DH102 Mini mock exam

A.Enamel pearls Enamel Pearls are a variation in root form. Enamel is present on the root surface where enamel is not typically located. Enamel pearls are spherical and are usually found in the furcation area but can be found anywhere on the root surface.B. Enamel projection is a variation in root form where the enamel extends apically at the CEJ toward the furcation.C. Hypercementosis is excessive formation of cementum around the root caused by trauma during development. This makes the roots look fuzzy on a radiograph.D. Dens in Dente means tooth within a tooth and would appear within the pulp chamber.

Using Fig. 5.24, what would you call the enamel projections seen on the maxillary molars? A.Enamel pearls B.Enamel projections C.Hypercementosis D.Dens in Dente

Which error produces a darker radiographic image? a. Fixer solution too cold b. Film left in the water rinse too long c. Film exposed backward in the mouth d. Film placed in fixer before developer solution

a. Fixer solution too cold A. In film processing, the fixer solution hardens the emulsion and clears all unexposed silver halide crystals. If the fixer solution is too cold, a darker image will be produced.B. Leaving film in the water rinse too long is an error that produces a lighter film appearance.C. Exposing film backwards in the mouth is an error that produces a lighter film appearance.D. Placing film in fixer before the developer solution is an error that produces a lighter film appearance.

Which of the following should you administer when hyperglycemia is suspected? a. Glucose b. Cortisol c. Atropine d. Insulin

a. Glucose ANS: A Regardless of the cause of the emergency, a diabetic patient is treated based on consciousness or unconsciousness, not on hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia; all diabetic emergencies are treated based on the assumption the emergency is hypoglycemia. Glucose should always be administered during an emergency involving hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia. b. Cortisol is administered for acute adrenal insufficiency. c. Atropine is used for bradycardia during a syncope episode. Even in an emergency involving hyperglycemia or high blood sugar, insulin is never administered in the dental office. Giving glucose to someone with hyperglycemia will not hurt the patient. d. Giving insulin to someone with hypoglycemia could be fatal.

Which restorative materials have the same radiographic appearance? a. Gold and amalgam b. Porcelain and stainless steel crown c. Guttapercha and silver points d. Composite and porcelain-fused-to-metal crown

a. Gold and amalgam A. Gold and amalgam have the same radiographic appearance: both materials appear totally radiopaque.B. Porcelain and stainless steel crowns have varying degrees of radiopacity and radiolucency.C. Gutta percha and silver points have varying degrees of radiopacity and radiolucency.D. Composite and porcelain-fused-to-metal materials have varying degrees of radiopacity and radiolucency.

When performing rescue breathing, how many breaths per minute should be given on an adult? a. 8-10/minute b. 10-12/minute c. 12-17/minute d. 20/minute

b. 10-12/minute ANS: BAdults should be given 10-12 rescue breaths per minute. a. 8-10/minute is not correctc. 12-17/minute is not correctd. Infants and children should be given 20 rescue breaths per minute.

The only trigeminal nerve division carrying both afferent and efferent nerves is the: a. Ophthalmic b. Mandibular c. Maxillary d. Facial

b. Mandibular B. The mandibular nerve, third division of the trigeminal nerve, cranial nerve V, is the only division containing both afferent and efferent nerve types.A. The ophthalmic nerve, is the first division of the trigeminal nerve; it is afferent and arises from three major nerves.C. The maxillary nerve, is the second division of the trigeminal nerve; it contains afferent nerve branches.D. The facial nerve, cranial nerve VII, is not a trigeminal nerve division.

Of the following, during mastication of hard or hot food, all these structures of the palate may be injured EXCEPT: a. Rugae b. Median sulcus c. Alveolar process d. Incisive papilla

b. Median sulcus B. Median sulcus is the midline depression on the tongue.A. Rugae are irregular ridges of mucosa on the anterior half of the hard palate.C. The alveolar process on the palate may be prominent and subject to injury.D. The incisive papilla is the lingual prominence of tissue between the maxillary central incisors that is easily injured during mastication.

When contracted, which of the following muscles tightens and narrows the vestibule, making access to the facial aspect of the mandibular incisors difficult? a. Buccinator b. Mentalis c. Levator labii superioris d. Depressor labii inferioris

b. Mentalis B. The mentalis muscle raises the chin and narrows the vestibule near the mandibular incisors.A. The buccinator muscle pulls the mouth laterally, shortening the cheek and aiding in keeping food on the chewing surfaces of the teeth.C. The levator labii superioris muscle raises the upper lip.D. The depressor labii inferioris muscle lowers the lower lip to expose the mandibular incisors.

Which epithelial membrane covers body cavities that open to the exterior of the body and are adapted for absorption and secretion? a. Cutaneous b. Mucous c. Periosteal d. Synovial

b. Mucous B. Examples of the mucous membranes are the digestive tract, the urinary tract, reproductive tract, and respiratory tract.A. The cutaneous membrane is the skin.C. The periosteum membrane is a connective tissue membrane that covers bone.D. The synovial membrane is a connective tissue membrane that lines joint cavities.

Which organ(s) of the digestive system include the mechanical process of deglutition? a. Colon b. Pharynx c. Rectum d. Small intestine

b. Pharynx B. The pharynx, esophagus, teeth, and tongue all contribute to the swallowing of food referred to as deglutition.A. The colon is part of the large intestine with mechanical processes called segmentation and peristalsis.C. The rectum's mechanical process of the digestive system is referred to as defecation.D. The small intestine's mechanical process of the digestive system is referred to as segmentation and peristalsis.

Which would be an appropriate reason to expose an occlusal radiograph? a. Mucocele b. Salivary stones c. Advanced bone loss d. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disorder

b. Salivary stones B. The occlusal technique provides a supplemental image used when the area of interest is larger than a periapical radiograph may cover, such as a salivary stone.A. The mucocele is a soft tissue lesion not requiring radiographic exam.C. Advanced bone loss is best evaluated through periapical imaging.D. TMJ disorder requires extraoral imaging.

Which of these structures provides openings into the mouth for two major salivary glands? a. Parotid papilla b. Sublingual caruncle c. Palatal salivary duct d. Stensen duct

b. Sublingual caruncle B. Sublingual caruncle contains the duct openings for both the submandibular and sublingual salivary glands.A. The parotid papilla is the flap of tissue containing the opening of Stensen's duct for the parotid gland.C. The palatal salivary ducts are small, dark openings in the hard and soft palates.D. The Stensen duct is the opening for parotid gland secretions.

The salivary gland most often associated with salivary stone formation is the: a. Parotid b. Submandibular c. Sublingual d. Lacrimal

b. Submandibular B. The submandibular gland contains a long duct in the floor of the mouth that requires upward travel of mucous secretion, which may lead to salivary stone formation.A. The parotid salivary gland may become enlarged and tender as a symptom of the mumps.C. The sublingual salivary gland has shorter ducts that form the sublingual duct which opens directly into the oral cavity.D. The lacrimal glands are paired glands that excrete lacrimal fluid or tears.

Which of the following muscle groups elevate the hyoid bone? a. Intrinsic tongue muscles b. Extrinsic tongue muscles c. Suprahyoid muscles d. Infrahyoid muscles

c. Suprahyoid muscles C. The suprahyoid muscle group is located superior to the hyoid; this muscle group acts to raise the hyoid bone and larynx during swallowing and depress the mandible during mastication.A. Intrinsic tongue muscles, considered by some to be one muscle, are located entirely within the tongue and act together to change the shape of the tongue.B. Extrinsic tongue muscles all insert inside the tongue but originate elsewhere; these muscles move the tongue.D. The infrahyoid muscle group acts to depress the hyoid bone.

Which of the following is a quality control test used to monitor the strength of the developer solution? a. Coin test b. Light-leak check c. Step-wedge radiograph d. Half-value layer (HVL)

c. Step-wedge radiograph C. Creating a stepwedge radiograph allows the operator to compare the film densities produced by the developer on a daily basis.A. The coin test is used for testing the strength of the safelight.B. The light leak check is used to check the light-tightness of the darkroom.D. The HVL test is used for x-ray machine output variations.

Nerves that carry impulses away from the brain or spinal cord to a body structure are known as: a. Synapse b. Ganglion c. Afferent d. Efferent

d. Efferent D. Efferent, or motor neurons transmit nerve impulses away from the CNS toward a body structure such as information sent to a muscle for activation.A. A synapse is a connection that allows for the transmission of nerve impulses between two neurons or between a neuron and an effector organ.B. A ganglion is a group of nerve cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system or PNS.C. Afferent or sensory neurons carry nerve impulses toward the CNS away from a body structure as in information sent to the brain for analysis or action.

X-rays belong to which category of radiation? a. Particulate b. Alpha c. Beta d. Electromagnetic

d. Electromagnetic D. X-rays belong to the group of electromagnetic radiations, which is the propagation of wave-like energy without mass through space or matter.A. Particulate radiations are tiny particles of matter that possess mass and travel in straight lines at high speeds.B. Alpha is not a category of radiation.C. Beta is not a category of radiation.

Leukocytes are white blood cells that protect the body against infection. All the following are leukocytes EXCEPT: a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. Basophils d. Erythrocytes

d. Erythrocytes D. Erythrocytes are red blood cells lacking nuclei that produce hemoglobin which functions to transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues in exchange for carbon dioxide.A, B, and C are all leukocytes.

Which speed of film is currently recommended by the American Dental Association (ADA) and the American Academy of Oral and Maxillofacial Radiology (AAOMR)? a. C b. D c. E d. F

d. F D. The ADA and AAOMR recommend the use of F-speed film because it results in less patient radiation exposure.A. C-speed film is outdated and has been replaced.B. D-speed film is outdated and has been replaced.C. E-speed film is outdated and has been replaced.

During a clinical examination, the patient presents with geographic tongue. This indicates the involvement of which papillae? a. Fungiform b. Circumvallate c. Foliate d. Filiform

d. Filiform D. The filiform papillae give the dorsum of the tongue texture and become devoid with geographic tongue.A. The fungiform papillae function in tasting sweet, sour, and salty.B. The circumvallate papillae function in the taste of bitter and secrete serous saliva.C. The foliate papillae function in the taste of sour.

Which of the following BEST describes the functions of the hypodermis, or subcutaneous layer of the skin? a. Forms ridges that make up fingerprints and footprints b. Serves as an attachment for skeletal muscle fibers c. Serves as a protection against microorganisms and dehydration d. Forms as a connection between the skin and underlying structures

d. Forms as a connection between the skin and underlying structures D. The hypodermis is loose connective and adipose tissue and forms a connection between the skin and underlying structures.A. The papillary layer is a component of the dermis.B. The reticular layer is a component of the dermis.C. The epidermis is the outer most layer of skin.

Each cusp on a posterior tooth has one cusp ridge, but each posterior tooth has two marginal ridges. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE.

d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE. D. Each cusp on any posterior tooth has two cusp ridges. Posterior teeth have two marginal ridges that run faciolingually and form the interproximal boundaries of the occlusal table.A. Each cusp of a posterior tooth has two cusp ridges.B and C. Each posterior tooth does have two marginal ridges; all teeth have two marginal ridges.

Which one of the following is a function of the anterior pituitary gland? a. Produces growth hormone b. Secretes melatonin c. Stores and releases antidiuretic hormone d. Stores and releases oxytocin

a. Produces growth hormone A. The growth hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland, effecting body growth by stimulating the liver to ultimately produce growth factors.B. The pineal gland secretes melatonin, helping to regulate sleep cycles.C. The posterior pituitary gland releases antidiuretic hormone, which limits large amounts of urine and protecting from dehydration.D. The posterior pituitary gland releases oxytocin for uterine contraction during labor and milk ejection of lactating women.

What is the primary factor in the determination of the contrast of an image? a. kVp b. Exposure time c. Source-to-receptor distance d. mA

a. kVp A. The only factor that has a direct influence on the contrast of a radiographic image is kVp.B. Exposure time has an effect on the density of the image.C. The source-to-receptor distance has no effect on the contrast of an image.D. mA has an effect on the density of the image.

B.Drinking Mountain Dew

A 29-year-old male presents for an initial dental hygiene appointment. The patient has no significant medical history. The patient brushes once a day. It has been 4 years since he has been to a dentist because he did not have dental insurance. He presents today with a chief concern about his front teeth breaking and would like a cleaning. He also notes that he thinks his teeth are getting yellower and is interested in whitening. During dietary counseling the clinician noted the patient drinks Mountain Dew all day. What in the patient's history could be contributing to his condition? A.Not being to the dentist in 4 years B.Drinking Mountain Dew C.Not having dental insurance D.Brushing his teeth

a. Furcation involvement A. A furcation involvement is evident on tooth #3, which is a radiographic sign of periodontal disease. B. The cantilevered bridge is a restoration. C. No evidence of root caries is seen. D. Attachment loss is not visible.

Along with bone loss and calculus deposits, what other radiographic sign indicative of periodontal disease is present? a. Furcation involvement b. Cantilevered bridge c. Root caries d. Attachment loss

d. A full-mouth series D. Because of the caries, periodontal disease, missing teeth, and numerous restorations, a full-mouth series would be required to completely evaluate this patient.A. Occlusal radiographs would not give enough information regarding this patient's dental condition.B and C. Bite-wing radiographs would not give enough information regarding this patient's dental condition.

An adult male patient presents to the dental office with a chief complaint of heat/cold sensitivity in his teeth, along with discontent of the appearance of the anterior crown. It has been 5 years since his last dental visit. Tooth #30 was recently avulsed due to advanced periodontal disease and trauma. In addition to the panoramic image, which intraoral radiographs would be most beneficial for the total care of this patient? a. Maxillary and mandibular occlusal radiographs b. Four horizontal bitewing radiographs c. Four vertical bitewing radiographs d. A full-mouth series

a. Internal oblique ridge A. The arrow is pointing to the internal oblique ridge, a radiopaque prominence of bone seen on the lingual surface of the mandible that extends downward and forward from the ramus.B. The mandibular canal is a radiolucent structure.C. Condensing bone is not visible on this panoramic image.D. The descending ramus is located posterior to the arrow in this image.

An adult male patient presents to the dental office with a chief complaint of heat/cold sensitivity in his teeth, along with discontent of the appearance of the anterior crown. It has been 5 years since his last dental visit. Tooth #30 was recently avulsed due to advanced periodontal disease and trauma. The arrow is pointing to which radiopaque structure? a. Internal oblique ridge b. Mandibular canal c. Condensing bone d. Descending ramus

D.A & C D. Both the gingival margin and the interdental papilla appear fluid filled and inflamed.A. Gingival margin is seen in the picture but it is not the only tissue that is edematous and therefore is not the best answer. B. Attached gingiva is seen in the picture and is located apical to the gingival margin, but it does not appear to be edematous. C. Interdental papilla is seen in the picture but is not the only tissue that is edematous, therefore is not the best answer.

Looking at Fig. 5.25, what gingiva is edematous? A.Gingival margin B.Attached gingiva C.Interdental papilla D.A & C

C.Labioversion C. Labioversion is an accurate description of #24 that deviates labially or facially relative to adjoining teeth in the same arch.A. Torsiversion is rotation of a tooth from its usual position.B. Infraocclusion is undereruption of a tooth from its usual position.D. Linguoversion is a tooth positioned out of alignment lingually.

What terminology would you use to describe the location of tooth #24 seen in Fig. 5.31? A.Torsiversion B.Infraocclusion C.Labioversion D.Linguoversion

B.Dentin B. Dentin is more yellow in color than enamel and is seen in the pictures provided because the patient has eroded enamel. A. Enamel is whiter in color compared to dentin. Enamel covers dentin on a healthy tooth.C. Cementum is on root surfaces and roots are not see in the pictures given. D. Pulp is the innermost noncalcified tissue that contains blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves.

What tooth tissue is seen in Fig. 5.23 that is yellow in color? A.Enamel B.Dentin C.Cementum D.Pulp

a. Amalgam A. An amalgam restoration is seen on the occlusal surface of the maxillary first molar.B. A. No base material is visible radiographically.C. Gold is equally radiopaque as amalgam but demonstrates smooth borders.D. Composite is not typically as radiopaque as this image demonstrates.

Which restorative material is present on the maxillary first molar? a. Amalgam b. Amalgam with base material c. Gold d. Composite

c. #12 C. Tooth #12 has been extracted.

Which tooth has been extracted and is not visible on this periapical image? a. #4 b. #5 c. #12 d. #13

A person standing 2 feet from a source of radiation receives a dose of 2 rad. What would be the dose for a person standing 4 feet from the source of radiation? a. 0.5 rad b. 1.0 rad c. 2.0 rad d. 4.0 rad

a. 0.5 rad A. Using the inverse square law, the dose for a person standing 4 feet from the source of radiation is 0.5 rads.

Which type of muscle contraction is an example of concentric (isotonic) contraction? a. Biceps curl b. Setting an object down c. Sitting in a chair d. Walking down the stairs

a. Biceps curl A. The bicep curl is an example of the muscle shortening upon contraction and thus a concentric (isotonic) contraction.B. Setting an object down is an example of the muscle lengthening and thus an eccentric (isotonic) contraction. Because of external weight, the muscle is forced to lengthen as object is placed.C. Sitting in a chair requires muscles to extend as gravity pulls the weight of the person into the chair. This is an example of eccentric (isotonic) contraction.D. Walking down stairs lengthens the quadriceps as the knee flexes. This is an example of eccentric (isotonic) contraction.

All references to body structures are made assuming the body is in anatomic position; anatomic position is the erect position of the body, arms at the sides, with head, eyes and palms facing forward. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE.

a. Both statements are TRUE.

The muscles of mastication consist of four paired muscles inserting on the mandible. The muscles of mastication are innervated by the mandibular division of cranial nerve V. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE.

a. Both statements are TRUE.

Which is the innermost layer of the heart and also lines the valves? a. Endocardium b. Epicardium c. Myocardium d. Pericardium

a. Endocardium A. The endocardium is a smooth surface, allowing blood to easily flow over it. It is also continuous with the blood vessels that transport the blood to the heart.B. The epicardium is a serous membrane and a thin layer of the outermost layer.C. The myocardium forms the majority of the heart wall and is composed of cardiac muscle.D. The pericardium is a double-layered sac that attaches the heart to surrounding structures.

Local anesthetic was administered. Your patient begins to complain of a headache and dizziness. She seems disoriented, confused, and is more talkative. Her BP and heart rate have increased. Which of the following should you do? a. Have your patient hyperventilate b. Place your patient in the supine position c. Administer benzodiazepine d. Administer glucose

a. Have your patient hyperventilate ANS: AYour patient is exhibiting signs of toxicity from the local anesthetic. Ask your patient to hyperventilate to lower arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) levels to lower the risk of a seizure. Your patient should be positioned so she is comfortable. b. There is no need to put her in the supine position. c. Benzodiazepine is only administered when an anticonvulsant is needed. Glucose is administered for hypo and hyperglycemia. d. There is no indication your patient is diabetic and therefore, glucose is not needed.

Which of the following is a function of myelin? a. Increases the speed of nerve conduction b. Transmit impulses away from the spinal cord or brain c. Transmit impulses to the spinal cord or brain d. Provides impulses toward the cell body

a. Increases the speed of nerve conduction A. Myelin is a fatty substance around axons that provides insulation. This then increases the speed of nerve conduction.B. Efferent neurons transmit impulses away from the spinal cord or brain and a subdivision of both the central and peripheral nervous system.C. Afferent neurons transmit impulses to the spinal cord or brain and a subdivision of both the central and peripheral nervous system.D. Dendrites send impulses toward the cell body. One neuron may have many dendrites.

Infection of which of the following sinuses can cause discomfort and complications with the maxillary posterior teeth? a. Maxillary b. Ethmoid c. Sphenoid d. Frontal

a. Maxillary A. The maxillary sinuses are the largest of the four paired paranasal sinuses; infection, and disease of these sinuses can cause complications of the maxillary posterior teeth.B. The ethmoid sinuses are small compartments in the ethmoid bone made up of anterior, middle, and posterior compartments.C. The sphenoid sinuses lie in the body of the sphenoid bone.D. The frontal sinuses are located in the frontal bone above the nasal cavity.

Of the permanent teeth, which usually erupts out of sequence and may cause problems with spacing? a. Maxillary canine b. Mandibular canine c. Maxillary second premolar d. Mandibular second premolar

a. Maxillary canine A. The maxillary canine often erupts after the maxillary premolars (age 11 to 12 years) and may not have enough space.B. Mandibular canines erupt at ages 9 to 10 years, often before the mandibular premolars.C. Maxillary premolars erupt in order between ages 10 and 12 years.D. Mandibular premolars erupt in order between ages 10 and 12 years.

Which of the following is an important landmark to note radiographically to avoid misinterpretation as an oral radiolucent lesion? a. Mental foramen b. Genial tubercles c. Mandibular foramen d. Mental protuberance

a. Mental foramen A. The mental foramen is located bilaterally on the external surface of the body of the mandible below and between the first and second premolars; it is important not to confuse this radiolucency with periapical or other oral lesions.B. Genial tubercles provide points of muscle attachment near the midline on the internal surface of the mandible; they appear as radiopacities on occlusal radiographs.C. The mandibular foramen is located bilaterally on the internal surface of the body of the mandible and form the opening of the mandibular canal; the mandibular canal is identifiable on panoramic radiographs.D. The mental protuberance is the bony process of the mandible that forms the chin; it appears radiopaque radiographically.

All the following major salivary glands secrete mixed secretions EXCEPT the: a. Parotid gland b. Submandibular salivary gland c. Sublingual salivary gland d. Von Ebner gland

a. Parotid gland A. The parotid salivary gland is the largest of the salivary glands but produces only 25% of the total salivary volume, which is mainly serous.B. The submandibular salivary gland is the second largest salivary gland, providing 60% to 65% of the total salivary volume, which is mixed serous and mucous.C. The sublingual salivary gland is the smallest salivary gland providing 10% of the total salivary volume, which is mixed serous and mucous.D. Von Ebner glands are located in the circumvallate lingual papillae of the dorsal surface of the tongue, the only minor salivary gland that secretes serous only.

Which statement is correct for the production of the most diagnostic image? a. The receptor is placed as close as possible to the tooth. b. The shortest PID length is used. c. The receptor is placed as far away from the tooth as possible. d. The x-ray beam is positioned parallel to the long axis of the tooth.

a. The receptor is placed as close as possible to the tooth. A. To limit magnification and create a diagnostic image, the tooth and receptor should always be placed as close together as possible.B. A shorter PID length will cause more divergence of the x-ray beam.C. Receptors placed far away from the teeth will increase image magnification.D. The x-ray beam should be placed perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth, not parallel.

All the following anatomic variations can occur within furcations and can complicate instrumentation EXCEPT: a. Tubercles b. Cervical enamel projections c. Enamel pearls d. Bifurcational ridges

a. Tubercles A. Tubercles are extra prominences of tooth structure often found on crowns of teeth, presenting on cingulae or as extra cusps.B. Cervical enamel projections are the curvature of the CEJ toward the apical area near a furcation, which places the epithelial attachment to the tooth more apical.C. Enamel pearl is a spherical shape of enamel that develops on the root surface near a furcation.D. Bifurcational ridge is weblike projection of cementum between the roots of mandibular molars.

Which of the following persons has Stage II hypertension? a. 132/79 b. 167/110 c. 128/79 d. 184/105

b. 167/110 ANS: B A BP of 167/110 is Stage 2 hypertension. A person is considered to have Stage 2 hypertension if the systolic BP is between 140-180 mm Hg or if the diastolic BP is between 90-120 mm Hg. a. A blood pressure of 132/79 is Stage 1 hypertension. Blood pressure is considered Stage 1 hypertension if the systolic BP is between 130-139 mm Hg or if the diastolic BP is between 80-89 mm Hg. c. A blood pressure of 128/79 is considered elevated blood pressure because the systolic BP is between 120-129 mm Hg and the diastolic BP is below 80. d. A blood pressure of 184/105 is considered hypertensive crisis because the systolic BP reading is above 180 mm Hg and/or the diastolic BP reading is above 120 mm Hg

How long does it take for patient discomfort to diminish following administration of an effective dose of nitroglycerin? a. Immediately b. 2-4 minutes c. 5-7 minutes d. 9-10 minutes

b. 2-4 minutes ANS: B Patient discomfort should lessen within 2 to 4 minutes following administration of nitroglycerin.

What dose of oxygen should usually be administered during the definitive stage of a medical emergency? a. 2-3 L/min b. 5-6 L/min c. 7-9 L/min d. 10-15 L/min

b. 5-6 L/min ANS: B5-6 L/min is the dose of oxygen usually administered during the definitive stage of a medical emergency.a. 2-3 L/minute is administered for use in prevention of an emergency.b. 7-9 L/min is an incorrect dosagec. 10-15 L/min is administered during rescue breathing

During emergencies, except respiratory and cardiac arrest, and acute pulmonary edema, oxygen is administered at a rate of: a. 3-4 L/minute b. 5-6 L/minute c. 10 L/minute d. 10-15 L/minute

b. 5-6 L/minute ANS: B Emergency administration of oxygen is 5-6 L/minute, except for emergencies involving respiratory and cardiac arrest. a. Low flow oxygen is administered at a rate below 5 L/minute and is used for the prevention of emergencies. c. Oxygen is administered at a rate of 10 L/minute for emergencies involving acute pulmonary edema. d. Oxygen is administered at 10-15 L/minute for respiratory or cardiac arrest.

A dental hygienist is working in a mobile dental unit and is asked to expose radiographs. No wall is present in the small x-ray room. What is the minimum distance in feet that the hygienist should stand from the source of x-radiation? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10

b. 6 B. Six feet is the minimum distance an operator should stand from the source of the primary beam.A. Four feet is an incorrect distance.C. Eight feet is an incorrect distance.D. Ten feet is an incorrect distance.

Which ingredient is the clearing agent found in the fixer solution? a. Potassium alum b. Ammonium thiosulfate c. Acetic acid d. Hydroquinone

b. Ammonium thiosulfate B. Ammonium thiosulfate is the clearing agent found in the fixer solution; it removes or clears all unexposed and undeveloped silver halide crystals from the film emulsion.A. Potassium alum is the hardening agent found in the fixer solution.C. Acetic acid neutralizes the developer solution and stops the development process.D. Hydroquinone is an agent found in the developer solution.

What do the ulna, radius, and humerus have in common? a. Articulate at the glenoid cavity b. Are part of the appendicular skeleton c. Are bony impressions that form joints d. Are distal to the tarsals

b. Are part of the appendicular skeleton B. They are part of the appendicular skeleton.A. The glenoid cavity is part of the scapula and forms the shoulder joint with the humerus.C. The ulna, radius, and humerus are all considered long bones of the appendicular skeleton.D. The ulna, radius, and humerus are proximal to the tarsals, which are located in the foot.

The curve of Spee is determined by the mediolateral curvature of the posterior occlusal surfaces, whereas the curve of Wilson is determined by the anteroposterior curvature of the occlusal surfaces. a. BOTH statements are TRUE. b. BOTH statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE.

b. BOTH statements are FALSE. B. The curve of Spee is determined by the anteroposterior curvature, and the curve of Wilson is determined by the mediolateral curvature of posterior teeth.

Your adult patient is turning blue, emitting high-pitched sounds, is unable to speak, and is holding her throat. If you are properly trained, which of the following should you perform first? a. Chest compressions b. Back blows c. Subdiaphragmatic abdominal thrusts d. Chest thrusts

b. Back blows ANS: B The most likely cause of the above signs is foreign airway obstruction or choking. The recommended procedure from the American Red Cross (2017) for adults and children who are choking is 5 back blows followed by 5 Subdiaphragmatic abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver). The cycle is repeated until the object is dislodged. a. Chest compressions are not used on a conscious person. The Heimlich maneuver should be used in cycle with back blows but is sufficient if the rescuer is not trained in performing back blows.c. Subdiaphragmatic abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver) follow 5 back blowsd. Chest thrusts are administered if the patient is in her last trimester of pregnancy or is obese.

A 62-year-old man presents at an end-of-day appointment for an initial dental exam and prophylaxis. On review of his health history, you learn he is hypertensive with type 2 diabetes. In addition, he suffers from clinical depression. You record his vitals as blood pressure 150/95; pulse 72 beats per minute; and respiration 16 breaths per minute. Further questioning reveals that the patient did not eat lunch today and that he frequently experiences xerostomia. Which of the following BEST describes this client's blood pressure? a. Blood pressure rate is considered prehypertensive, and he should be encouraged to see a physician. b. Blood pressure rate is considered high, and he should be encouraged to see a physician. c. Blood pressure rate is considered too high, and he should not receive dental treatment until seen by a physician. d. Blood pressure is within normal limits.

b. Blood pressure rate is considered high, and he should be encouraged to see a physician. B. A client with a blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg should be encouraged to see his physician, especially because the patient is already receiving blood pressure medications.A. Prehypertensive blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg or greater but less than 140/90 mm Hg.C. A blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg or greater should have elective treatment deferred and referred to physician as soon as possible.D. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg or less is considered within normal limits.

The palatine tonsil is commonly enlarged in children. This tonsil is also referred to as the adenoids. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE.

b. Both statements are FALSE. B. The pharyngeal tonsils, located on the midline of the posterior wall of the nasopharynx, are commonly referred to as "adenoids," are enlarged in children.A. Both statements are TRUE.C. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE.D. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE.

Which of the following occurs when the body is unable to produce or use insulin? a. Acute adrenal insufficiency b. Diabetes Mellitus c. Hypoglycemia d. Thyroid storm

b. Diabetes Mellitus ANS: B Diabetes Mellitus is caused by the body's inability to produce or utilize insulin. Acute adrenal insufficiency is caused by the body's inability to produce cortisol during times of stress. Hypoglycemia is caused by too much insulin or low blood sugar. Thyroid storm or thyrotoxic crisis is caused by uncontrolled hyperthyroidism and the body's inability to respond to physiological stress

Which of the following is one of the openings found in the pharynx? a. Epiglottis b. Eustachian tube c. Glottis d. Paranasal sinus

b. Eustachian tube B. The eustachian or auditory tubes open into the nasopharynx, which is an anatomical division of the pharynx.A. The epiglottis is a cartilage of the larynx that is behind the tongue and hyoid bone.C. The glottis is part of the larynx and is made up of the vocal folds and the space between them.D. The paranasal sinuses open and drain into the nasal cavity.

Damage to this nerve can result in facial paralysis or Bell palsy. a. Trigeminal b. Facial c. Buccal d. Hypoglossal

b. Facial B. Facial paralysis, a loss of action of the muscles of facial expression, and Bell palsy, a unilateral facial paralysis, occur as a result of damage or pathology of the facial nerve.A. Trigeminal neuralgia is a facial pain syndrome caused by disruption of trigeminal nerve function or pressure on the nerve from inflammation or pathology.C. The buccal nerve typically is not prone to transient or permanent damage because it lies deep to the buccal fat pad.D. Unilateral damage of the hypoglossal nerve can be produced by tumors or trauma; damage affects tongue movement.

Which hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland and influences both male and female reproductive systems? a. Adrenocorticotropin b. Follicle-stimulating hormone c. Prolactin d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone

b. Follicle-stimulating hormone B. Follicle-stimulating hormone stimulates the follicles of ovaries to mature in women and stimulates the seminiferous tubules in men to maintain or increase rate of sperm production.A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone helps to maintain growth and development of the adrenal gland. This hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland.C. Prolactin is important for the development of breasts and the secretion of milk after pregnancy. This hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland.D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone influences the development of the thyroid gland. It also causes the thyroid gland to secrete its hormones. This hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland.

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a ghost image to appear on a panoramic radiograph? a. Cervical spine b. Hearing aid c. Dental implant d. Tongue

b. Hearing aid B. A hearing aid can contain radiodense or metallic pieces, so it should be removed before panoramic exposure.A. When a patient is sitting or standing straight, the cervical spine will not cause any ghost images.C. The dental implant will not cause a ghost image to appear even when this object is visible.D. The tongue will not cause a ghost image to appear even when this object is visible.

Which is the function of parathyroid hormone? a. Important for the promotion of breast development b. Increase the release of calcium into the blood by influencing bone and kidneys c. Inhibits the production of large amounts of urine d. Stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during labor

b. Increase the release of calcium into the blood by influencing bone and kidneys B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is the main hormone the body used to increase the release of calcium into the blood.A. Prolactin (PRL) is produced by the anterior pituitary gland and is vital for breast development and milk secretion.C. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is produced by the posterior pituitary gland and influences the production of urine.D. Oxytocin (OT) is produced by the posterior pituitary gland and is important for milk ejection and uterine contraction.

During a health history review, the client tells the RDH that she has stenosis of the aortic valve. This means that: a. Deoxygenated blood is not reaching the lungs b. The left ventricle could have hypertrophy c. The client has a diagnosis of mitral valve prolapse d. The right atrium is not working effectively

b. The left ventricle could have hypertrophy B. The aortic valve regulates the flow of blood into the aorta from the left ventricle. When the valve has stenosis, it increases the work load of the left ventricle and could cause hypertrophy.A. The aortic valve only helps in the passage of oxygenated blood. Deoxygenated blood passes through the pulmonary semilunar valve.C. The mitral valve or bicuspid valve controls passage of blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle.D. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium through the tricuspid valve.

When tooth J exfoliates, it will be replaced by: a. #5 b. #12 c. #13 d. #21

c. #13 C. The permanent maxillary right second premolar succeeds J.A. #5 replaces primary tooth B.B. #12 replaces primary tooth I.D. #21 replaces primary tooth L.

Your patient's son was stung by a wasp as they passed the flowers in front of your office. He is crying and appears to have difficulty breathing. His blood pressure is dropping. What medical emergency is the boy most likely experiencing? a. Asthma b. Seizure c. Anaphylactic shock d. Syncope

c. Anaphylactic shock ANS: CThe boy is experiencing anaphylaxis shock. One of the causes of anaphylaxis shock is a bee sting. Signs of anaphylaxis are bronchoconstriction and hypotension followed by respiratory arrest. a. Onset of asthma is evidenced by bronchospasms and increased blood pressure. b. A seizure is characterized by alterations in consciousness, motor function, and sensory perceptions. d. Signs of syncope include pallor or gray color of skin, dilated pupils, piloerection, hypotension, and tachycardia.

The best artery on an adult to take a pulse rate during an emergency is: a. Brachial b. Radial c. Carotid d. Femoral

c. Carotid ANS: CIn emergency situations involving an adult, the carotid pulse (which indicates that blood is flowing to the brain) is monitored. a. The brachial artery is used for infants. b. In nonemergency situations, the brachial or the radial pulse is monitored for adults. d. Femoral pulse which is located on the medial aspect of the upper thigh is used for children ages 1-12.

The most reliable arterial pulse in the body is located in the: a. Internal carotid artery b. External carotid artery c. Carotid sinus d. Lingual artery

c. Carotid sinus C. The carotid sinus is found before the common carotid artery bifurcates and is the most reliable arterial pulse in the body.A. Each common carotid artery ends by dividing into the internal carotid and external carotid arteries; the internal carotid artery enters the skull to the brain area.B. The external carotid artery supplies the principal areas of the oral cavity and face.D. The lingual artery runs above the hyoid bone and supplies the floor of the mouth, the tongue, and the suprahyoid muscles.

Where should the thermometer be kept for manual processing procedures? a. Water bath b. Fixer solution c. Developer solution d. Light-tight drawer inside the darkroom

c. Developer solution C. The thermometer is a necessary item for manual processing procedures and should be kept in the developer solution.A. The water bath is not as critical as the temperature of the developer.B. The fixer solution is not as critical as the temperature of the developer.D. The thermometer is a necessary item to use with manual processing, so the drawer in the darkroom is not recommended.

What tooth surface is used to assess the occlusion in the primary occlusion? a. Distal surface of the primary maxillary first molar b. Mesial surface of the primary maxillary first molar c. Distal surface of the primary mandibular second molar d. Mesial surface of the primary mandibular second molar

c. Distal surface of the primary mandibular second molar C. Occlusion of the primary dentition is determined by studying the relationship of the distal surface of the primary maxillary second molar to the mandibular arch.A. This surface is not used to determine whether the relationship is flush, has a distal or mesial step.B. The primary maxillary first molars are not used to classify primary occlusion.D. The mesial surface of this molar is not used to classify occlusion.KO

The muscle action group that serves to stabilize joints is referred to as: a. Agonist b. Antagonist c. Fixator d. Synergist

c. Fixator C. Fixator muscles stabilize joints and can help maintain posture or balance.A. Agonist muscles perform a specific motion and often referred to as the action of the muscle.B. Antagonist muscles oppose the agonist muscle by an opposite action such as relaxation versus contraction.D. Synergist muscles contract the same time as agonist muscles to supplement the action.

Which error will produce a lighter radiographic image? a. Timer set too long b. Film exposed to light c. Fixer solution too weak d. Developer solution too warm

c. Fixer solution too weak C. If the fixer solution is too weak, a lighter image will result.A. Setting the timer too long will all result in darkened or black images.B. Exposing the film to light will all result in darkened or black images.D. A developer solution that is too warm will all result in darkened or black images.

A male patient has been diagnosed with slight to moderate periodontitis. He declines the prescription of a full-mouth series due to concern with x-radiation. Which exposures would be appropriate to replace the intraoral periapical series? a. Maxillary and mandibular occlusal radiographs b. Panoramic c. Four vertical bitewings d. Four horizontal bitewings

c. Four vertical bitewings C. The vertical bite-wing image can be used to examine the level of alveolar bone; these projections are often used for patients with bone loss caused by periodontal disease.A. Occlusal radiographs are used to examine large areas of the oral cavity.B. Panoramic radiographs are used to examine large areas of the oral cavity.D. Horizontal bite-wing radiographs may not reveal enough information of bone loss in a patient with moderate periodontitis.

Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid that functions to: a. Support sodium homeostasis of the blood b. Break down proteins into amino acids c. Give male characteristics d. Increase the release of calcium in the blood

c. Give male characteristics A. Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid in humans. It is secreted from the outer zone of the adrenal cortex.B. Glucocorticoids are secreted from the middle zone of the adrenal cortex and have many functions such as the breakdown of proteins, maintaining blood pressure, and being part of the stress response.C. Gonadocorticoids are secreted from the inner zone of the adrenal cortex and provide enough androgen to influence the appearance of pubic and underarm hair in males and females.D. The parathyroid hormone acts to increase the release of calcium in the blood and helps to maintain calcium homeostasis.

Which type of asthma can be caused by respiratory infections? a. Allergic b. Extrinsic c. Intrinsic d. Exercise induced

c. Intrinsic ANS: CIntrinsic asthma (also known as nonallergic, idiopathic, or infective asthma) is caused by nonallergic factors such as respiratory infections, psychological and physiologic stress, physical exertion, and environmental factors. a. Allergic or extrinsic asthma is caused by exposure to allergens outside the body (i.e., airborne, such as dust, foods, and drugs). b. Allergic or extrinsic asthma is caused by exposure to allergens outside the body (i.e., airborne, such as dust, foods, and drugs).c. Asthma can also be exercise-induced, but this answer is incorrect for this case.

Which one of the following statements is NOT true about cancellous bone? a. Arranged in crisscrossing branches or plates called trabeculae b. Provides structure for blood production c. Makes up 80% of the body's bone mass d. Located in the ends of long bones

c. Makes up 80% of the body's bone mass C. Compact bone provides strength by the tightly packed units called osteons.A. The trabeculae give the cancellous bone a spongy, Swiss cheese-like appearance.B. Red bone marrow is contained within the trabeculae.D. Cancellous bone is mostly found in the rounded ends of long bones such as the femur.

Which permanent tooth has the smallest root-to-crown ratio? a. Maxillary canine b. Mandibular first molar c. Maxillary central incisor d. Maxillary lateral incisor

c. Maxillary central incisor C. The ratio is approximately 1:16, which means the root is only slightly longer than the crown.A. The maxillary canine root is the longest in the mouth and would have a greater ratio, 1:56.B. The mandibular first molar has a relatively short crown compared to the root, 1:83.D. The root-to-crown ratio is 1:37, which is the second smallest ratio of all teeth.

Which nervous system structure has the ability to undergo mitosis, thus making its cells also vulnerable to cancer? a. Axon b. Dendrite c. Neuroglia d. Neuron

c. Neuroglia C. Neuroglia serves as a support system for the neurons. Neuroglia cells maintain their ability to divide. Most benign and malignant nervous tissue originates from neuroglia cells.A. The axon is a single long nerve fiber that conducts impulses away from the body.B. The dendrite is an extension of the neuron and conducts impulses to neurons nearby.D. Neurons carry out the function of the nervous system by generating impulses. Neurons cannot undergo mitosis and thus cannot be replaced.

Which of the following glands secrete hormones to regulate calcium metabolism and phosphorus uptake? a. Thymus b. Thyroid c. Parathyroid d. Adrenal

c. Parathyroid C. The parathyroid glands are located behind or within the thyroid gland and secrete parathyroid hormone, which regulates calcium metabolism and phosphorus uptake.A. The thymus gland is located inferior to the thyroid in the upper part of the chest; it secretes thymosin, which assists in the maturation of T cell lymphocytes that play a role in the immune system of the body.B. The thyroid gland is located below the hyoid bone and consists of two lobes; it secretes the hormone thyroxine, which regulates body metabolism.D. The adrenal glands are located on the top of the kidneys and are responsible for releasing hormones in response to stress.

Oxygen is administered during which phase of a convulsive seizure? a. Ictal b. Preictal c. Postictal d. All of the above

c. Postictal ANS: C Oxygen is administered during the postictal phase of a convulsive seizure, also known as a tonic-clonic or grand mal seizure. a. It would be difficult to administer oxygen during the ictal phase of the seizure.b. There is no need for oxygen during the preictal phase of the seizure.

The sublingual caruncle: a. Receives the parotid duct b. Receives the sublingual duct c. Receives the submandibular duct d. Receives the Bartholin duct

c. Receives the submandibular duct C. The associated duct for the submandibular salivary gland is the submandibular duct or Wharton duct, which opens at the sublingual caruncle on the floor of the mouth.A. The associated duct for the parotid salivary gland is the parotid duct or Stensen duct, which pierces the buccinator muscle and opens opposite the second maxillary molar; the parotid papilla marks the opening of the duct.B. The associated duct for the sublingual salivary gland is the sublingual duct or Bartholin duct formed by associated ducts located along the sublingual fold.D. The Bartholin duct or sublingual duct is formed from the combination of associated ducts located along the sublingual fold.

Your patient has gained weight since you last saw him four months ago. He is short of breath, his ankles are swollen, his hands were cold when you shook hands, his color is bluish, and you notice his jugular vein is distended. What is the most likely cause of your patient's signs and symptoms? a. Myocardial infarction b. Adrenal insufficiency c. Right ventricular failure d. Left ventricular failure

c. Right ventricular failure ANS: C Right ventricular failure causes venous congestion with accompanying signs of cyanosis, coolness in the extremities, peripheral edema, and prominent jugular veins. a. Signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction include chest pain that may radiate to the arm, neck, or mandible; intensifies, and last for more than 15 to 20 minutes. The patient may present with an ashen-gray appearance, a cold sweat, nausea, vomiting, dyspnea, dizziness, weakness, and the feeling of impending doom. b. Signs and symptoms of adrenal insufficiency include confusion; weakness; lethargy; abdominal, lower back, and leg pain; extreme fatigue; wet, clammy skin; headache; nausea; and vomiting. The pulse may be rapid and weak. The patient may develop hypotension. d. With left ventricular failure, in addition to the signs and symptoms of heart failure, the patient will have respiratory distress with accompanying signs of weakness, fatigue, and dyspnea.

Comparing the maxillary canine with the mandibular canine, the maxillary canine has more prominent root depressions, whereas the mandibular canine has interproximal heights of contour more in the middle third of the cervico-incisal dimension. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE.

c. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE. C. The distal depression of the maxillary canine is more prominent both on the crown and root.A and D. The interproximal heights of contour on the mandibular canine are in the incisal third.B. Both have root depressions, but the maxillary canine has more prominent ones.

When the onset of an asthma attack begins, the patient should take two puffs from his bronchodilator. The patient should be placed in the supine position until breathing returns to normal. a. Both statements are TRUE b. Both statements are FALSE c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE

c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE ANS: C When the onset of an asthma attack begins, the patient should take two puffs from his bronchodilator. The patient should be sitting upright prior to administration of the bronchodilator and will remain so until breathing returns to normal.

The thymus gland is an endocrine gland because it has an associated duct. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related. c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct. d. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct. C. The thymus gland is an endocrine gland because it has no associated duct.A. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.B. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.D. NEITHER the statement NOR reason is correct.

What other physiologic effect(s) can result from the decrease of carbon dioxide? a. Reduction of calcium levels in the bloodstream b. Vasoconstriction of blood vessels and veins c. Reduced cardiac output and coronary blood flow d. All the above

d. All the above D. All of the aboveA. Reduction of calcium levels in the bloodstream (hypocalcemia) can lead to tetany.B. Vasoconstriction of the blood vessels and veins can lead to dizziness and impaired vision.C. Reduced cardiac output and coronary blood flow result from the vasoconstriction, which in turn may manifest as heart palpitations and possibly chest pain.

Your patient's blood pressure is 181/104. The patient is feeling great. Her dental appointment is the third stop of her full schedule this day. She is scheduled for her six month routine oral prophylaxis appointment. Which of the following should you do? a. Repeat her BP in 5 minutes, if her BP is still high, complete her care today and then recommend she see her physician b. Repeat her BP in 5 minutes, if her BP is still elevated, reschedule her appointment and recommend she see her physician c. Recommend she go immediately to her physician or the ER d. Contact EMS and have her transported to the ER via EMS

d. Contact EMS and have her transported to the ER via EMS According to the new guidelines, even a patient who is non-symptomatic is transported to the ER via EMS if their systolic BP is >180 mm Hg and/or diastolic BP is >120 mm Hg. This patient's systolic BP is >180 mm Hg. If a patient's systolic BP is between 130-139 mm Hg or the diastolic BP is between 80-89 mm Hg, they can be seen for routine dental care, but must be referred to their physician. Patients with systolic BP below 120 mm Hg and diastolic BP below 80 mm Hg do not need to be referred to their physician following dental care.

Your patient is exhibiting the following signs and symptoms: poor healing and frequent infections, increased caries, gingivitis, increased pocket depths, and complains of a burning mouth. Your patient most likely has: a. Acute adrenal insufficiency b. Septic shock c. Cocaine abuse d. Diabetes mellitus

d. Diabetes mellitus ANS: DSigns and symptoms of a patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus may include xerostomia, infection, poor healing, increased incidence and severity of caries, candidiasis, gingivitis, periodontal disease, periapical abscesses, or burning mouth syndrome. a. Signs and symptoms of acute adrenal insufficiency include confusion; weakness; lethargy; abdominal, lower back, and leg pain; extreme fatigue; wet, clammy skin; headache; nausea; and vomiting. b. Signs and symptoms of septic shock include fever, vasodilation; increased cardiac output; tissue edema; pink, warm skin; hypotension; restlessness; anxiety; tachycardia; and thirst. c. Chemically dependent patients are very talkative; agitated; anxious; confused; have slurred speech; elevated BP, heart rate, and respiratory rate; may complain of a headache, dizziness, and disorientation.

The anatomic term that BEST describes the top surface of the tongue is: a. Superior b. Inferior c. Ventral d. Dorsal

d. Dorsal D. Dorsal refers to structures toward or at the back of the body; the dorsal surface of the tongue is the top surface, toward the back when the tongue is upright in the mouth with the tip of the tongue touching the palate.A. Superior or cranial refers to structures toward the head, or upper.B. Inferior or caudal refers to structures away from the head, or lower.C. Ventral refers to structures toward or at the front of the body, or in front.

Which of the following is TRUE of furcations on molars? a. A long root trunk places the furcation nearer to the cemento-enamel junction. b. Second molars have furcations more cervical than first molars. c. Third molars often have furcations in the cervical third of the root. d. Furcations increase the amount of attachment of bone and tissues.

d. Furcations increase the amount of attachment of bone and tissues. D. Furcations add attachment because the surface area is greater with depressions and convexities within the space; roots are usually farther apart, which also increases attachment.A. A long root trunk places the furcation farther from the CEJ.B. Second molars often have longer root trunks with furcations farther from the cervical area than the first molars.C. Third-molar roots are often fused. If they have furcations, they are not commonly in the cervical third.

Which one of the following statements is NOT true about the pterygoid plexus? a. Drains portions of the face into the maxillary vein b. Can be involved in the spread of dental infections by improper administration of local anesthesia c. Protects the maxillary artery d. Has valves that prevent backflow of blood

d. Has valves that prevent backflow of blood D. The pterygoid plexus of veins is a collection of vessels that form anastomoses with the facial and retromandibular veins; veins in the head and neck have no valves to control the flow of blood, allowing dental infections to spread easily.A, B, and C are all true.

Which statement is TRUE regarding insulin secretion by pancreatic islets? a. If blood glucose level is low, there is a decrease of glucagon secreted. b. If blood glucose level is low, there is an increase of insulin secreted. c. If blood glucose level is high, there is a decrease of insulin secreted. d. If blood glucose level is high, there is a decrease of glucagon secreted.

d. If blood glucose level is high, there is a decrease of glucagon secreted. D. When blood glucose level is high, the pancreatic islets decrease secretion of glucagon to help lower the glucose level.A. This statement is false. If blood glucose level is low, there is an increase of glucagon secreted to increase glucose levels.B. This statement is false. If blood glucose level is low, there is a decrease of insulin secreted to increase glucose levels.C. This statement is false. If blood glucose level is high, there is an increase of insulin secreted to decrease glucose levels.

Which permanent premolar can present with three different pit-and-groove patterns? a. Maxillary first premolar b. Maxillary second premolar c. Mandibular first premolar d. Mandibular second premolar

d. Mandibular second premolar D. The mandibular second premolar can have two cusps (H- or U-shaped occlusal pattern) or three cusps (Y-shaped occlusal pattern).A. The maxillary first premolar usually has an H-shaped pit and groove pattern.B. The maxillary second premolar also has an H-shaped pit and groove pattern and may have supplemental grooves.C. The mandibular first premolars usually have two cusps with a Y pattern if a M-Li developmental groove is present.

Correct vertical overlap of teeth exists with which of the following relationships? a. Mandibular anterior teeth overlap the maxillary anterior teeth facially. b. Mandibular lingual cusps fall within the occlusal table of maxillary teeth. c. Maxillary buccal cusps fall within the occlusal table of mandibular teeth. d. Maxillary buccal cusps overlap mandibular buccal cusps facially.

d. Maxillary buccal cusps overlap mandibular buccal cusps facially. D. Maxillary buccal cusps are guiding cusps that overlap the buccal cusps of mandibular teeth.A. Maxillary teeth overlap and facial surfaces of the mandibular teeth.B. Mandibular buccal cusps fall within the occlusal surfaces of maxillary teeth and are supporting elements.C. Maxillary lingual cusps fall within the occlusal surfaces of mandibular teeth and are supporting elements.

Which type of shock can occur from a disease that causes injury to the spinal cord? a. Hypovolemic b. Obstructive c. Septic d. Neurogenic

d. Neurogenic ANS: D Neurogenic shock is caused by a psychological or neurologic disorder or injury to the brainstem or spinal cord from disease, drugs, or trauma. a. Hypovolemic shock is caused by severe hemorrhage or dehydration which can lead to inadequate blood volume or venous return. b. Obstructive shock occurs when blood to the heart is restricted and prevents the heart from beating. c. Septic shock occurs when an infectious agent produces an acute systemic infection that prevents blood flow to the cells, tissues, and organs.

Which of the following teeth would NOT be observed clinically in an 11-year-old child? a. Permanent lateral incisors b. Mandibular permanent canines c. Permanent central incisors d. Permanent second molars

d. Permanent second molars D. Permanent second molars erupt around age 12 years.A. Permanent lateral incisors erupt at age 7 to 9 years.B. Permanent central incisors erupt at age 6 to 8 years.C. Permanent mandibular canines erupt at age 9 to 10 years.

The aura appears during which phase of a convulsive seizure? a. Tonic b. Clonic c. Postictal d. Preictal

d. Preictal ANS: D The aura (sensory symptoms that occur at the onset of a seizure) occurs during the preictal phase of the seizure. a. The tonic phase occurs at the beginning of the ictal phase of the seizure and is characterized by muscle contractions or stiffening. b. The clonic phase occurs after the tonic phase and is characterized by jerking. c. The postictal phase is the recovery portion of the seizure.

Which trophic hormone does the anterior pituitary gland secrete that is essential for the thyroid gland to secrete its hormones? a. ACTH b. FSH c. LH d. TSH

d. TSH D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) causes the thyroid to secrete its hormones.A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex, influencing normal growth and development of the adrenal gland.B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in females stimulates the ovaries to mature. FSH in males stimulates the seminiferous tubules for spermatogenesis maintenance and production.C. Luteinizing hormone (LH) influences the corpus luteum of the ovary for formation and activity.

A patient who experienced a heart attack or myocardial infarction cannot be seen for routine dental care for the first 3 months following the incident. A patient who experienced a stroke or TIA must wait 6 months before being seen for routine dental care. a. Both statements are TRUE b. Both statements are FALSE c. The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE

d. The first statement is FALSE; the second statement is TRUE ANS: D A patient who experienced a heart attack or myocardial infarction cannot be seen for routine dental care for the first 30 days following the incident. A patient who experienced a stroke or TIA must wait 6 months before being seen for routine dental care.

Which of the following is NOT an exocrine gland of the head? a. Parotid gland b. Lacrimal gland c. Von Ebner gland d. Thyroid gland

d. Thyroid gland D. Exocrine glands have ducts, endocrine glands have no ducts; the thyroid gland is an endocrine gland with no duct; it empties directly into the circulatory system and transports secretions to the region to be used.A, B, and C are all exocrine glands with ducts that empty directly into a body location where secretions are used.