CS331 Exercise Questions, CS331 Exercise Questions Part 2
10) One characteristic of independent data marts is complexity for end users when they need to access data in separate data marts. This complexity is caused by not only having to access data from separate databases, but also from 1.A) the possibility of a new generation of inconsistent data systems, the data marts themselves. 2.B) lack of user training. 3.C) denormalized data. 4.D) incongruent data formats.
A
19) Data that are detailed, current, and intended to be the single, authoritative source of all decision support applications are called ________ data. 1.A) reconciled 2.B) subject 3.C) derived 4.D) detailed
A
2) The characteristic that indicates that a data warehouse is organized around key high-level entities of the enterprise is 1. A) Subject-oriented 2. B) integrated. 3. C) time-variant. 4. D) nonvolatile.
A
28) An expanded version of a star schema in which all of the tables are fully normalized is called a(n) 1.A) snowflake schema. 2.B) operational schema. 3.C) DSS schema. 4.D) complete schema.
A
34) OLAP tools that use the database as a traditional relational database are called 1.A) ROLAP tools. 2.B) MOLAP tools. 3.C) slice and dice. 4.D) none of the above.
A
5) Which of the following factors drive the need for data warehousing 1.A) Businesses need an integrated view of company information. 2.B) Informational data must be kept together with operational data. 3.C) Data warehouses generally have better security. 4.D) None of the above.
A
7) Informational systems are designed for all of the following EXCEPT 1.A) running a business in real time. 2.B) supporting decision making. 3.C) complex queries. 4.D) data mining.
A
Dynamic SQL: A) is used to generate appropriate SQL code on the fly as an application is processing. B) is quite volatile. C) is not used widely on the Internet. D) creates a less flexible application
A
Embedded SQL consists of: A) hard-coded SQL statements included in a program written in another language. B) SQL encapsulated inside of other SQL statements. C) SQL written into a front-end application. D) SQL translated to a lower-level language.
A
In SQL, a(n) ________ subquery is a type of subquery in which processing the inner query depends on data from the outer query. A) correlated B) paired C) natural D) inner
A
Informational and operational data differ in all of the following ways EXCEPT: A) level of detail. B) normalization level. C) scope of data. D) data quality.
A
Quality data can be defined as being: A) unique. B) inaccurate. C) historical. D) precise.
A
The MERGE command: A) allows one to combine the INSERT and UPDATE operations. B) allows one to combine the INSERT and DELETE operations. C) joins 2 tables together. D) none of the above.
A
The UNION clause is used to: A) combine the output from multiple queries into a single result table. B) join two tables together to form one table. C) find all rows that do not match in two tables. D) none of the above.
A
The ________ DBA view shows information about all users of the database in Oracle. A) DBA_USERS B) USERS C) DBA_VIEWS D) DBA_INDEXES
A
The major advantage of data propagation is: A) real-time cascading of data changes throughout the organization. B) duplication of non-redundant data. C) the ability to have trickle-feeds. D) none of the above.
A
The outer join syntax does not apply easily to a join condition of more than ________ tables. A) two B) three C) four D) any number of
A
User-defined transactions can improve system performance because: A) transactions are processed as sets, reducing system overhead. B) transactions are mapped to SQL statements. C) speed is improved due to query optimization. D) all of the above.
A
Which of the following is a basic method for single field transformation? A) Table lookup B) Cross-linking entities C) Cross-linking attributes D) Field-to-field communication
A
________ duplicates data across databases. A) Data propagation B) Data duplication C) Redundant replication D) A replication server
A
________ use the result of the outer query to determine the processing of the inner query. A) Correlated subqueries B) Outer subqueries C) Inner subqueries D) Subqueries
A
39) What will be returned when the following SQL query is executed? Select driver_no, count(*) as num_deliveries from deliveries group by driver_no having count(*) > 2; A) A listing of all drivers who made more than 2 deliveries as well as a count of the number of deliveries B) A listing of all drivers C) A listing of the number of deliveries greater than 2 D) A listing of all drivers who made more than 2 deliveries
A) A listing of all drivers who made more than 2 deliveries as well as a count of the number of deliveries
20) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown below? A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and cannot be both at the same time. B) A rental unit can be an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it may not be more than one at the same time. C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and could be both. D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It could be both an apartment and a house at the same time.
A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and cannot be both at the same time.
13) What does the following SQL command do? insert into Customer_T values (001,'John Smith','231 West St','Boston','MA','02115'); A) Adds a new record to the Customer_T B) Creates the Customer_T table C) Deletes the Customer_T table D) Updates the Customer_T table
A) Adds a new record to the Customer_T
10) In the figure below, the primary key for "Order Line" is which type of key? A) Composite B) Foreign C) Standard D) Grouped
A) Composite
24) Which of the following counts ONLY rows that contain a value? A) Count B) Count(*) C) Tally(*) D) Checknum
A) Count
5) ________ is a set of commands used to update and query a database. A) DML B) DDL C) DCL D) DPL
A) DML
2) Given the following entities, which of the choices below would be the most complicated? Automobile: VIN, EngineSize, NumberOfDoors, NumberOfPassengers, FuelType, Transmission SUV: VIN, EngineSize, NumberOfPassengers, NoWheelDrive, FuelType, Transmission Truck: VIN, EngineSize, NoWheelDrive, FuelType, Transmission, Payload A) Define one vehicle entity type to hold all entities. B) Define a separate entity type for each entity. C) Define a supertype called vehicle and make each of the entities subtypes. D) Keep only the Truck entity type.
A) Define one vehicle entity type to hold all entities.
15) What does the following SQL statement do? Delete from Customer_T where state = 'HI'; A) Deletes all records from customer_t where the state is equal to HI B) Removes the Customer_T table from the database C) Deletes all records from the Customer_T table D) None of the above
A) Deletes all records from customer_t where the state is equal to HI
32) To get all the customers from Hawaii sorted together, which of the following would be used? A) Order By B) Group By C) Having D) Sort
A) Order By
5) In the figure below, which of the following are subtypes of patient? A) Outpatient B) Physician C) Bed D) All of the above
A) Outpatient
22) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of database systems? A) Redundant data B) Program-data independence C) Better data quality D) Reduced program maintenance
A) Redundant data
20) What does the following SQL statement do? Select * From Customer Where Cust_Type = "Best" A) Selects all the fields from the Customer table for each row with a customer labeled "Best" B) Selects the "*" field from the Customer table for each row with a customer labeled "Best" C) Selects fields with a "*" in them from the Customer table D) Selects all the fields from the Customer table for each row with a customer labeled "*"
A) Selects all the fields from the Customer table for each row with a customer labeled "Best"
22) In the figure below, what type of relationship do the relations depict? A) Strong entity/weak entity B) Multivalued C) Composite foreign key D) One-to-many
A) Strong entity/weak entity
28) What result set will the following query return? Select Item_No from Order_V where quantity > 10; A) The Item_No of all orders that had more than 10 items B) The Order_Id of all orders that had more than one item C) The Order_Id of all orders that had more than 10 items D) The Item_No of all orders that had 10 or more items
A) The Item_No of all orders that had more than 10 items
23) What results will be produced by the following SQL query? Select sum(standard_price) as Total_Price from Product_V where Product_Type = 'WOOD'; A) The total price of all products that are of type wood B) The total price of all products C) The Standard_Price of the first wood product in the table D) The Standard_Price of any wood product in the table
A) The total price of all products that are of type wood
9) Which of the following is a completeness constraint? A) Total specialization B) Partial generalization C) Total recall D) Partial hybridization
A) Total specialization
12) The following figure is an example of: A) partial specialization. B) disjoint completeness. C) total specialization. D) transunion constraint.
A) Total specialization (Image should show partial though).
22) The following figure shows an example of: A) a composite attribute. B) a relational attribute. C) a derived attribute. D) a multivalued attribute.
A) a composite attribute.
25) In a file processing environment, descriptions for data and the logic for accessing the data are built into: A) application programs. B) database descriptors. C) fields. D) records.
A) application programs.
17) A property or characteristic of an entity type that is of interest to the organization is called a(n): A) attribute. B) coexisting entity. C) relationship. D) cross-function.
A) attribute.
19) A person's name, birthday, and social security number are all examples of: A) attributes. B) entities. C) relationships. D) descriptors.
A) attributes.
13) The value a field will assume unless the user enters an explicit value for an instance of that field is called a(n): A) default value. B) null value. C) range control. D) gurand.
A) default value.
18) In the figure below, the patient must be either an outpatient or a resident patient. This is an example of the ________ rule. A) disjoint B) specialization C) generalization D) overlap
A) disjoint
17) A ________ addresses whether an instance of a supertype may simultaneously be a member of two or more subtypes. A) disjointedness constraint B) disjoint rule C) partial specialization D) total specialization
A) disjointedness constraint
20) An advantage of partitioning is: A) efficiency. B) remote optimization. C) extra space and update time. D) both A and B.
A) efficiency.
17) In most cases, the goal of ________ dominates the design process. A) efficient data processing B) security C) quick pointer updates D) shorter design times
A) efficient data processing
11) Customers, cars, and parts are examples of: A) entities. B) attributes. C) cardinals. D) relationships.
A) entities.
9) The smallest unit of application data recognized by system software is a: A) field. B) row. C) data type. D) column.
A) field.
9) Program-data dependence is caused by: A) file descriptors being stored in each application. B) data descriptions being stored on a server. C) data descriptions being written into programming code. D) data cohabiting with programs.
A) file descriptors being stored in each application.
8) The process of defining a more general entity type from a set of more specialized entity types is called: A) generalization. B) specialization. C) normalization. D) none of the above.
A) generalization.
3) A database is an organized collection of ________ related data. A) logically B) physically C) loosely D) badly
A) logically
5) Business policies and rules govern all of the following EXCEPT: A) managing employees. B) creating data. C) updating data. D) removing data.
A) managing employees.
15) In the figure below, a student: A) must be a graduate student, an undergraduate, a special student or some other type of student. B) must be a graduate student or an undergraduate student. C) must be at least a special student. D) none of the above.
A) must be a graduate student, an undergraduate, a special student or some other type of student.
12) The entity integrity rule states that: A) no primary key attribute can be null. B) referential integrity must be maintained across all entities. C) each entity must have a primary key. D) a primary key must have only one attribute.
A) no primary key attribute can be null.
19) Understanding the steps involved in transforming EER diagrams into relations is important because: A) one must be able to check the output of a CASE tool. B) there are rarely legitimate alternatives from which to choose. C) CASE tools can model any situation. D) none of the above.
A) one must be able to check the output of a CASE tool.
15) A rule that states that each foreign key value must match a primary key value in the other relation is called the: A) referential integrity constraint. B) key match rule. C) entity key group rule. D) foreign/primary match rule.
A) referential integrity constraint.
6) The process of defining one or more subtypes of a supertype and forming relationships is called: A) specialization. B) generalization. C) creating discord. D) selecting classes.
A) specialization.
4) Subtypes should be used when: A) there are attributes that apply to some but not all instances of an entity type. B) supertypes relate to objects outside the business. C) the instances of a subtype do not participate in a relationship that is unique to that subtype. D) none of the above.
A) there are attributes that apply to some but not all instances of an entity type.
5) Database access frequencies are estimated from: A) transaction volumes. B) user logins. C) security violations. D) none of the above.
A) transaction volumes.
4) In an E-R diagram, there are ________ business rule(s) for every relationship. A) two B) three C) one D) zero
A) two
34) Multiple values returned from an SQL query that includes an aggregate function are called: A) vector aggregates. B) scalar aggregates. C) agates. D) summations.
A) vector aggregates.
19) Horizontal partitioning makes sense: A) when different categories of a table's rows are processed separately. B) when less security is needed. C) when partitions must be organized the same. D) when all of the above are true.
A) when different categories of a table's rows are processed separately.
1) The analysis of summarized data to support decision making is called 1. A) operational processing. 2. B) informational processing. 3. C) artificial intelligence. 4. D) data scrubbing.
B
12) A dependent data mart 1.A) is filled with data extracted directly from the operational system. 2.B) is filled exclusively from enterprise data warehouse with reconciled data. 3.C) is dependent upon an operational system. 4.D) participates in a relationship with an entity.
B
14) A logical data mart is a(n) 1.A) data mart consisting of only logical data. 2.B) data mart created by a relational view of a slightly denormalized data warehouse. 3.C) integrated, subject-oriented, detailed database designed to serve operational users. 4.D) centralized, integrated data warehouse.
B
20) A database action that results from a transaction is called a(n) 1.A) transition. 2.B) event. 3.C) log entry. 4.D) journal happening.
B
24) Every key used to join the fact table with a dimension table should be a ________ key. 1.A) primary 2.B) surrogate 3.C) foreign 4.D) secondary
B
25) The level of detail in a fact table determined by the intersection of all the components of the primary key, including all foreign keys and any other primary key elements, is called the 1.A) span. 2.B) grain. 3.C) selection. 4.D) aggregation.
B
26) Referring to the figure below, which of the following is NOT true? A) A component is part of an item. B) A component is always used in only one item. C) A component can be part of an item. D) A component may be used in many items.
B
3) When we consider data in the data warehouse to be time-variant, we mean 1. A) that the time of storage varies. 2. B) data in the warehouse contain a time dimension so that they may be used to study trends and changes. 3. C) that there is a time delay between when data are posted and when we report on the data. 4. D) none of the above.
B
31) ________ is/are a new technology which trade(s) off storage space savings for computing time. 1.A) Dimensional modeling 2.B) Column databases 3.C) Fact tables 4.D) Snowflake schemas
B
32) A class of database technology used to store textual and other unstructured data is called 1.A) mySQL. 2.B) NoSQL. 3.C) KnowSQL. 4.D) PHP
B
37) Going from a summary view to progressively lower levels of detail is called data 1.A) cubing. 2.B) drill-down. 3.C) dicing. 4.D) pivoting.
B
39) Which of the following data-mining techniques searches for patterns and correlations in large data sets? 1.A) Case reasoning 2.B) Rule discovery 3.C) Signal processing 4.D) Neural nets
B
40) Which of the following data-mining applications identifies customers for promotional activity? 1.A) Population profiling 2.B) Target marketing 3.C) Usage analysis 4.D) Product affinity
B
A ________ is a temporary table used in the FROM clause of an SQL query. A) correlated subquery B) derived table C) view table D) none of the above
B
A join that is based upon equality between values in two common columns with the same name and where one duplicate column has been removed is called a(n): A) equi-join. B) natural join. C) multivariate join. D) inner join
B
A method of capturing only the changes that have occurred in the source data since the last capture is called ________ extract. A) static B) incremental C) partial D) update-driven
B
A type of join where a table is joined to itself is called a(n): A) unary join. B) self-join. C) unnatural join. D) pinned join.
B
A type of query that is placed within a WHERE or HAVING clause of another query is called a: A) master query. B) subquery. C) superquery. D) multi-query
B
All of the following are guidelines for better query design EXCEPT: A) understand how indexes are used in query processing. B) use a lot of self-joins. C) write simple queries. D) retrieve on the data that you need.
B
All of the following are new data types added in SQL:200n EXCEPT: A) BIGINT. B) BIT. C) MULTISET. D) XML.
B
All of the following are ways to consolidate data EXCEPT: A) application integration. B) data rollup and integration. C) business process integration. D) user interaction integration.
B
Conformance means that: A) data have been transformed. B) data are stored, exchanged or presented in a format that is specified by its metadata. C) data are stored in a way to expedite retrieval. D) none of the above.
B
Data governance can be defined as: A) a means to slow down the speed of data. B) high-level organizational groups and processes that oversee data stewardship. C) a government task force for defining data quality. D) none of the above
B
Data quality ROI stands for: A) return on investment. B) risk of incarceration. C) rough outline inclusion. D) none of the above
B
Data quality problems can cascade when: A) data are not deleted properly. B) data are copied from legacy systems. C) there is redundant data storage and inconsistent metadata. D) there are data entry problems.
B
Event-drive propagation: A) provides a means to duplicate data for events. B) pushes data to duplicate sites as an event occurs. C) pulls duplicate data from redundant sites. D) none of the above
B
Explicit commands to manage transactions are needed when: A) a transaction consists of just one SQL command. B) multiple SQL commands must be run as part of a transaction. C) autocommit is set to off. D) none of the above
B
Extensions defined in SQL-99 that include the capability to create and drop modules of code stored in the database schema across user sessions are called: A) stored procedures. B) Persistent Stored Modules. C) flow control modules. D) none of the above.
B
External data sources present problems for data quality because: A) data are not always available. B) there is a lack of control over data quality. C) there are poor data capture controls. D) data are unformatted.
B
In order for two queries to be UNION-compatible, they must: A) both have the same number of lines in their SQL statements. B) both output compatible data types for each column and return the same number of rows. C) both return at least one row. D) all of the above.
B
In order to embed SQL inside of another language, the ________ statement must be placed before the SQL in the host language. A) GET SQL B) EXEC SQL C) RUN SQL D) SQL SQL
B
One major advantage of the outer join is that: A) information is easily accessible. B) information is not lost. C) the query is easier to write. D) all of the above.
B
One simple task of a data quality audit is to: A) interview all users. B) statistically profile all files. C) load all data into a data warehouse. D) establish quality metrics
B
The methods to ensure the quality of data across various subject areas are called: A) Variable Data Management. B) Master Data Management. C) Joint Data Management. D) Managed Data Management.
B
What results would the following SQL statement produce? select owner, table_name from dba_tables where table_name = 'CUSTOMER'; A) A listing of all customers in the customer table B) A listing of the owner of the customer table C) A listing of the owner of the customer table as well as customers D) An error message
B
While triggers run automatically, ________ do not and have to be called. A) trapdoors B) routines C) selects D) updates
B
27) Which of the following is the wildcard operator in SQL statements? A) < > B) * C) = D) &
B) *
36) What will be returned when the following SQL statement is executed? Select driver_no,count(*) as num_deliveries from deliveries group by driver_no; A) A listing of all drivers, sorted by driver number B) A listing of each driver as well as the number of deliveries that he or she has made C) A count of all of the deliveries made by all drivers D) None of the above
B) A listing of each driver as well as the number of deliveries that he or she has made
37) What will be returned when the following SQL statement is executed? Select driver_no, count(*) as num_deliveries from deliveries where state = 'MA' group by driver_no; A) A listing of all drivers who made deliveries to state = 'MA', sorted by driver number B) A listing of each driver who made deliveries to state = 'MA' as well as the number of deliveries that each driver has made to that state C) A count of all of the deliveries made to state = 'MA' by all drivers D) None of the above
B) A listing of each driver who made deliveries to state = 'MA' as well as the number of deliveries that each driver has made to that state
19) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown below? A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and cannot be both at the same time. B) A rental unit can be an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it may not be more than one at the same time. C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and could be both. D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It could be both an apartment and a house at the same time.
B) A rental unit can be an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it may not be more than one at the same time.
16) What does the following SQL statement do? Update Product_T Set Unit_Price = 775 Where Product_ID = 7 A) Changes the price of a unit called Product_T to 7 B) Changes the unit price of Product 7 to 775 C) Changes the length of the Unit_Price field to 775 D) Updates the Product_T table to have a unit price of 775
B) Changes the unit price of Product 7 to 775
17) Which of the following is a technique for optimizing the internal performance of the relational data model? A) Avoiding indexes on secondary keys B) Clustering data C) Not reporting statistics to save machine resources D) Using random index organizations
B) Clustering data
5) ________ is a component of the relational data model included to specify business rules to maintain the integrity of data when they are manipulated. A) Business rule constraint B) Data integrity C) Business integrity D) Data structure
B) Data integrity
35) Which of the following can produce scalar and vector aggregates? A) Order By B) Group By C) Having D) Sort
B) Group By
22) Which of the following questions is answered by the SQL statement? Select Count (Product_Description) from Product_T; A) How many products are in the table Product_T? B) How many products have product descriptions in the Product Table? C) How many characters are in the field name "Product_Description"? D) How many different columns named "Product_Description" are there in table Product_T?
B) How many products have product descriptions in the Product Table?
23) In the figure below, what type of relationship do the relations depict? A) Strong entity/weak entity B) One-to-many C) Ternary D) Many-to-many
B) One-to-many
28) The need for consensus on data definitions is an example of which type of risk in the database environment? A) Specialized personnel needs B) Organizational conflict C) Conversion costs D) Legacy systems
B) Organizational conflict
6) DDL is typically used during which phases of the development process? A) Implementation B) Physical design C) Analysis D) All of the above
B) Physical design
14) ________ are established between entities in a well-structured database so that the desired information can be retrieved. A) Entities B) Relationships C) Lines D) Ties
B) Relationships
25) Which of the following will produce the minimum of all standard prices? A) Select standard_price from Product_V where Standard_Price = min; B) Select min(standard_price) from Product_V; C) Select Standard_Price from min(Product_V); D) Select min(Standard_Price) from Product_V where Standard_Price = min(Standard_Price);
B) Select min(standard_price) from Product_V;
21) ________ is a tool even non-programmers can use to access information from a database. A) ODBC B) Structured query language C) ASP D) Data manipulation query language
B) Structured query language
1) Which of the following is a generic entity type that has a relationship with one or more subtypes? A) Megatype B) Supertype C) Subgroup D) Class
B) Supertype
31) What result set is returned from the following query? Select Customer_Name, telephone from customers where city in ('Boston','New York','Denver'); A) The Customer_Name and telephone of all customers B) The Customer_Name and telephone of all customers living in either Boston, New York or Denver C) The Customer_Name and telephone of all customers living in Boston and New York and Denver D) The Customer_Name of all customers living in Boston, New York or Denver
B) The Customer_Name and telephone of all customers living in either Boston, New York or Denver
21) What result will the following SQL statement produce? Select Avg(standard_price) as average from Product_V; A) The average of all products in Product_V B) The average Standard_Price of all products in Product_V C) The average price of all products D) None of the above
B) The average Standard_Price of all products in Product_V
7) In the figure below, to which of the following entities are the entities "CAR" and "TRUCK" generalized? A) Make B) Vehicle C) Model D) Price
B) Vehicle
14) Given a table named store with 5 fields: store_id, address, city, state, zipcode, why would the following insert command not work? insert into store values ('234 Park Street') A) It would work just fine. B) You must specify the fields to insert if you are only inserting some of the fields. C) There is no table keyword. D) None of the above.
B) You must specify the fields to insert if you are only inserting some of the fields.
16) All of the following are common denormalization opportunities EXCEPT: A) two entities with a one-to-one relationship. B) a one-to-many relationship. C) a many-to-many relationship with nonkey attributes. D) reference data.
B) a one-to-many relationship.
14) The following figure shows an example of: A) a one-to-many relationship. B) a strong entity and its associated weak entity. C) a co-dependent relationship. D) a double-walled relationship.
B) a strong entity and its associated weak entity.
11) The SQL command ________ adds one or more new columns to a table. A) create table B) alter table C) create view D) create relationship
B) alter table
8) All of the following are valid datatypes in Oracle 11g EXCEPT: A) varchar2. B) boolean. C) blob. D) number.
B) boolean.
A join operation: A) brings together data from two different fields. B) causes two tables with a common domain to be combined into a single table or view. C) causes two disparate tables to be combined into a single table or view. D) is used to combine indexing operations.
B) causes two tables with a common domain to be combined into a single table or view.
8) A primary key that consists of more than one attribute is called a: A) foreign key. B) composite key. C) multivalued key. D) cardinal key.
B) composite key.
24) A rule that CANNOT be violated by database users is called a: A) password. B) constraint. C) program. D) view.
B) constraint.
16) In the SQL language, the ________ statement is used to make table definitions. A) create session B) create table C) create index D) select
B) create table
21) When a regular entity type contains a multivalued attribute, one must: A) create a single relation with multiple lines for each instance of the multivalued attribute. B) create two new relations, one containing the multivalued attribute. C) create two new relations, both containing the multivalued attribute. D) none of the above.
B) create two new relations, one containing the multivalued attribute.
24) A form of denormalization where the same data are stored in multiple places in the database is called: A) data duplication. B) data replication. C) advanced placement. D) horizontal partitioning.
B) data replication.
6) A detailed coding scheme recognized by system software for representing organizational data is called a(n): A) DBMS code. B) data type. C) SQL. D) DB layout.
B) data type.
3) Designing physical files requires ________ of where and when data are used in various ways. A) maps B) descriptions C) keys D) hints
B) descriptions
16) The ________ rule specifies that an entity can be a member of only one subtype at a time. A) exclusion B) disjoint C) removal D) inclusion
B) disjoint
30) To eliminate duplicate rows in a query, the ________ qualifier is used in the SQL Select command. A) alter B) distinct C) check D) specific
B) distinct
9) Any create command may be reversed by using a ________ command. A) truncate B) drop C) delete D) unpack
B) drop
41) A ________ view is materialized when referenced. A) virtual B) dynamic C) materialized D) base
B) dynamic
14) The ________ states that no primary key attribute may be null. A) referential integrity constraint B) entity integrity rule C) partial specialization rule D) range domain rule
B) entity integrity rule
The logical representation of an organization's data is called a(n): A) database model. B) entity-relationship model. C) relationship systems design. D) database entity diagram.
B) entity-relationship model.
18) Distributing the rows of data into separate files is called: A) normalization. B) horizontal partitioning. C) vertical partitioning. D) file allocation.
B) horizontal partitioning.
10) The first in a series of steps to follow when creating a table is to: A) identify columns that must be unique. B) identify each attribute and its characteristics. C) create an index. D) identify columns that must be null.
B) identify each attribute and its characteristics.
15) A(n) ________ is the relationship between a weak entity type and its owner. A) member chain B) identifying relationship C) jump path D) chain link
B) identifying relationship
2) Older systems that often contain data of poor quality are called ________ systems. A) controlled B) legacy C) database D) mainframe
B) legacy
1) A form of database specification that indicates all the parameters for data storage that are then input to database implementation is: A) logical. B) physical. C) schematic. D) conceptual.
B) physical.
7) All of the following are properties of metadata EXCEPT: A) data definitions. B) processing logic. C) rules or constraints. D) data structures.
B) processing logic.
29) A knowledge base of information on facts about an enterprise is called a(n): A) enterprise information system. B) repository. C) systems information unit. D) database process.
B) repository.
18) An attribute that must have a value for every entity (or relationship) instance is a(n): A) composite attribute. B) required attribute. C) optional attribute. D) multivalued attribute.
B) required attribute.
33) A single value returned from an SQL query that includes an aggregate function is called a(n): A) agate. B) scalar aggregate. C) vector aggregate. D) summation.
B) scalar aggregate.
3) The ________ is the structure that contains descriptions of objects such as tables and views created by users. A) SQL B) schema C) catalog D) master view
B) schema
2) A key decision in the physical design process is: A) knowing the user base. B) selecting structures. C) deciding on the monitor. D) all of the above.
B) selecting structures.
9) A fact is an association between two or more: A) words. B) terms. C) facts. D) nuggets.
B) terms.
Data modeling may be the most important part of the systems development process because: A) data characteristics are important in the design of programs and other systems components. B) the data in a system are generally less complex than processes and play a central role in development. C) data are less stable than processes. D) it is the easiest.
B) the data in a system are generally less complex than processes and play a central role in development.
13) The ________ rule specifies that each entity instance of the supertype must be a member of some subtype in the relationship. A) semi-specialization B) total specialization C) partial specialization D) total convergence
B) total specialization
10) Because applications are often developed independently in file processing systems: A) the data is always non-redundant. B) unplanned duplicate data files are the rule rather than the exception. C) data can always be shared with others. D) there is a large volume of file I/O.
B) unplanned duplicate data files are the rule rather than the exception.
13) An entity type whose existence depends on another entity type is called a ________ entity. A) strong B) weak C) codependent D) variant
B) weak
) In which of the following situations would one have to use an outer join in order to obtain the desired results? A) A report is desired that lists all customers who placed an order. B) A report is desired that lists all customers and the total of their orders. C) A report is desired that lists all customers, the total of their orders during the most recent month, and includes customers who did not place an order during the month (their total will be zero). D) There is never a situation that requires only an outer join.
C
13) An operational data store (ODS) is a(n) 1.A) place to store all unreconciled data. 2.B) representation of the operational data. 3.C) integrated, subject-oriented, updateable, current-valued, detailed database designed to serve the decision support needs of operational users. 4.D) small-scale data mart
C
15) All of the following are unique characteristics of a logical data mart EXCEPT 1.A) logical data marts are not physically separate databases, but rather a relational view of a data warehouse. 2.B) the data mart is always up-to-date since data in a view is created when the view is referenced. 3.C) the process of creating a logical data mart is lengthy. 4.D) data are moved into the data warehouse rather than a separate staging area.
C
17) ________ technologies are allowing more opportunities for real-time data warehouses 1.A) Web 2.B) MOLAP 3.C) RFID 4.D) GPS
C
21) Data that are never physically altered once they are added to the store are called ________ data. 1.A) transient 2.B) override 3.C) periodic 4.D) complete
C
23) A star schema contains both fact and ________ tables. 1.A) narrative 2.B) cross functional 3.C) dimension 4.D) starter
C
33) The use of a set of graphical tools that provides users with multidimensional views of their data is called 1.A) on-line geometrical processing (OGP). 2.B) drill-down analysis. 3.C) on-line analytical processing (OLAP). 4.D) on-line datacube processing (ODP).
C
38) Which of the following data-mining techniques identifies clusters of observations with similar characteristics? 1.A) Case reasoning 2.B) Rule discovery 3.C) Clustering and signal processing 4.D) Neural nets
C
6) Which of the following organizational trends does not encourage the need for data warehousing 1.A) Multiple, nonsynchronized systems 2.B) Focus on customer relationship management 3.C) Downsizing 4.D) Focus on supplier relationship management
C
9) A data mart is a(n) 1.A) enterprisewide data warehouse. 2.B) smaller system built upon file processing technology. 3.C) data warehouse that is limited in scope. 4.D) generic on-line shopping site.
C
A join in which rows that do not have matching values in common columns are still included in the result table is called a(n): A) natural join. B) equi-join. C) outer join. D) union join.
C
A named set of SQL statements that are considered when a data modification occurs are called: A) stored procedures. B) treatments. C) triggers. D) trapdoors.
C
All of the following are part of the coding structure for triggers EXCEPT: A) event. B) condition. C) selection. D) action.
C
An approach to filling a data warehouse that employs bulk rewriting of the target data periodically is called: A) dump mode. B) overwrite mode. C) refresh mode. D) update mode.
C
An interactive command that can be used to dynamically control a user session for appropriate integrity measures is: A) rollback. B) rollforward. C) set autocommit. D) expunge.
C
Data federation is a technique which: A) creates an integrated database from several separate databases. B) creates a distributed database. C) provides a virtual view of integrated data without actually creating one centralized database. D) provides a real-time update of shared data
C
Data quality is important for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) it minimizes project delay. B) it aids in making timely business decisions. C) it provides a stream of profit. D) it helps to expand the customer base.
C
EXISTS will take a value of ________ if the subquery returns an intermediate results table which contains one or more rows. A) FALSE B) 1 C) TRUE D) undefined
C
Establishing IF-THEN-ELSE logical processing within an SQL statement can be accomplished by: A) using the if-then-else construct. B) using the immediate if statement. C) using the CASE keyword in a statement. D) using a subquery.
C
In the ________ approach, one consolidated record is maintained and all applications draw on that one actual "golden" record. A) Persistent B) Identity Registry C) Federated D) Integration Hub
C
One way to improve the data capture process is to: A) allow all data to be entered manually. B) provide little or no training to data entry operators. C) check entered data immediately for quality against data in the database. D) not use any automatic data entry routines.
C
RANK and DENSE-RANK are examples of: A) ceilings. B) door functions. C) window functions. D) moving functions.
C
SQL provides the ________ technique, which involves placing an inner query within the WHERE or HAVING clause of an outer query. A) grouping B) joining C) subquery D) union
C
SQL-invoked routines can be: A) procedures. B) functions. C) all of the above. D) none of the above.
C
The best place to improve data entry across all applications is: A) in the users. B) in the level of organizational commitment. C) in the database definitions. D) in the data entry operators.
C
________ differs from array because it can contain duplicates. A) BIGINT B) XML C) MULTISET D) TABLE
C
________ takes a value of true if a subquery returns an intermediate results table which contains one or more rows. A) IN B) HAVING C) EXISTS D) EXTENTS
C
12) What does the following SQL statement do? Alter Table Customer_T Add (Type Varchar (2)); A) Alters the Customer_T table to accept Type 2 Varchars B) Alters the Customer_T table to be a Type 2 Varchar C) Alters the Customer_T table, and adds a field called "Type" D) Alters the Customer_T table by adding a 2-byte field called "Varchar"
C) Alters the Customer_T table, and adds a field called "Type"
4) ________ is a set of commands used to control a database, which includes security. A) DML B) DDL C) DCL D) DPL
C) DCL
30) Which of the following is software used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to databases? A) Network operating system B) User view C) Database management system (DBMS) D) Attribute
C) Database management system (DBMS)
38) Which of the following finds all groups meeting stated conditions? A) Select B) Where C) Having D) Find
C) Having
27) Which of the following is NOT a cost and/or risk of the database approach? A) Specialized personnel B) Cost of conversion C) Improved responsiveness D) Organizational conflict
C) Improved responsiveness
7) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good business rule? A) Declarative B) Atomic C) Inconsistent D) Expressible
C) Inconsistent
11) In which data model would a code table appear? A) Conceptual B) Logical C) Physical D) Data layout
C) Physical
11) Which of the following is NOT a reason to create an instance of a relational schema with sample data? A) Sample data can be used to improve user communications. B) Sample data can be used for prototype generation. C) Sample data can reverse database implementation errors. D) Sample data provide a convenient way to check the accuracy of your design.
C) Sample data can reverse database implementation errors.
29) What result set will the following query return? Select Item_No, description from item where weight > 100 and weight < 200; A) The Item_No and description for all items weighing less than 100 B) The Item_No for all items weighing between 101 and 199 C) The Item_No and description for all items weighing between 101 and 199 D) The Item_No for all items weighing more than 200
C) The Item_No and description for all items weighing between 101 and 199
40) Which of the following is true of the order in which SQL statements are evaluated? A) The SELECT clause is always processed first. B) The SELECT clause is always processed last. C) The SELECT clause is processed before the ORDER BY clause. D) The GROUP BY clause is processed before the WHERE clause.
C) The SELECT clause is processed before the ORDER BY clause.
26) What will result from the following SQL Select statement? Select min(Product_Description) from Product_V; A) The minimum value of Product_Description will be displayed. B) An error message will be generated. C) The first product description alphabetically in Product_V will be shown. D) None of the above.
C) The first product description alphabetically in Product_V will be shown.
23) ________ partitioning distributes the columns of a table into several separate physical records. A) Horizontal B) Crossways C) Vertical D) Final
C) Vertical
19) In an SQL statement, which of the following parts states the conditions for row selection? A) Select B) From C) Where D) Group By
C) Where
19) A user view is: A) what a user sees when he or she looks out the window. B) a table or set of tables. C) a logical description of some portion of the database. D) a procedure stored on the server.
C) a logical description of some portion of the database.
16) An entity type name should be all of the following EXCEPT: A) concise. B) specific to the organization. C) as short as possible. D) a singular noun.
C) as short as possible.
3) The property by which subtype entities possess the values of all attributes of a supertype is called: A) hierarchy reception. B) class management. C) attribute inheritance. D) generalization.
C) attribute inheritance.
15) Sensitivity testing involves: A) checking to see if your teeth hurt when you brush. B) seeing how accurate data are. C) checking to see if missing data will greatly impact results. D) none of the above.
C) checking to see if missing data will greatly impact results.
14) A ________ constraint is a type of constraint that addresses whether an instance of a supertype must also be an instance of at least one subtype. A) disjoint B) overlap C) completeness D) weak
C) completeness
21) An attribute that can be broken down into smaller parts is called a(n) ________ attribute. A) associative B) simple C) composite D) complex
C) composite
7) The command for creating a database is: A) create table. B) create view. C) create schema. D) create authorization.
C) create schema.
8) The SQL command ________ defines a logical table from one or more tables or views. A) create table B) alter table C) create view D) create relationship
C) create view
4) The storage format for each attribute from the logical data model is chosen to maximize ________ and minimize storage space. A) query design B) programmer productivity C) data integrity D) data integration
C) data integrity
1) One application of data warehouses is: A) shipping of information. B) order processing. C) decision support. D) file updating.
C) decision support.
20) A nonkey attribute is also called a(n): A) column. B) unimportant datum. C) descriptor. D) address.
C) descriptor.
27) A contiguous section of disk storage space is called a(n): A) track. B) sector. C) extent. D) tablespace.
C) extent.
21) A disadvantage of partitioning is: A) simplicity. B) remote optimization. C) extra space and update time. D) shorter technology spans.
C) extra space and update time.
29) A(n) ________ is a technique for physically arranging the records of a file on secondary storage devices. A) physical pointer B) retrieval program C) file organization D) update program
C) file organization
7) An attribute in a relation of a database that serves as the primary key of another relation in the same database is called a: A) link attribute. B) link key. C) foreign key. D) foreign attribute.
C) foreign key.
5) Data processed in a way that increases a user's knowledge is: A) text. B) graphics C) information. D) hyperlink.
C) information.
13) A domain definition consists of the following components EXCEPT: A) domain name. B) data type. C) integrity constraints. D) size.
C) integrity constraints.
8) One disadvantage of file processing systems is: A) reduced data duplication. B) program-data independence. C) limited data sharing. D) enforcement of integrity constraints.
C) limited data sharing.
22) All of the following are horizontal partitioning methods in Oracle EXCEPT: A) key range partitioning. B) hash partitioning. C) multivalued partitioning. D) composite partitioning.
C) multivalued partitioning.
11) The ________ rule specifies that an entity instance of a supertype is allowed not to belong to any subtype. A) semi-specialization B) total specialization C) partial specialization D) disjointedness
C) partial specialization
6) An attribute (or attributes) that uniquely identifies each row in a relation is called a: A) column. B) foreign field. C) primary key. D) duplicate key.
C) primary key.
18) Indexes are created in most RDBMSs to: A) provide a quicker way to store data. B) decrease the amount of disk space utilized. C) provide rapid random and sequential access to base-table data. D) increase the cost of implementation.
C) provide rapid random and sequential access to base-table data.
12) An integrity control supported by a DBMS is: A) substitute estimates. B) security. C) range control. D) GUI guards.
C) range control.
15) Relational databases establish the relationships between entities by means of common fields included in a file called a(n): A) entity. B) relationship. C) relation. D) association.
C) relation.
20) An attribute of an entity that must have a value for each entity instance is a(n): A) optional attribute. B) composite attribute. C) required attribute. D) fuzzy attribute.
C) required attribute.
25) Within Oracle, the named set of storage elements in which physical files for database tables may be stored is called a(n): A) extent. B) table. C) tablespace. D) partition.
C) tablespace.
10) The following figure is an example of: A) partial specialization. B) completeness. C) total specialization. D) disjointness.
C) total specialization.
17) A(n) ________ is often developed by identifying a form or report that a user needs on a regular basis. A) enterprise view B) reporting document C) user view D) user snapshot
C) user view
11) All of the following are limitations of the independent data mart EXCEPT 1.A) separate extraction, transformation, and loading processes are developed for each data mart. 2.B) data marts may not be consistent with one another. 3.C) there is no capability to drill down into greater detail in other data marts. 4.D) it is often more expedient to build a data mart than a data warehouse.
D
16) The real-time data warehouse is characterized by which of the following 1.A) It accepts near-real time feeds of transaction data. 2.B) Data are immediately transformed and loaded into the warehouse. 3.C) It provides near-real-time access for the transaction processing systems to an enterprise data warehouse. 4.D) All of the above
D
18) All of the following are some beneficial applications for real-time data warehousing EXCEPT 1.A) just-in-time transportation. 2.B) e-commerce. For example, an abandoned shopping cart can trigger an email promotional message. 3.C) fraud detection in credit card transactions. 4.D) data entry.
D
22) Which of the following is an objective of derived data? 1.A) ease of use for decision support systems 2.B) faster response time for user queries 3.C) support data mining applications 4.D) All of the above
D
26) Conformed dimensions allow users to do the following 1.A) share nonkey dimension data. 2.B) query across fact tables with consistency. 3.C) work on facts and business subjects for which all users have the same meaning. 4.D) all of the above.
D
27) Factless fact tables may apply when 1.A) we are tracking events. 2.B) we are tracking sales. 3.C) we are taking inventory of the set of possible occurrences. 4.D) both A and C.
D
29) All of the following are ways to handle changing dimensions EXCEPT 1.A) overwrite the current value with the new value. 2.B) for each dimension attribute that changes, create a current value field and as many old value fields as we wish. 3.C) create a new dimension table row each time the dimension object changes. 4.D) create a snowflake schema.
D
30) ________ is an ill-defined term applied to databases where size strains the ability of commonly used relational DBMSs to manage the data. 1.A) Mean data 2.B) Small data 3.C) Star data 4.D) Big data
D
35) Rotating the view of a multidimensional database for a particular data point is called data 1.A) cubing. 2.B) drill-down. 3.C) dicing. 4.D) pivoting.
D
36) Which of the following is true of data visualization? 1.A) It is easier to observe trends and patterns in data. 2.B) Correlations and clusters in data can be easily identified. 3.C) It is often used in conjunction with data mining. 4.D) All of the above
D
4) Which of the following advances in information systems contributed to the emergence of data warehousing 1.A) Improvements in database technology, particularly the relational data model 2.B) Advances in computer hardware, especially affordable mass storage and parallel computer architectures 3.C) Advances in middleware products that enabled enterprise database connectivity across heterogeneous platforms 4.D) All of the above
D
8) Operational and informational systems are generally separated because of which of the following factors 1.A) A data warehouse centralizes data that are scattered throughout disparate operational systems and makes them readily available for decision support applications. 2.B) A properly designed data warehouse adds value to data by improving their quality and consistency. 3.C) A separate data warehouse eliminates contention for resources that results when informational applications are confounded with operational processing. 4.D) All of the above.
D
A characteristic of reconciled data that means the data reflect an enterprise-wide view is: A) detailed. B) historical. C) normalized. D) comprehensive
D
A join in which the joining condition is based on equality between values in the common columns is called a(n): A) equi-join. B) unilateral join. C) natural join. D) both A and C.
D
A new set of analytical functions added in SQL:2008 is referred to as: A) OLAF functions. B) MOLAP functions. C) average functions. D) OLAP functions.
D
A procedure is: A) stored within the database. B) given a unique name. C) called by name. D) all of the above.
D
A technique using artificial intelligence to upgrade the quality of raw data is called: A) dumping. B) data reconciliation. C) completion backwards updates. D) data scrubbing.
D
All of the following are advantages of SQL-invoked routines EXCEPT: A) flexibility. B) efficiency. C) sharability. D) security.
D
All of the following are popular architectures for Master Data Management EXCEPT: A) Identity Registry. B) Integration Hub. C) Persistent Object. D) Normalization.
D
All of the following are tasks of data cleansing EXCEPT: A) decoding data to make them understandable for data warehousing applications. B) adding time stamps to distinguish values for the same attribute over time. C) generating primary keys for each row of a table. D) creating foreign keys.
D
An operation to join a table to itself is called a: A) sufficient-join. B) inner join. C) outer join. D) self-join.
D
Data may be loaded from the staging area into the warehouse by following: A) SQL Commands (Insert/Update). B) special load utilities. C) custom-written routines. D) all of the above.
D
High quality data are data that are: A) accurate. B) consistent. C) available in a timely fashion. D) all of the above.
D
If the DBA wishes to describe all tables in the database, which data dictionary view should be accessed in Oracle? A) dba_tab_privs B) dba_tab_comments C) dba_table_label D) dba_tables
D
Loading data into a data warehouse involves: A) appending new rows to the tables in the warehouse. B) updating existing rows with new data. C) purging data that have become obsolete or were incorrectly loaded. D) all of the above.
D
One characteristic of quality data which pertains to the expectation for the time between when data are expected and when they are available for use is: A) currency. B) consistency. C) referential Integrity. D) timeliness.
D
TQM stands for: A) Thomas Quinn Mann, a famous data quality innovator. B) Total Quality Manipulation. C) Transforming Quality Management. D) Total Quality Management.
D
The ________ clause is used to combine the output from multiple queries into a single result table. A) INTERSECT B) DIVIDE C) COLLATE D) UNION
D
The most commonly used form of join operation is the: A) outer join. B) union join. C) equi-join. D) natural join.
D
The process of combining data from various sources into a single table or view is called: A) extracting. B) updating. C) selecting. D) joining.
D
The process of transforming data from a detailed to a summary level is called: A) extracting. B) updating. C) joining. D) aggregating.
D
User-defined data types: A) can be a subclass of a standard type. B) can behave as an object. C) can have defined functions and methods. D) can have all of the above.
D
Which of the following are key steps in a data quality program? A) Conduct a data quality audit B) Apply TQM principles and practices C) Estimate return on investment D) All of the above
D
Which type of index is commonly used in data warehousing environments? A) Join index B) Bit-mapped index C) Secondary index D) Both A and B
D
11) Organizations that utilize the file processing approach spend as much as ________ of their IS development budget on maintenance. A) 40 percent B) 25 percent C) 60 percent D) 80 percent
D) 80 percent
1) Which of the following is a purpose of the SQL standard? A) To specify syntax and semantics of SQL data definition and manipulation B) To specify minimal and complete standards, which permit different degrees of adoption in products C) To define the data structures and basic operations for SQL databases D) All of the above
D) All of the above
17) Which of the following are anomalies that can be caused by redundancies in tables? A) Insertion B) Deletion C) Modification D) All of the above
D) All of the above
3) The relational data model consists of which components? A) Data structure B) Data manipulation C) Data integrity D) All of the above
D) All of the above
4) Which of the following types of data can be stored in a database? A) Voice B) Letters C) Numbers D) All of the above
D) All of the above
9) Which of the following are properties of relations? A) Each attribute has a unique name. B) No two rows in a relation are identical. C) There are no multivalued attributes in a relation. D) All of the above.
D) All of the above.
24) In the figure below, what is depicted? A) A one-to-one relationship B) A unary relationship C) A one-to-many relationship D) An associative entity
D) An associative entity
10) Which of the following is an objective of selecting a data type? A) Represent a small number of possible values B) Maximize storage space C) Limit security D) Improve data integrity
D) Improve data integrity
12) Which of the following is an entity type on which a strong entity depends? A) Owner B) Member C) Attribute D) None of the above
D) None of the above
20) Which organizational function should set database standards? A) Management B) Application development C) Technical services D) None of the above
D) None of the above
25) In the figure below, what type of key is depicted? A) Primary B) Recursive primary C) Composite D) Recursive foreign
D) Recursive foreign
8) Which of the following is NOT a good characteristic of a data name? A) Relates to business characteristics B) Readable C) Repeatable D) Relates to a technical characteristic of the system
D) Relates to a technical characteristic of the system
1) A requirement to begin designing physical files and databases is: A) normalized relations. B) definitions of each attribute. C) technology descriptions. D) all of the above.
D) all of the above.
14) A method for handling missing data is to: A) substitute and estimate for the missing data. B) track missing data with special reports. C) perform sensitivity testing. D) all of the above.
D) all of the above.
2) Physical database design decisions must be made carefully because of impacts on: A) data accessibility. B) response times. C) security. D) all of the above.
D) all of the above.
2) The benefits of a standardized relational language include: A) application longevity. B) reduced training costs. C) cross-system communication. D) all of the above.
D) all of the above.
26) Databases may be more expensive to maintain than files because of: A) the need for specialized personnel. B) the complexity of the database environment. C) backup and recovery needs. D) all of the above.
D) all of the above.
3) The common types of entities are: A) strong entities. B) weak entities. C) associative entities. D) all of the above.
D) all of the above.
30) A factor to consider when choosing a file organization is: A) fast data retrieval. B) security. C) efficient storage. D) all of the above.
D) all of the above.
42) A view may not be updated directly if it contains: A) the DISTINCT keyword. B) derived columns and expressions in the SELECT clause. C) uses the GROUP BY or HAVING clause. D) all of the above.
D) all of the above.
6) A business rule: A) defines or constrains some aspect of the business. B) asserts business structure. C) controls or influences the behavior of the business. D) all of the above.
D) all of the above.
12) A graphical system used to capture the nature and relationships among data is called a(n): A) logical data model. B) hypertext graphic. C) ERD. D) data model.
D) data model.
13) A person, place, an object , an event or concept about which the organization wishes to maintain data is called a(n): A) relationship. B) object. C) attribute. D) entity.
D) entity.
23) The most common source of database failures in organizations is: A) lack of planning. B) inadequate budget. C) inadequate hardware. D) failure to implement a strong database administration function.
D) failure to implement a strong database administration function.
6) Data that describe the properties of other data are: A) relationships. B) logical. C) physical. D) none of the above.
D) none of the above.
26) While Oracle has responsibility for managing data inside a tablespace, the tablespace as a whole is managed by the: A) user. B) database administrator. C) application developer. D) operating system.
D) operating system.
28) A(n) ________ is a field of data used to locate a related field or record. A) key B) index C) lock D) pointer
D) pointer
16) All of the following are primary purposes of a database management system (DBMS) EXCEPT: A) creating data. B) updating data. C) storing data. D) providing an integrated development environment.
D) providing an integrated development environment.
4) A two-dimensional table of data sometimes is called a: A) group. B) set. C) declaration. D) relation.
D) relation.
18) With the database approach, data descriptions are stored in a central location known as a(n): A) server. B) mainframe. C) PC. D) repository.
D) repository.
7) All of the following are objectives when selecting a data type EXCEPT: A) represent all possible values. B) improve data integrity. C) support all data manipulations. D) use a lot of storage space.
D) use a lot of storage space.
18) A relation that contains minimal redundancy and allows easy use is considered to be: A) clean. B) simple. C) complex. D) well-structured.
D) well-structured.
10) A good data definition will describe all of the characteristics of a data object EXCEPT: A) subtleties. B) examples. C) who determines the value of the data. D) who can delete the data.
D) who can delete the data.
1) A user view is how the user sees the data when it is produced.
FALSE
42) The development of the relational data model did not contribute to the emergence of data warehousing
FALSE
44) When multiple systems in an organization are synchronized, the need for data warehousing increases
FALSE
46) A separate data warehouse causes more contention for resources in an organization
FALSE
48) A data mart is a data warehouse that contains data that can be used across the entire organization
FALSE
50) Independent data marts do not generally lead to redundant data and efforts
FALSE
A catalog is the structure that contains object descriptions created by a user.
FALSE
A composite key consists of only one attribute.
FALSE
A constraint is a rule in a database system that can be violated by users.
FALSE
A data governance committee is always made up of high-ranking government officials.
FALSE
A data stewardship program does not help to involve the organization in data quality.
FALSE
An anomaly is a type of flaw in the database server.
FALSE
An enterprise data model describes the scope of data for only one information system.
FALSE
Data integrity consists of powerful operations to manipulate data stored in relations.
FALSE
Database development begins with the design of the database.
FALSE
Database development projects are never done in a bottom-up fashion.
FALSE
Databases were developed as the first application of computers to data processing.
FALSE
Dirty data saves work for information systems projects.
FALSE
Generally, records in a customer file never become obsolete.
FALSE
Implementation of a standard can never stifle creativity and innovation.
FALSE
In PHP, you are limited to ten (10) code blocks in a single page.
FALSE
In the relational data model, associations between tables are defined through the use of primary keys.
FALSE
It is a good practice to name all Web files with a .php extension even if they contain no PHP code.
FALSE
Organizational commitment to a database project is not necessary for its success.
FALSE
Organizations that utilize the file processing approach spend only 20 percent of development time on maintenance.
FALSE
Personal databases are designed to support a small group of individuals working together on a project.
FALSE
Quality data are not essential for well-run organizations.
FALSE
Quality data does not have to be unique.
FALSE
Reduced program maintenance is an advantage of file processing systems.
FALSE
Repositories are always used in file processing systems
FALSE
Retention refers to the amount of data that is not purged periodically from tables.
FALSE
SQL has been implemented only in the mainframe and midrange environments.
FALSE
SQL originated from a project called System-S.
FALSE
The entity integrity rule states that a primary key attribute can be null.
FALSE
The source code for PHP can be viewed in the client browser.
FALSE
The steps of the systems development life cycle can only be viewed as a linear process.
FALSE
The term legacy system refers to a newly installed database management system.
FALSE
The truncate table statement in SQL creates a new table
FALSE
There can be multivalued attributes in a relation.
FALSE
Total quality management (TQM) focuses on defect correction rather than defect prevention.
FALSE
Unlike columns, the rows of a relation may not be interchanged and must be stored in one sequence.
FALSE
With the traditional file processing approach, each application shares data files, thus enabling much data sharing.
FALSE
A subquery in which processing the inner query depends on data from the outer query is called a codependent query.
False
An equi-join is a join in which one of the duplicate columns is eliminated in the result table.
False
EXISTS takes a value of false if the subquery returns an intermediate result set.
False
One major disadvantage of the outer join is that information is easily lost.
False
The following query will execute without errors. select customer.customer_name, salesman.sales_quota from customer where customer.salesman_id = (select salesman_id where lname = 'SMITH');
False
The natural join is very rarely used.
False
There is a special operation in SQL to join a table to itself.
False
Using an outer join produces this information: rows that do not have matching values in common columns are not included in the result table.
False
1) Data structures include data organized in the form of tables with rows and columns.
TRUE
41) Advances in computer hardware, particularly the emergence of affordable mass storage and parallel computer architectures, was one of the key advances that led to the emergence of data warehousing
TRUE
43) The need for data warehousing in an organization is driven by its need for an integrated view of high-quality data
TRUE
45) Informational systems are designed to support decision making based on historical point-in-time and prediction data
TRUE
47) An independent data mart is filled with data extracted from the operational environment without the benefit of a data warehouse
TRUE
49) Organizations adopt data mart architectures because it is easier to have separate, small data warehouses than to get all organizational parties to agree to one view of the organization in a central data warehouse
TRUE
A cascading delete removes all records in other tables associated with the record to be deleted.
TRUE
A data quality audit helps an organization understand the extent and nature of data quality problems.
TRUE
A data steward is a person assigned the responsibility of ensuring the organizational applications properly support the organization's enterprise goals for data quality.
TRUE
A foreign key is a primary key of a relation that also is a primary key in another relation.
TRUE
A major benefit of SQL as a standard is reduced training costs.
TRUE
A modern database management system automates more of the backup and recovery tasks than a file system.
TRUE
A primary key is an attribute that uniquely identifies each row in a relation
TRUE
A referential integrity constraint is a rule that maintains consistency among the rows of two relations.
TRUE
A well-structured relation contains minimal redundancy and allows users to manipulate the relation without errors or inconsistencies.
TRUE
All Web pages containing PHP code must have an extension of .php.
TRUE
All values that appear in a column of a relation must be taken from the same domain.
TRUE
Applications can be moved from one machine to another when each machine uses SQL.
TRUE
Completeness means that all data that are needed are present.
TRUE
Cost and complexity are just two of the disadvantages of database processing.
TRUE
Data quality is essential for SOX and Basel II compliance.
TRUE
Development starts from scratch with the traditional file processing approach because new file formats, descriptions, and file access logic must be designed for each new program.
TRUE
ETL is short for Extract, Transform, Load.
TRUE
End users can often retrieve and display data easily with a relational database.
TRUE
Enterprise modeling sets the range and general contents of organizational databases.
TRUE
File processing systems have been replaced by database systems in most critical business applications today.
TRUE
In practice, databases today may contain either data or information.
TRUE
Information is processed data.
TRUE
Many of the disadvantages of file processing systems can also be limitations of databases.
TRUE
Metadata are data that describe the properties of other data.
TRUE
One of the original purposes of the SQL standard was to provide a vehicle for portability of database definition and application modules between conforming DBMSs.
TRUE
One property of a relation is that each attribute within a relation has a unique name.
TRUE
One reason for improved application development productivity with the database approach is that file design and low-level implementation details do not need to be handled by the application programmer.
TRUE
SQL is both an American and international standard for database access.
TRUE
Sample data are useful for developing prototype applications and for testing queries.
TRUE
The allowable range of values for a given attribute is part of the domain constraint.
TRUE
The columns of a relation can be interchanged without changing the meaning or use of the relation.
TRUE
The data repository assists database administrators in enforcing standards.
TRUE
The failure to implement a strong database administrative function is the most common source of database failures in organizations.
TRUE
The systems development life cycle is the traditional methodology used to develop, maintain, and replace information systems.
TRUE
The uncontrolled proliferation of spreadsheets, databases and repositories leads to data quality problems.
TRUE
The user interface includes languages, menus, and other facilities by which users interact with various system components.
TRUE
Unplanned duplicate data files are the rule rather than the exception in file processing systems.
TRUE
A correlated subquery is executed once for each iteration through the outer loop.
True
A join in which the joining condition is based on equality between values in the common column is called a(n) equi-join.
True
A natural join is the same as an equi-join, except that it is performed over matching columns that have been defined with the same name, and one of the duplicate columns is eliminated.
True
An SQL query that implements an outer join will return rows that do not have matching values in common columns
True
In order to find out what customers have not placed an order for a particular item, one might use the NOT qualifier along with the IN qualifier.
True
Joining tables or using a subquery may produce the same result.
True
The following SQL statement is an example of a correlated subquery. select first_name, last_name, total_sales from salesman s1 where total_sales > all (select total_sales from salesman s2 where s1.salesman_id != s2.salesman_id);
True
The following queries produce the same results. select customer_name, customer_city from customer, salesman where customer.salesman_id = salesman.salesman_id and salesman.lname = 'SMITH'; select customer_name, customer_city from customer where customer.salesman_id = (select salesman_id from salesman where lname = 'SMITH');
True
The joining condition of an equi-join is based upon an equality.
True
When EXISTS or NOT EXISTS is used in a subquery, the select list of the subquery will usually just select all columns as a placeholder because it doesn't matter which columns are returned.
True
