Define Performant Architectures

43. Which of the following statements are true about cluster placement groups? (Choose two.) A. All instances in the group must be in the same availability zone. B. Instances in the group will see lowered network latency in communicating with each other. C. Instances in the group will see improved disk write performance when communicating with S3. D. Instances in the group must all be of the same instance class.

A, B

5. Which of the following databases support read replicas? A. Oracle B. MySQL C. DynamoDB D. All of the above

A, B

55. Which of the following is a valid reason to use a magnetic EBS volume? (Choose two.) A. You want a low-cost option for your EBS volume. B. You have a set of data that is infrequently accessed but want it stored on an EBS volume rather than S3. C. You need to perform processing to support Oracle installed on a fleet of EC2 instances. D. You have low-latency apps and want to run them on a bootable volume.

A, B

77. What engines does ElastiCache provide for caching? (Choose two.) A. memcached B. redis C. cacherm D. gitcache

A, B

82. Which of the following are origin sources usable with a CloudFront distribution? (Choose two.) A. An ALB B. DynamoDB C. AWS Shield D. An Oracle RDS instance

A, B

84. Which of the following are origin sources usable with a CloudFront distribution? (Choose two.) A. Lambda@Edge B. A static website on S3 C. Aurora on RDS D. ElastiCache instances

A, B

89. Which of the following can be origin servers for CloudFront? (Choose two.) A. S3 buckets B. EC2 instances C. RedShift workloads D. SNS notifications

A, B

94. Which of the following are true about both S3 and CloudFront? (Choose two.) A. They both store files. B. They both support encryption of their content. C. They both cache files. D. They both provide low-latency distribution of content to clients.

A, B

96. Which of the following can be CloudFront origin servers? (Choose two.) A. A web server hosted on another cloud provider B. An EC2 instance fleet spread across two regions C. A MySQL RDS instance D. An SNS topic

A, B

18. In which of the following ways can you create a read replica? (Choose two.) A. Through the AWS console B. Through the AWS online support system C. Through the AWS API D. Through Elastic Beanstalk

A, C

25. Which of the following are SQL-based options in RDS? (Choose two.) A. Aurora B. DynamoDB C. MariaDB D. Redshift

A, C

36. Which of the following provide ways to automate the backup of your RDS database? (Choose two.) A. Automated snapshots B. S3 lifecycle management policies C. Automated backups D. Data pipeline

A, C

48. Where is data stored when placed into S3-IA? (Choose two.) A. In the region specified at bucket creation B. In a special AWS "global" region for S3 storage C. In at least three availability zones D. In a single availability zone within at least three regions

A, C

57. Which of the following are characteristics of SSD-backed volumes? (Choose two.) A. Transactional workloads B. Streaming workloads C. Small I/O size D. Throughput-focused

A, C

6. Which of the following is true about a read replica? (Choose two.) A. It is a read-only instance of a primary database. B. It can only exist in the same region as the primary database, although it can be in a different availability zone. C. It is updated via asynchronous replication from the primary instance. D. It is updated via synchronous replication from the primary instance.

A, C

61. Which of the following can be an EBS boot volume? (Choose two.) A. Magnetic B. Throughput-optimized HDD C. Provisioned IOPS SSD D. Cold HDD

A, C

64. Which of the following are valid Elastic Load Balancing options? (Choose two.) A. ELB B. MLB C. ALB D. VLB

A, C

80. Which of the following accurately describe ElastiCache? (Choose two.) A. An in-memory data store B. A runtime engine for data distribution C. A mechanism for sharding application demands D. A monitoring solution for large datasets

A, C

85. Which of the following two are advantages of using a CloudFront distribution? (Choose two.) A. Performance B. Fault tolerance C. Integration with AWS managed services D. Disaster recovery

A, C

88. Which of the following can you do with CloudFront? (Choose two.) A. Quickly deploy a global network for your content without contracts or startup requirements. B. Quickly create websites that are dynamic and low latency. C. Distribute content with low latency and high data transfer rates. D. Provide storage for static files that are frequently accessed.

A, C

91. Which of the following might occur when content is requested from a CloudFront edge location? (Choose two.) A. Cached content at the edge location is returned. B. The request is passed directly to an origin server without CloudFront processing. C. A request is made to an origin server for the requested content. D. A redirect is returned to the client.

A, C

14. Which of the following are valid reasons to use read replication? (Choose two.) A. You have a read-heavy database that is peaking in traffic. B. You have a large number of errors reported by applications trying to update user entries in your current database and want to reduce these errors. C. You want an automated disaster recovery solution in case you lose an AZ. D. You have a large number of business reporting queries that are currently interfering with customer application performance.

A, D

41. Which of the following are valid reasons for using Multipart Upload for uploading objects to S3? (Choose two.) A. You need a solution that recovers from network issues. B. You need a solution to upload files larger than 10 GB. C. You need a solution for increasing the security around uploaded objects. D. You need a solution to decrease the time required to upload large files.

A, D

53. Which of the following are available to use as an EBS boot volume? (Choose two.) A. General SSD B. Cold HDD C. Throughput optimized HDD D. Provisioned IOPS

A, D

11. Which of the following statements are false? (Choose two.) A. Both read replicas and Multi-AZ configurations ensure that you have database instances in multiple availability zones. B. Both read replicas and Multi-AZ configurations provide disaster recovery options for your primary instance. C. A single database can both have a read replica and be part of a Multi-AZ setup. D. A read replica can be promoted to be a stand-alone database instance.

A,B

37. You have an EC2 instance running a heavy compute process that is constantly writing data to and from a cache on disk. How and when should you take a snapshot of the instance to ensure the most complete snapshot? A. Take a snapshot of the instance from the AWS console. B. Shut down the instance and take a snapshot of the instance. C. Take a snapshot of the instance from the AWS CLI. D. Detach the EBS volume attached to the instance and take a snapshot of both the EC2 and EBS instance.

B

50. What is the maximum allowable RDS volume size when using provisioned IOPS storage? A. 8 TB B. 16 TB C. 12 TB D. 1 PB

B

52. Which of the following is a valid reason to use a cold HDD EBS volume? A. You need a performant solid-state drive. B. You are trying to choose the lowest-cost EBS volume possible. C. You are performing data warehousing using the volume. D. You need an inexpensive boot volume.

B

66. At what level of the TCP stack does a network load balancer operate? A. Level 1 B. Level 4 C. Level 7 D. Level 8

B

69. Can you use an elastic load balancer to balance load within a VPC? A. Yes, as long as the VPC has an internet gateway. B. Yes, by setting the ELB to be internal to the VPC. C. No, load balancers can only route traffic from the Internet. D. No, load balancers cannot operate inside a VPC.

B

70. You are an architect working on adding scalability to an application based on EC2 instances within a public-facing VPC. You want the maximum amount of flexibility in weighting and load balancing options, as you plan to experiment with various routing types to see which handles load most evenly. Which type of load balancer should you use? A. Classic ELB B. Application load balancer C. Network load balancer D. Either an ALB or ELB would be suitable.

B

72. You have a fleet of web-hosting EC2 instances. Currently, you have SSL certificates installed for each EC2 instance, but the cost of maintaining these certificates and installing new ones has become higher over recent years. You want to architect a solution for SSL termination that doesn't involve multiple certificates. Which load balancer would you suggest? A. Classic ELB B. Application load balancer C. Network load balancer D. Either an ALB or ELB would be suitable.

B

90. Which domain name should you use to take advantage of CloudFront? A. The domain name registered to your S3 buckets in Route 53 B. The domain name registered in CloudFront as the origin for your static and dynamic content C. The domain name registered in your ALB or ELB pointing to your content D. The domain name from the AWS console for your CloudFront distribution

B

98. What is a CloudFront distribution? A. A worldwide network of data centers B. A set of origin servers whose content is served by CloudFront via various edge locations C. The cached content on CloudFront edge locations at any given time D. The cached content from your account stored on CloudFront edge locations at any given time

B

100. What is the shortest expiration period allowed for a CloudFront edge location? A. 0 seconds B. 5 seconds C. 30 seconds D. 1 minute

A

12. Which of the following statements is true? A. A Multi-AZ setup is aimed at fault tolerance, while a read replica setup is aimed at scalability. B. Both read replicas and Multi-AZ configurations are aimed at fault tolerance. C. A Multi-AZ setup is aimed at scalability, while a read replica setup is aimed at fault tolerance. D. Both read replicas and Multi-AZ configurations are aimed at scalability.

A

20. Can a database instance be a read replica of one database and the source instance for another read replica? A. Yes, as long as the source and replicant database are not the same instance. B. No, a database cannot be both a read replica and a source database. C. Yes, as long as the source and replicant database are in the same availability zone. D. Yes, as long as you enable circular replication on both databases.

A

27. You launch an EC2 instance that has two volumes attached: a root and an additional volume, both created with default settings. What happens to each volume when you terminate the instance? A. The root volume is deleted and the additional volume is preserved. B. Both volumes are deleted. C. Both volumes are preserved. D. The instance is unable to terminate until the root volume is deleted.

A

32. How many elastic IP addresses can you create per region by default in a new AWS account? A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. There is no preset limit.

A

34. How many EC2 instances can be attached to a single EBS volume at one time? A. 1 B. 2 C. 27 D. Unlimited

A

46. Which of the following storage classes has the highest availability? A. S3 standard B. S3-IA C. Glacier D. They all have equal availability.

A

51. Which of the following EBS volumes is the most performant? A. Provisioned IOPS B. Throughput optimized HDD C. Cold HDD D. General SSD

A

60. You are the solutions architect for a company installing a web application on a set of EC2 instances. The application writes a small amount of user profile data to attached EBS volumes, and accesses that data an average of once every five minutes if the user is still using the web application. Additionally, because of the high cost of the application's RDS instance, you would like to minimize your EBS volume costs. Which EBS volume type would you choose to support these applications? A. Magnetic B. Throughput-optimized HDD C. Provisioned IOPS SSD D. General SSD

A

76. Are zone apex records supported by Route 53? A. Yes B. No C. Yes, as long as they point to AWS resources. D. Not by default, but you can request support by AWS and then support them.

A

26. You are a new architect at a company building out a large-scale database deployment for web applications that receive thousands of requests per minute. The previous architect suggested a Multi-AZ deployment in RDS to ensure maximum responsiveness to the web tier. Is this a good approach for high performance? A. No, because a Multi-AZ deployment is no faster in responding to requests than a standard RDS deployment. B. Yes, because the additional databases in a Multi-AZ deployment will share the request load from the web tier. C. Yes, because a Multi-AZ deployment will ensure that if the primary database goes down, a secondary database will be current and available. D. No, because a Multi-AZ deployment can only field requests from the availability zone in which each database resides.

A Multi AZ concerned w/failover NOT performance

97. What is an edge location? A. A specific node within a worldwide network of data centers that deliver CloudFront content B. A virtual cloud of caching stations C. A fleet of EC2 instances managed by AWS D. An EC2 instance in a remote region from your primary content

A,

16. Which of the following are valid reasons to use read replication? (Choose two.) A. You have customers in a region geographically distant from your primary instance and want to improve their read performance when they access your applications hosted in regions closer to them. B. Your current database instance is showing memory saturation with current traffic loads. C. Your boss has asked for an automated backup solution that takes advantage of AWS managed services. D. You need to perform additional OLTP queries and want to improve the performance of those queries.

A, B

31. Which of the following protocols and routing approaches does a classic load balancer support? (Choose two.) A. IPv4 B. IPv6 C. HTTP/2 D. Registering targets in target groups and routing traffic to those groups

A, B

29. What type of replication occurs in a Multi-AZ RDS setup? A. Sequential replication B. Synchronous replication C. Asynchronous replication D. Synchronous replication for full backups and asynchronous replication for incremental backups

B

15. Does a read replica provide any assistance at all in creating a fault-tolerant database setup? A. Yes, it provides automated backups to the read replicas. B. Yes, if the primary instance fails, one of the replicas can be manually promoted to a stand-alone database instance. C. Yes, if the primary instance fails, one of the replicas will be automatically promoted to a stand-alone database instance. D. No

B

19. How are automated backups related to read replicas? A. They are not; read replicas and automated backups have no relationship at all. B. Read replicas do not create automatic backups, but the primary database instance must have automatic backups enabled to create read replicas. C. Read replicas cause the primary database instance to automatically begin backing up. D. Each read replica is automatically backed up after an initial read from the primary database instance.

B

22. What is the longest backup retention window that Amazon RDS allows? A. 30 days B. 35 days C. 45 days D. 365 days

B

28. How many S3 buckets can you add to an account? A. 100 B. 100 by default, but this can be increased by contacting AWS. C. It depends on the default set for the new account by AWS. D. It depends on how the account is configured at account creation.

B

10. Which of the following are true about a read replica setup? (Choose two.) A. Automated backups are taken from the read replicas rather than the primary instance. B. The database engine on all instances is active. C. Each read replica instance can upgrade its database engine separate from the primary instance. D. Replication is synchronous.

B, C

35. Which of the following protocols are supported by an application load balancer? (Choose two.) A. SSH B. HTTP C. HTTPS D. FTP

B, C

38. Your web-based application uses a large RDS data store to write and read user profile information. The latest marketing campaign has increased traffic to the application by an order of magnitude. Users are reporting long delays when logging in after having signed up. Which solutions are valid approaches to addressing this lag? (Choose two.) A. Set up a Multi-AZ configuration for your RDS and round-robin requests between the two RDS instances to spread out traffic. B. Employ ElastiCache to cache users' credentials after their initial visit to reduce trips to the database from the web application. C. Set up a read replica configuration for your RDS and round-robin requests between all the replicas to spread out traffic. D. Increase the number of EC2 instances allocated to your Auto Scaling group to spread out traffic on the web application tier.

B, C

44. Which of the following statements are true about spread placement groups? (Choose two.) A. All instances in the group must be in the same availability zone. B. Instances in the group will see lowered network latency in communicating with each other. C. You can have up to seven instances in multiple availability zones in the group. D. AWS provisions the hardware rather than having you specify the distinct hardware for the group.

B, C

56. Which of the following is a valid reason to use a provisioned IOPS EBS volume? (Choose two.) A. You want a low-cost option for your EBS volume. B. You need to support a large MongoDB database workload. C. You need massive performance and throughput for your applications. D. You have applications that need a bootable environment but can fail from time to time and be re-created.

B, C

62. Which of the following cannot be used as an EBS boot volume? (Choose two.) A. General SSD B. Throughput-optimized HDD C. Cold HDD D. Magnetic

B, C

67. At what levels of the TCP stack does a classic load balancer operate? (Choose two.) A. Level 1 B. Level 4 C. Level 7 D. Level 8

B, C

83. Which of the following are origin sources usable with a CloudFront distribution? (Choose two.) A. DynamoDB B. A fleet of EC2 instances C. S3 buckets D. RedShift

B, C

54. Which of the following is a valid reason to use a General Purpose SSD EBS volume? (Choose two.) A. You need to support large database workloads. B. You want a blend of a performant SSD and a cost-sensitive SSD volume. C. You are performing data warehousing using the volume. D. You have low-latency apps and want to run them on a bootable volume.

B, D

58. Which of the following are characteristics of HDD-backed volumes? (Choose two.) A. Transactional workloads B. Streaming workloads C. Small I/O size D. Throughput-focused

B, D

79. For which of the following would ElastiCache offer performance improvements? (Choose two.) A. Gaming B. ElastiCache can improve any application's performance when used properly. C. Financial services D. A and C

B, D

86. How does CloudFront increase the security of content at the edge? (Choose two.) A. Required HTTPS at all edge locations B. Integration with AWS WAF (if configured) C. Automatic client keys encrypted with KMS D. Automatic deployment of AWS Shield

B, D

87. Choose the true statements about edge locations. (Choose two.) A. There are fewer edge locations than regions. B. There are more edge locations than regions. C. There are fewer edge locations than availability zones. D. There are more edge locations than availability zones.

B, D

95. Which of the following content types can be served by CloudFront? (Choose two.) A. The returned rows from a SQL query B. The response from a PHP script C. A Lambda function D. HTML and CSS

B, D

24. In what scenarios would you install an Oracle database on an EC2 instance rather than using RDS? (Choose two.) A. You want to use an ALB to support multiple instances and round-robin request distributions. B. Your database size is greater than 80% of the maximum database size in RDS. C. You have custom plug-ins that will not run in RDS. D. You want to ensure that your database is only accessible through your private subnet in a VPC.

B,C

23. You have an Oracle installation using a custom geospatial plug-in. You also want to ensure the maximum throughput for database operations once those operations are begun by the plug-in. How would you set up Oracle to meet these requirements? A. Set up Oracle using RDS with provisioned IOPS. B. Set up Oracle using RDS with magnetic storage. C. Install Oracle on an EC2 instance with a provisioned IOPS EBS volume. D. Install Oracle on an EC2 instance with a magnetic EBS volume.

C

3. What is the primary purpose of a read replica RDS configuration? A. Disaster recovery B. Fault tolerance C. Performance D. Security

C

30. What type of replication occurs in a read replica RDS setup? A. Sequential replication B. Synchronous replication C. Asynchronous replication D. Synchronous replication for full backups and asynchronous replication for incremental backups

C

33. To how many EBS volumes can a single EC2 instance attach? A. 1 B. 2 C. 27 D. Unlimited

C

39. Your users are now storing all of their photos in your cloud-based application. CloudWatch metrics suggests that photos are written an average of 5 times per user per day and read 100 times per user per day. If photos are lost, user surveys indicate that users are not typically upset and simply re-upload the missing photo or ignore the missing photo altogether. What is the most cost-effective recommendation for the S3 storage class to use? A. Standard S3 B. S3-IA C. S3 One Zone-IA D. S3 RRS

C

59. You are charged with installing Oracle on a fleet of EC2 instances due to custom Javabased plug-ins you need to install along with Oracle. Which EBS volume type would you choose to best support your Oracle installation? A. Magnetic B. Throughput-optimized HDD C. Provisioned IOPS SSD D. General SSD

C

63. Which of the following is not an Elastic Load Balancing option? A. Classic load balancer B. Application load balancer C. Weighting load balancer D. Network load balancer

C

65. At what level of the TCP stack does an ALB operate? A. Level 1 B. Level 4 C. Level 7 D. Level 8

C

71. You have a host of EC2 instances all with dedicated IP addresses serving results from complex computations. You want to load balance across these instances, each of which receives hundreds of thousands of requests a second currently. Which load balancer would you employ? A. Classic ELB B. Application load balancer C. Network load balancer D. Either an ALB or ELB would be suitable.

C

2. Which of the following are valid options for where an RDS read replica is set up in relation to the primary instance? (Choose two.) A. In the same region as the primary instance B. In a separate region from the primary instance C. In an instance running on premises D. Both A and B

C, D

92. Which of the following statements about CloudFront are not true? (Choose two.) A. CloudFront edge locations are geographically distributed across the world. B. CloudFront maintains persistent connections with origin servers. C. A request will be routed by CloudFront to the nearest edge location to the origin server, which will serve that request. D. CloudFront can use an RDS instance of PostgreSQL as an origin server.

C, D

7. Which of the following is true about an RDS read replica configuration? (Choose two.) A. Only three read replicas can be set up for a single primary database instance. B. Only MariaDB, MySQL, and Aurora are supported. C. A read replica replicates all databases in the primary instance. D. A read replica can exist in a different region than the primary instance.

C,D

9. Which of the following are true about a read replica setup? (Choose two.) A. Backups are configured by default when you set up read replicas. B. They provide a highly scalable solution for your on-premises databases. C. They can exist within a single AZ, cross-AZ, or cross-region. D. A read replica can be promoted to a stand-alone database instance.

C,D

40. You are consulting for a company that wants to migrate its 85TB data store into S3. It is willing to upload the data into S3 every night in small batches but is concerned that overseas customers using its other applications might experience network latency as they are transferring files into S3. What solution should you recommend to move the company's data? A. Enable Transfer Acceleration on S3. B. Direct Connect C. Snowball D. Set up a VPN that uses a virtual private gateway for transferring the data.

C-Anytime a large data transfer is involved...SNOWBALL

49. You need to perform a large amount of OLAP. Which AWS service would you choose? A. DynamoDB B. RDS Aurora C. Redshift D. Oracle installed on EC2 instances

C-OLAP=ONLINE ANALYTIC PROCESSING

42. In which of the following situations would you recommend using a placement group? A. Your fleet of EC2 instances requires high disk IO. B. Your fleet of EC2 instances requires high network throughput across two availability zones. C. Your fleet of EC2 instances requires high network throughput within a single availability zone. D. Your fleet of EC2 instances requires high network throughput to S3 buckets.

C-placement group is concerned w/network throughput and latency amongst ec2 instances w/in a single availability zone

1. When replicating data from a primary RDS instance to a secondary one, how much will you be charged, in relation to the standard data transfer charge? A. Your data will be transferred at the standard data transfer charge. B. Your data will be transferred at half of the standard data transfer charge. C. Your data will be transferred at half of the standard data transfer charge up to 1 GB of transfer per day and then additional data at the standard data transfer charge. D. There is no charge for primary-to-secondary data replication

D

13. How do applications communicate with read replica instances? A. Through the read replica REST API provided by RDS B. ELBs and ALBs will automatically translate requests to a read replica to use the read replica REST API provided by RDS. C. Each read replica provides a read replica key that allows applications to communicate with the instance as if it were a normal database instance. D. Applications communicate with a read replica exactly as they would with a non-read replica.

D

17. Can you configure a database instance to be both a read replica and a primary database instance for the original instance? A. Yes, as long as the instances are all in the same availability zone. B. Yes, if you turn on circular replication in both primary database instances. C. Yes, as long as the instances are not in the same availability zone. D. No, AWS does not support circular replication.

D

21. How quickly can you make changes to the backup window used by your RDS instance? A. Changes to the window via the console take place within 1 hour; changes made via the API take place immediately. B. Changes to the window take place after the next complete backup occurs. C. Changes to the window via the API take place within 1 hour; changes made via the console take place immediately. D. Changes to the window take place immediately.

D

4. Which of the following databases support read replicas? A. MariaDB B. MySQL C. PostgreSQL D. All of the above

D

45. Which of the following storage classes has the lowest durability? A. S3 standard B. S3-IA C. Glacier D. They all have equal durability.

D

47. Which of the following storage classes support automated lifecycle transitions? A. S3 standard B. S3-IA C. Glacier D. They all support lifecycle transitions.

D

68. Which of the following is a valid reason to use an application load balancer? A. You want your applications to automatically scale. B. You want to balance load across your applications, which reside in containers. C. You want to achieve better fault tolerance for your applications. D. All of the above

D

73. You need a load balancer that supports SSL termination. Which type of load balancer would you choose? A. Classic ELB B. Application load balancer C. Network load balancer D. Either an ALB or ELB would be suitable.

D

74. How many domains can you register and manage with Route 53? A. 50 B. 100 C. There is no limit. D. There is a limit of 50, but it can be raised upon request.

D

75. Which of the following record sets are supported by Route 53? A. A records B. MX records C. Alias records D. All of the above

D

8. You have a primary database set up to use read replicas running on an instance in US East 1. You have three read replicas also in US East 1 and two additional replicas in US West 2. You are trying to create a new replica in EU West 1 and are getting an error. What do you need to do to resolve this error and successfully create a new read replica in EU West 1? A. Turn on the Multi-AZ option for your primary instance. B. You can't create the replica in EU West 1. Instead, create the replica in another US region to avoid regulations about read replicas in the EU. C. Contact AWS about raising the number of read replicas allowed from 5 to 8. D. Turn off one of the read replicas in US East 1 and then you can create the instance in EU West 1.

D

81. Which of the following would you use to interact with a CloudFront distribution? A. CloudFormation B. The AWS CLI C. The AWS REST APIs D. Any of these

D

93. How is data transferred out from a region to a CloudFront edge location charged? A. At normal egress data rates B. At half the price of normal egress rates C. At the lowest available rate for the region from which the data originates D. There is no charge.

D

99. How long is content cached at an edge location? A. 24 hours B. 12 hours C. 12 hours by default, but this value can be changed. D. 24 hours by default, but this value can be changed.

D

78. Which of the following do you need to handle when setting up ElastiCache? A. Patching B. Backups C. Monitoring D. None of the above

D-ElastiCache already does all this