manifestations indicate an increased ICP (select all that apply) a. fever b. oriented to name only c. narrowing pulse pressure d. dilated right pupil > left pupil e. decorticate posturing to painful stimulus

ABDE

Cardiogenic Shock Labs and Diagnosis

ABG: shows hypoxia and metabolic acidosis Lactate: increased levels Kindeys: test to determine how they are working SVO2: decreased Hemoglobin and Hematocrit

You are providing care for a patient who has been admitted to the hospital with a head injury who requires regular neurologic vital signs. Which assessments are components of the patient's score on the Glasgow Coma Scale (select all that apply)? A. Eye opening B. Abstract reasoning C. Best verbal response D. Best motor response E. Cranial nerve function

ACD

The nurse is monitoring a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). What indicators are the most critical for the nurse to monitor? select all that apply. A. systolic blood pressure B. urine output C. breath sounds D. cerebral perfusion pressure

AD

Patient with head injury. Which of the following are manifestations of Increased ICP? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A.Headache. B.Tachycardia C.Hypotension D.Pupillary changes. E.Abnormal posturing.

ADE

An unconscious patient with a traumatic head injury has a blood pressure of 130/76 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg. The nurse will calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) as ____ mm Hg.

ANS: 74

Norepinephrine (Levophed) has been prescribed for a patient who was admitted with dehydration and hypotension. Which patient data indicate that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before starting the norepinephrine? a. The patient's central venous pressure is 3 mm Hg. b. The patient is in sinus tachycardia at 120 beats/min. c. The patient is receiving low dose dopamine (Intropin). d. The patient has had no urine output since being admitted.

ANS: A Adequate fluid administration is essential before administration of vasopressors to patients with hypovolemic shock. The patient's low central venous pressure indicates a need for more volume replacement. The other patient data are not contraindications to norepinephrine administration.

A 68-yr-old male patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after being found unconscious on the bathroom floor by his spouse. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Check oxygen saturation. b. Assess pupil reaction to light. c. Palpate the head for injuries d. Verify Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score.

ANS: A Airway patency and breathing are the most vital functions and should be assessed first. The neurologic assessments should be accomplished next and additional assessment after

A patient in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure has a 24-hour fluid output of 150 ml emesis and 250 ml urine. The nurse plans a fluid replacement for the following day of ___ ml. a. 400 b. 800 c. 1000 d. 1400

Answer: C Rationale: Usually fluid replacement should be based on the patient's measured output plus 600 ml/day for insensible losses.

A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104° F, and blood glucose 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally. c. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL. d. Start norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg.

ANS: A Because of the low systemic vascular resistance (SVR) associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions also are appropriate, and should be initiated quickly as well.

A college athlete is seen in the clinic 6 weeks after a concussion. Which assessment information will the nurse collect to determine whether the patient is developing postconcussion syndrome? a. Short-term memory c. Glasgow Coma Scale b. Muscle coordination d. Pupil reaction to light

ANS: A Decreased short-term memory is one indication of postconcussion syndrome. The other data may be assessed but are not indications of postconcussion syndrome.

A 78-kg patient with septic shock has a urine output of 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. The pulse rate is 120/minute and the central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure are low. Which order by the health care provider will the nurse question? a. Give PRN furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. b. Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr. c. Administer hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV. d. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg.

ANS: A Furosemide will lower the filling pressures and renal perfusion further for the patient with septic shock. The other orders are appropriate.

Admission vital signs for a brain-injured patient are blood pressure of 128/68 mm Hg, pulse of 110 beats/min, and of respirations 26 breaths/min. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour later, will be of mostconcern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure of 154/68 mm Hg, pulse of 56 beats/min, respirations of 12 breaths/min b. Blood pressure of 134/72 mm Hg, pulse of 90 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min c. Blood pressure of 148/78 mm Hg, pulse of 112 beats/min, respirations of 28 breaths/min d. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, pulse of 120 beats/min, respirations of 30 breaths/min

ANS: A Systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes represent Cushing's triad. These findings indicate that the intracranial pressure (ICP) has increased, and brain herniation may be imminent unless immediate action is taken to reduce ICP. The other vital signs may indicate the need for changes in treatment, but they are not indicative of an immediately life-threatening process.

During change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a patient has been admitted with dehydration and hypotension after having vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. New onset of confusion b. Heart rate 112 beats/minute c. Decreased bowel sounds d. Pale, cool, and dry extremities

ANS: A The changes in mental status are indicative that the patient is in the progressive stage of shock and that rapid intervention is needed to prevent further deterioration. The other information is consistent with compensatory shock

Which data collected by the nurse caring for a patient who has cardiogenic shock indicate that the patient may be developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. The patient's serum creatinine level is elevated. b. The patient complains of intermittent chest pressure. c. The patient's extremities are cool and pulses are weak. d. The patient has bilateral crackles throughout lung fields.

ANS: A The elevated serum creatinine level indicates that the patient has renal failure as well as heart failure. The crackles, chest pressure, and cool extremities are all consistent with the patient's diagnosis of cardiogenic shock.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a head injury. Which finding, when reported to the health care provider, should the nurse expect will result in new prescribed interventions? a. Pale yellow urine output of 1200 mL over the past 2 hours. b. Ventriculostomy drained 40 mL of fluid in the past 2 hours. c. Intracranial pressure spikes to 16 mm Hg when patient is turned. d. LICOX brain tissue oxygenation catheter shows PbtO2 of 38 mm Hg.

ANS: A The high urine output indicates that diabetes insipidus may be developing, and interventions to prevent dehydration need to be rapidly implemented. The other data do not indicate a need for any change in therapy.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) for shock of unknown etiology. The first action by the nurse should be to a. administer oxygen. b. obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). c. obtain the blood pressure. d. check the level of consciousness.

ANS: A The initial actions of the nurse are focused on the ABCs—airway, breathing, and circulation—and administration of oxygen should be done first. The other actions should be accomplished as rapidly as possible after oxygen administration.

A nurse is caring for a patient with shock of unknown etiology whose hemodynamic monitoring indicates BP 92/54, pulse 64, and an elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure. Which collaborative intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. b. Keep head of bed elevated to 30 degrees. c. Hold nitroprusside (Nipride) if systolic BP <90 mm Hg. d. Titrate dobutamine (Dobutrex) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg.

ANS: A The patient's elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure indicates volume excess. A saline infusion at 250 mL/hr will exacerbate the volume excess. The other actions are appropriate for the patient.

A male patient who has possible cerebral edema has a serum sodium level of 116 mEq/L (116 mmol/L) and a decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). He is now complaining of a headache. Which prescribed interventions should the nurse implement first? a. Administer IV 5% hypertonic saline. b. Draw blood for arterial blood gases (ABGs). c. Send patient for computed tomography (CT). d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally.

ANS: A The patient's low sodium indicates that hyponatremia may be causing the cerebral edema. The nurse's first action should be to correct the low sodium level. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) will have minimal effect on the headache because it is caused by cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Drawing ABGs and obtaining a CT scan may provide some useful information, but the low sodium level may lead to seizures unless it is addressed quickly.

While admitting a 42-yr-old patient with a possible brain injury after a car accident to the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following information. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient takes warfarin (Coumadin) daily. b. The patient's blood pressure is 162/94 mm Hg. c. The patient is unable to remember the accident. d. The patient complains of a severe dull headache.

ANS: A The use of anticoagulants increases the risk for intracranial hemorrhage and should be immediately reported. The other information would not be unusual in a patient with a head injury who had just arrived in the ED.

Which preventive actions by the nurse will help limit the development of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) in patients admitted to the hospital (select all that apply)? a. Use aseptic technique when caring for invasive lines or devices. b. Ambulate postoperative patients as soon as possible after surgery. c. Remove indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible after surgery. d. Advocate for parenteral nutrition for patients who cannot take oral feedings. e. Administer prescribed antibiotics within 1 hour for patients with possible sepsis.

ANS: A, B, C, E Because sepsis is the most frequent etiology for SIRS, measures to avoid infection such as removing indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible, use of aseptic technique, and early ambulation should be included in the plan of care. Adequate nutrition is important in preventing SIRS. Enteral, rather than parenteral, nutrition is preferred when patients are unable to take oral feedings because enteral nutrition helps maintain the integrity of the intestine, thus decreasing infection risk. Antibiotics should be administered within 1 hour after being prescribed to decrease the risk of sepsis progressing to SIRS.

A patient with suspected neurogenic shock after a diving accident has arrived in the emergency department. A cervical collar is in place. Which actions should the nurse take (select all that apply)? a. Prepare to administer atropine IV. b. Obtain baseline body temperature. c. Infuse large volumes of lactated Ringer's solution. d. Provide high-flow oxygen (100%) by non-rebreather mask. e. Prepare for emergent intubation and mechanical ventilation.

ANS: A, B, D, E All of the actions are appropriate except to give large volumes of lactated Ringer's solution. The patient with neurogenic shock usually has a normal blood volume, and it is important not to volume overload the patient. In addition, lactated Ringer's solution is used cautiously in all shock situations because the failing liver cannot convert lactate to bicarbonate.

Which action will the emergency department nurse anticipate for a patient diagnosed with a concussion who did not lose consciousness? a. Coordinate the transfer of the patient to the operating room. b. Provide discharge instructions about monitoring neurologic status. c. Transport the patient to radiology for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. Arrange to admit the patient to the neurologic unit for 24 hours of observation.

ANS: B A patient with a minor head trauma is usually discharged with instructions about neurologic monitoring and the need to return if neurologic status deteriorates. MRI, hospital admission, and surgery are not usually indicated in a patient with a concussion.

Which statement by patient who is being discharged from the emergency department (ED) after a concussion indicates a need for intervention by the nurse? a. "I will return if I feel dizzy or nauseated." b. "I am going to drive home and go to bed." c. "I do not even remember being in an accident." d. "I can take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for my headache."

ANS: B After a head injury, the patient should avoid driving and operating heavy machinery. Retrograde amnesia is common after a concussion. The patient can take acetaminophen for headache and should return if symptoms of increased intracranial pressure such as dizziness or nausea occur.

After change-of-shift report in the progressive care unit, who should the nurse care for first? a. Patient who had an inferior myocardial infarction 2 days ago and has crackles in the lung bases b. Patient with suspected urosepsis who has new orders for urine and blood cultures and antibiotics c. Patient who had a T5 spinal cord injury 1 week ago and currently has a heart rate of 54 beats/minute d. Patient admitted with anaphylaxis 3 hours ago who now has clear lung sounds and a blood pressure of 108/58 mm Hg

ANS: B Antibiotics should be administered within the first hour for patients who have sepsis or suspected sepsis in order to prevent progression to systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and septic shock. The data on the other patients indicate that they are more stable. Crackles heard only at the lung bases do not require immediate intervention in a patient who has had a myocardial infarction. Mild bradycardia does not usually require atropine in patients who have a spinal cord injury. The findings for the patient admitted with anaphylaxis indicate resolution of bronchospasm and hypotension.

Which finding is the best indicator that the fluid resuscitation for a patient with hypovolemic shock has been effective? a. Hemoglobin is within normal limits. b. Urine output is 60 mL over the last hour. c. Central venous pressure (CVP) is normal. d. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 72 mm Hg.

ANS: B Assessment of end organ perfusion, such as an adequate urine output, is the best indicator that fluid resuscitation has been successful. The hemoglobin level, CVP, and MAP are useful in determining the effects of fluid administration, but they are not as useful as data indicating good organ perfusion.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Blood pressure (BP) 92/56 mm Hg b. Skin cool and clammy c. Oxygen saturation 92% d. Heart rate 118 beats/minute

ANS: B Because patients in the early stage of septic shock have warm and dry skin, the patient's cool and clammy skin indicates that shock is progressing. The other information will also be reported, but does not indicate deterioration of the patient's status.

After endotracheal suctioning, the nurse notes that the intracranial pressure (ICP) for a patient with a traumatic head injury has increased from 14 to 17 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the increase in intracranial pressure. b. Ensure that the patient's neck is in neutral position. c. Notify the health care provider about the change in pressure. d. Increase the rate of the prescribed propofol (Diprivan) infusion.

ANS: B Because suctioning will cause a transient increase in ICP, the nurse should initially check for other factors that might be contributing to the increase and observe the patient for a few minutes. Documentation is needed, but this is not the first action. There is no need to notify the health care provider about this expected reaction to suctioning. Propofol is used to control patient anxiety or agitation. There is no indication that anxiety has contributed to the increase in ICP.

A patient admitted with a diffuse axonal injury has a systemic blood pressure (BP) of 106/52 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 14 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the BP and ICP in the patient's record. b. Report the BP and ICP to the health care provider. c. Elevate the head of the patient's bed to 60 degrees. d. Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs and ICP.

ANS: B Calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP): (CPP = Mean arterial pressure [MAP] - ICP). MAP = DBP + 1/3 (Systolic blood pressure [SBP] - Diastolic blood pressure [DBP]). Therefore the MAP is 70, and the CPP is 56 mm Hg, which are below the normal values of 60 to 100 mm Hg and are approaching the level of ischemia and neuronal death. Immediate changes in the patient's therapy such as fluid infusion or vasopressor administration are needed to improve the CPP. Adjustments in the head elevation should only be done after consulting with the health care provider. Continued monitoring and documentation will also be done, but they are not the first actions that the nurse should take

A 20-yr-old male patient is admitted with a head injury after a collision while playing football. After noting that the patient has developed clear nasal drainage, which action should the nurse take? a. Have the patient gently blow the nose. b. Check the drainage for glucose content. c. Teach the patient that rhinorrhea is expected after a head injury. d. Obtain a specimen of the fluid to send for culture and sensitivity.

ANS: B Clear nasal drainage in a patient with a head injury suggests a dural tear and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. If the drainage is CSF, it will test positive for glucose. Fluid leaking from the nose will have normal nasal flora, so culture and sensitivity will not be useful. Blowing the nose is avoided to prevent CSF leakage.

The following interventions are ordered by the health care provider for a patient who has respiratory distress and syncope after eating strawberries. Which will the nurse complete first? a. Start a normal saline infusion. b. Give epinephrine (Adrenalin). c. Start continuous ECG monitoring. d. Give diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

ANS: B Epinephrine rapidly causes peripheral vasoconstriction, dilates the bronchi, and blocks the effects of histamine and reverses the vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and histamine release that cause the symptoms of anaphylaxis. The other interventions are also appropriate but would not be the first ones completed.

After evacuation of an epidural hematoma, a patient's intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored with an intraventricular catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse requires urgent communication with the health care provider? a. Pulse of 102 beats/min b. Temperature of 101.6° F c. Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg d. Mean arterial pressure of 90 mm Hg

ANS: B Infection is a serious consideration with ICP monitoring, especially with intraventricular catheters. The temperature indicates the need for antibiotics or removal of the monitor. The ICP, arterial pressure, and apical pulse only require ongoing monitoring at this time.

The nurse is admitting a patient with a basal skull fracture. The nurse notes ecchymoses around both eyes and clear drainage from the patient's nose. Which admission order should the nurse question? a. Keep the head of bed elevated. b. Insert nasogastric tube to low suction. c. Turn patient side to side every 2 hours. d. Apply cold packs intermittently to face.

ANS: B Rhinorrhea may indicate a dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Insertion of a nasogastric tube will increase the risk for infections such as meningitis. Turning the patient, elevating the head, and applying cold packs are appropriate orders.

Family members of a patient who has a traumatic brain injury ask the nurse about the purpose of the ventriculostomy system being used for intracranial pressure monitoring. Which response by the nurse is bestfor this situation? a. "This type of monitoring system is complex and it is managed by skilled staff." b. "The monitoring system helps show whether blood flow to the brain is adequate." c. "The ventriculostomy monitoring system helps check for alterations in cerebral perfusion pressure." d. "This monitoring system has multiple benefits including facilitation of cerebrospinal fluid drainage."

ANS: B Short and simple explanations should be given initially to patients and family members. The other explanations are either too complicated to be easily understood or may increase the family members' anxiety

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has cardiogenic shock? a. Check temperature every 2 hours. b. Monitor breath sounds frequently. c. Maintain patient in supine position. d. Assess skin for flushing and itching.

ANS: B Since pulmonary congestion and dyspnea are characteristics of cardiogenic shock, the nurse should assess the breath sounds frequently. The head of the bed is usually elevated to decrease dyspnea in patients with cardiogenic shock. Elevated temperature and flushing or itching of the skin are not typical of cardiogenic shock.

A patient who is suspected of having an epidural hematoma is admitted to the emergency department. Which action will the nurse expect to take? a. Administer IV furosemide (Lasix). b. Prepare the patient for craniotomy. c. Initiate high-dose barbiturate therapy. d. Type and crossmatch for blood transfusion.

ANS: B The principal treatment for epidural hematoma is rapid surgery to remove the hematoma and prevent herniation. If intracranial pressure is elevated after surgery, furosemide or high-dose barbiturate therapy may be needed, but these will not be of benefit unless the hematoma is removed. Minimal blood loss occurs with head injuries, and transfusion is usually not necessary.

After receiving 2 L of normal saline, the central venous pressure for a patient who has septic shock is 10 mm Hg, but the blood pressure is still 82/40 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate an order for a. nitroglycerine (Tridil). b. norepinephrine (Levophed). c. sodium nitroprusside (Nipride). d. methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol).

ANS: B When fluid resuscitation is unsuccessful, vasopressor drugs are administered to increase the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and blood pressure, and improve tissue perfusion. Nitroglycerin would decrease the preload and further drop cardiac output and BP. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) is considered if blood pressure does not respond first to fluids and vasopressors. Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and would further decrease SVR.

The emergency department (ED) nurse receives report that a patient involved in a motor vehicle crash is being transported to the facility with an estimated arrival in 1 minute. In preparation for the patient's arrival, the nurse will obtain a. hypothermia blanket. b. lactated Ringer's solution. c. two 14-gauge IV catheters. d. dopamine (Intropin) infusion.

ANS: C A patient with multiple trauma may require fluid resuscitation to prevent or treat hypovolemic shock, so the nurse will anticipate the need for 2 large bore IV lines to administer normal saline. Lactated Ringer's solution should be used cautiously and will not be ordered until the patient has been assessed for possible liver abnormalities. Vasopressor infusion is not used as the initial therapy for hypovolemic shock. Patients in shock need to be kept warm not cool.

Which finding about a patient who is receiving vasopressin (Pitressin) to treat septic shock is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient's urine output is 18 mL/hr. b. The patient's heart rate is 110 beats/minute. c. The patient is complaining of chest pain. d. The patient's peripheral pulses are weak.

ANS: C Because vasopressin is a potent vasoconstrictor, it may decrease coronary artery perfusion. The other information is consistent with the patient's diagnosis and should be reported to the health care provider but does not indicate a need for a change in therapy.

When a brain-injured patient responds to nail bed pressure with internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms, the nurse reports the response as a. flexion withdrawal. c. decorticate posturing. b. localization of pain. d. decerebrate posturing.

ANS: C Internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms in an unconscious patient is documented as decorticate posturing. Extension of the arms and legs is decerebrate posturing. Because the flexion is generalized, it does not indicate localization of pain or flexion withdrawal.

The nurse has administered prescribed IV mannitol (Osmitrol) to an unconscious patient. Which parameter should the nurse monitor to determine the medication's effectiveness? a. Blood pressure c. Intracranial pressure b. Oxygen saturation d. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

ANS: C Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic and will reduce cerebral edema and intracranial pressure. It may initially reduce hematocrit and increase blood pressure, but these are not the best parameters for evaluation of the effectiveness of the drug. O2saturation will not directly improve as a result of mannitol administration.

Your patient that was extubated 2 hours ago starts complaining of trouble breathing and swallowing. You assess your patient recognizing stridor. What is the nurse's priority action? A. Notify MD of possible airway obstruction B. Obtain arterial blood gas C. Auscultate patient's lung sounds D. Lay your patient flat to reduce stridor

C. Auscultate patient's lung sounds

A 19-year-old patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the emergency department (ED). Which assessment finding by the nurse will help confirm a diagnosis of neurogenic shock? a. Inspiratory crackles. b. Cool, clammy extremities. c. Apical heart rate 45 beats/min. d. Temperature 101.2° F (38.4° C).

ANS: C Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. The other findings would be more consistent with other types of shock

An older patient with cardiogenic shock is cool and clammy and hemodynamic monitoring indicates a high systemic vascular resistance (SVR). Which intervention should the nurse anticipate doing next? a. Increase the rate for the dopamine (Intropin) infusion. b. Decrease the rate for the nitroglycerin (Tridil) infusion. c. Increase the rate for the sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion. d. Decrease the rate for the 5% dextrose in normal saline (D5/.9 NS) infusion.

ANS: C Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and will decrease the SVR and afterload, which will improve cardiac output. Changes in the D5/.9 NS and nitroglycerin infusions will not directly decrease SVR. Increasing the dopamine will tend to increase SVR.

The charge nurse observes an inexperienced staff nurse caring for a patient who has had a craniotomy for resection of a brain tumor. Which action by the inexperienced nurse requires the charge nurse to intervene? a. The staff nurse assesses neurologic status every hour. b. The staff nurse elevates the head of the bed to 30 degrees. c. The staff nurse suctions the patient routinely every 2 hours. d. The staff nurse administers an analgesic before turning the patient.

ANS: C Suctioning increases intracranial pressure and should only be done when the patient's respiratory condition indicates it is needed. The other actions by the staff nurse are appropriate.

Which information about a 30-yr-old patient who is hospitalized after a traumatic brain injury requires the mostrapid action by the nurse? a. Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg b. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) drainage of 25 mL/hr c. Pressure of oxygen in brain tissue (PbtO2) is 14 mm Hg d. Cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia at 120 beats/minute

ANS: C The PbtO2should be 20 to 40 mm Hg. Lower levels indicate brain ischemia. An intracranial pressure (ICP) of 15 mm Hg is at the upper limit of normal. CSF is produced at a rate of 20 to 30 mL/hr. The reason for the sinus tachycardia should be investigated, but the elevated heart rate is not as concerning as the decrease in PbtO2.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a head injury and fractured right arm after being assaulted. Which assessment information requires rapidaction by the nurse? a. The apical pulse is slightly irregular. b. The patient complains of a headache. c. The patient is more difficult to arouse. d. The blood pressure (BP) increases to 140/62 mm Hg.

ANS: C The change in level of consciousness (LOC) is an indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and suggests that action by the nurse is needed to prevent complications. The change in BP should be monitored but is not an indicator of a need for immediate nursing action. Headache and a slightly irregular apical pulse are not unusual in a patient after a head injury.

The patient with neurogenic shock is receiving a phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) infusion through a right forearm IV. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse indicates a need for immediate action? a. The patient's heart rate is 58 beats/minute. b. The patient's extremities are warm and dry. c. The patient's IV infusion site is cool and pale. d. The patient's urine output is 28 mL over the last hour.

ANS: C The coldness and pallor at the infusion site suggest extravasation of the phenylephrine. The nurse should discontinue the IV and, if possible, infuse the medication into a central line. An apical pulse of 58 is typical for neurogenic shock but does not indicate an immediate need for nursing intervention. A 28-mL urinary output over 1 hour would require the nurse to monitor the output over the next hour, but an immediate change in therapy is not indicated. Warm, dry skin is consistent with early neurogenic shock, but it does not indicate a need for a change in therapy or immediate action.

A patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash arrives in the emergency department (ED) with cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; and hypotension. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert two large-bore IV catheters. b. Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring. c. Provide oxygen at 100% per non-rebreather mask. d. Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions.

ANS: C The first priority in the initial management of shock is maintenance of the airway and ventilation. ECG monitoring, insertion of IV catheters, and obtaining blood for transfusions should also be rapidly accomplished but only after actions to maximize oxygen delivery have been implemented.

A patient who is unconscious has ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion and cerebral tissue swelling. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. b. Position the patient with knees and hips flexed. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. d. Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest periods.

ANS: C The patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) should be maintained in the head-up position to help reduce ICP. Extreme flexion of the hips and knees increases abdominal pressure, which increases ICP. Because the stimulation associated with nursing interventions increases ICP, clustering interventions will progressively elevate ICP. Coughing increases intrathoracic pressure and ICP.

A nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion to treat cardiogenic shock. Which finding indicates that the medication is effective? a. No new heart murmurs b. Decreased troponin level c. Warm, pink, and dry skin d. Blood pressure 92/40 mm Hg

ANS: C Warm, pink, and dry skin indicates that perfusion to tissues is improved. Since nitroprusside is a vasodilator, the blood pressure may be low even if the medication is effective. Absence of a heart murmur and a decrease in troponin level are not indicators of improvement in shock.

A patient being admitted with bacterial meningitis has a temperature of 102.5° F (39.2° C) and a severe headache. Which order should the nurse implement first? a. Administer ceftizoxime (Cefizox) 1 g IV. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg PO. c. Use a cooling blanket to lower temperature. d. Swab the nasopharyngeal mucosa for cultures.

ANS: D Antibiotic therapy should be instituted rapidly in bacterial meningitis, but cultures must be done before antibiotics are started. As soon as the cultures are done, the antibiotic should be started. Hypothermia therapy and acetaminophen administration are appropriate but can be started after the other actions are implemented.

Which assessment information is most important for the nurse to obtain to evaluate whether treatment of a patient with anaphylactic shock has been effective? a. Heart rate b. Orientation c. Blood pressure d. Oxygen saturation

ANS: D Because the airway edema that is associated with anaphylaxis can affect airway and breathing, the oxygen saturation is the most critical assessment. Improvements in the other assessments will also be expected with effective treatment of anaphylactic shock.

The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted the previous day with a basilar skull fracture after a motor vehicle crash. Which assessment finding indicates a possible complication that should be reported to the health care provider? a. Complaint of severe headache b. Large contusion behind left ear c. Bilateral periorbital ecchymosis d. Temperature of 101.4° F (38.6° C)

ANS: D Patients who have basilar skull fractures are at risk for meningitis, so the elevated temperature should be reported to the health care provider. The other findings are typical of a patient with a basilar skull fracture.

When the nurse educator is evaluating the skills of a new registered nurse (RN) caring for patients experiencing shock, which action by the new RN indicates a need for more education? a. Placing the pulse oximeter on the ear for a patient with septic shock b. Keeping the head of the bed flat for a patient with hypovolemic shock c. Increasing the nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion rate for a patient with a high SVR d. Maintaining the room temperature at 66° to 68° F for a patient with neurogenic shock

ANS: D Patients with neurogenic shock may have poikilothermia. The room temperature should be kept warm to avoid hypothermia. The other actions by the new RN are appropriate.

After having a craniectomy and left anterior fossae incision, a 64-yr-old patient has impaired physical mobility related to decreased level of consciousness and weakness. An appropriate nursing intervention is to a. cluster nursing activities to allow longer rest periods. b. turn and reposition the patient side to side every 2 hours. c. position the bed flat and log roll to reposition the patient. d. perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises every 4 hours.

ANS: D ROM exercises will help prevent the complications of immobility. Patients with anterior craniotomies are positioned with the head elevated. The patient with a craniectomy should not be turned to the operative side. When the patient is weak, clustering nursing activities may lead to more fatigue and weakness.

After the emergency department nurse has received a status report on the following patients who have been admitted with head injuries, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 20-yr-old patient whose cranial x-ray shows a linear skull fracture b. A 50-yr-old patient who has an initial Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 c. A 30-yr-old patient who lost consciousness for a few seconds after a fall d. A 40-yr-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light

ANS: D The dilated and nonresponsive pupil may indicate an intracerebral hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure. The other patients are not at immediate risk for complications such as herniation.

Nursing Interventions for IABP

ANTICOAGULATION IS A MUST assessment = every 15-60 minutes - cardiovascular, neurovascular, hemodynamic assessment immobilize affected extremity limit movement HOB less than 30 degrees watch for external bleeding

22. Where do most burn injuries occur? A) On the road B) At home C) At work D) Recreational accidents

AT HOME ** Of those people admitted to burn centers, 47% are injured at home, 27% on the road, 8% are occupational, 5% are recreational, and the remaining 13% are from other sources.

A 54-year-old patient is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which admission order should the nurse implement first? a. Infuse 1 liter of normal saline per hour. b. Give sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq IV push. c. Administer regular insulin 10 U by IV push. d. Start a regular insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr.

Ans A; Infuse 1 liter of normal saline per hour. The most urgent patient problem is the hypovolemia associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), and the priority is to infuse IV fluids. The other actions can be done after the infusion of normal saline is initiated.

In which order will the nurse take these steps to prepare NPH 20 units and regular insulin 2 units using the same syringe? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E]). a. Rotate NPH vial. b. Withdraw regular insulin. c. Withdraw 20 units of NPH. d. Inject 20 units of air into NPH vial. e. Inject 2 units of air into regular insulin vial.

Ans A,D,E,B,C

The nurse has administered 4 oz of orange juice to an alert patient whose blood glucose was 62 mg/dL. Fifteen minutes later, the blood glucose is 67 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Give the patient 4 to 6 oz more orange juice. b. Administer the PRN glucagon (Glucagon) 1 mg IM. c. Have the patient eat some peanut butter with crackers. d. Notify the health care provider about the hypoglycemia.

Ans A; Give the patient 4 to 6 oz more orange juice. The rule of 15 indicates that administration of quickly acting carbohydrates should be done 2 to 3 times for a conscious patient whose glucose remains less than 70 mg/dL before notifying the health care provider. More complex carbohydrates and fats may be used once the glucose has stabilized. Glucagon should be used if the patients level of consciousness decreases so that oral carbohydrates can no longer be given.

A 27-year-old patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a serum glucose level of 732 mg/dL and serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which action prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse takefirst? a. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. b. Administer IV potassium supplements. c. Obtain urine glucose and ketone levels. d. Start an insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr.

Ans A; Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. Hypokalemia can lead to potentially fatal dysrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation, which would be detected with electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring. Because potassium must be infused over at least 1 hour, the nurse should initiate cardiac monitoring before infusion of potassium. Insulin should not be administered without cardiac monitoring because insulin infusion will further decrease potassium levels. Urine glucose and ketone levels are not urgently needed to manage the patients care.

Which action should the nurse take after a 36-year-old patient treated with intramuscular glucagon for hypoglycemia regains consciousness? a. Assess the patient for symptoms of hyperglycemia. b. Give the patient a snack of peanut butter and crackers. c. Have the patient drink a glass of orange juice or nonfat milk. d. Administer a continuous infusion of 5% dextrose for 24 hours.

Ans B; Give the patient a snack of peanut butter and crackers. Rebound hypoglycemia can occur after glucagon administration, but having a meal containing complex carbohydrates plus protein and fat will help prevent hypoglycemia. Orange juice and nonfat milk will elevate blood glucose rapidly, but the cheese and crackers will stabilize blood glucose. Administration of IV glucose might be used in patients who were unable to take in nutrition orally. The patient should be assessed for symptoms of hypoglycemia after glucagon administration.

An unresponsive patient with type 2 diabetes is brought to the emergency department and diagnosed with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). The nurse will anticipate the need to a. give a bolus of 50% dextrose. b. insert a large-bore IV catheter. c. initiate oxygen by nasal cannula. d. administer glargine (Lantus) insulin.

Ans B; insert a large-bore IV catheter. HHS is initially treated with large volumes of IV fluids to correct hypovolemia. Regular insulin is administered, not a long-acting insulin. There is no indication that the patient requires oxygen. Dextrose solutions will increase the patients blood glucose and would be contraindicated.

After change-of-shift report, which patient will the nurse assess first? a. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon b. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL c. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa d. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain

Ans C; 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa The patients diagnosis of HHS and signs of dehydration indicate that the nurse should rapidly assess for signs of shock and determine whether increased fluid infusion is needed. The other patients also need assessment and intervention but do not have life-threatening complications.

The health care provider suspects the Somogyi effect in a 50-year-old patient whose 6:00 AM blood glucose is 230 mg/dL. Which action will the nurse teach the patient to take? a. Avoid snacking at bedtime. b. Increase the rapid-acting insulin dose. c. Check the blood glucose during the night d. Administer a larger dose of long-acting insulin.

Ans C; Check the blood glucose during the night If the Somogyi effect is causing the patients increased morning glucose level, the patient will experience hypoglycemia between 2:00 and 4:00 AM. The dose of insulin will be reduced, rather than increased. A bedtime snack is used to prevent hypoglycemic episodes during the night.

A patient who was admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to a urinary tract infection has been weaned off an insulin drip 30 minutes ago. The patient reports feeling lightheaded and sweaty. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Infuse dextrose 50% by slow IV push. b. Administer 1 mg glucagon subcutaneously. c. Obtain a glucose reading using a finger stick. d. Have the patient drink 4 ounces of orange juice.

Ans C; Obtain a glucose reading using a finger stick. The patients clinical manifestations are consistent with hypoglycemia and the initial action should be to check the patients glucose with a finger stick or order a stat blood glucose. If the glucose is low, the patient should ingest a rapid-acting carbohydrate, such as orange juice. Glucagon or dextrose 50% might be given if the patients symptoms become worse or if the patient is unconscious.

You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. When you review your patient's most recent laboratory reports, you note that the patient's magnesium levels are high. You should prioritize assessment for which of the following health problems? A) Diminished deep tendon reflexes B) Tachycardia C) Cool, clammy skin D) Acute flank pain

Ans: A Feedback: To gauge a patient's magnesium status, the nurse should check deep tendon reflexes. If the reflex is absent, this may indicate high serum magnesium. Tachycardia, flank pain, and cool, clammy skin are not typically associated with hypermagnesemia.

Two hours after a kidney transplant, the nurse obtains the following pieces of data when assessing the patient. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The BUN and creatinine levels are elevated. b. The urine output is 900 to 1100 ml/hr. c. The patient's central venous pressure (CVP) is decreased. d. The patient has level 8 (on a 10-point scale) incision pain when coughing.

Answer: C Rationale: The decrease in CVP suggests hypovolemia, which must be rapidly corrected to prevent renal hypoperfusion and acute tubular necrosis. The other information is not unusual in a patient after a transplant.

In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse caring for a patient who is a recipient of a kidney transplant would expect that fluid therapy would involve administration of IV fluids a. to be determined hourly, based on every milliliter of urine output. b. at a minimum rate of 100 ml/hr to perfuse the kidney. c. titrated to keep blood pressure within a normal range. d. at a rate to keep urine clear and without blood clots.

Answer: A Rationale: Fluid volume is replaced based on urine output after transplant because the urine output can be as high as a liter an hour. Fluid infusion rate is titrated rather than being at a set rate. Blood pressure and urine appearance are not the major parameters considered when titrating fluid infusion.

A patient with acute renal failure (ARF) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30. The nurse will assess the patient for a. tachycardia. b. rapid respirations. c. poor skin turgor. d. vasodilation.

Answer: B Rationale: Patients with metabolic acidosis caused by ARF may have Kussmaul respirations as the lungs try to regulate carbon dioxide. Tachycardia and vasodilation are not associated with metabolic acidosis. Because the patient is likely to have fluid retention, poor skin turgor would not be a finding in ARF.Answer: B Rationale: Patients with metabolic acidosis caused by ARF may have Kussmaul respirations as the lungs try to regulate carbon dioxide. Tachycardia and vasodilation are not associated with metabolic acidosis. Because the patient is likely to have fluid retention, poor skin turgor would not be a finding in ARF.

After noting increasing QRS intervals in a patient with ARF, which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patient's health care provider. b. Check the chart for the most recent blood potassium level. c. Look at the patient's current BUN and creatinine levels. d. Document the QRS interval.

Answer: B Rationale: The increasing QRS interval is suggestive of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should check the most recent potassium and then notify the patient's health care provider. The BUN and creatinine will be elevated in a patient with ARF, but these would not directly affect the ECG. Documentation of the QRS interval is also appropriate, but interventions to decrease the potassium level are needed to prevent life-threatening bradycardia.

Which data obtained when assessing a patient who had a kidney transplant 8 years ago and who is receiving the immunosuppressants tacrolimus (Prograf), cyclosporine (Sandimmune), and prednisone (Deltasone) will be of most concern to the nurse? a. The blood glucose is 144 mg/dl. b. The patient has a round, moonlike face. c. There is a nontender lump in the axilla. d. The patient's blood pressure is 150/92.

Answer: C Rationale: A nontender lump suggests a malignancy such as a lymphoma, which could occur as a result of chronic immunosuppressive therapy. The elevated glucose, moon face, and hypertension are possible side effects of the prednisone and should be addressed, but they are not as great a concern as the possibility of a malignancy.

To monitor for corticosteroid-related complications after a kidney transplant, the nurse teaches the patient to report a. pain at the donor kidney site. b. dizziness with position change. c. pain in the hips, knees, and other joints. d. changes in the character of the urine.

Answer: C Rationale: Aseptic necrosis of the weight-bearing joints can occur when patients take corticosteroids over a prolonged period. Pain at the site, orthostatic dizziness, and changes in the urine appearance are not associated with corticosteroid use.

The health care provider orders IV glucose and insulin to be given to a patient in ARF whose serum potassium level is 6.3 mEq/L. To best evaluate the effectiveness of the medications, the nurse will a. monitor the patient's electrocardiograph (ECG). b. check the blood glucose level. c. obtain serum potassium levels. d. assess BUN and creatinine levels.

Answer: C Rationale: Changes in potassium will impact on the ECG and muscle strength, but the nurse should expect to recheck the serum potassium level during the infusion of glucose and insulin to determine the effectiveness of the therapy. The blood glucose level should be monitored during the infusion to assess for hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. The BUN and creatinine levels will not change with administration of glucose and insulin.

A patient in ARF has a gradual increase in urinary output to 3400 ml a day with a BUN of 92 mg/dl (33 mmol/L) and a serum creatinine of 4.2 mg (371 μmol/L). The nurse should plan to a. use a urine dipstick to monitor for proteinuria. b. auscultate the lungs to assess for pulmonary edema. c. take the blood pressure to check for hypotension. d. draw blood to monitor for hyperkalemia.

Answer: C Rationale: During the diuretic phase of ARF, fluid and electrolyte losses may cause hypovolemia, hypotension, hyponatremia, and hypokalemia. Proteinuria, pulmonary edema, and hyperkalemia occur during the oliguric phase.

A patient with severe heart failure develops elevated BUN and creatinine levels. The nurse plans care for the patient based on the knowledge that collaborative care of the patient will be directed toward the goal of a. preventing hypertension. b. replacing fluid volume. c. diluting nephrotoxic substances. d. maintaining cardiac output.

Answer: D Rationale: The primary goal of treatment for ARF is to eliminate the cause and provide supportive care while the kidneys recover. Because this patient's heart failure is causing ARF, the care will be directed toward treatment of the heart failure. For renal failure caused by hypertension, hypovolemia, or nephrotoxins, the other responses would be correct.

A male client develops acute renal failure (ARF) after receiving I.V. therapy with a nephrotoxic antibiotic. Because the client's 24-hour urine output totals 240 ml, nurse Andy suspects that the client is at risk for: a. cardiac arrhythmia. b. paresthesia. c. dehydration. d. pruritus.

Answer: a. Think about the labs. This patient would be high potassium, high phosphorus, low calcium, and low sodium r/t dilution

Acute Coronary Syndrome Medications

Antiplatelets Anticoagulants Narcotics Beta Blockers Nitrates Thrombolytics

Which of the following measures can be used to cool a burn?

Application of cool water

Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP) tell the nurse that the post-op patient has a blood pressure of 78/46 and a pulse of 113 using a vital signs machine. The nurse is currently administering medications. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

Assess the patient's cardiovascular status.

ADPIE - Nursing Process

Assessment Diagnosis Planning Implementation Evaluation

Sinus Bradycardia Treatment

Atropine: 0.5 mg IV bolus (least invasive first) D-Fib Pads on pacing mode Treat Causes: hypoxia, hypothermia, ischemia, e-imbalance, drug toxicity

A client with increased ICP is prescribed the following tests. The nurse would clarify which test with the physician? A. MRI B. LP C. CT Scan. D. Cerebral angiography

B

A patient with a head injury has bloody drainage from the ear. To determine whether CSF is present in the drainage, the nurse a. examines the tympanic membrane for a tear b. tests the fluid for a halo sign on a white dressing c. tests the fluid with a glucose identifying strip or stick d. collects 5 mL of fluid in a test tube and sends it to the laboratory for analysis

B

The nurse is positioning the female client with increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following positions would the nurse avoid? a. Head mildline b. Head turned to the side c. Neck in neutral position d. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees

B

The nurse plans care for a patient with increased ICP with the knowledge that the best way to position the patient is to a. keep the head of the bed flat b. elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees c. maintain patient on the left side with the head supported on a pillow d. use a continuous rotation bed to continuously change patient position

B

The nurse recognizes the presence of Cushing's triad in the patient with a. Increased pulse, irregular respiration, increased BP b. decreased pulse, irregular respiration, increased pulse pressure c. increased pulse, decreased respiration, increased pulse pressure d. decreased pulse, increased respiration, decreased systolic BP

B

You are caring for a patient admitted with a subdural hematoma after a motor vehicle accident. Which change in vital signs would you interpret as a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure? A. Tachypnea B. Bradycardia C. Hypotension D. Narrowing pulse pressure

B

the nurse is assessing the motor function of an unconscious client. the nurse should plan to use which techniques to test the clients peripheral response to pain? A. sternal rub B. nail bed pressure C. pressure on the orbital rim D. squeezing of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

B

the nurse is caring for the client with increased intracranial pressure. the nurse would note which trend in vital sings if the intracranial pressure is rising? A. increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure B. increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations. increasing blood pressure C. decreasing temperature, decreasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure D. decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure

B

A nurse is caring for a critically ill patient with autonomic dysreflexia. What clinical manifestations would the nurse expect in this patient? A) Respiratory distress and projectile vomiting B) Bradycardia and hypertension C) Tachycardia and agitation D) Third-spacing and hyperthermia

B Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, piloerection (goose bumps), bradycardia, and hypertension. It occurs in cord lesions above T6 after bspinal shock has resolved

Beta Blockers

decrease myocardial workload thus myocardial oxygen demand, limiting extension of injury - metoprolol (Lopressor) - atenolol (Tenormin) - carvedilol - labetalol

Arterial Line on monitor

dicrotic notch when the arterial valve closes, the QRS corresponds with the arterial waveform. - if narrow = may not have enough output or may need to zero out system

It's important to note anticoagulants do NOT ....

dissolve or break up the clot. They just prolong how long it takes the blood to clot.

Goals of rehabilitation for the patient with an injury at the C6 level include (select all that apply) a. stand erect with leg brace b. feed self with hand devices c. drive an electric wheelchair d. assist with transfer activities e. drive adapted van from wheelchair

B, C, D, E

A patient arrives to the ER complaining of shortness of breath, tightness of chest and had audible wheezes. Patient's vitals are BP 168/78, HR 128, Resp 36 and O2 Sat of 78%. Which order would the nurse do first? A. Administer PRN nitroglycerin to reduce chest pain B. Administer 6 liter high flow nasal cannula per protocol C. Wait for chest x-ray to be obtained D. Page respiratory therapy to come and put patient on oxygen

B. Administer 6 liter high flow nasal cannula per protocol

A patient has an intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) in the left groin. Which assessment finding requires immediate action by the nurse? A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute B. New onset confusion C. Blood pressure of 90/55 D. Scant amount of blood on the left groin dressing

B. New onset confusion

A patient who had an actue myocardial infarction 12 hours ago has hemodynamic monitoring. While monitoring the patient, the nurse notes the patient's central venous pressure is 12mmHg. What other assessment findings will the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. A. Weight loss of 2 kg since admission B. Peripheral edema C. Dyspnea D. Decreased skin turgor E. Hypertension

B. Peripheral edema C. Dyspnea E. Hypertension

One month after a spinal cord injury, which finding is most important for you to monitor? A. Bladder scan indicates 100 mL. B. The left calf is 5 cm larger than the right calf. C. The heel has a reddened, nonblanchable area. D. Reflux bowel emptying.

B. The left calf is 5 cm larger than the right calf. Deep vein thrombosis is a common problem accompanying spinal cord injury during the first 3 months. Pulmonary embolism is one of the leading causes of death. Common signs and symptoms are absent. Assessment includes Doppler examination and measurement of leg girth. The other options are not as urgent to deal with as potential deep vein thrombosis.

A nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury who reports a severe headache and is sweating profusely. vital signs include BP 220/110, apical heart rate of 54/min. Which of the following acctions should the nurse take first? a. notify the provider b. sit the client upright in bed c. check the client's urinary catheter for blockage d. administer antihypertensive medication

B. sit the client upright in bed Rationale: The greatest risk to the client is experiencing a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) secondary to elevated BP. The first action by the nurse is elevate the head of the bed until the client is in an upright position. this will lower the BP secondary to postural hypotension.

A patient is admitted with a spinal cord injury at the C7 level. During assessment the nurse identifies the presence of spinal shock on finding a. paraplegia with flaccid paralysis b. tetraplegia with total sensory loss c. total hemiplegia with sensory and motor loss d. spastic tetraplegia with loss of pressure sensation

B. tetraplegia with total sensory loss Rationale: At the C7 level, spinal shock is manifested by tetraplegia and sensory loss. The neurologic loss may be temporary or permanent. Paraplegia with sensory loss would occur at the level of T1. A hemiplegia occurs with central (brain) lesions affecting motor neurons and spastic tetraplegia occurs when spinal shock resolves.

A week following a spinal cord injury at T2, a patient experiences movement in his leg and tells the nurse he is recovering some function. The nurses' best response to the patient is, a. it is really still too soon to know if you will have a return of function b. the could be a really positive finding. can you show me the movement c. that's wonderful. we will start exercising your legs more frequently now d. im sorry, but the movement is only a reflex and does not indicate normal function

B. the could be a really positive finding. can you show me the movement Rationale: in 1 week following a spinal cord injury, there may be a resolution of the edema of the injury and an end to spinal shock. When spinal shock ends, reflex movement and spasms will occur, which may be mistaken for return of function, but with the resolution of edema, some normal function may also occur. it is important when movement occurs to determine whether the movement is voluntary and can be consciously controlled, which would indicate some return of function.

Two days following a spinal cord injury, a patient asks continually about the extent of impairment that will result from the injury. The best response by the nurse is, a. you will have more normal function when spinal shock resolves and the reflex arc returns b. the extent of your injury cannot be determined until the secondary injury to the cord is resolved c. when your condition is more stable, an MRI will be done that can reveal the extent of the cord damage d. because long-term rehabilitation can affect the return of tunction, it will be years before we can tell when the complete effect will be

B. the extent of your injury cannot be determined until the secondary injury to the cord is resolved Rationale: Until the edema and necrosis at the site of the injury are resolved in 72 hours to 1 week after the injury, it is not possible to determine how much cord damage is present from the initial injury, how much secondary injury occurred, or how much the cord was damaged by edema that extended above the level of the original injury. The return of reflexes signals only the end of spinal shock, and the reflexes may be inappropriate and excessive, causing spasms that complicate rehab.

A patient with a severe electrical burn injury is being treated in the burn unit. Which of the following laboratory results would cause the nurse the most concern?

BUN: 28 mg/dL

For a patient with an SCI, why is it beneficial to administer oxygen to maintain a high partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2)?

Because hypoxemia can create or worsen a neurologic deficit of the spinal cord

Sinus Tachycardia Treatment

Beta Blockers Calcium Chanel Blockers = control/slow HR Treat underlying causes = if anemia give RBC and IV fluid

Which of the following is a clinical characteristic of neurogenic shock? Bradycardia Tachycardia Cool skin Moist skin

Bradycardia

Brain Injury

Bradycardia, increasing systolic BP, widening pulse pressure

2. The current phase of a patient's treatment for a burn injury prioritizes wound care, nutritional support, and prevention of complications such as infection. Based on these care priorities, the patient is in what phase of burn care? A) Emergent B) Immediate resuscitative C) Acute D) Rehabilitation

C

A patient admitted with a head injury has admission vital signs of temperature 98.6° F (37° C), blood pressure 128/68, pulse 110, and respirations 26. Which of these vital signs, if taken 1 hour after admission, will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure 130/72, pulse 90, respirations 32 b. Blood pressure 148/78, pulse 112, respirations 28 c. Blood pressure 156/60, pulse 60, respirations 14 d. Blood pressure 110/70, pulse 120, respirations 30

C

A patient has a systemic blood pressure (BP) of 120/60 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure of 24 mm Hg. The nurse determines that the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) of this patient indicates a. high blood flow to the brain. b. normal intracranial pressure (ICP). c. impaired brain blood flow. d. adequate cerebral perfusion.

C

A patient with a head injury has an arterial blood pressure is 92/50 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure of 18 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Document and continue to monitor the parameters. b. Elevate the head of the patient's bed. c. Notify the health care provider about the assessments. d. Check the patient's pupillary response to light.

C

A patient with increased ICP has mannitol (Osmitrol) prescribed. Which option is the best indication that the drug is achieving the desired therapeutic effects? A. Urine output increases from 30 mL to 50 mL/hour. B. Blood pressure remains less than 150/90 mm Hg. C. The LOC improves. D. No crackles are auscultated in the lung fields.

C

For a male client with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a most appropriate respiratory goal is to: a. prevent respiratory alkalosis. b. lower arterial pH. c. promote carbon dioxide elimination. d. maintain partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) above 80 mm Hg

C

Mechanical ventilation with a rate and volume to maintain a mild hyperventilation is used for a patient with a head injury. To evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy, the nurse should a. monitor oxygen saturation. b. check arterial blood gases (ABGs). c. monitor intracranial pressure (ICP). d. assess patient breath sounds

C

The nurse on the clinical unit is assigned to four patients. Which patient should she assess first? a. patient with a skull fracture whose nose is bleeding b. elderly patient with a stroke who is confused and whose daughter is present c. patient with meningitis who is suddenly agitated and reporting a HA of 10 on a 0 to 10 scale d. patient who had a craniotomy for a brain tumor who is now 3 days postoperative and has had continued emesis

C

When assessing a patient with a head injury, the nurse recognizes that the earliest indication of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is a. vomiting. b. headache. c. change in level of consciousness (LOC). d. sluggish pupil response to light.

C

Which option is most indicative of a skull fracture after blunt head trauma? A. Facial edema B. Epitasis C. Otorrhea positive for glucose D. Laceration oozing blood

C

While the nurse performs ROM on an unconscious patient with increased ICP, the patient experiences severe decerebrate posturing reflexes. The nurse should a. use restraints to protect the patient from injury b. administer CNS depressants to lightly sedate the patient c. perform the exercises less frequently because posturing can increase ICP d. continue the exercises because they are necessary to maintain musculoskeletal function

C

a nurse is caring for a client who has just been admitted following surgical evacuation of a subdural hematoma. which of the following is the priority assessment? A. glasgow coma scale B. cranial nerve function C. oxygen saturation D. pupillary response

C

While assessing the patient, the nurse observes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the patients closed chest-drainage system. What should the nurse conclude? A) The system is functioning normally. B) The patient has a pneumothorax. C) The system has an air leak. D) The chest tube is obstructed.

C Constant bubbling in the chamber often indicates an air leak and requires immediate assessment and intervention. The patient with a pneumothorax will have intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber. If the tube is obstructed, the nurse should notice that the fluid has stopped fluctuating in the water-seal chamber.

A patient is admitted to the neurologic ICU with a spinal cord injury. When assessing the patient the nurse notes there is a sudden depression of reflex activity in the spinal cord below the level of injury. What should the nurse suspect? A) Epidural hemorrhage B) Hypertensive emergency C) Spinal shock D) Hypovolemia

C In spinal shock, the reflexes are absent, BP and heart rate fall, and respiratory failure can occur. Hypovolemia, hemorrhage, and hypertension do not cause this sudden change in neurologic function_

The nurse is caring for a patient in acute kidney injury. Which of the following complications would most clearly warrant the administration of polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)? A) Hypernatremia B) Hypomagnesemia C) Hyperkalemia D) Hypercalcemia

C Feedback: Hyperkalemia, a common complication of acute kidney injury, is life-threatening if immediate action is not taken to reverse it. The administration of polystyrene sulfonate reduces serum potassium levels.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is in the diuresis phase of AKI. The nurse should closely monitor the patient for what complication during this phase? A) Hypokalemia B) Hypocalcemia C) Dehydration D) Acute flank pain

C Feedback: The diuresis period is marked by a gradual increase in urine output, which signals that glomerular filtration has started to recover. The patient must be observed closely for dehydration during this phase; if dehydration occurs, the uremic symptoms are likely to increase. Excessive losses of potassium and calcium are not typical during this phase, and diuresis does not normally result in pain.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving hemodialysis three times weekly. The patient has had surgery to form an arteriovenous fistula. What is most important for the nurse to be aware of when providing care for this patient? A) Using a stethoscope for auscultating the fistula is contraindicated. B) The patient feels best immediately after the dialysis treatment. C) Taking a BP reading on the affected arm can damage the fistula. D) The patient should not feel pain during initiation of dialysis.

C Feedback: When blood flow is reduced through the access for any reason (hypotension, application of BP cuff/tourniquet), the access site can clot. Auscultation of a bruit in the fistula is one way to determine patency. Typically, patients feel fatigued immediately after hemodialysis because of the rapid change in fluid and electrolyte status. Although the area over the fistula may have some decreased sensation, a needle stick is still painful.

For a male client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), which nursing intervention is most important? A. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing B. Promoting carbohydrate intake C. Limiting fluid intake D. Providing pain-relief measures

C.

The nurse observes asystole on the patient's telemetry monitor. What is the first action? A. Carry out defibrillation B. Notify the physician C. Assess the patient D. Administer atropine IV

C. Assess the patient

The nurse observes asystole on the patient's telemetry monitor. What is the nurse first action? A. Carry out defibrillation. B. Notify the physician. C. Assess the patient. D. Administer atropine IV.

C. Assess the patient.

The healthcare provider has ordered IV dopamine (Intropin) for a patient in the emergency deparement with a spinal cord injury. The nurse determines that the drug is having the desired effect when assessment findings include a. pulse rate of 68 b. respiratory rate of 24 c. BP of 106/82 d. temperature of 96.8

C. BP of 106/82 Rationale: Dopamine is a vasopressor that is used to maintain BP during states of hypotension that occur during neurogenic shock associated with spinal cord injury. Atropine would be used to treat bradycardia. The T reflects some degree of poikilothermism, but this is not treated with medications.

The nurse is caring for a patient with angina who suddenly develops sharp substernal chest pain. The nurse notes that the patient is hypotensive and diaphoretic. What is the priority action of the nurse? A. Place the patient in a knee-chest position B. Administer asprin 325 mg PO C. Obtain an immediate EKG D. Administer morphine 4 mg IV as ordered by the physician

C. Obtain an immediate EKG

The nurse is caring for a patient in a small rural hospital who has been admitted with an acute myocardial infarction. The patient is receiving a tPA infusion and is becoming increasing difficult to arose. What is the nest best nursing action? A. Notify the healthcare provider B. NO action is required, this is normal response to tPA C. Perform a neurological assessment D. Obtain an ECG and cardiac enzymes

C. Perform a neurological assessment

A physician orders tPA on a patient with ST segment elevation. What information in the patient's assessment should the nurse report to the physician before starting tPA? A. Concussion 6 months ago B. Blood pressure 150/89 C. Stroke 2 months ago D. Appendectomy 3 months ago

C. Stroke 2 months ago

During assessment of a patient with a spinal cord injury, the nurse determines that the patient has a poor cough with diaphragmatic breathing. Based on this finding, the nurses' first action should be to a. initiate frequent turning and repositioning b. use tracheal suctioning to remove secretions c. assess lung sounds and respiratory rate and depth d. prepare the patient for endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation

C. assess lungs sounds and respiratory rate and depth Rationale: Because pneumonia and atelectasis are potential problems RT ineffective coughing function, the nurse should assess the patient's breath sound and resp function to determine whether secretions are being retained or whether there is progression of resp impairment. Suctioning is not indicated unless lung sounds indicate retained secretions: position changes will help mobilize secretions. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are used if the patient becomes exhausted from labored breathing or if ABGs deteriorate.

An initial incomplete spinal cord injury often results in complete cord damage because of a. edematous compression of the cord above the level of the injury b. continued trauma to the cord resulting from damage to stabilizing ligaments c. infarction and necrosis of the cord caused by edema, hemorrhage, and metabolites d. mecheanical transection of the cord by sharp vertebral bone fragments after the initial injury

C. c. infarction and necrosis of the cord caused by edema, hemorrhage, and metabolites Rationale: The primary injury of the spinal cord rarely affects the entire cord, but the patho of secondary injury may result in damage that is the same as mechanical severance of the cord. Complete cord dissolution occurs through autodestruction of the cord by hemorrhage, edema, and the presence of metabolites and norepinephrine. resulting in anoxia and infarction of the cord. Edema resulting from the inflammatory response may increase the damage as it extends above and below the injury site.

The nurse assists the health-care provider with a patient intubation. Which is the priority action by the nurse? A. Ensure suction is available, if needed. B. Place the intubation tray at the bedside for the procedure. C. Explain each step of the procedure to the patient and family. D. Administer manual breaths to the patient using a resuscitation bag and mask.

D. Administer manual breaths to the patient using a resuscitation bag and mask

A patient with a spinal cord injury has spinal shock. The nurse plans care for the patient based on the knowledge that a. rehabilitation measures cannot be initiated until spinal shock has resolved b. the patient will need continuous monitoring for hypotension, tachycardia, and hypoxemia c. resolution of spinal shock is manifested by spasticity, hyperreflexia, and reflex emptying of the bladder d. the patient will have complete loss of motor and sensory functions below the level of the injury, but autonomic functions are not affected

C. c. resolution of spinal shock is manifested by spasticity, hyperreflexia, and reflex emptying of the bladder Rationale: Spinal shock occurs in about half of all people with acute spinal cord injury. In spinal shock, the entire cord below the level of the lesion fails to function, resulting in a flaccid paralysis and hypomotility of most processes without any reflex activity. Return of reflex activity signals the end of spinal shock. Sympathetic function is impaired belwo the level of the injury because sympathetic nerves leave the spinal cord at the thoracic and lumbar areas, and cranial parasympathetic nerves predominate in control over respirations, heart, and all vessels and organ below the injury. Neurogenic shock results from loss of vascular tone caused by the injury and is manifested by hypotension, peripheral vasodilation, and decreased CO. Rehab activities are not contraindicated during spainl shock and should be instituted if the patient's cardiopulmonary status is stable.

Without surgical stabilization, immobilization and traction of the patient with a cervical spinal cord injury most frequently requires the use of a. kinetic beds b. hard cervical collars c. skeletal traction with skull tongs d. sternal-occipital-mandibular immobilizer (SOMI) brace

C. skeletal traction with skull tongs Rationale: Cervical injuries usually require skeletal traction with the use of Crutchfield, Vinke, or other types of skull tongs to immobilize the cervical vertebrae, even if fracture has not occurred. Hard cervical collars are used for minor injuries or for stabilization during emergency transport of the patient. Sandbags are also used temporarily to stabilize the neck during insertion of tongs or during diagnostic testing immediately following the injury. Special turning or kinetic beds may be used to turn and mobilize patients who are in cervical traction.

VT without a pulse

CPR Epinephrine = 1 mg every 3-5 mins DFIB = continuous and not just on R wave "Vtach and nap, ZAP ZAP ZAP" Amiordarone 300 mg bolus, then 150 mg drip

Complication of Acute Coronary Syndrome

Cardiogenic Shock

Low blood flow shock-

Cardiogenic shock Hypovolemic shock

The nurse is providing care for a patent with a full-thickness, circumferential burn of the left lower leg. During the nurse's initial shift assessment, the patient is resting and the physical assessment of the left lower extremity is unremarkable. One hour later, the nurse notes the pulses of the left lower leg cannot be obtained by a Doppler ultrasound device, and the capillary refill of the left great toe is greater than 2 seconds. The nurse's best response based on the clinical findings is which of the following?

Contact the primary care provider and prepare for an escharotomy.

A patient with a spinal cord injury (SCI) has complete paralysis of the upper extremities and complete paralysis of the lower part of the body. The nurse should use which medical term to adequately describe this in documentation? 1. hemiplegia 2. paresthesia 3. paraplegia 4. quadriplegia

Correct Answer: 4 Rationale: Quadriplegia describes complete paralysis of the upper extremities and complete paralysis of the lower part of the body. Hemiplegia describes paralysis on one side of the body. Paresthesia does not indicate paralysis. Paraplegia is paralysis of the lower body.

26. An assessment finding indicating to the nurse that a 70-kg patient in septic shock is progressing to MODS includes a. respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. b. fixed urine specific gravity at 1.010. c. MAP of 55 mm Hg. d. 360-ml urine output in 8 hours.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: A fixed urine specific gravity points to an inability of the kidney to concentrate urine caused by acute tubular necrosis. With MODS, the patient's respiratory rate would initially increase. The MAP of 55 shows continued shock, but not necessarily progression to MODS. A 360-ml urine output over 8 hours indicates adequate renal perfusion.

Which type of burn injury involves destruction of the epidermis and upper layers of the dermis and injury to the deeper portions of the dermis?

Deep partial-thickness

A patient with a spinal cord injury is recovering from spinal shock. The nurse realizes that the patient should not develop a full bladder because what emergency condition can occur if it is not corrected quickly? 1. autonomic dysreflexia 2. autonomic crisis 3. autonomic shutdown 4. autonomic failure

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Be attuned to the prevention of a distended bladder when caring for spinal cord injury (SCI) patients in order to prevent this chain of events that lead to autonomic dysreflexia. Track urinary output carefully. Routine use of bladder scanning can help prevent the occurrence. Other causes of autonomic dysreflexia are impacted stool and skin pressure. Autonomic crisis, autonomic shutdown, and autonomic failure are not terms used to describe common complications of spinal injury associated with bladder distension.

Which patient is at highest risk for a spinal cord injury? 1. 18-year-old male with a prior arrest for driving while intoxicated (DWI) 2. 20-year-old female with a history of substance abuse 3. 50-year-old female with osteoporosis 4. 35-year-old male who coaches a soccer team

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: The three major risk factors for spinal cord injuries (SCI) are age (young adults), gender (higher incidence in males), and alcohol or drug abuse. Females tend to engage in less risk-taking behavior than young men.

An unconscious patient receiving emergency care following an automobile crash accident has a possible spinal cord injury. What guidelines for emergency care will be followed? Select all that apply. 1. Immobilize the neck using rolled towels or a cervical collar. 2. The patient will be placed in a supine position 3. The patient will be placed on a ventilator. 4. The head of the bed will be elevated. 5. The patient's head will be secured with a belt or tape secured to the stretcher.

Correct Answer: 1,2,5 Rationale: In the emergency setting, all patients who have sustained a trauma to the head or spine, or are unconscious should be treated as though they have a spinal cord injury. Immobilizing the neck, maintaining a supine position and securing the patient's head to prevent movement are all basic guidelines of emergency care. Placement on the ventilator and raising the head of the bed will be considered after admittance to the hospital.

A patient with a spinal cord injury at the T1 level complains of a severe headache and an "anxious feeling." Which is the most appropriate initial reaction by the nurse? 1. Try to calm the patient and make the environment soothing. 2. Assess for a full bladder. 3. Notify the healthcare provider. 4. Prepare the patient for diagnostic radiography.

Correct Answer: 2 Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia occurs in patients with injury at level T6 or higher, and is a life-threatening situation that will require immediate intervention or the patient will die. The most common cause is an overextended bladder or bowel. Symptoms include hypertension, headache, diaphoresis, bradycardia, visual changes, anxiety, and nausea. A calm, soothing environment is fine, though not what the patient needs in this case. The nurse should recognize this as an emergency and proceed accordingly. Once the assessment has been completed, the findings will need to be communicated to the healthcare provider.

The patient is admitted with injuries that were sustained in a fall. During the nurse's first assessment upon admission, the findings are: blood pressure 90/60 (as compared to 136/66 in the emergency department), flaccid paralysis on the right, absent bowel sounds, zero urine output, and palpation of a distended bladder. These signs are consistent with which of the following? 1. paralysis 2. spinal shock 3. high cervical injury 4. temporary hypovolemia

Correct Answer: 2 Rationale: Spinal shock is common in acute spinal cord injuries. In addition to the signs and symptoms mentioned, the additional sign of absence of the cremasteric reflex is associated with spinal shock. Lack of respiratory effort is generally associated with high cervical injury. The findings describe paralysis that would be associated with spinal shock in an spinal injured patient. The likely cause of these findings is not hypovolemia, but rather spinal shock.

The nurse understands that when the spinal cord is injured, ischemia results and edema occurs. How should the nurse explain to the patient the reason that the extent of injury cannot be determined for several days to a week? 1. "Tissue repair does not begin for 72 hours." 2. "The edema extends the level of injury for two cord segments above and below the affected level." 3. "Neurons need time to regenerate so stating the injury early is not predictive of how the patient progresses." 4. "Necrosis of gray and white matter does not occur until days after the injury."

Correct Answer: 2 Rationale: Within 24 hours necrosis of both gray and white matter begins if ischemia has been prolonged and the function of nerves passing through the injured area is lost. Because the edema extends above and below the area affected, the extent of injury cannot be determined until after the edema is controlled. Neurons do not regenerate, and the edema is the factor that limits the ability to predict extent of injury.

A patient with a spinal cord injury (SCI) is admitted to the unit and placed in traction. Which of the following actions is the nurse responsible for when caring for this patient? Select all that apply. 1. modifying the traction weights as needed 2. assessing the patient's skin integrity 3. applying the traction upon admission 4. administering pain medication 5. providing passive range of motion

Correct Answer: 2,4,5 Rationale: The healthcare provider is responsible for initial applying of the traction device. The weights on the traction device must not be changed without the order of a healthcare provider. When caring for a patient in traction, the nurse is responsible for assessment and care of the skin due to the increased risk of skin breakdown. The patient in traction is likely to experience pain and the nurse is responsible for assessing this pain and administering the appropriate analgesic as ordered. Passive range of motion helps prevent contractures; this is often performed by a physical therapist or a nurse.

A patient has manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia. Which of these assessments would indicate a possible cause for this condition? Select all that apply. 1. hypertension 2. kinked catheter tubing 3. respiratory wheezes and stridor 4. diarrhea 5. fecal impaction

Correct Answer: 2,5 Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia can be caused by kinked catheter tubing allowing the bladder to become full, triggering massive vasoconstriction below the injury site, producing the manifestations of this process. Acute symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia, including a sustained elevated blood pressure, may indicate fecal impaction. The other answers will not cause autonomic dysreflexia.

While caring for the patient with spinal cord injury (SCI), the nurse elevates the head of the bed, removes compression stockings, and continues to assess vital signs every two to three minutes while searching for the cause in order to prevent loss of consciousness or death. By practicing these interventions, the nurse is avoiding the most dangerous complication of autonomic dysreflexia, which is which of the following? 1. hypoxia 2. bradycardia 3. elevated blood pressure 4. tachycardia

Correct Answer: 3 Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is an emergency that requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent complications of extremely high blood pressure. Additional nursing assistance will be needed and a colleague needs to reach the physician stat.

The nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP). The nurse realizes that some nursing actions are contraindicated with IICP. Which nursing action should be avoided? 1. Reposition the patient every two hours. 2. Position the patient with the head elevated 30 degrees. 3. Suction the airway every two hours per standing orders. 4. Provide continuous oxygen as ordered.

Correct Answer: 3 Rationale: Suctioning further increases intracranial pressure; therefore, suctioning should be done to maintain a patent airway but not as a matter of routine. Maintaining patient comfort by frequent repositioning as well as keeping the head elevated 30 degrees will help to prevent (or even reduce) IICP. Keeping the patient properly oxygenated may also help to control ICP.

Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate for preventing skin breakdown in a patient who has recently undergone a laminectomy? 1. Provide the patient with an air mattress. 2. Place pillows under patient to help patient turn. 3. Teach the patient to grasp the side rail to turn. 4. Use the log roll to turn the patient to the side.

Correct Answer: 4 Rationale: A patient who has undergone a laminectomy needs to be turned by log rolling to prevent pressure on the area of surgery. An air mattress will help prevent skin breakdown but the patient still needs to be turned frequently. Placing pillows under the patient can help take pressure off of one side but the patient still needs to change positions often. Teaching the patient to grasp the side rail will cause the spine to twist, which needs to be avoided.

A hospitalized patient with a C7 cord injury begins to yell "I can't feel my legs anymore." Which is the most appropriate action by the nurse? 1. Remind the patient of her injury and try to comfort her. 2. Call the healthcare provider and get an order for radiologic evaluation. 3. Prepare the patient for surgery, as her condition is worsening. 4. Explain to the patient that this could be a common, temporary problem.

Correct Answer: 4 Rationale: Spinal shock is a condition almost half the people with acute spinal injury experience. It is characterized by a temporary loss of reflex function below level of injury, and includes the following symptomatology: flaccid paralysis of skeletal muscles, loss of sensation below the injury, and possibly bowel and bladder dysfunction and loss of ability to perspire below the injury level. In this case, the nurse should explain to the patient what is happening.

5. When assessing the hemodynamic information for a newly admitted patient in shock of unknown etiology, the nurse will anticipate administration of large volumes of crystalloids when the a. cardiac output is increased and the central venous pressure (CVP) is low. b. pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is increased, and the urine output is low. c. heart rate is decreased, and the systemic vascular resistance is low. d. cardiac output is decreased and the PAWP is high.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: A high cardiac output and low CVP suggest septic shock, and massive fluid replacement is indicated. Increased PAWP indicates that the patient has excessive fluid volume (and suggests cardiogenic shock), and diuresis is indicated. Bradycardia and a low systemic vascular resistance (SVR) suggest neurogenic shock, and fluids should be infused cautiously.

19. While assessing a patient in shock who has an arterial line in place, the nurse notes a drop in the systolic BP from 92 mm Hg to 76 mm Hg when the head of the patient's bed is elevated to 75 degrees. This finding indicates a need for a. additional fluid replacement. b. antibiotic administration. c. infusion of a sympathomimetic drug. d. administration of increased oxygen.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: A postural drop in BP is an indication of volume depletion and suggests the need for additional fluid infusions. There are no data to suggest that antibiotics, sympathomimetics, or additional oxygen are needed.

21. A patient outcome that is appropriate for the patient in shock who has a nursing diagnosis of decreased cardiac output related to relative hypovolemia is a. urine output of 0.5 ml/kg/hr. b. decreased peripheral edema. c. decreased CVP. d. oxygen saturation 90% or more.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: A urine output of 0.5 ml/kg/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion, which is a good indicator of cardiac output. The patient may continue to have peripheral edema because fluid infusions may be needed despite third-spacing of fluids in relative hypovolemia. Decreased central venous pressure (CVP) for a patient with relative hypovolemia indicates that additional fluid infusion is necessary. An oxygen saturation of 90% will not necessarily indicate that cardiac output has improved.

15. The nurse evaluates that fluid resuscitation for a 70 kg patient in shock is effective on finding that the patient's a. urine output is 40 ml over the last hour. b. hemoglobin is within normal limits. c. CVP has decreased. d. mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 65 mm Hg.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: Assessment of end-organ perfusion, such as an adequate urine output, is the best indicator that fluid resuscitation has been successful. The hemoglobin level is not useful in determining whether fluid administration has been effective unless the patient is bleeding and receiving blood. A decrease in CVP indicates that more fluid is needed. The MAP is at the low normal range, but does not clearly indicate that tissue perfusion is adequate.

18. A patient with a paraplegia resulting from a T10 spinal cord injury has a neurogenic reflex bladder. When the nurse develops a plan of care for this problem, which nursing action will be most appropriate? a. Teaching the patient how to self-catheterize b. Assisting the patient to the toilet q2-3hr c. Use of the Credé method to empty the bladder d. Catheterization for residual urine after voiding

Correct Answer: A Rationale: Because the patient's bladder is spastic and will empty in response to overstretching of the bladder wall, the most appropriate method is to avoid incontinence by emptying the bladder at regular intervals through intermittent catheterization. Assisting the patient to the toilet will not be helpful because the bladder will not empty. The Credé method is more appropriate for a bladder that is flaccid, such as occurs with a reflexic neurogenic bladder. Catheterization after voiding will not resolve the patient's incontinence. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1605 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

12. All of these collaborative interventions are ordered by the health care provider for a patient stung by a bee who develops severe respiratory distress and faintness. Which one will the nurse administer first? a. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) b. Normal saline infusion c. Dexamethasone (Decadron) d. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

Correct Answer: A Rationale: Epinephrine rapidly causes peripheral vasoconstriction, dilates the bronchi, and blocks the effects of histamine and reverses the vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and histamine release that cause the symptoms of anaphylaxis. The other interventions are also appropriate but would not be the first ones administered.

23. A patient in compensated septic shock has hemodynamic monitoring with a pulmonary artery catheter and an arterial catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the patient is still in the compensatory stage of shock? a. The cardiac output is elevated. b. The central venous pressure (CVP) is increased. c. The systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is high. d. The PAWP is high.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: In the early stages of septic shock, the cardiac output is high. The other hemodynamic changes would indicate that the patient had developed progressive or refractory septic shock.

13. A patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) and cardiogenic shock has the following vital signs: BP 86/50, pulse 126, respirations 30. Hemodynamic monitoring reveals an elevated PAWP and decreased cardiac output. The nurse will anticipate a. administration of furosemide (Lasix) IV. b. titration of an epinephrine (Adrenalin) drip. c. administration of a normal saline bolus. d. assisting with endotracheal intubation.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: The PAWP indicates that the patient's preload is elevated and furosemide is indicated to reduce the preload and improve cardiac output. Epinephrine would further increase myocardial oxygen demand and might extend the MI. The PAWP is already elevated, so normal saline boluses would be contraindicated. There is no indication that the patient requires endotracheal intubation.

22. A patient who has just been admitted with septic shock has a BP of 70/46, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104.0° F, and blood glucose 246 mg/dl. Which order will the nurse accomplish first? a. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dl. b. Give normal saline IV at 500 ml/hr. c. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep MAP at 65 to 70 mm Hg. d. Infuse drotrecogin- (Xigris) 24 mcg/kg.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: Because of the low systemic vascular resistance (SVR) associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions are also appropriate and should be initiated quickly as well.

17. Norepinephrine (Levophed) has been ordered for the patient in hypovolemic shock. Before administering the drug, the nurse ensures that the a. patient's heart rate is less than 100. b. patient has received adequate fluid replacement. c. patient's urine output is within normal range. d. patient is not receiving other sympathomimetic drugs.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: If vasoconstrictors are given in a hypovolemic patient, the peripheral vasoconstriction will further decrease tissue perfusion. A patient with hypovolemia is likely to have a heart rate greater than 100 and a low urine output, so these values are not contraindications to vasoconstrictor therapy. Patients may receive other sympathomimetic drugs concurrently with Levophed.

4. While caring for a seriously ill patient, the nurse determines that the patient may be in the compensatory stage of shock on finding a. cold, mottled extremities. b. restlessness and apprehension. c. a heart rate of 120 and cool, clammy skin. d. systolic BP less than 90 mm Hg.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: Restlessness and apprehension are typical during the compensatory stage of shock. Cold, mottled extremities, cool and clammy skin, and a systolic BP less than 90 are associated with the progressive and refractory stages.

6. A patient who has been involved in a motor-vehicle crash is admitted to the ED with cool, clammy skin, tachycardia, and hypotension. All of these orders are written. Which one will the nurse act on first? a. Insert two 14-gauge IV catheters. b. Administer oxygen at 100% per non-rebreather mask. c. Place the patient on continuous cardiac monitor. d. Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The first priority in the initial management of shock is maintenance of the airway and ventilation. Cardiac monitoring, insertion of IV catheters, and obtaining blood for transfusions should also be rapidly accomplished, but only after actions to maximize oxygen delivery have been implemented.

14. When caring for a patient who had a C8 spinal cord injury 10 days ago and has a weak cough effort, bibasilar crackles, and decreased breath sounds, the initial intervention by the nurse should be to a. administer oxygen at 7 to 9 L/min with a face mask. b. place the hands on the epigastric area and push upward when the patient coughs. c. encourage the patient to use an incentive spirometer every 2 hours during the day. d. suction the patient's oral and pharyngeal airway.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The nurse has identified that the cough effort is poor, so the initial action should be to use assisted coughing techniques to improve the ability to mobilize secretions. Administration of oxygen will improve oxygenation, but the data do not indicate hypoxemia, and oxygen will not help expel respiratory secretions. The use of the spirometer may improve respiratory status, but the patient's ability to take deep breaths is limited by the loss of intercostal muscle function. Suctioning may be needed if the patient is unable to expel secretions by coughing but should not be the nurse's first action. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1602 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

11. A patient who is receiving chemotherapy is admitted to the hospital with acute dehydration caused by nausea and vomiting. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to best prevent the development of shock, systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), and multiorgan dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. Administer all medications through the patient's indwelling central line. b. Place the patient in a private room. c. Restrict the patient to foods that have been well-cooked or processed. d. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for enteral feeding.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The patient who has received chemotherapy is immune compromised, and placing the patient in a private room will decrease the exposure to other patients and reduce infection/sepsis risk. Administration of medications through the central line increases the risk for infection and sepsis. There is no indication that the patient is neutropenic, and restricting the patient to cooked and processed foods is likely to decrease oral intake further and cause further malnutrition, a risk factor for sepsis and shock. Insertion of an NG tube is invasive and will not decrease the patient's nausea and vomiting.

16. A patient with a T1 spinal cord injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse will teach the patient and family that a. use of the shoulders will be preserved. b. full function of the patient's arms will be retained. c. total loss of respiratory function may occur temporarily. d. elevations in heart rate are common with this type of injury.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The patient with a T1 injury can expect to retain full motor and sensory function of the arms. Use of only the shoulders is associated with cervical spine injury. Total loss of respiratory function occurs with injuries above the C4 level and is permanent. Bradycardia is associated with injuries above the T6 level. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1594 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. The nurse caring for a patient in shock notifies the health care provider of the patient's deteriorating status when the patient's ABG results include a. pH 7.48, PaCO2 33 mm Hg. b. pH 7.33, PaCO2 30 mm Hg. c. pH 7.41, PaCO2 50 mm Hg. d. pH 7.38, PaCO2 45 mm Hg.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The patient's low pH in spite of a respiratory alkalosis indicates that the patient has severe metabolic acidosis and is experiencing the progressive stage of shock; rapid changes in therapy are needed. The values in the answer beginning "pH 7.48" suggest a mild respiratory alkalosis (consistent with compensated shock). The values in the answer beginning "pH 7.41" suggest compensated respiratory acidosis. The values in the answer beginning "pH 7.38" are normal.

25. To monitor a patient with severe acute pancreatitis for the early organ damage associated with MODS, the most important assessments for the nurse to make are a. stool guaiac and bowel sounds. b. lung sounds and oxygenation status. c. serum creatinine and urinary output. d. serum bilirubin levels and skin color.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The respiratory system is usually the system to show the signs of MODS because of the direct effect of inflammatory mediators on the pulmonary system. The other assessment data are also important to collect, but they will not indicate the development of MODS as early.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. When caring for a patient who experienced a T1 spinal cord transsection 2 days ago, which collaborative and nursing actions will the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Endotracheal suctioning b. Continuous cardiac monitoring c. Avoidance of cool room temperature d. Nasogastric tube feeding e. Retention catheter care f. Administration of H2 receptor blockers

Correct Answer: B, C, E, F Rationale: The patient is at risk for bradycardia and poikilothermia caused by sympathetic nervous system dysfunction and should have continuous cardiac monitoring and maintenance of a relatively warm room temperature. Gastrointestinal (GI) motility is decreased initially and NG suctioning is indicated. To avoid bladder distension, a retention catheter is used during this acute phase. Stress ulcers are a common complication but can be avoided through the use of the H2 receptor blockers such as famotidine. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1594-1595, 1597, 1603 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. The triage nurse receives a call from a community member who is driving an unconscious friend with multiple injuries after a motorcycle accident to the hospital. The caller states that they will be arriving in 1 minute. In preparation for the patient's arrival, the nurse will obtain a. a liter of lactated Ringer's solution. b. 500 ml of 5% albumin. c. two 14-gauge IV catheters. d. a retention catheter.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: A patient with multiple trauma may require fluid resuscitation to prevent or treat hypovolemic shock, so the nurse will anticipate the need for 2 large bore IV lines to administer normal saline. Lactated Ringer's solution should be used cautiously and will not be ordered until the patient had been assessed for possible liver abnormalities. Although colloids may sometimes be used for volume expansion, it is generally accepted that crystalloids should be used as the initial therapy for fluid resuscitation. A catheter would likely be ordered, but in the 1 minute that the nurse has to obtain supplies, the IV catheters would take priority.

27. When caring for a patient who was admitted 24 hours previously with a C5 spinal cord injury, which nursing action has the highest priority? a. Continuous cardiac monitoring for bradycardia b. Administration of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) infusion c. Assessment of respiratory rate and depth d. Application of pneumatic compression devices to both legs

Correct Answer: C Rationale: Edema around the area of injury may lead to damage above the C4 level, so the highest priority is assessment of the patient's respiratory function. The other actions are also appropriate but are not as important as assessment of respiratory effort. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1602 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

27. When caring for a patient who has just been admitted with septic shock, which of these assessment data will be of greatest concern to the nurse? a. BP 88/56 mm Hg b. Apical pulse 110 beats/min c. Urine output 15 ml for 2 hours d. Arterial oxygen saturation 90%

Correct Answer: C Rationale: The best data for assessing the adequacy of cardiac output are those that provide information about end-organ perfusion such as urine output by the kidneys. The low urine output is an indicator that renal tissue perfusion is inadequate and the patient is in the progressive stage of shock. The low BP, increase in pulse, and low-normal O2 saturation are more typical of compensated septic shock.

24. When caring for a patient with cardiogenic shock and possible MODS, which information obtained by the nurse will help confirm the diagnosis of MODS? a. The patient has crackles throughout both lung fields. b. The patient complains of 8/10 crushing chest pain. c. The patient has an elevated ammonia level and confusion. d. The patient has cool extremities and weak pedal pulses.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: The elevated ammonia level and confusion suggest liver failure in addition to the cardiac failure. The crackles, chest pain, and cool extremities are all consistent with cardiogenic shock and do not indicate that there are failures in other major organ systems.

7. A patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the ED. The nurse suspects that the patient may be experiencing neurogenic shock in addition to hypovolemic shock, based on the finding of a. cool, clammy skin. b. shortness of breath. c. heart rate of 48 beats/min d. BP of 82/40 mm Hg.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: The normal sympathetic response to shock/hypotension is an increase in heart rate. The presence of bradycardia suggests unopposed parasympathetic function, as occurs in neurogenic shock. The other symptoms are consistent with hypovolemic shock.

3. A patient with hypovolemic shock has a urinary output of 15 ml/hr. The nurse understands that the compensatory physiologic mechanism that leads to altered urinary output is a. activation of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS), causing vasodilation of the renal arteries. b. stimulation of cardiac -adrenergic receptors, leading to increased cardiac output. c. release of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which cause sodium and water retention. d. movement of interstitial fluid to the intravascular space, increasing renal blood flow.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: The release of aldosterone and ADH lead to the decrease in urine output by increasing the reabsorption of sodium and water in the renal tubules. SNS stimulation leads to renal artery vasoconstriction. -Receptor stimulation does increase cardiac output, but this would improve urine output. During shock, fluid leaks from the intravascular space into the interstitial space.

10. A patient in septic shock has not responded to fluid resuscitation, as evidenced by a decreasing BP and cardiac output. The nurse anticipates the administration of a. nitroglycerine (Tridil). b. dobutamine (Dobutrex). c. norepinephrine (Levophed). d. sodium nitroprusside (Nipride).

Correct Answer: C Rationale: When fluid resuscitation is unsuccessful, administration of vasopressor drugs is used to increase the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and improve tissue perfusion. Nitroglycerin would decrease the preload and further drop cardiac output and BP. Dobutamine will increase stroke volume, but it would also further decrease SVR. Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and would further decrease SVR.

1. In which order will the nurse perform the following actions when caring for a patient with possible cervical spinal cord trauma who is admitted to the emergency department? a. Administer O2 using a non-rebreathing mask. b. Monitor cardiac rhythm and blood pressure. c. Immobilize the patient's head, neck, and spine. d. Transfer the patient to radiology for spinal CT.

Correct Answer: C, A, B, D Rationale: The first action should be to prevent further injury by stabilizing the patient's spinal cord. Maintenance of oxygenation by administration of 100% O2 is the second priority. Because neurogenic shock is a possible complication, continuous monitoring of heart rhythm and BP is indicated. CT scan to determine the extent and level of injury is needed once initial assessment and stabilization is accomplished. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1596 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

13. A patient with a neck fracture at the C5 level is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) following initial treatment in the emergency room. During initial assessment of the patient, the nurse recognizes the presence of spinal shock on finding a. hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities. b. involuntary, spastic movements of the arms and legs. c. the presence of hyperactive reflex activity below the level of the injury. d. flaccid paralysis and lack of sensation below the level of the injury.

Correct Answer: D Rationale: Clinical manifestations of spinal shock include decreased reflexes, loss of sensation, and flaccid paralysis below the area of injury. Hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities are evidence of neurogenic shock. Involuntary spastic movements and hyperactive reflexes are not seen in the patient at this stage of spinal cord injury. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1590 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

16. The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a urinary tract infection and sepsis. Which information obtained in the assessment indicates a need for a change in therapy? a. The patient is restless and anxious. b. The patient has a heart rate of 134. c. The patient has hypotonic bowel sounds. d. The patient has a temperature of 94.1° F.

Correct Answer: D Rationale: Hypothermia is an indication that the patient is in the progressive stage of shock. The other data are consistent with compensated shock.

20. The best nursing intervention for a patient in shock who has a nursing diagnosis of fear related to perceived threat of death is to a. arrange for the hospital pastoral care staff to visit the patient. b. ask the health care provider to prescribe a sedative drug for the patient. c. leave the patient alone with family members whenever possible. d. place the patient's call bell where it can be easily reached.

Correct Answer: D Rationale: The patient who is fearful should feel that the nurse is immediately available if needed. Pastoral care staff should be asked to visit only after checking with the patient to determine whether this is desired. Providing time for family to spend with the patient is appropriate, but patients and family should not feel that the nurse is unavailable. Sedative administration is helpful but does not as directly address the patient's anxiety about dying.

20. The nurse discusses long-range goals with a patient with a C6 spinal cord injury. An appropriate patient outcome is a. transfers independently to a wheelchair. b. drives a car with powered hand controls. c. turns and repositions self independently when in bed. d. pushes a manual wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces.

Correct Answer: D Rationale: The patient with a C6 injury will be able to use the hands to push a wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces. Because flexion of the thumb and fingers is minimal, the patient will not be able to grasp a wheelchair during transfer, drive a car with powered hand controls, or turn independently in bed. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1594 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. A diabetic patient who has had vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days is admitted to the hospital with a blood glucose of 748 mg/ml (41.5 mmol/L) and a urinary output of 120 ml in the first hour. The vital signs are blood pressure (BP) 72/62; pulse 128, irregular and thready; respirations 38; and temperature 97° F (36.1° C). The patient is disoriented and lethargic with cold, clammy skin and cyanosis in the hands and feet. The nurse recognizes that the patient is experiencing the a. progressive stage of septic shock. b. compensatory stage of diabetic shock. c. refractory stage of cardiogenic shock. d. progressive stage of hypovolemic shock.

Correct Answer: D Rationale: The patient's history of hyperglycemia (and the associated polyuria), vomiting, and diarrhea is consistent with hypovolemia, and the symptoms are most consistent with the progressive stage of shock. The patient's temperature of 97° F is inconsistent with septic shock. The history is inconsistent with a diagnosis of cardiogenic shock, and the patient's neurologic status is not consistent with refractory shock.

1. A patient is brought to the emergency department from the site of a chemical fire, where he suffered a burn that involves the epidermis, dermis, and the muscle and bone of the right arm. On inspection, the skin appears charred. Based on these assessment findings, what is the depth of the burn on the patient's arm? A) Superficial partial-thickness B) Deep partial-thickness C) Full partial-thickness D) Full-thickness

D

A patient with ICP monitoring has pressure of 12 mm Hg. The nurse understand that this pressure reflects a. a severe decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure b. an alteration in the production of CSF c. the loss of autoregulatory control of ICP d. a normal balance between brain tissue, blood, and CSF

D

Abnormal extension (Decerebrate) posturing is characterized by which of the following? A.Extension of extremities and pronation of the arms B.Flexion of extremities and pronation of arms C.Upper extremity flexion with lower extremity extension D.Upper extremity extension with lower extremity flexion.

D

Client sustained closed head injury. Nurse assess for which early sign of impending neurological deterioration? A.Loss of corneal reflex B.Increased visual acuity C.Bilateral pupil equality and reactivity D.Ipsilateral pupil dilation.

D

The nurse is assessing a patient who has a chest tube in place for the treatment of a pneumothorax. The nurse observes that the water level in the water seal rises and falls in rhythm with the patients respirations. How should the nurse best respond to this assessment finding? A) Gently reinsert the chest tube 1 to 2 cm and observe if the water level stabilizes. B) Inform the physician promptly that there is in imminent leak in the drainage system. C) Encourage the patient to do deep breathing and coughing exercises. D) Document that the chest drainage system is operating as it is intended.

D

When assessing the body function of a patient with increased ICP, the nurse should initially assess a. corneal reflex testing b. extremity strength testing c. pupillary reaction to light d. circulatory and respiratory status

D

Which option indicates a sign of Cushing's triad, an indication of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A. Heart rate increases from 90 to 110 beats/minute B. Kussmaul respirations C. Temperature over 100.4° F (38° C) D. Heart rate decreases from 75 to 55 beats/minute

D

a client has clear fluid leaking from the nose following a basilar skull fracture. Which finding would alert the nurses the cerebrospinal fluid is present? A. fluid is clear and tests negative for glucose B. fluid is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of 6 C. fluid clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of 7 D. fluid separates into concentric rings and tests positive for glucose

D

a nurse is caring for a client who has a closed had injury with ICp readings ranging from 16-22 mmHg.which of the following actions should the nurse take to decrease the potential for raising the clients ICP (select all that apply) A. suction the endotracheal tube frequently B. decrease the noise level in the clients room C. elevate the clients head on two pillow D. administer stool softener

D

A patient is admitted to the ED who has been exposed to a nerve agent. The nurse should anticipate the STAT administration of what drug? A) Amyl nitrate B) Dimercaprol C) Erythromycin D) Atropine

D)

The patient arrives in the emergency department from a motor vehicle accident, during which the car ran into a tree. The patient was not wearing a seat belt, and the windshield is shattered. What action is most important for you to do? A. Determine if the patient lost consciousness. B. Assess the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score. C. Obtain a set of vital signs. D. Use a logroll technique when moving the patient.

D. Use a logroll technique when moving the patient. When the head hits the windshield with enough force to shatter it, you must assume neck or cervical spine trauma occurred and you need to maintain spinal precautions. This includes moving the patient in alignment as a unit or using a logroll technique during transfers. The other options are important and are done after spinal precautions are applied.

One indication for surgical therapy of the patient with a spinal cord injury is when a. there is incomplete cord lesion involvement b. the ligaments that support the spine are torn c. a high cervical injury causes loss of respiratory function d. evidence of continued compression of the cord is apparent

D. evidence of continued compression of the cord is apparent Rationale: Although surgical treatment of spinal cord injuries often depends on the preference of the health care provider, surgery is usually indicated when there is continued compression of the cord by extrinsic forces or when there is evidence of cord compression. Other indications may include progressive neurologic deficit, compound fracture of the vertebra, bony fragments, and penetrating wounds of the cord.

A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a cervical spine injury 24 hours ago. which of the following types of prescribed medications should the nurse clarify with the provider? a. glucocorticoids b. plasma expanders c. H2 antagonists d. muscle relaxants

D. muscle relaxants Rationale: The client will still be in spinal shock 24 hours following the injury. the client will not experience muscle spasms until after the spinal shock has resolved, making muscle relaxants unnecessary at this time.

Following a T2 spinal cord injury, the patient develops paralytic ileus. While this condition is present, the nurse anticipates that the patient will need a. IV fluids b. tube feedings c. parenteral nutrition d. nasogastric suctioning

D. nasogastric suctioning Rationale: During the first 2 to 3 days after a spinal cord injury, paralytic ileus may occur, and NG suction must be used to remove secretions and gas from the GI tract until peristalsis resumes. IV fluids are used to maintain fluid balance but do not specifically relate to paralytic ileus. Tube feedings would be used only for patients who had difficulty swallowing and not until peristalsis is returned; PN would be used only if the paralytic ileus was unusally prolonged.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a C4 spinal cord injury. which of the following should the nurse recognize the client as being at the greatest risk for? a. neurogenic shock b. paralytic ileus c. stress ulcer d. respiratory compromise

D. respiratory compromise Rationale: Using the airway, breathing and circulation priority framework, the greatest risk to the client with a SCI at the level of C4 is respiratory compromise secondary to involvement of the phrenic nerve. Maintainance of an airway and provision of ventilator support as needed is the priority intervention.

Asystole

DO NOT SHOCK - EPI 1 mg every 3-5 min "every dead man gets epi!" Fix H & T's - Hypovolemia, hypoxia, hyrogen ions (acidosis), hypo/hyperkalemia, hypothermia - Tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, toxins, pulmonary thrombosis, coronary thrombosis

Glucosorticoids intrxns

Decrease FX of: insulin, oral hypoglycerides, diuretics, K+ Give with antiacids Too much: Cushings Abrupt stop: Addison's

Atrial Fibrillation

Drugs: Diltiazem, Cardizem, Digoxin Vagal Maneuver Cardioversion = DONT if clot Need anticoagulant NO P WAVES

A nurse helps a health care provider treat a full-thickness burn on a patient's hand. Prior to treatment, the nurse documents the appearance of the wound as:

Dry and pale white.

The spouse of a victim, who was struck by lightning, asks the nurse why the areas involved seems so small but the damage is extensive. Which is the best explanation from the nurse?

Electrical burns usually follow an internal path.

A trauma patient in the ICU has been declared brain dead. What diagnostic test is used in making the determination of brain death?

Electroencephalography (EEG)

A nurse practitioner administers first aid to a patient with a deep partial-thickness burn on his left foot. The nurse describes the skin involvement as the:

Epidermis and a portion of deeper dermis.

A client presents with a full-thickness burn to the anterior chest. The leathery skin is tight, making breathing difficult. The nurse anticipates which treatment management technique in the care of this client?

Escharotomy

Atrial Flutter

F Waves = sawtooth pattern P Waves before QRS = can predict

Symptoms of Chronic Renal Failure

Fluid Accumulation Electrolyte Imbalances- hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia Waste Products Retained Acid-base Imbalances Metabolic acidosis Anemia

Which is the primary nursing intervention in the care of a client with burns exceeding 20% of total body surface area?

Fluid resuscitation

Bill Jenkins has suffered from a burn on his leg related to an engine fire. Burn depth is determined by assessing the color, characteristics of the skin, and sensation in the area. When the burn area was assessed, it was determined that he felt no pain in the area and that it appeared charred. What depth of burn injury would he be said to have?

Full thickness (third degree)

A patient has a burn injury that has destroyed all of the dermis and extends into the subcutaneous tissue, involving the muscle. This type of burn injury would be documented as which of the following?

Full-thickness

Heparin drip bleeding

Give protamine sulfate

Medication to reverse hypoglycemia?

Glucagon stimulate the liver to change glycogen to glucose ONSET: 8-10 min Duration: 12-27 min SE: nausea and vomiting, hypotension, bronchospams, dizziness Given SQ or IM EMERGENCY/ACUTE management of severe hypoglycemia, may be repeated in 15 min if needed

Normal Sinus Rhythm

HR: 60-100 bpm P-Wave: 1 P for every QRS PR Interval: 0.12-0.20 sec QRS: all the same shape <0.12

Sinus Bradycardia

HR: <60 P-Wave: 1 P for every QRS PR Interval: 0.12-0.20 sec QRS Complex: all the same shape <0.12

Sinus Tachycardia

HR: > 100 P-Wave: 1 P for every QRS, all same shape PR Interval: 0.12-0.20 sec QRS Complex: all the same shape <0.12

When assessing a client with partial-thickness burns over 60% of the body, which finding should the nurse report immediately?

Hoarseness of the voice

Which of the following neuroendocrine changes occur within the first 24 hours of a serious burn?

Hyperglycemia

a patient in the emergent/resuscitative phase of a burn injury has had blood work and arterial blood gases drawn. Upon analysis of the patient's laboratory studies, the nurse will expect the results to indicate what?

Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit, and metabolic acidosis.

Immediately after a burn injury, electrolytes need to be evaluated for a major indicator of massive cell destruction which is:

Hyperkalemia.

Following a serious thermal burn, which complication will the nurse take action to prevent first?

Hypovolemia

Which of the following types of shock will a nurse observe in a client with extensive burns?

Hypovolemic shock

A nurse educator is teaching students the types of shock and associated causes. Which combination of shock type and causative factors are correct? Select all that apply.

Hypovolemic shock; blood loss Cardiogenic shock; myocardial infarction Anaphylactic shock; nuts Septic shock; infection

The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained a full-thickness burn to his arm when he was scalded with boiling water. How did the nurse determine that the patient's burns are full-thickness burns?

Identification by the destruction of the dermis and epidermis

A child tips a pot of boiling water onto his bare legs. The mother should:

Immerse the child's legs in cool water.

what are the signs of Autonomic Dysreflexia ?

Increase in BP 40mm Hg, headache, bradycardia, Blurred vision, sweating

When obtaining the vital signs of a client with multiple traumatic injuries, a nurse detects bradycardia, bradypnea, and systolic hypertension. The nurse must notify the physician immediately because these findings may reflect which complication?

Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) Explanation: When ICP increases, Cushing triad may develop, which involves decreased heart and respiratory rates and increased systolic blood pressure. Shock typically causes tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension. In encephalitis, the temperature rises and the heart and respiratory rates may increase from the effects of fever on the metabolic rate. (If the client doesn't maintain adequate hydration, hypotension may occur.) Status epilepticus causes unceasing seizures, not changes in vital signs.

The nurse is administering an analgesic to a patient with major burns. What is the recommended route for administration for this patient?

Intravenous

A client presents with blistering wounds caused by an unknown chemical agent. How should the nurse intervene?

Irrigate the wounds with water.

Cardiogenic Shock

LOW Cardiac output after a Myocardial Infarction - excessive myocardial oxygen demand and inadequate myocardial perfusion worsens myocardial ischemia that leads to death

A client has partial-thickness burns on both lower extremities and portions of the trunk. Which I.V. fluid does the nurse plan to administer first?

Lactated Ringer's solution

Glargine

Lantus Very long acting DO NOT MIX w/ other insulin Onset: 3-4 hrs Peak: continuous Duration: 24hr -Maintains BS regardless of meals; don;t mix with other insulin -give at bed time

why is Autonomic Dysreflexia so serious?

Life threatening due to clients becoming extremely hypertensive

Which type of debridement involves the use of surgical scissors, scalpels, and forceps to separate and remove the eschar?

Mechanical debridement

Antidiabetic: hypoglycemia meds: Nursing considerations

Monitor serum glucose avoid alcohol teaching for disease skin care

MONA

Morphine Oxygen Nitroglycerin Aspirin 1. oxygen 2. nitroglycerin 3. aspirin 4. morphine

Which of the following is the analgesic of choice for burn pain?

Morphine sulfate

Ventricular Fibrillation

NEVER has a pulse CPR Epinephrine = 1 mg every 3-5 mins DFIB = continuous and not just on R wave "Vtach and nap, ZAP ZAP ZAP" Amiordarone 300 mg bolus, then 150 mg drip IMMEDIATE DFIB SHOCK - CPR for 2 min - Shock - CPR for 2 min - EPI 1 mg every 3-5 min - Shock - CPR 2 min - Amiodarone 300 mg

Ventilator Setting for Respiratory Alkalosis

NOT ENOUGH CO2 - decrease respiratory rate to perserve CO2

The nurse is caring for a patient in the burn unit. Which of the following may be an early sign of sepsis in the patient with burn injury?

Narrowing pulse pressure

Distributive Shock- Misdistribution of blood flow-

Neurogenic shock Anaphylactic shock Septic shock

what can cause Autonomic Dysreflexia?

Noxious stimuli such as a full bladder or fecal impaction

A patient with spinal cord injury is ready to be discharged home. A family member asks the nurse to review potential complications one more time. What are the potential complications that should be monitored for this patient? Select all that apply.

Orthostatic hypotension Autonomic dysreflexia DVT

38. What is a priority in the rehabilitation phase of the burn injury? A) Monitoring fluid and electrolyte imbalances B) Patient and family education C) Assessing wound healing D) Documenting family support

PATIENT AND FAMILY EDUCATION **Patient and family education is a priority in the acute and rehabilitation phases. There should be no fluid and electrolyte imbalances in the rehabilitation phase. Assessing wound healing is an ongoing function but it is not a priority in the rehabilitation phase. Documenting family support is not a priority in the rehabilitation phase.

36. You are caring for a burn patient who is in the later stages of the acute phase of the burn injury. What is an important factor in your care of the patient? A) Immobilizing the patient B) Maintaining splints and functional devices C) Maintaining ongoing discussion about the patient with a psychologist D) Prevention of DVT

PREVENTION OF DVT **Prevention of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is an important factor in care. Early mobilization of the patient is important. The nurse monitors the splints and functional devices, but does not maintain them. The nurse does not maintain discussion with a psychologist about the patient.

The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained a major burn. What serious gastrointestinal disturbance should the nurse monitor for that frequently occurs with a major burn?

Paralytic ileus

Cardiogenic Shock Surgical Management

Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) = revascularization Intra-aortic Balloon Pump (IABP) = increases oxygen supply and decreases demand Ventricular Assist Devices (VAD) = bridge to transplantation ECMO Total Artificial Heart = end-stage heart failure; can't have natural heart transplant Heart Transplants

Glucosorticoids

Prednisone, Dexamethasone, Methylprednisolone SDFX: Increased suceptibility to infection Insomnia Hypo - K+, Ca Hyperglycemia Osteoporosis-> fractures Ulcers Psychosis (nightmares)

The nurse knows that inflammatory response following a burn is proportional to the extent of injury. Which factor presents the greatest impact on the ability to modify the magnitude and duration of the inflammatory response in a client with a burn?

Preexisting conditions

A patient is receiving heparin for a large venous thromboembolism (VTE). During assessment, the nurse notice a large amount of bright red urine pass through the patient's foley catheter. What intervention should the nurse anticipate first?

Prepare to administer protamine sulfate

When the nurse observes that the client's systolic blood pressure is less than 80 mm Hg, respirations are rapid and shallow, heart rate is over 150 beats per minute, and urine output is less than 30 cc/hour, the nurse recognizes that the client is demonstrating which stage of shock?

Progressive

Lispro; Aspart and Glulisine

Rapid acting Onset: 15 - 30 min, 10-20, 10-15 Peak: 0.5-2.5 h, 1-3, 1-1.5 Duration: 3-6H; aspart 3hr Adverse RXN: midmorning: trembling, weakness -Should eat withnin 5-15 min; used in insulin pumps

The arterial blood gases for a patient in shock demonstrate increased carbon dioxide and decreased oxygen. What type of respirations would the nurse expect to assess based on these findings?

Rapid and deep

A nurse is aware that after a burn injury and respiratory difficulties have been managed, the next most urgent need is to:

Replace lost fluids and electrolytes.

A client, who has sustained burns to the anterior chest and upper extremities, is brought to the burn center. During the initial stage of assessment, which nursing diagnosis is primary?

Risk for Impaired Gas Exchange

The client exhibits a blood pressure of 110/68 mm Hg, pulse rate of 112 beats/min, temperature of 102°F with skin warm and flushed. Respirations are 30 breaths/min. The nurse assesses the client may be exhibiting the early stage of which shock?

Septic

Humulin R; Novolin R,

Short Acting; Regular Onset: 30-60 min Peak: 1-5 hr Duration: 6-10hr Adverse FX: Midmoring mid afternoon: weakness fatigue -clear solution, give within 20-30 before meal; can be with other insulin ONLY ONE THAT CAN BE GIVEN IV

Collaborative Care for Acute Coronary Syndrome

Short Term: heparin to prevent clots in coronary arteries Long Term: tPA clot buster to breakup clots

The client is admitted with full-thickness burn to the forearm. Which is the most accurate interpretation made by the nurse?

Skin grafting will be necessary.

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)

Stiff, non compliant lung. Alveoli are NOT flexible with inhalation and exhalation (do not extend properly) - alveoli filled with fluid - dyspnea - hyoxemia with decreased lung compliance - pulmonary infiltrates - PaO2/FiO2 < 200 - pulmonary wedge pressure <18 - bilateral infiltrates on chest radiograph

A patient has a burn injury that has damaged the epidermis. There are no blisters, and the skin is pink in color. This type of burn injury would be documented as which of the following?

Superficial

35. It is time to change the dressings on a burn patient. What does the nurse do to reduce pain and discomfort at this time? A) The nurse lets the patient decide on when to change the dressing. B) The nurse skip's the dressing change if the patient is really uncomfortable. C) The nurse changes dressings as quickly as possible. D) The nurse lets the aide do the painful part of the dressing change.

THE NURSE CHANGES DRESSINGS AS QUICKLY AS POSSIBLE **The nurse works quickly to complete treatments and dressing changes to reduce pain and discomfort. Letting the patient decide the time of the dressing change lets the patient feel more in control. It doesn't reduce pain and discomfort. The nurse should never skip an ordered dressing change. You never delegate a dressing change on a burn patient.

Ventilator Setting for Respiratory Acidosis

TOO MUCH CO2 - increase respiratory rate to get rid of CO2

ST-Segment Elevation Myocardial Ischemia (STEMI)

TOTAL occlusion of coronary artery and cell death - ischemia has lead to infarction - Tall narrow T-waves changing into T-wave inversion, ST-segment elevation, Q-Wave confirms diagnosis

An explosion of a fuel tanker has resulted in melting of clothing on the driver and extensive full-body burns. The client is brought into the emergency department alert, denying pain, and joking with the staff. Which is the best interpretation of this behavior?

The client has experienced extensive full-thickness burns.

A nurse is required to monitor the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation in a client who is being treated for burns. Which of the following assessments would indicate the success of the fluid resuscitation?

The client's urinary output is 0.3 to 0.5 mL/kg/hour.

Cardiac Output

The volume of blood ejected from heart in one minute. - dependent on stroke volume = volume of blood pumped from the left ventricle with each heartbeat HR X SV

A nurse is assessing a client admitted with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns on the face, arms, and chest. Which finding indicates a potential problem?

Urine output of 20 ml/hour

Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing. The described posturing results from cerebral trauma and is not normal. The patient has no motor function, is limp, and lacks motor tone with flaccid posturing.

When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists, and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient's posturing as which of the following?

What is an early sign of sepsis in the burn injured client?

Widened pulse pressure

39. A burn patient is transitioning from the acute phase of the injury to the rehabilitation phase. The patient tells the nurse "I can't wait to have surgery to reconstruct my face so I look normal again." What would be the nurse's best response? A) "You know, nothing can be done until your scars mature. It is something the doctor will talk to you about in the first few years after discharge." B) "That is something for you to talk to your doctor about." C) "I know this is really important to you, but you have to realize that no one can make you look like you used to." D) "You will have most of these scars for the rest of your life."

YOU KNOW, NOTHING CAN BE DONE UNTIL YOUR SCARS MATURE. IT IS SOMETHING THE DOCTOR WILL TALK TO YOU ABOUT IN THE FIRST FEW YEARS AFTER DISCHARGE **Burn reconstruction is a treatment option after all scars have matured and is discussed within the first few years after injury. Options B and C are true statements but not the best statements. The nurse does not know for sure how much reconstruction can be done.

Ventricular Tachycardia

a very rapid heartbeat that begins within the ventricles

A patient is being treated in the ED following a terrorist attack. The patient is experiencing visual disturbances, nausea, vomiting, and behavioral changes. The nurse suspects this patient has been exposed to what chemical agent? A) Nerve agent B) Pulmonary agent C) Vesicant D) Blood agent

a)

Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when reviewing the laboratory test results of a client with renal failure? a) Increased serum creatinine level b) Increased red blood cell count c) Decreased serum potassium level d) Increased serum calcium level

a) Increased serum creatinine levels.

The nurse provides care to a patient admitted for a traumatic brain injury. The patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis indicates respiratory acidosis. Which action by the nurse is best when providing care to this patient? a. Assessing respiratory rate and depth closely b. Administering sodium bicarbonate, per prescription c. Monitoring peripheral vascular status d. Reassuring the patient to decrease anxiety

a. Assessing respiratory rate and depth closely

Which should the nurse include in the plan of care for a mechanically ventilated patient who is receiving care based on a ventilator bundle? Select all that apply. a. Ensuring a sedation vacation each day b. Conducting a readiness to wean assessment c. Elevating the head of the bed d. Administering a prescribed peptic ulcer prophylactic regimen e. Avoiding the use of compression stockings during immobility

a. Ensuring a sedation vacation each day b. Conducting a readiness to wean assessment c. Elevating the head of the bed d. Administering a prescribed peptic ulcer prophylactic regimen

Which clinical manifestation indicates to the nurse that a patient is experiencing intermediate respiratory failure? a. Lethargy b. Tachycardia c. Dyspnea d. Restlessness

a. Lethargy

A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a cervical spine injury 3 months ago. Which of the following types of bladder management methods should the nurse use for this client? a. condom catheter b. intermittent urinary catheterization c. crede's method d. indwelling urinary catheter

a. condom catheter Rationale: a client who has a cervical spinal cord injury will also have a upper motor neuron injury, which is manifested by a spastic bladder. because the bladder will empty on its own, a condom catheter is an appropriate method and is noninvasive. B & C are for flaccid bladder.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with a possible cervical spinal cord injury following an automobile crash. During the admission of the patient, the nurse places the highest priority on a. maintaining a patent airway b. assessing the patient for head and other injuries c. maintaining immobilization of the cervical spine d. assessing the patient's motor and sensory function

a. maintaining a patent airway Rationale: The need for a patent airway is the first priority for any injured patient, and a high cervical injury may decrease the gag reflex and ability to maintain an airway, as well as the ability to breathe. Maintaining cervical stability is then a consideration, along with assessing for other injuries and the patients neuro status.

how to arouse and responses

address patient by name gently shake arm light pain deeper pain noxious stimuli- trapezius pinch, sternal rub, supraorbital pressure, nailbed pressure responses- purposeful responses- removing stimulus or withdrawing from stimulus posturing- indicates dysfunction of cerebral hemispheres or brainstem *decorticate posturing- internal rotation and adduction of arms with flexion of elbows, wrists, fingers decerebrate posturing- indicates more serious damage and results from disruption of motor fibers in midbrain and brainstem, arms stiffly extended, adducted, and hyperpronated

hyperosmolar therapy

administration of osmotic diuretics (mannitol) mannitol- draws water from brain cells into plasma to decrease ICP watch for hypotension contraindicated in renal disease

VT with a Pulse

assess patient, give medications (cardioversion) cardiovert early vagal maneuvers Amidarone 300 mg bolus than 150 mg drip "VTach and awake meds I must take"

Bradycardia Medications

atropine epinephrine dopamine

The client with acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 6.0 mEq/L. The nurse would plan which of the following as a priority action? a) check the sodium level b) place the client on a cardiac monitor c) encourage increased vegetables in the diet d) allow an extra 500 ml of fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration

b) place the client on a cardiac monitor

A client with acute renal failure moves into the diuretic phase after 1 week of therapy. During this phase, the client must be assessed for signs of developing: a. Renal failure b. Hypovolemia c. Hyperkalemia d. Metabolic acidosis

b.

After undergoing renal arteriogram, in which the left groin was accessed, a client complains of left calf pain. Which intervention should the nurse perform first? a) Assess for anaphylaxis. b) Assess peripheral pulses in the left leg. c) Exercise the leg and foot. d) Place cool compresses on the calf.

b. Assess peripheral pulses in the left leg.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with a spinal cord injury at the level of T2. Which of the following findings is of most concern to the nurse? a. SpO2 of 92% b. HR of 42 beats/min c. BP of 88/60 d. loss of motor and sensory function in arms and legs

b. HR of 42 beats/min Rationale: Neurogenic shock associated with cord injuries above the level of T6 greatly decrease the effect of the sympathetic nervous system, and bradycardia and hypotension occur. A heart rate of 42 is not adequate to meet oxygen needs of the body, and while low, the BP is not at a critical point. The O2 sat is ok, and the motor and sensory loss are expected.

The nurse suctions a patient's tracheostomy tube. During the procedure, the patient's heart rate drops to the low 50s and oxygen saturation falls to 85%. Which is the priority action by the nurse? a. Tell the patient to relax and continue the procedure. b. Stop the suctioning procedure and administer oxygen. c. Notify the health-care provider at the end of the procedure. d. Document the patient's reaction to the procedure in the medical record.

b. Stop the suctioning procedure and administer oxygen.

The ED nurse is caring for a patient who has been brought in by ambulance after sustaining a fall at home. What physical assessment finding is suggestive of a basilar skull fracture? A) Epistaxis B) Periorbital edema C) Bruising over the mastoid D) Unilateral facial numbness

c

A adult client has had laboratory work done as part of a routine physical examination. The nurse interprets that the client may have a mild degree of renal insufficiency if which of the following serum creatinine levels is noted? a) 0.2 mg/dlL b) 0.5 mg/dL c) 1.9 mg/dL d) 3.5 mg/dL

c) 1.9 mg/dL the normal serum creatinine level foadults is 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL. The client with a mild degree of renal insufficiency would have a slight elevated level. A creatinie level of 0.2 mg/dL is low, and a level of 0.5 mg/dL is just below normal. A creeatinie level of 3.5 mg/dL may be associated with acute or chronic renal failure.

The client in end-stage of renal failure had undergone kidney transplant. Which of the following assessment findings indicate kidney transplant rejection? a) increased urinary output, BUN = 15 mg/dL b) HCT = 50%, Hgb = 17 g/dl c) decreased urinary output, sudden weight gain d) decreased urinary output, sudden weight loss

c) decreased urinary output, sudden weight gain

The home care nurse is making follow-up visits to a client following renal transplant. The nurse assesses the client for which signs of acute graft rejection? a) hypotension, graft tenderness, and anemia b) hypertension, oliguria, thirst, and hypothermia c) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness, and malaise d) fever, vomiting, hypotension, and copious amounts of dilute urine

c) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness, and malaise

A 44-year-old client is in the hospital unit where you practice nursing. From the results of a series of diagnostic tests, she has been diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. What would you expect to find as a result of this condition? a) No option is correct. b) Pyuria c) Proteinuria d) Polyuria

c) proteinuria

A patient with a C7 spinal cord injury undergoing rehabilitation tells the nurse he must have the flu because he has a bad headache and nausea. The initial action of the nurse is to a. call the physician b. check the patient's temperature c. take the patient's BP d. elevate the HOB to 90 degrees

c. Take the patient's BP

vital sign changes

caused by increasing thalamus, hypothalamus, pons, and medulla temp- hyperthermia/hypothermia *respiratory- cheyne stokes respirations (hyperventilation and apne) heart rate- increased = poor cerebral perfusion, decreased = last stage of ICP cushing triad= increased systolic /decreased diastolic (widened pulse pressure >60), bradycardia vomiting not preceded by nausea loss of cranial nerve reflexes- no gag or cough reflex, corneal reflex, return of babinski reflex (BAD SIGN)

Cardiogenic Shock Collaborative Care

caused by myocardial infarction - heart CANT pump adequate blood, or maintain adequate tissue perfusion

Nitroglycerin

causes VASODILATION and increases blood flow to myocardium GIVEN 2ND

A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7 or less is generally interpreted as

coma

Arterial Line

constant monitoring of systemic blood pressure - gives ABG reading Placement: radial, femoral, brachial **CANT PUT ANYTHING IN THIS LINE**

Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)

correlates to systemic pressure Normal: 70-105 (Diastole X 2) + Systole -------------------------- 3 Greater than 60 = perfuse brain, coronaries, kidneys 70-90 = ideal for cardiac patient Over 65-70 = want to have for critical patients

A client is experiencing septic shock and infrequent bowel sounds. To ensure adequate nutrition, the nurse administers a) A full liquid diet b) Isotonic enteral nutrition every 6 hours c) An infusion of crystalloids at an increased rate of flow d) A continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition

d) A continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition

Which of the following anti-hypertensive medications is contraindicated for clients with renal insufficiency? a) beta-adrenergic blockers b) calcium-channel blockers c) direct-acting vasodilators d) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

d) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

In the oliguric phase of renal failure, what is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis? a) fluid volume deficit b) activity intolerance c) ineffective breathing pattern d) fluid volume excess

d) fluid volume excess

The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported IMMEDIATELY? a. Blood urea nitrogen 50 mg/dl b. Hemoglobin of 10.3 mg/dl c. Venous blood pH 7.30 d. Serum potassium 6 mEq/L

d.

BP managemnt

to support cerebral autoregulation maintain systemic MAP that will keep CPP >70

Morphine

vasodilates and decreases workload of the heart by decreasing preload and afterload GIVEN LAST

diffuse axonal injury

widespread disruption of axons in white matter and nearby blood vessels (break in axons) small multiple hemorrhages s/s- decreased LOC, IICP, postural changes, global cerebral sx

Which of the following is to be expected soon after a major burn? Select all that apply.

• Anxiety • Tachycardia • Hypotension

The nurse is monitoring for fluid and electrolyte changes in the emergent phase of burn injury for a patient. Which of the following will be an expected outcome? (Select all that apply.)

• Base-bicarbonate deficit • Elevated hematocrit level • Sodium deficit

The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a patient with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories to

decrease catabolism.

Allen Test

ensures good blood supply through the arteries Raise hand in fist for 30 second. Nurse occludes the ulnar and radial arteries, the lets go of just the ulnar artery. Positive test will show pallor that fades in 7-10 seconds Positive Test = good Negative Test = bad

Ventricular Tachycardia (V-tach) NO PULSE Medications

epinephrine amiodarone lidocaine

Ventricular Fibrillation (V-Fib) Medications

epinephrine amiodarone lidocaine magnesium

Asystole/PEA Medications

epinephrine EVERY DEAD MAN GETS EPI

Sinus Tachycardia Causes

fever, anemia, hypotension, pulmonary embolissm, and myocardial infarction

basal skull fx

fracture at base of skull affects frontal bone (sinus) - *rhinorrhea* or temporal bone (middle ear) - *otorrhea*

Low BP

give dopamine - hypotensive needs IMMEDIATE blood pressure support

arousal

glasgow coma scale used to assess (best score 15, worst 3) <8 = no longer able to manage own airway and significant alteration in LOC

Calcium Chanel Blockers

help slow the heart rate, allowing the heart to beat more efficiently *increase cardiac output, and decrease blood pressure*

ECG/EKG (electrocardiogram)

if there are no symptoms no need to treat = may be their normal

INCREASED preload results in

increased cardiac output

Isophane (NPH); Insulin determir

intermediate acting Onset: 1-2 hr Peak: 6-14hr Duration: 16 hr Adverse FX: early evening: weakness fatigue -White and cloudy solution; -can be given after meals

A client has been treated for shock and is now at risk for which secondary but life-threatening complications? Select all that apply. kidney failure disseminated intravascular coagulation acute respiratory distress syndrome hypoglycemia GERD

kidney failure disseminated intravascular coagulation acute respiratory distress syndrome

basilar skull fracture

major complications- cranial nerve injury and CSF leak s/s- CSF leakage from ear or nose, battles sign- ecchymosis or bruising behind ear, raccoon eyes- periorbital edema and bruising, halo sign- drainage forms blood in middle

Femoral placement of hemodynamic monitoring

must be on bed rest HOB = below 30 degrees

Arterial Line Nursing Monitoring

must perform Allen Test prior to insertion Watch For: - infection - bleeding - airways/lungs (pneumothorax) - Dysrythmias

Lab Tests/Results for Acute Coronary Syndrome

o **TROPONIN** - go to lab = most specific to the heart o CK, CK-MB - released when cells are damaged o Ejection fraction - how well is heart pumping o CBC - hemoglobin, hematocrit, white blood cells o Coagulation studies - PT, aPTT, Platelets, ABG

Diagnostic Tests for Acute Coronary Syndrome

o ECG **gold standard for diagnosis of MI** o Coronary angiography - visulization of any obstructions or narrowing of the coronary arteries o Echocardiogram - shows ejection fraction, structural problems, which coronary artery is occluded o TEE - locks at back side of the heart, ensures no clots before cardioversion o Stress test

Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)

o Unstable Angina o Myocardial Ischemia - NSTEMI - STEMI

Acute Respiratory Failure (ARF)

one or both gas echange functions of the lungs are compromised; resulting in hypoxemia and/or hypercapnia

Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS) Medications

oxygen asprin nitroglycerin morphine fibrinolytic therapy heparing beta-blockers

A client with a superficial partial-thickness solar burn (sunburn) of the chest, back, face, and arms is seen in urgent care. The nurse's primary concern should be:

pain management.

head trauma outcome prediction

predicting factors of poor outcome- intracranial hematoma, absent eye movements, absent pupillary light reflexes, early sustained hypotension, hypoxemia/hypercapnia, ICP >20

Anticoagulants

prevent blood clot formation - heparin - enoxaparin (Lovenox)

Antiplatelets

prevents platelets from forming new clots or increasing size of current clots - asprin - clopidogrel (Plavix) - eptifibatide (Integrillin)

Aspirin

prevents the formation of platelet aggregation and arteries to constrict GIVEN 3RD

heprin antidote

protamine sulfate

Oxygen

provides and improves oxygenation of ischemic myocardial tissue GIVEN 1ST

How do the insulin work on the body to decrease blood sugar?

reduces blood glucose levels by increasing glucose transport across cell membranes; enhances conversion of glucose to glycogen - given to type 1, type 2 not responding to oral hypoglycemic agents and gestational diabetes not responding to diet

Thrombolytics

revascularization of the heart muscle by dissolving clots in arteries

Autonomic Dysreflexia - occurs in clients with what kind of injury

spinal cord injury - T-5 or above

concussion

sudden transient mechanical head injury with disruption of neural activity and change in LOC s/s- brief disruption in LOC, retrograde amnesia, HA postconcussion syndrome- 2wks-2mo after injury- HA, lethargy, personality and behavioral changes, short attention span, decreased short term memory, change in intellectual ability

In decorticate posturing,

the patient has flexion and internal rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of the feet.

A 70 yr old patient who has a spinal cord injury at C8 resulting in central cord syndrome. Which effect of the patient's most likely to be life threatening after completeing rehabiliation? A. increased bone density loss B. higher tisk for tissue hpoxia C. vasomotor compensation lost D. Weakness of thoracic muscles

Correct Answer(s): D Weakness of thoracic muscle is most likely to cause life-threatening complications because affects patients oxygentation and ventilation.

10. Which of the following accurately describes rejection following transplantation? a. Hyperacute rejection can be treated with OKT3 b.Acute rejection can be treated with *sirolimus* or tacrolimus. c.Chronic rejection can be treated with tacrolimus or cyclosporine. d. Hyper-acute reaction can usually be avoided is crossmatching is done before the transplantation.

d. Hyper-acute reaction can usually be avoided is crossmatching is done before the transplantation. Correct answer: d Rationale: A positive crossmatch indicates that the recipient has cytotoxic antibodies to the donor and is an absolute contraindication to transplantation. If transplanted, the organ would undergo hyperacute rejection.

13. The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained a deep partial-thickness burn injury. In prioritizing the nursing diagnoses for the plan of care, the nurse will give the highest priority to what nursing diagnosis? A) Activity intolerance B) Anxiety C) Impaired nutrition: less than body requirements D) Acute pain

ACUTE PAIN **Pain is inevitable during recovery from any burn injury. Pain in the burn patient has been described as one of the most severe causes of acute pain. Management of the often-severe pain is one of the most difficult challenges facing the burn team. While the other nursing diagnoses listed are valid diagnoses, the presence of pain may contribute to these diagnoses and management of the patient's pain is priority as it may have a direct correlation to these nursing diagnoses.

28. A male patient, 16 years old, comes to the emergency department (ED) after burning his right hand and arm while working on a friend's car. The injury is determined to be a superficial burn and it is treated. What would the nurse teach the patient before discharging him home to return on a daily basis for dressing changes? A) "As your arm swells, push on your fingernails. If it takes longer than 5 seconds for them to get pink come back to the ED." B) "You should be fine until you come back tomorrow for your dressing change." C) "Drink lots of fluids and elevate the arm." D) "The burned area will start to swell in about 4 hours and blisters will form. If you think the dressing is too tight come back to the ED."

"The burned area will start to swell in about 4 hours and blisters will form. If you think the dressing is too tight come back to the ED." **In a superficial burn there is loss of capillary integrity and fluid is localized to the burn itself, resulting in blister formation and edema only in the area of injury. Capillary refill should be 3 seconds or less. Options B and C are distracters for this question.

16. A patient is brought to the ED by paramedics who report the patient has partial-thickness burns on the chest and legs. The patient has also suffered smoke inhalation. What is a priority in the care of a patient who has been burned and suffered smoke inhalation? A) Pain B) Fluid balance C) Anxiety and fear D) Airway management

AIRWAY MANAGEMENT **Systemic threats from a burn are the greatest threat to life. The ABCs of all trauma care apply during the early postburn period. While all options should be addressed, pain, fluid balance, and anxiety and fear do not take precedence over airway management.

A patient has impairments from a SCI at C4 classified as incomplete C on the American Spinal Injury Association, (ASIA) Impairment Sclae. Which patient assessment is the nurse likely to observe in this patient? A. poor propricopetor in the legs B. poor peristalsis in the intestines C. Absent gag and blinking reflexes D. Absent bladder fulness sensation

Answer is B A patient who has a SCI has neurologic impairment to all extremities and the diaphragm. However, because the injury is C on the ASIA impairment Scale, sensory function can be intact but motor function will be impaired significantly or absent.the patient can lose moderate to complete peristatlic action in the intestines but should reatine the ability to sense bladder fulnessand the position of the legs.

17. A patient arrives in the emergency department after being burned in a house fire. The patient's burns cover the face and the left forearm. What percentage of burn does the patient have? A) 10% B) 25% C) 9% D) 18%

18% **When estimating the percentage of body area or burn surface area that has been burned, the Rule of Nines is used: the face is 9%, and the forearm is 9% for a total of 18% in this patient.

18. The most common cause of secondary immunodeficiency disorders is:

18. drug induced immunosuppression with antineoplastic agents and corticosteroids.

7. The nurse on a burn unit is caring for a patient in the acute phase of burn care. While performing an assessment during this phase of burn care, the nurse recognizes that airway obstruction related to upper airway edema may occur up to how long after the burn injury? A) 2 days B) 3 days C) 5 days D) A week

2 DAYS **Airway obstruction caused by upper airway edema can take as long as 48 hours to develop. Changes detected by x-ray and arterial blood gases may occur as the effects of resuscitative fluid and the chemical reaction of smoke ingredients with lung tissues become apparent.

20. A transplant rejection which most commonly occurs with kidney transplant.

20. Hyperacute

21.Organ must be removed when "this" transplant rejection occurs.

21. Hyperacute

22. A transplant rejection which Infiltration of the organ with B and T lymphocytes occur.

22. Chronic

23. Treatment is supportive with this transplant rejection.

23. Chronic

24. In this type of transplant rejection the recipient's T-cytotoxic lymphocytes attack the foreign organ.

24. Acute

6. The emergency department nurse has just admitted a patient with a burn. The nurse recognizes that the patient is likely to experience a local and systemic response to the burn when the burn exceeds a total body surface area (TBSA) of what? A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25%

25% **If the burn exceeds 20% to 25% TBSA, a nasogastric tube is inserted and connected to low intermittent suction. Often, patients with large burns become nauseated as a result of the gastrointestinal effects of the burn injury, such as paralytic ileus, and the effects of medication such as opioids. All patients who are intubated should have a nasogastric tube inserted to decompress the stomach and prevent vomiting.

25. A transplant rejection which usually reversible with additional or increased immunosuppressant therapy.

25. Acute

26. A transplant rejection which occurs when recipient has antibodies against donor's histocompatibility Leukocyte antigens (HLA's)

26. Hyperacute

27. Transplant rejection which requires long-term use of immunosuppressant necessary to combat the rejection

27. Acute

28. Irreversible, transplant rejection, immune-mediated injury to transplanted organ

28. Chronic

29. Hyperacute transplant rejection

29. *Humoral immunity* /*antibody-mediated immune system* 1. a rejection that usually develops immediately after the implantation of a vascular graft; may be caused by preformed, cytotoxic antibodies to the graft; 2. a form of antibody-mediated, usually irreversible damage to a transplanted organ, particularly the kidney, manifested predominantly by diffuse thrombotic lesions, usually confined to the organ itself and only rarely disseminated

30. Acute transplant rejection

30. Developing with formation of *cellular immunity*, acute rejection occurs to some degree in all transplants, except between identical twins, unless immunosuppression is achieved (usually through drugs). Acute rejection begins as early as one week after transplant, the risk being highest in the first three months, though it can occur months to years later. Highly vascular tissues such as kidney or liver often host the earliest signs—particularly at endothelial cells lining blood vessels—though it eventually occurs in roughly 10 to 30% of liver transplants, and 50 to 60% of kidney transplants. A single episode of acute rejection can be recognized and promptly treated, usually preventing organ failure, but recurrent episodes lead to chronic rejection. It is believed that the process of acute rejection is mediated by the cell mediated pathway, specifically by mononuclear macrophages and T-lymphocytes.

31. Chronic transplant rejection

31. Chronic rejection explains *long-term morbidity* in most lung-transplant recipients, the median survival roughly 4.7 years, about half the span versus other major organ transplants. In histopathology the condition is bronchiolitis obliterans, which clinically presents as progressive airflow obstruction, often involving dyspnea and coughing, and the patient eventually succumbs to pulmonary insufficiency or secondary acute infection.

2. The nursing instructor is going over burn injuries. The instructor tells the students that the nursing care priorities for a patient with a burn injury include wound care, nutritional support, and prevention of complications such as infection. Based upon these care priorities, the instructor is most likely discussing a patient in what phase of burn care? A) Emergent B) Immediate resuscitative C) Acute D) Rehabilitation

ACUTE **The acute or intermediate phase of burn care follows the emergent/resuscitative phase and begins 48 to 72 hours after the burn injury. During this phase, attention is directed toward continued assessment and maintenance of respiratory and circulatory status, fluid and electrolyte balance, and gastrointestinal function. Infection prevention, burn wound care (ie, wound cleaning, topical antibacterial therapy, wound dressing, dressing changes, wound debridement, and wound grafting), pain management, and nutritional support are priorities at this stage and are discussed in detail in the following sections. Priorities during the emergent or immediate resuscitative phase include first aid, prevention of shock and respiratory distress, detection and treatment of concomitant injuries, and initial wound assessment and care. The priorities during the rehabilitation phase include prevention of scars and contractures, rehabilitation, functional and cosmetic reconstruction, and psychosocial counseling.

24. You have just reported to the burn unit to start your shift. Four new patients have been admitted in the past 12 hours. Which patient is most likely to have life-threatening complications? A) A 4-year-old scald victim burned over 24% of the body B) A 27-year-old healthy male burned over 36% of his body in a car accident C) A 39-year-old female with myasthenia gravis burned over 18% of her body D) A 60-year-old male burned over 16% of his body in a brush fire

A 4 YEAR OLD SCALD VICTIM BURNED OVER 24% FO THE BODY **Young children and the elderly continue to have increased morbidity and mortality when compared to other age groups with similar injuries and present a challenge for burn care. This is an important factor when determining the severity of injury and possible outcome for the patient.

23. A 45-year-old man is brought in by Life-Flight after a motor vehicle accident is which he was trapped in a burning vehicle. The burn team is estimating the patient's likelihood of survival based on the severity of the burn injury. The emergency department nurse knows that the severity of the injury is based on what factors? (Mark all that apply.) A) Age B) Depth of the burn C) Presence of inhalation injury D) Family support E) Psychological state of the patient

A, B, C AGE, DEPTH OF THE BURN, PRESENCE OF INHALATION INJURY **The severity of each burn injury is determined by multiple factors that when assessed help the burn team estimate the likelihood that a patient will survive and plan the care for each patient. These factors include age of the patient; depth of the burn; amount of surface area of the body that is burned; presence of inhalation injury; presence of other injuries; location of the injury in special care areas such as the face, perineum, hands, and feet; and presence of a past medical history. Options D and E are not factors that bear on the severity of the injury.

Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse interpret as representing neurogenic shock in a patient with acute spinal cord injury? A) Bradycardia B) Hypertension C) Neurogenic spasticity D) Bounding pedal pulses

Correct Answer(s): A Neurogenic shock is due to the loss of vasomotor tone caused by injury and is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. Loss of sympathetic innervation causes peripheral vasodilation, venous pooling, and a decreased cardiac output.

32. As the patient begins the acute phase of a burn, cautious administration of fluids and electrolytes continues. The nurse knows that this caution is because of what? (Mark all that apply.) A) Patient is considered in critical condition B) Cardiac function is decreased C) Patient's physiologic responses to the burn injury D) Losses of fluid from large burn wounds E) Shifts in fluid from the interstitial to the intravascular compartment

C) Patient's physiologic responses to the burn injury D) Losses of fluid from large burn wounds E) Shifts in fluid from the interstitial to the intravascular compartment **Cautious administration of fluids and electrolytes continues during this phase of burn care because of the shifts in fluid from the interstitial to the intravascular compartment, losses of fluid from large burn wounds, and the patient's physiologic responses to the burn injury.

12. An emergency department nurse learns from the paramedics that they are transporting a patient who has suffered injury from a scald from a hot kettle. What factors does the nurse know are considered when determining the depth of burn? A) Causative agent B) Visual observation of burned area C) Area of body burned D) Circumstances of the accident

CAUSATIVE AGENT **The following factors are considered in determining the depth of a burn: how the injury occurred, causative agent (such as flame or scalding liquid), temperature of the burning agent, duration of contact with the agent, and thickness of the skin. To determine the depth of the burn you do not take into consideration you visual observation of the burned area, how much of the body is burned, or the circumstances of the accident.

34. A nurse is caring for a patient during the acute phase of the burn. The nurse knows he is responsible for what? A) Restricting visitors to prevent infection B) Closely scrutinizing the burn wound to detect early signs of infection C) Cleaning the patient's room D) Maintaining the patient in a sterile environment

CLOSELY SCRUTINIZING THE BURN WOUND TO DETECT EARLY SIGNS OF INFECTION **The nurse is responsible for providing a clean and safe environment and for closely scrutinizing the burn wound to detect early signs of infection. Visitors are not restricted to a burn patient. The nurse does not clean the patient's room. The patient is maintained in a clean environment, not a sterile environment.

15. The nurse is teaching a patient with a partial-thickness wound how to wear his elastic pressure garment. How would the nurse instruct the patient to wear this garment? A) 4 to 6 hours a day for 6 months B) Daily for 2 to 3 months after the injury C) Continuously D) At night while sleeping for a year after the injury

CONTINUOUSLY Garments are worn continuously (ie, 23 hours a day).

Nurse is assessing a patient who has a spinal cord injury?Which should the nurse include in the nervous system assessment to determine the extent of the patient's injury? select all that apply. a. vital sign b. romberg test c. plantar reflexes d. bilatereal hand grasps e. description of trauma

Correct Answer (s): a, c, d, e the assessment to determine the level of spinal cord injury includes analyzing the -vital sign, plantar reflexes, bilatereal hand grasp, description of trauma. Romberg test must be performed while standing therefore not suitable for unstable patient

A 25-year-old patient has returned home following extensive rehabilitation for a C8 spinal cord injury. The home care nurse visits and notices that the patient's spouse and parents are performing many of the activities of daily living (ADLs) that the patient had been managing during rehabilitation. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to a. tell the family members that the patient can perform ADLs independently. b. remind the patient about the importance of independence in daily activities. c. recognize that it is important for the patient's family to be involved in the patient's care and support their activities. d. develop a plan to increase the patient's independence in consultation with the with the patient, spouse, and parents.

Correct Answer((s): D Rationale: The best action by the nurse will be to involve all the parties in developing an optimal plan of care. Because family members who will be assisting with the patient's ongoing care need to feel that their input is important, telling the family that the patient can perform ADLs independently is not the best choice. Reminding the patient about the importance of independence may not change the behaviors of the family members. Supporting the activities of the spouse and parents will lead to ongoing dependency by the patient.

A male patient has a pinal cord injury at L 1-2 . Which clinical manifestation of the patient's injury is the nurse likely to observe before spinal shock resolves? A. opoiod analgesic Iv for foot pain B. able to blance in sitting position C. unresponsive quadriceps muscle D. requites asssist control ventilation

Correct Answer(s) : C during spinal shock neuromuscular function is lost below the level of the injury along with hyporeflexia and loss of sensation. So the pt will not be able to sit until the pinal shock resolves.

A patient with a paraplegia resulting from a T10 spinal cord injury has a neurogenic reflex bladder. When the nurse develops a plan of care for this problem, which nursing action will be most appropriate? a. Teaching the patient how to self-catheterize b. Assisting the patient to the toilet q2-3hr c. Use of the Credé method to empty the bladder d. Catheterization for residual urine after voiding

Correct Answer(s): A Rationale: Because the patient's bladder is spastic and will empty in response to overstretching of the bladder wall, the most appropriate method is to avoid incontinence by emptying the bladder at regular intervals through intermittent catheterization. Assisting the patient to the toilet will not be helpful because the bladder will not empty. The Credé method is more appropriate for a bladder that is flaccid, such as occurs with a reflexic neurogenic bladder. Catheterization after voiding will not resolve the patient's incontinence.

A patient who sustained a T1 spinal cord injury a week ago refuses to discuss the injury and becomes verbally abusive to the nurses and other staff. The patient demands to be transferred to another hospital, where "they know what they are doing." The best response by the nurse to the patient's behavior is to a. ask for the patient's input into the plan for care. b. clarify that abusive behavior will not be tolerated. c. reassure the patient that the anger will pass and rehabilitation will then progress. d. ignore the patient's anger and continue to perform needed assessments and care.

Correct Answer(s): A Rationale: The patient is demonstrating behaviors consistent with the anger phase of the mourning process, and the nurse should allow expression of anger and seek the patient's input into care. Expression of anger is appropriate at this stage and should be tolerated by the nurse. Refusal to acknowledge the patient's anger by telling the patient that the anger is just a phase is inappropriate. Continuing to perform needed assessments and care is appropriate, but the nurse should seek the patient's input into what care is needed.

Which of the following signs and symptoms in a patient with a T4 spinal cord injury should alert the nurse to the possibility of autonomic dysreflexia? A) Headache and rising blood pressure B) Irregular respirations and shortness of breath C) Decreased level of consciousness or hallucinations D) Abdominal distention and absence of bowel sounds

Correct Answer(s): A Among the manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia are hypertension (up to 300 mm Hg systolic) and a throbbing headache. Respiratory manifestations, decreased level of consciousness, and gastrointestinal manifestations are not characteristic.

Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform in the acute care of a patient with autonomic dysreflexia? A) Urinary catheterization B) Administration of benzodiazepines C) Suctioning of the patient's upper airway D) Placement of the patient in the Trendelenburg position

Correct Answer(s): A Because the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is bladder irritation, immediate catheterization to relieve bladder distention may be necessary. The patient should be positioned upright. Benzodiazepines are contraindicated and suctioning is likely unnecessary.

A patient with a history of a T2 spinal cord tells the nurse, "I feel awful today. My head is throbbing, and I feel sick to my stomach." Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patient's health care provider. b. Check the blood pressure (BP). c. Give the ordered antiemetic. d. Assess for a fecal impaction.

Correct Answer(s): B Rationale: The BP should be assessed immediately in a patient with an injury at the T6 level or higher who complains of a headache to determine whether autonomic dysreflexia is causing the symptoms, including hypertension. Notification of the patient's health care provider is appropriate after the BP is obtained. Administration of an antiemetic is indicated after autonomic dysreflexia is ruled out as the cause of the nausea. The nurse may assess for a fecal impaction, but this should be done after checking the BP and lidocaine jelly should be used to prevent further increases in the BP.

When caring for a patient who had a C8 spinal cord injury 10 days ago and has a weak cough effort, bibasilar crackles, and decreased breath sounds, the initial intervention by the nurse should be to a. administer oxygen at 7 to 9 L/min with a face mask. b. place the hands on the epigastric area and push upward when the patient coughs. c. encourage the patient to use an incentive spirometer every 2 hours during the day. d. suction the patient's oral and pharyngeal airway.

Correct Answer(s): B Rationale: The nurse has identified that the cough effort is poor, so the initial action should be to use assisted coughing techniques to improve the ability to mobilize secretions. Administration of oxygen will improve oxygenation, but the data do not indicate hypoxemia, and oxygen will not help expel respiratory secretions. The use of the spirometer may improve respiratory status, but the patient's ability to take deep breaths is limited by the loss of intercostal muscle function. Suctioning may be needed if the patient is unable to expel secretions by coughing but should not be the nurse's first action.

A patient with a T1 spinal cord injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse will teach the patient and family that a. use of the shoulders will be preserved. b. full function of the patient's arms will be retained. c. total loss of respiratory function may occur temporarily. d. elevations in heart rate are common with this type of injury.

Correct Answer(s): B Rationale: The patient with a T1 injury can expect to retain full motor and sensory function of the arms. Use of only the shoulders is associated with cervical spine injury. Total loss of respiratory function occurs with injuries above the C4 level and is permanent. Bradycardia is associated with injuries above the T6 level.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a spinal cord injury following a motor vehicle accident. The patient exhibits a complete loss of motor, sensory, and reflex activity below the injury level. The nurse recognizes this condition as which of the following? A) Central cord syndrome B) Spinal shock syndrome C) Anterior cord syndrome D) Brown-Séquard

Correct Answer(s): B About 50% of people with acute spinal cord injury experience a temporary loss of reflexes, sensation, and motor activity that is known as spinal shock. Central cord syndrome is manifested by motor and sensory loss greater in the upper extremities than the lower extremities. Anterior cord syndrome results in motor and sensory loss but not reflexes. Brown-Séquard syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral loss of motor function and contralateral loss of sensory function.

The nurse is caring for a man who has experienced a spinal cord injury. Throughout his recovery, the client expects to gain control of his bowels. The nurse's best response to this client would be which of the following? a. "Over time, the nerve fibers will regrow new tracts, and you can have bowel movements again." b. "Wearing an undergarment will become more comfortable over time." c "Having a bowel movement is a spinal reflex requiring intact nerve fibers. Yours are not intact." d "It is not going to happen. Your nerve cells are too damaged."

Correct Answer(s: ) C Having a bowel movement is a spinal reflex requiring intact nerve fibers. Yours are not intact The act of defecation is a spinal reflex involving the parasympathetic nerve fibers. Normally, the external anal sphincter is maintained in a state of tonic contraction. With a spinal cord injury, the client no longer has this nervous system control and is often incontinent.

The nurse admnisters methylprenisone(Solu-Medrol) as a continous IV fusion to a male patient who has fractures of the cervical vertebrae. Which intervention would prevent or detect adverse effects of the medication? A. record pt baseline weight B. adminster PPI( proton pump inhibitor) C. Check the hear rate for bradycardia D. suction the patient's oropharynx

Correct Answer(s): B the nurse should adminster PPI because they are at high risk for Gi erosion and bleeding. from the steroid.

When caring for a patient who was admitted 24 hours previously with a C5 spinal cord injury, which nursing action has the highest priority? a. Continuous cardiac monitoring for bradycardia b. Administration of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) infusion c. Assessment of respiratory rate and depth d. Application of pneumatic compression devices to both legs

Correct Answer(s): C Rationale: Edema around the area of injury may lead to damage above the C4 level, so the highest priority is assessment of the patient's respiratory function. The other actions are also appropriate but are not as important as assessment of respiratory effort.

The health care provider orders administration of IV methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) for the first 24 hours to a patient who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T10 level 3 hours ago. When evaluating the effectiveness of the medication the nurse will assess a. blood pressure and heart rate. b. respiratory effort and O2 saturation. c. motor and sensory function of the legs. d. bowel sounds and abdominal distension.

Correct Answer(s): C Rationale: The purpose of methylprednisolone administration is to help preserve neurologic function; therefore, the nurse will assess this patient for lower-extremity function. Sympathetic nervous system dysfunction occurs with injuries at or above T6, so monitoring of BP and heart rate will not be useful in determining the effectiveness of the medication. Respiratory and GI function will not be impaired by a T10 injury, so assessments of these systems will not provide information about whether the medication is effective.

In which order will the nurse perform the following actions when caring for a patient with possible cervical spinal cord trauma who is admitted to the emergency department? a. Administer O2 using a non-rebreathing mask. b. Monitor cardiac rhythm and blood pressure. c. Immobilize the patient's head, neck, and spine. d. Transfer the patient to radiology for spinal CT.

Correct Answer(s): C, A, B, D Rationale: The first action should be to prevent further injury by stabilizing the patient's spinal cord. Maintenance of oxygenation by administration of 100% O2 is the second priority. Because neurogenic shock is a possible complication, continuous monitoring of heart rhythm and BP is indicated. CT scan to determine the extent and level of injury is needed once initial assessment and stabilization is accomplished.

A patient with a neck fracture at the C5 level is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) following initial treatment in the emergency room. During initial assessment of the patient, the nurse recognizes the presence of spinal shock on finding a. hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities. b. involuntary, spastic movements of the arms and legs. c. the presence of hyperactive reflex activity below the level of the injury. d. flaccid paralysis and lack of sensation below the level of the injury.

Correct Answer(s): D Rationale: Clinical manifestations of spinal shock include decreased reflexes, loss of sensation, and flaccid paralysis below the area of injury. Hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities are evidence of neurogenic shock. Involuntary spastic movements and hyperactive reflexes are not seen in the patient at this stage of spinal cord injury.

A 26-year-old patient with a C8 spinal cord injury tells the nurse, "My wife and I have always had a very active sex life, and I am worried that she may leave me if I cannot function sexually." The most appropriate response by the nurse to the patient's comment is to a. advise the patient to talk to his wife to determine how she feels about his sexual function. b. tell the patient that sildenafil (Viagra) helps to decrease erectile dysfunction in patients with spinal cord injury. c. inform the patient that most patients with upper motor neuron injuries have reflex erections. d. suggest that the patient and his wife work with a nurse specially trained in sexual counseling.

Correct Answer(s): D Rationale: Maintenance of sexuality is an important aspect of rehabilitation after spinal cord injury and should be handled by someone with expertise in sexual counseling. Although the patient should discuss these issues with his wife, open communication about this issue may be difficult without the assistance of a counselor. Sildenafil does assist with erectile dysfunction after spinal cord injury, but the patient's sexuality is not determined solely by the ability to have an erection. Reflex erections are common after upper motor neuron injury, but these erections are uncontrolled and cannot be maintained during coitus.

The nurse discusses long-range goals with a patient with a C6 spinal cord injury. An appropriate patient outcome is a. transfers independently to a wheelchair. b. drives a car with powered hand controls. c. turns and repositions self independently when in bed. d. pushes a manual wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces.

Correct Answer(s): D Rationale: The patient with a C6 injury will be able to use the hands to push a wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces. Because flexion of the thumb and fingers is minimal, the patient will not be able to grasp a wheelchair during transfer, drive a car with powered hand controls, or turn independently in bed.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted 1 week ago with an acute spinal cord injury. Which of the following assessment findings would alert the nurse to the presence of autonomic dysreflexia? A) Tachycardia B) Hypotension C) Hot, dry skin D) Throbbing headache

Correct Answer(s): D Autonomic dysreflexia is related to reflex stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system reflected by hypertension, bradycardia, throbbing headache, and diaphoresis.

When planning care for a patient with a C5 spinal cord injury, which nursing diagnosis is the highest priority? A) Risk for impairment of tissue integrity caused by paralysis B) Altered patterns of urinary elimination caused by quadriplegia C) Altered family and individual coping caused by the extent of trauma D) Ineffective airway clearance caused by high cervical spinal cord injury

Correct Answer(s): D Maintaining a patent airway is the most important goal for a patient with a high cervical fracture. Although all of these are appropriate nursing diagnoses for a patient with a spinal cord injury, respiratory needs are always the highest priority. Remember the ABCs.

A female nurse is injured in an automobile accident and suffers acute compresssion of the anterior apinal cord at T8-10 Which nursing rols is a potential source of employment for the patients after completing rehabilitation ? A. Certified nurse practioner B. Community health nursing C. Hospital case mangement D. Inpatient behavioral health

Correct C. Hospital case management(s) the nurse in most likely to have an anterior cord syndrome resulting in the loss of neuromuscular and pain and temp sensation below t8. Pt will have full use of upper extremities , upper back, and resp muscles.thus she will be in a wheel chair.

A 25-yr old male pt who is a professional motorcross racer has anterior spinal cord syndrome at T10. His history includes tobacco use, alcohol abuse, marijuana abuse. What is the nurse's priority during rehabilation? A. Monitor the patient 4 times an hour B. Encourage him to verbalize feeling. C. Prevent urniary tract infection D. Teach about using gastrocolic reflex

Correct answer(s) B The pt is at high risk for depression and self-injury because he is likely to lose function below the umblicus . resulting in loss motor function. In addition he will need to be in a wheelchair, impaired sexual function, and can not use tobacco, alcohol, marijuana abuse for coping.

13. Patients with a heart transplantation are at rick for which of the following complication in the first year after transplantation? (select all that apply) a. Cancer b. Infection c. Rejection d. Vasculopathy e. Sudden Cardiac Death

Correct answers: b, c, e b. Infection c. Rejection e. Sudden Cardiac Death Rationale: A variety of complications can occur after heart transplantation. In the first year after transplantation, the major causes of death are acute rejection and infection. Heart transplant recipients also are at risk for sudden cardiac death. Later, malignancy (especially lymphoma) and cardiac vasculopathy (accelerated coronary artery disease) are major causes of death.

27. An emergency department nurse has just received a burn victim brought in by ambulance. The paramedics have started a large-bore IV and covered the burn in cool towels. The burn is estimated as covering 24% of the patient's body. The nurse knows that pathophysiologic changes resulting from major burns during the initial burn-shock period include what? A) Hyper-dynamic anabolism B) Hyper-metabolic catabolism C) Decreased cardiac output D) Organ hyper-function

DECREASED CARDIAC OUTPUT **Pathophysiologic changes resulting from major burns during the initial burn-shock period include tissue hypo-perfusion and organ hypo-function secondary to decreased cardiac output, followed by a hyper-dynamic and hyper-metabolic phase. Options A and B are distracters for this question.

26. A burn victim is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit to stabilize and begin fluid resuscitation before transport to the burn center. If inadequate fluid resuscitation occurs what happens to the patient? A) Becomes unresponsive B) Distributive shock C) Death D) Hypovolemic shock

DISTRIBUTIVE SHOCK Prompt fluid resuscitation maintains the blood pressure in the low-normal range and improves cardiac output. Despite adequate fluid resuscitation, cardiac filling pressures (central venous pressure, pulmonary artery pressure, and pulmonary artery wedge pressure) remain low during the burn-shock period. If inadequate fluid resuscitation occurs, distributive shock occurs

31. The acute phase of the burn begins 48 to 72 hours after the burn. What begins at this time? A) Cardiac output decreases B) Renal failure begins C) Diuresis D) Fluid moves from intravascular compartment to interstitial spaces

DIURESIS **As capillaries regain integrity, 48 or more hours after the burn, fluid moves from the interstitial to the intravascular compartment and diuresis begins. Cardiac output should increase and renal output should increase.

8. A patient has sustained a severe burn injury and is thought to have an impaired intestinal mucosal barrier. Since this patient is considered at an increased risk for infection, what intervention will assist in avoiding increased intestinal permeability and prevent early endotoxin translocation? A) Early enteral feeding B) Administration of prophylactic antibiotics C) Bowel cleansing procedures D) Administration of stool softeners

EARLY AND ENTERAL FEEDING **If the intestinal mucosa receives some type of protection against permeability change, infection could be avoided. Early enteral feeding is one step to help avoid this increased intestinal permeability and prevent early endotoxin translocation. Antibiotics are seldom prescribed prophylactically because of the risk of promoting resistant strains of bacteria. A bowel cleansing procedure would not be ordered for this patient. The administration of stool softeners would not assist in avoiding increased intestinal permeability and prevent early endotoxin translocation.

9. A patient has been admitted to a burn intensive care unit with extensive full-thickness burns over 25% of the body. What would be the nurse's priority concern about this patient? A) Fluid status B) Risk of infection C) Body image D) Level of pain

FLUID STATUS **During the early phase of burn care, the nurse is most concerned with fluid resuscitation, to correct large-volume fluid loss through the damaged skin. Infection, body image, and pain are significant areas of concern, but are less urgent than fluid status.

1. A patient is brought to the Emergency Department from the site of a chemical fire. The paramedics report that the patient has a burn that involves the epidermis, dermis, and the muscle and bone of the right arm. When you assess the patient he verbalizes no pain in the right arm and the skin appears charred. Based upon these assessment findings, what is the depth of the burn on the patient's right arm? A) Superficial partial-thickness B) Deep partial-thickness C) Full partial-thickness D) Full-thickness

FULL THICKNESS **A full-thickness burn involves total destruction of the epidermis and dermis and, in some cases, underlying tissue as well. Wound color ranges widely from white to red, brown, or black. The burned area is painless because the nerve fibers are destroyed. The wound can appear leathery; hair follicles and sweat glands are destroyed. Edema may also be present. Full partial thickness is not a depth of burn. Superficial partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and possibly a portion of the dermis and the patient will experience pain that is soothed by cooling. Deep partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis, upper dermis, and portion of the deeper dermis and the patient will complain of pain and sensitivity to cold air.

25. A burn patient is brought to the emergency department. The nurse knows that the first systemic event after a major burn injury is what? A) Hemodynamic instability B) Metabolic acidosis C) Hypovolemia D) Hyperkalcemia

HEMODYNAMIC INSTABILITY **The initial systemic event after a major burn injury is hemodynamic instability, which results from loss of capillary integrity and a subsequent shift of fluid, sodium, and protein from the intravascular space into the interstitial spaces. Options B, C, and D occur, they are just not the first event to happen.

20. Grafts taken from one body and grafted onto another body are called what? A) Allograft B) Homograft C) Heterograft D) Autograft

HOMOGRAFT **Homografts are grafts derived from one person's body and used on another part of a different person's body.

A nurse is caring for a critically ill patient with autonomic dysreflexia. What clinical manifestations would the nurse expect in this patient? A) Respiratory distress and projectile vomiting B) Bradycardia and hypertension C) Tachycardia and agitation D) Third-spacing and hyperthermia

b

3. A patient in the emergent/resuscitative phase of a burn injury has had her lab work drawn. Upon analysis of the patient's laboratory studies, the nurse will expect the results to indicate what? A) Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematocrit, and metabolic acidosis B) Hypokalemia, hypernatremia, decreased hematocrit, and metabolic acidosis C) Hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, decreased hematocrit, and metabolic alkalosis D) Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, elevated hematrocrit, and metabolic alkalosis

HYPERKALEMIA, HYPONATREMIA, ELEVATED HEMATOCRIT AND METABOLIC ACIDOSIS **Fluid and electrolyte changes in the emergent/resuscitative phase of a burn injury include hyperkalemia related to the release of potassium into the extracellular fluid, hyponatremia from large amount of sodium lost in trapped edema fluid, hemoconcentration that leads to an increased hematocrit, and loss of bicarbonate ions that results in metabolic acidosis.

30. A nurse on the burn unit is caring for a patient who has gone into the acute phase of her burn. What would be important for the nurse to monitor the patient for? A) Hypometabolism B) Hyponatremia C) Hyperkalemia D) Hypoglycemia

HYPONATREMIA **Hyponatremia is common during the first week of the acute phase, as water shifts from the interstitial space to the vascular space. Hypermetabolism can occur up to 1 year after the burn. Hyperkalemia occurs in the emergent phase of the burn. In a burn patient there is a hyperglycemic response, not a hypoglycemic response.

14. The triage nurse in the emergency department (ED) receives a phone call from a frantic father who saw his 4-year-old child tip a pot of boiling water onto her chest. The father has called an ambulance. What would the nurse in the ED receiving the call instruct the father to do? A) Cover the burn with ice and secure with a towel. B) Apply butter to the area that is burned. C) Immerse the child in a cool bath. D) Avoid touching the burned area and seek medical attention.

IMMERSE THE CHILD IN A COOL BATH **After the flames or heat source have been removed or extinguished, the burned area and adherent clothing are soaked with cool water briefly to cool the wound and halt the burning process. Cool water is the best first-aid measure. You do not put ice on the burn, nor do you put butter on the burn. You do not need to avoid touching the burn.

29. A patient is admitted to the burn unit after being transported from a facility 1000 miles away. The patient has burns to the groin area and both legs. The burns to the lower legs are circumferential. The nurse knows to monitor closely for what as the edema in this patient increases? A) Ischemia B) Eschar C) Hyper-profusion to the burned area D) Increased fluid loss through the burned area

ISCHEMIA **As edema increases, pressure on small blood vessels and nerves in the distal extremities causes an obstruction of blood flow and consequent ischemia. This complication is similar to compartment syndrome. The physician may need to perform an escharotomy, a surgical incision into the eschar (devitalized tissue resulting from a burn), to relieve the constricting effect of the burned tissue.

4. The patient you are caring for has an electrical burn and has developed thick eschar over the burn wound. Which of the following topical antibacterial agents will the nurse expect the physician to order for the wound? A) Silver sulfadiazine 1% (Silvadene) water-soluble cream B) Mafenide acetate 10% (Sulfamylon) hydrophilic-based cream C) Silver nitrate 0.5% aqueous solution D) Acticoat

MAFENIDE ACETATE 10% (SULFAMYLON) HYDROPHILIC-BASED CREAM **Mafenide acetate 10% hydrophilic-based cream is the agent of choice for electrical burns because of its ability to penetrate thick eschar.

19. The nursing students are doing clinical hours on the burn unit. A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient with a partial-thickness burn, and determines that an appropriate goal is to maintain position of joints in alignment. A nursing student asks why this goal is important when the patient is fighting for his life. What should the burn nurse respond? A) To prevent neuropathies B) To prevent wound breakdown C) To prevent contractures D) To prevent heterotopic ossification

PREVENT CONTRACTURES **To prevent the complication of contractures the nurse will establish a goal to maintain position of joints in alignment. Gentle range of motion exercises and a consult to PT and OT for exercises and positioning recommendations are also appropriate interventions for the prevention of contractures.

18. The nursing instructor is teaching about the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury. During this phase, what would the nursing instructor tell the students they should closely monitor in the laboratory values? A) Sodium deficit B) Bleeding time C) Potassium deficit D) Decreased hematocrit

SODIUM DEFICIT **Anticipated fluid and electrolyte changes that occur during the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury include potassium excess, sodium deficit, base-bicarbonate deficit, and elevated hematocrit.

33. What is the nursing goal during the acute phase of a burn? A) To ultimately prevent or control infection in the burn population B) To prevent hypervolemia in the burn population C) To manage pain in a proactive way for the patient's comfort D) To provide emotional support as the changes in body image become internalized in the patient

TO ULTIMATELY PREVENT OR CONTROL INFECTION IN THE BURN POPULAITON **The nursing goal is to provide protection and safety in the patients' environment to ultimately prevent or control infection in the burn population. This makes options B, C, and D incorrect.

11. A patient with a partial-thickness burn injury had Biobrane applied 2 weeks ago. The nurse notices that the Biobrane is separating from the burn wound. What is the appropriate nursing intervention when this separation occurs? A) Reinforce the Biobrane dressing with another piece of Biobrane. B) Remove the Biobrane dressing and apply a new dressing. C) Trim away the separated Biobrane. D) Notify the physician for further emergency related orders.

TRIM AWAY THE SEPARATED BIOBRANE **As the Biobrane gradually separates, it is trimmed, leaving a healed wound. When the Biobrane dressing adheres to the wound, the wound remains stable and the Biobrane can remain in place for 3 to 4 weeks. You would not reinforce the Biobrane, or remove it and apply a new dressing. Nor would you notify the physician for further orders.

The staff educator is precepting a nurse new to the critical care unit when a patient with a T2 spinal cord injury is admitted. The patient is soon exhibiting manifestations of neurogenic shock. In addition to monitoring the patient closely, what would be the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Prepare to transfuse packed red blood cells. B) Prepare for interventions to increase the patient's BP. C) Place the patient in the Trendelenberg position. D) Prepare an ice bath to lower core body temperature.

b

10. The nurse is preparing the patient for mechanical debridement and informs the patient that this will involve: A) A spontaneous separation of dead tissue from the viable tissue B) Use of surgical scissors, scalpels or forceps to remove the eschar until the point of pain and bleeding occurs C) Shaving of burned skin layers until bleeding, viable tissue is revealed D) Early closure of the wound

USE OF SURGICAL SCISSORS, SCALPELS OR FORCEPS TO REMOVE THE ESCHAR UNTIL THE POINT OF PAIN AND BLEEDING OCCURS **Mechanical debridement can be achieved through the use of surgical scissors, scalpels, or forceps to remove the eschar until the point of pain and bleeding occurs. Mechanical debridement can also be accomplished through the use of topical enzymatic debridement agents. The spontaneous separation of dead tissue from the viable tissue is an example of natural debridement. Early wound closure and shaving the burned skin layers are examples of surgical debridement.

5. The occupational health nurse is called to the floor of the factory where a patient has sustained a flash burn to the right arm. The nurse arrives and the flames have been extinguished. The next step is to "cool the burn." How will the nurse cool the burn? A) Apply ice to the site of the burn for 5 to 10 minutes. B) Wrap the patient's affected extremity in ice until help arrives. C) Apply an oil-based substance or butter to the burned area until help arrives. D) Wrap cool towels around the affected extremity intermittently.

WRAP COOL TOWELS AROUND AFFECTED EXTREMITY INTERMITTANTLY **Once the burn has been sustained, the application of cool water is the best first-aid measure. Soaking the burn area intermittently in cool water or applying cool towels gives immediate and striking relief from pain and limits local tissue edema and damage. However, never apply ice directly to the burn, never wrap the person in ice, and never use cold soaks or dressings for longer than several minutes; such procedures may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in people with large burns.

21. A nurse taking care of a burn patient is asked why the patient is losing so much weight. What would be the nurse's most appropriate answer? A) "Your body has built up extra fat deposits even though you haven't been eating very much." B) "Your body has used your fat deposits for fuel because you haven't been eating very much." C) Your reserve fat deposits have been catabolized because you have been eating so much." D) You have lost fluids and you haven't eaten very much."

YOUR BODY HAS USED YOUR FAT DEPOSITS FOR FUEL BECAUSE YOU HAVEN'T BEEN EATING VERY MUCH **Patients lose a great deal of weight during recovery from severe burns. Reserve fat deposits are catabolized, fluids are lost, and caloric intake may be limited.

A patient with a T2 injury is in spinal shock. The nurse will expect to observe what assessment finding? A) Absence of reflexes along with flaccid extremities B) Positive Babinski's reflex along with spastic extremities C) Hyperreflexia along with spastic extremities D) Spasticity of all four extremities

a

The nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) caused by a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following clinical manifestations would suggest that the patient may be experiencing increased brain compression causing brain stem damage? A) Hyperthermia B) Tachycardia C) Hypertension D) Bradypnea

a

6. A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute rejection of a kidney transplant. The nurse will anticipate a. administration of immunosuppressant medications. b. insertion of an arteriovenous graft for hemodialysis. c. placement of the patient on the transplant waiting list. d. drawing blood for human leukocyte antigen (HLA) and ABO compatibility matching.

a. administration of immunosuppressant medications ANS: A Acute rejection is treated with the administration of additional immunosuppressant drugs such as corticosteroids. Because acute rejection is reversible, there is no indication that the patient will require another transplant, hemodialysis, or HLA/ABO testing. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 229-230

4. A patient who received a bone marrow transplant for treatment of leukemia develops a skin rash 10 days after the transplant. The nurse recognizes this reaction as an indication that the: a.donor T cells are attacking the patient's skin cells. b. patient's antibodies are rejecting the donor bone marrow. c. patient is experiencing a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. d. patient will need treatment to prevent hyperacute rejection.

a. donor T cells are attacking the patient's skin cells. The patient's history and symptoms indicate that the patient is experiencing graft-versus-host disease, in which the donated T cells attack the patient's tissues. The history and symptoms are not consistent with rejection or delayed hypersensitivity. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 232

16. The nurse plans long-term goals for the patient who has had a heart transplant with the knowledge that a common cause of death in heart transplant patients during the first year is: a. infection b. heart failure. c. embolization d. malignant conditions

a. infection Because of the need for long-term immunosuppressant therapy to prevent rejection, the patient with a transplant is at high risk for infection, a leading cause of death in transplant patients. Acute rejection episodes may also cause death in patients with transplants, but can be successfully treated with augmented immunosuppressive therapy. Malignancies occur in patients with organ transplants after taking immunosuppressants for a number of years.

11. In a person having an acute rejection of a transplanted kidney, which of the following would help the nurse understand the course of events? (Select all that apply) a. A new transplant should be considered b. Acute rejection can be treated with OKT3 c. Acute rejection usually leads to chronic rejection d. Corticosteroids are the most successful drugs used to treat acute rejection. e. Acute rejection is common after a transplant and can be treated with drug therapy.

b,e B. Acute rejection can be treated with OKT3 E. Acute rejection is common after a transplant and can be treated with drug therapy. Rationale: Acute rejection is treatable and does not usually require a new transplant. Monoclonal antibodies such as Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3) are used for preventing and treating acute rejection episodes. Calcineurin inhibitors are the most effective immunosuppressants available to treat organ rejection. It is not uncommon to have at least one acute rejection episode, especially with organs from deceased donors. These episodes are usually reversible with additional immunosuppressive therapy that may include increased corticosteroid doses or polyclonal or monoclonal antibodies.

8. A 55-year-old with Stage D heart failure and type 2 diabetes asks the nurse whether heart transplant is a possible therapy. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Since you are diabetic, you would not be a candidate for a heart transplant." b. "The choice of a patient for a heart transplant depends on many different factors." c. "Your heart failure has not reached the stage in which heart transplants are considered." d. "People who have heart transplants are at risk for multiple complications after surgery."

b. "The choice of a patient for a heart transplant depends on many different factors." ANS: B Indications for a heart transplant include end-stage heart failure, but other factors such as coping skills, family support, and patient motivation to follow the rigorous posttransplant regimen are also considered. Diabetic patients who have well-controlled blood glucose levels may be candidates for heart transplant. Although heart transplants can be associated with many complications, this response does not address the patient's question. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 814

17. Currently, histocompatibility leukocyte antigen (HLA) typing can be used to : a. determine paternity and predict risk for certain diseases. b. match tissue types for transplantation and determine paternity. c. establish racial background and predict risk for certain diseases. d. predict risk for certain diseases and match tissue types for transplantation.

b. match tissue types for transplantation and determine paternity. At the current time, HLA typing is used to determine paternity and to match tissue for transplantation. As more knowledge is gain, there is a strong possibility that HLA associations with certain diseases can be specified and an individual's risk for disease identified.

12. The decision to donate one's organs or tissues can be made by person __________ death or by a person's ____________after death.

before death, a person's family after death

A patient is brought to the ED by her family after falling off the roof. A family member tells the nurse that when the patient fell she was "knocked out," but came to and "seemed okay." Now she is complaining of a severe headache and not feeling well. The care team suspects an epidural hematoma, prompting the nurse to prepare for which priority intervention? A) Insertion of an intracranial monitoring device B) Treatment with antihypertensives C) Emergency craniotomy D) Administration of anticoagulant therapy

c

The nurse planning the care of a patient with head injuries is addressing the patient's nursing diagnosis of "sleep deprivation." What action should the nurse implement? A) Administer a benzodiazepine at bedtime each night. B) Do not disturb the patient between 2200 and 0600. C) Cluster overnight nursing activities to minimize disturbances . D) Ensure that the patient does not sleep during the day.

c

The nurse recognizes that a patient with a SCI is at risk for muscle spasticity. How can the nurse best prevent this complication of an SCI? A) Position the patient in a high Fowler's position when in bed. B) Support the knees with a pillow when the patient is in bed. C) Perform passive ROM exercises as ordered. D) Administer NSAIDs as ordered.

c

3. After teaching a patient on immunosuppressant therapy after a kidney transplant about the posttransplant drug regimen, the nurse determines that *additional teaching* is needed when the patient says, a. "If I develop an acute rejection episode, I will need to have other types of drugs given IV." b. "I need to be monitored closely because I have a greater chance of developing malignant tumors." c. "After a couple of years, it is likely that I will be able to stop taking the calcineurin inhibitor." d. "The drugs are given in combination because they inhibit different aspects of transplant rejection."

c. "After a couple of years, it is likely that I will be able to stop taking the calcineurin inhibitor." The calcineurin inhibitor will need to be continued for life. The other patient statements are accurate and indicate that no further teaching is necessary about those topics. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 230-232

2. When the nurse is admitting a patient who has acute rejection of an organ transplant, which of these already admitted patients will be the most appropriate roommate? a. A patient who has viral pneumonia b. A patient with second degree burns c. A patient who is recovering from an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting d. A patient with graft-versus-host disease after a recent bone marrow transplant

c. A patient who is recovering from an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting ANS: C Treatment for a patient with acute rejection includes administration of additional immunosuppressants, and the patient should not be exposed to increased risk for infection as would occur from patients with viral pneumonia, graft-versus-host disease, and burns. There is no increased exposure to infection from a patient with anaphylaxis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 230

7. Which information about patient and donor tissue typing results for a patient who needs a kidney transplant is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Patient is Rh positive and donor is Rh negative. b. Six antigen matches are present in HLA typing. c. Results of patient-donor cross matching are positive. d. Panel of reactive antibodies (PRA) percentage is low.

c. Results of patient-donor cross matching are positive. ANS: C Positive crossmatching is an absolute contraindication to kidney transplantation, since hyperacute rejection will occur after the transplant. The other information indicates that the tissue match between the patient and potential donor is acceptable. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 229

9. When assessing a patient who had a liver transplant a week previously, the nurse obtains the following data. Which finding is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Dry lips and oral mucous b. Crackles at both lung bases c. Temperature 100.8° F (38.2° C) d. No bowel movement for 4 days

c. Temperature 100.8° F (38.2° C) ANS: C Infection risk is high in the first few months after liver transplant and fever is frequently the only sign of infection. The other patient data indicate the need for further assessment or nursing actions, but do not indicate a need for urgent action. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1088

19. A common combination of immunosuppressive agents used to prevent rejection of transplanted organs is: a. cyclosporine, sirolimus, and muromonab-CD3 b. everolimus, mycophenolate mefetil, an sirolimus c. tacrolimus, prednisone, and mycophenolate mofetil d. prednisone, polyclonal antibodies, and cyclosporine

c. tacrolimus, prednisone, and mycophenolate mofetil Standard immunotherapy involves the use of 3 different immunosuppressants that act in different ways: a calcineurin inhibitor (cyelosporin, tacrolimus), a corticosteroid, and the antimetabolite mycophenolate mofetil. Although cyclosporin is still used, tacroliums is the most frequently percribed calcineurin inhibitor.

1. A 21-year-old is dying after an automobile accident. The family members want to donate the patient's organs and ask the nurse how the decision about brain death is made. The nurse explains that the patient will be considered brain dead when a. the patient is flaccid and unresponsive. b. CPR is ineffective in restoring heartbeat. c. the patient is apneic and without brainstem reflexes. d. respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible.

c. the patient is apneic and without brainstem reflexes. The diagnosis of brain death is based on irreversible loss of all brain functions, including brainstem functions that control respirations and brainstem reflexes. The other descriptions describe other clinical manifestations associated with death but are insufficient to declare a patient brain dead. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 155

An ED nurse has just received a call from EMS that they are transporting a 17-year-old man who has just sustained a spinal cord injury (SCI). The nurse recognizes that the most common cause of this type of injury is what? A) Sports-related injuries B) Acts of violence C) Injuries due to a fall D) Motor vehicle accidents

d

The ED is notified that a 6-year-old is in transit with a suspected brain injury after being struck by a car. The child is unresponsive at this time, but vital signs are within acceptable limits. What will be the primary goal of initial therapy? A) Promoting adequate circulation B) Treating the child's increased ICP C) Assessing secondary brain injury D) Preserving brain homeostasis

d

14. A patient with cirrhosis asks the nurse about the possibility of a liver transplant. The best response by the nurse is: a. "liver transplants are only indicated in children with irreversible liver disease" b. "If you are interested in a transplant, you really should talk to your doctor about it. " c. "rejection is such a problem in liver transplants that it is seldom attempted in patients with cirrhosis. " d. "Cirrhosis is an indication for transplantation in some cases. Have you talked to your doctor about this? "

d. "Cirrhosis is an indication for transplantation in some cases. Have you talked to your doctor about this? " Liver transplantation is indicated for patients with cirrhosis as well as for many adults and children with other irreversible liver diseases. Although health care providers make the decisions regarding the patient's qualifications for transplant, nurses should be knowledgeable about the indications for transplantation and be able to discuss the patient's questions and concerns related to transplantation. Rejection is less of a problem in liver transplants than in kidney or heart transplantation.

5. A patient has a new prescription for *cyclosporine* after having a kidney transplant. Which information in the patient's health history has the most implications for planning patient teaching about the medication at this time? a. The patient restricts salt to treat prehypertension. b. The patient drinks 3 to 4 quarts of fluids every day. c. The patient has many concerns about the effects of cyclosporine. d. The patient has a glass of grapefruit juice every day for breakfast.

d. The patient has a glass of grapefruit juice every day for breakfast. ANS: D Grapefruit juice can increase the cyclosporine to toxic levels. The patient should be taught to avoid grapefruit juice. High fluid intake will not impact cyclosporine levels or renal function. Cyclosporine may cause hypertension, and the patient's many concerns should be addressed, but these are not potentially life-threatening problems. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 230

15. The evaluation team for cardiac transplantation determines that the patient who would most benefit from a new heart is: a. a 24-year-old man with Down Syndrome who has received excellent care from parents in their 60's b. a 46-year-old single woman with a limited support system who has alcohol-induced cardiomyopathy. c. a 60-year-old man with inoperable coronary artery disease who has not been compliant with lifestyle changes and rehabilitation programs. d. a 52 -year-old woman with end-stage coronary artery disease who has limited financial resources but is emotionally stable and has strong social support.

d. a 52 -year-old woman with end-stage coronary artery disease who has limited financial resources but is emotionally stable and has strong social support. The 52 year old woman does not have any contraindications for cardiac transplantation, even though she lacks the indication of adequate financial resources. The postoperative transplant regimen is complex and rigorous , and patients who have not been compliant with other treatments or who might not have the means to understand the care would NOT be good candidates. A history of drug or alcohol abuse is usually a contraindication to the heart transplantation. (This would add rationale for why "a" is not the answer.)