DIABETES FROM STUDY GUIDE
2. Which tissues require insulin to enable movement of glucose into the tissue cells (select all that apply)? a. Liver d. Blood cells b. Brain e. Skeletal muscle c. Adipose
2. c, e. Adipose tissue and skeletal muscle require insulin to allow the transport of glucose into the cells. Brain, liver, and blood cells require adequate glucose supply for normal function but do not depend directly on insulin for glucose transport.
21. Patient-Centered Care: The patient with type 2 diabetes is being put on acarbose (Precose) and wants to know about taking it. What should the nurse include in this patient's teaching (select all that apply)? a. Take it with the first bite of each meal. b. It is not used in patients with heart failure. c. Endogenous glucose production is decreased. d. Effectiveness is measured by 2-hour postprandial glucose. e. It delays glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.
21. a, d, e. Acarbose (Precose) is an α-glucosidase inhibitor that is taken with the first bite of each meal. The effectiveness is measured with 2-hour postprandial blood glucose testing, as it delays glucose absorption from the GI tract. The other options describe rarely used thiazolidinediones
3. Why are the hormones cortisol, glucagon, epinephrine, and growth hormone referred to as counter regulatory hormones? a. Decrease glucose production b. Stimulate glucose output by the liver c. Increase glucose transport into the cells d. Independently regulate glucose level in the blood
3. b. The counter regulatory hormones have the opposite effect of insulin by stimulating glucose production and output by the liver and by decreasing glucose transport into the cells. The counter regulatory hormones and insulin together regulate the blood glucose level.
In addition to promoting the transport of glucose from the blood into the cell, what does insulin do? a. Enhances the breakdown of adipose tissue for energy b. Stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis c. Prevents the transport of triglycerides into adipose tissue d. Increases amino acid transport into cells and protein synthesis
d. Insulin is an anabolic hormone that is responsible for growth, repair, and storage. It facilitates movement of amino acids into cells, synthesis of protein, storage of glucose as glycogen, and deposition of triglycerides and lipids as fat into adipose tissue. Fat is used for energy when glucose levels are depleted. Glucagon is responsible for hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
9. Priority Decision: When caring for a patient with metabolic syndrome, the nurse should give the highest priority to teaching the patient about which treatment plan? a. Achieving a normal weight b. Performing daily aerobic exercise c. Eliminating red meat from the diet d. Monitoring the blood glucose periodically
9. a. Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of abnormalities that include elevated glucose levels, abdominal obesity, elevated BP, high levels of triglycerides, and low levels of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs). Overweight individuals with metabolic syndrome can prevent or delay the onset of diabetes through a program of weight loss. Regular physical activity is also important, but normal weight is most important.
10. During routine health screening, a patient is found to have fasting plasma glucose (FPG) of 132 mg/dL (7.33 mmol/L). At a follow-up visit, a diagnosis of diabetes would be made based on which laboratory results (select all that apply)? a. A1C of 7.5% b. Glycosuria of 3+ c. FPG ≥127 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L). d. Random blood glucose of 126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) e. A 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) of 190 mg/dL (10.5 mmol/L)
10. a, c. The patient has one prior test result of fasting plasma glucose (FPG) greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) that meets criteria for a diagnosis of diabetes, and the result is confirmed on this follow-up visit. The A1C is 7.5% and greater than diagnostic criteria of 6.5% or higher. The other diagnostic criteria include a 2-hour OGTT level ≥200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L), or a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia (polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, unexplained weight loss) or hyperglycemic crisis, a random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL (11.0 mmol/L).
11. The nurse determines that a patient with a 2-hour OGTT of 152 mg/dL has a. diabetes. b. elevated A1C. c. impaired fasting glucose. d. impaired glucose tolerance
11. d. Impaired glucose tolerance exists when a 2-hour OGTT level is higher than normal but lower than the level diagnostic for diabetes (i.e., >200 mg/dL). Impaired fasting glucose exists when fasting glucose levels are greater than the normal of 100 mg/dL but less than the 126 mg/dL diagnostic of diabetes. Both abnormal values indicate prediabetes
12. When teaching the patient with diabetes about insulin administration, the nurse should include which instruction for the patient? a. Pull back on the plunger after inserting the needle to check for blood. b. Consistently use the same size of insulin syringe to avoid dosing errors. c. Clean the skin at the injection site with an alcohol swab before each injection. d. Rotate injection sites from arms to thighs to abdomen with each injection to prevent lipodystrophies.
12. b. U100 insulin must be used with a U100 syringe but for those using low doses of insulin, syringes that have increments of 1 unit instead of 2 units are available. Errors can be made in dosing if patients switch back and forth between different sizes of syringes. Aspiration before injection of the insulin is no longer recommended, nor is the use of alcohol to clean the skin. Because the rate of peak serum concentration varies with the site selected for injection, injections should be rotated within a particular area, such as the abdomen, before changing to another area.
13. A patient with type 1 diabetes uses 20 U of Novolin 70/30 (NPH/regular) in the morning and at 6:00 PM. When teaching the patient about this regimen, what should the nurse emphasize? a. Hypoglycemia is most likely to occur before the noon meal. b. A set meal pattern with a bedtime snack is necessary to prevent hypoglycemia. c. Flexibility in food intake is possible because insulin is available 24 hours a day. d. Premeal glucose checks are required to determine needed changes in daily dosing.
13. B A split-mixed dose of insulin requires that the patient adhere to a set meal pattern to provide glucose for the peak action of the insulin, and a bedtime snack is usually required when patients take an intermediate-acting insulin late in the day to prevent nocturnal hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is most likely to occur with this dose late in the afternoon and during the night. When premixed formulas are used, flexible dosing based on glucose levels is not recommended.
14. Lispro insulin (Humalog) with NPH (Humulin N) insulin is ordered for a patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes. The nurse knows that when lispro insulin is used, when should it be administered? a. Only once a day b. 1 hour before meals c. 30 to 45 minutes before meals d. At mealtime or within 15 minutes of meals
14. d. Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that has an onset of action of approximately 15 minutes and should be injected at the time of the meal to within 15 minutes of eating. Regular insulin is short acting with an onset of action in 30 to 60 minutes following administration and should be given 30 to 45 minutes before meals.
15. A patient with diabetes is learning to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the patient does what? a. Withdraws the NPH dose into the syringe first b. Injects air equal to the NPH dose into the NPH vial first c. Removes any air bubbles after withdrawing the first insulin d. Adds air equal to the insulin dose into the regular vial and withdraws the dose
15. a. When mixing regular and intermediate-acting insulin, regular insulin should always be drawn into the syringe first to prevent contamination of the regular insulin vial with intermediate-acting insulin additives. Air is added to the NPH vial first. Then air is added to the regular vial and the regular insulin is withdrawn, bubbles are removed, and then the dose of NPH is withdrawn.
16. Teamwork and Collaboration: The following interventions are planned for a patient with diabetes. Which intervention can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Discuss complications of diabetes. b. Check that the bath water is not too hot. c. Check the patient's technique for drawing up insulin. d. Teach the patient to use a meter for self-monitoring of blood glucose
16. b. Checking the temperature of the bath water is part of assisting with activities of daily living (ADLs) and within the scope of care for unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). This is important for the patient with neuropathy. Discussion of complications, teaching, and assessing learning are appropriate for RNs.
17. The home care nurse should intervene to correct a patient whose insulin administration includes a. warming a prefilled refrigerated syringe in the hands before administration. b. storing syringes prefilled with NPH and regular insulin needle-up in the refrigerator. c. placing the insulin bottle currently in use in a small container on the bathroom countertop. d. mixing an evening dose of regular insulin with insulin glargine in one syringe for administration
17. d. Insulin glargine (Lantus), a long-acting insulin that is continuously released with no peak of action, cannot be diluted or mixed with any other insulin or solution. Mixed insulins should be stored needle-up in the refrigerator and warmed before administration. Currently used bottles of insulin may be kept at room temperature out of sunlight for 4 weeks.
18. When teaching the patient with type 1 diabetes, what should the nurse emphasize as the major advantage of using an insulin pump? a. Tight glycemic control can be maintained. b. Errors in insulin dosing are less likely to occur. c. Complications of insulin therapy are prevented. d. Frequent blood glucose monitoring is unnecessary.
18. a. Insulin pumps provide tight glycemic control by continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion based on the patient's basal profile, with bolus doses at mealtime at the patient's discretion and related to blood glucose monitoring. Errors in insulin dosing and complications of insulin therapy are still potential risks with insulin pumps
19. Priority Decision: A patient taking insulin has recorded fasting glucose levels above 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) on awakening for the last five mornings. What should the nurse advise the patient to do first? a. Increase the evening insulin dose to prevent the dawn phenomenon. b. Use a single-dose insulin regimen with an intermediate-acting insulin. c. Monitor the glucose level at bedtime, between 2:00 AM and 4:00 AM, and on arising. d. Decrease the evening insulin dosage to prevent night hypoglycemia and the Somogyi effect.
19. c. The patient's elevated glucose on arising may be the result of either dawn phenomenon or Somogyi effect. The best way to determine whether the patient needs more or less insulin is by monitoring the glucose at bedtime, between 2:00 AM and 4:00 AM, and on arising. If the 2:00 AM to 4:00 AM blood glucose levels are below 60 mg/dL, the insulin dose should be reduced to prevent Somogyi effect; if it is high, the insulin should be increased to prevent dawn phenomenon
20. Which class of oral glucose-lowering agents (OA) is most commonly used for people with type 2 diabetes because it reduces hepatic glucose production and enhances tissue uptake of glucose? a. Insulin b. Biguanide c. Meglitinide d. Sulfonylurea
20. b. Biguanides (e.g., metformin [Glucophage]) are most commonly used with type 2 diabetes. They reduce glucose production by the liver and increase insulin sensitivity at the tissue level that improves glucose transport into the cells. Insulin is not taken orally, as it is ineffective. Meglitinides and sulfonylureas increase insulin production from the pancreas
22. The patient with type 2 diabetes has had trouble controlling his blood glucose with several OAs but wants to avoid the risks of insulin. The HCP told him a medication will be prescribed that will increase insulin synthesis and release from the pancreas, inhibit glucagon secretion, and slow gastric emptying. The nurse knows this is which medication that will have to be injected? a. Dopamine receptor agonist, bromocriptine (Cycloset) b. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor, sitagliptin (Januvia) c. Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor, canagliflozin (Invokana) d. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist, exenatide extended release (Bydureon)
22. d. This glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist stimulates GLP-1 to increase insulin synthesis and release from the pancreas, inhibit glucagon secretion, slow gastric emptying, and must be injected subcutaneously once every 7 days. The other medications are oral agents (OAs). The mechanism of action for glycemic control for the dopamine receptor agonist is unknown. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors block the action of the DPP-4 enzyme that inactivates incretin so there is increased insulin release, decreased glucagon secretion, and decreased hepatic glucose production. Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors block the reabsorption of glucose by the kidney and increase urinary glucose excretion.
23. Priority Decision: The nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient with diabetes. Which observation should be addressed as the priority by the nurse? Bilateral numbness of both hands Stage II pressure ulcer on the right heel Rapid respirations with deep inspiration Areas of lumps and dents on the abdomen
23. c. Rapid deep respirations are symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), so this is the priority of care. Stage II pressure ulcers and bilateral numbness are chronic complications of diabetes. The lumps and dents on the abdomen indicate the patient has lipodystrophy and may need to learn about site rotation of insulin injections
24. Individualized nutrition therapy for patients using conventional, fixed insulin regimens should include teaching the patient to a. eat regular meals at regular times. b. restrict calories to promote moderate weight loss. c. eliminate sucrose and other simple sugars from the diet. d. limit saturated fat intake to 30% of dietary calorie intake.
24. a. The body requires food at regularly spaced intervals throughout the day, and omission or delay of meals can result in hypoglycemia, especially for the patient using conventional insulin therapy or OAs. Weight loss may be recommended in type 2 diabetes if the individual is overweight, but many patients with type 1 diabetes are thin and do not require a decrease in caloric intake. Fewer than 7% of total calories should be from saturated fats and simple sugar should be limited, but moderate amounts can be used if counted as a part of total carbohydrate intake.
25. What should the goals of nutrition therapy for the patient with type 2 diabetes include? a. Ideal body weight b. Normal serum glucose and lipid levels c. A special diabetic diet using dietetic foods d. Five small meals per day with a bedtime snack
25. b. The specific goals of nutrition therapy for people with diabetes include maintaining near-normal blood glucose levels and achievement of optimal serum lipid levels and BP. Dietary modifications are believed to be important factors in preventing both short- and long-term complications of diabetes. Loss of weight, which may or may not be to ideal body weight, may improve insulin resistance. There is no longer a specific "diabetic diet," and use of dietetic foods is not necessary for glucose control. Most patients with diabetes eat three meals a day, and some require a bedtime snack for control of nighttime hypoglycemia. The other goals of nutrition therapy include prevention of chronic complications of diabetes, attention to individual nutritional needs, and maintenance of the pleasure of eating.
26. To prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia related to exercise, what should the nurse teach the patient using glucose-lowering agents about the best time for exercise? a. Plan activity and food intake related to blood glucose levels b. When blood glucose is greater than 250 mg/dL and ketones are present c. When glucose monitoring reveals that the blood glucose is in the normal range d. When blood glucose levels are high, because exercise always has a hypoglycemic effect
26. a. To plan for exercise, a person with diabetes must monitor blood glucose and make adjustments to insulin dose (if taken) and food intake to prevent exercise- induced hypoglycemia. Exercise is delayed if blood glucose is ≥250 mg/dL with ketones. Before exercise if blood glucose is ≤100 mg/dL a 15-g carbohydrate snack is eaten. Blood glucose levels should be monitored before, during, and after exercise to determine the effect of exercise on the levels.
27. The nurse assesses the technique of the patient with diabetes for self-monitoring of blood glucose (SMBG) 3 months after initial instruction. Which error in the performance of SMBG noted by the nurse requires intervention? a. Doing the SMBG before and after exercising b. Puncturing the finger on the side of the finger pad c. Cleaning the puncture site with alcohol before the puncture d. Holding the hand down for a few minutes before the puncture
27. c. Cleaning the puncture site with alcohol is not necessary and may interfere with test results and lead to drying and splitting of the fingertips. Washing the hands with warm water is adequate cleaning and promotes blood flow to the fingers. Blood flow is also increased by holding the hand down. Punctures on the side of the finger pad are less painful. Self-monitored blood glucose (SMBG) should be performed before and after exercise
28. A nurse working in an outpatient clinic plans a screening program for diabetes. What recommendations for screening should be included? a. OGTT for all minority populations every year b. FPG for all individuals at age 45 and then every 3 years c. Testing people under the age of 21 for islet cell antibodies d. Testing for type 2 diabetes in all overweight or obese individuals
28. b. The American Diabetes Association recommends that testing for type 2 diabetes with a FPG, A1C, or 2-hour OGTT should be considered for all individuals at the age of 45 and above and, if normal, repeated every 3 years. Testing for immune markers of type 1 diabetes is not recommended. Testing at a younger age or more frequently should be done for members of a high-risk ethnic population, including African Americans, Hispanics, Native Americans, Asian Americans, and Pacific Islanders. Overweight adults with additional risk factors should be tested.
29. Priority Decision: A patient with diabetes calls the clinic because she is experiencing nausea and flu-like symptoms. Which advice from the nurse will be the best for this patient? a. Administer the usual insulin dosage. b. Hold fluid intake until the nausea subsides. c. Come to the clinic immediately for evaluation and treatment. d. Monitor the blood glucose every 1 to 2 hours and call if it rises over 150 mg/dL (8.3 mmol/L).
29. a. During minor illnesses, the patient with diabetes should continue drug therapy and fluid and food intake. Insulin is important because counter regulatory hormones may increase blood glucose during the stress of illness. Food or a carbohydrate liquid substitution is important because during illness the body requires extra energy to deal with the stress of the illness. Blood glucose monitoring should be done every 4 hours, and the health care provider should be notified if the level is greater than 240 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L) or if fever, ketonuria, or nausea and vomiting occur.
31. What are manifestations of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) (select all that apply)? a. Thirst b. Ketonuria c. Dehydration d. Metabolic acidosis e. Kussmaul respirations f. Sweet, fruity breath odor
31. a, b, c, d, e, f. In DKA, thirst occurs to replace fluid used to eliminate ketones in the urine in trying to decrease the blood glucose and ketonemia. The metabolic acidosis leads to the Kussmaul respirations trying to decrease the acid in the system. The sweet, fruity breath odor is from acetone. Thirst and dehydration are found with both DKA and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS).
32. What describes the primary difference in treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS)? a. DKA requires administration of bicarbonate to correct acidosis. b. Potassium replacement is not necessary in management of HHS. c. HHS requires greater fluid replacement to correct the dehydration. d. Administration of glucose is withheld in HHS until the blood glucose reaches a normal level.
32. c. The management of DKA is similar to that of HHS except that HHS requires greater fluid replacement because of the severe hyperosmolar state. Bicarbonate is not usually given in DKA to correct acidosis unless the pH is <7.0 because administration of insulin will reverse the abnormal fat metabolism. Total body potassium deficit is possible in both conditions, requiring monitoring and possibly potassium administration, and in both conditions glucose is added to IV fluids when blood glucose levels fall to 250 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L).
33. The patient with diabetes has a blood glucose level of 248 mg/dL. Which manifestations in the patient would the nurse understand as being related to this blood glucose level (select all that apply)? a. Headache b. Unsteady gait c. Abdominal cramps d. Emotional changes e. Increase in urination f. Weakness and fatigue
33. a, c, e, f. Manifestations of hyperglycemia include abdominal cramps, polyuria, weakness, fatigue, and headache. The headache may also be seen with hypoglycemia that is manifested by the remaining options
34. A patient with diabetes is found unconscious at home and a family member calls the clinic. After determining that a glucometer is not available, what should the nurse advise the family member to do? Have the patient drink some orange juice. b. Administer 10 U of regular insulin subcutaneously. c. Call for an ambulance to transport the patient to a medical facility. d. Administer glucagon 1 mg intramuscularly (IM) or subcutaneously.
34. d. If a patient with diabetes is unconscious, immediate treatment for hypoglycemia must be given to prevent brain damage, and IM or subcutaneous administration of 1 mg of glucagon should be done. If the unconsciousness has another cause, such as ketosis, the rise in glucose caused by the glucagon is not as dangerous as the low glucose level. Following administration of the glucagon, the patient should be transported to a medical facility for further treatment and evaluation. Oral carbohydrates cannot be given when patients are unconscious, and insulin is contraindicated without knowledge of the patient's glucose level.
35. Priority Decision: The patient with diabetes is brought to the emergency department by his family members, who say that he has had an infection, is not acting like himself, and he is more tired than usual. Number the nursing actions in the order of priority for this patient. ____a. Establish IV access. ____b. Check blood glucose. ____c. Ensure patent airway. ____d. Begin continuous regular insulin drip. ____e. Administer 0.9% NaCl solution at 1 L/hr. ____f. Establish time of last food and medication(s).
35. a. 3; b. 2; c. 1; d. 5; e. 4; f. 6. As with all patients, first establish an airway. With a patient with diabetes and abnormal behavior, the blood glucose must then be checked to determine if the patient's symptoms are related to the diabetes. In this case, it is hyperglycemia, so an IV must be started for fluid resuscitation and insulin administration. The last food intake and times at which medications were recently taken may establish a cause for the hyperglycemia and aid in determining further treatment.
36. Priority Decision: Two days following a self-managed hypoglycemic episode at home, the patient tells the nurse that his blood glucose levels since the episode have been between 80 and 90 mg/dL. Which is the best response by the nurse? a. "That is a good range for your glucose levels." b. "You should call your health care provider because you need to have your insulin increased." c. "That level is too low in view of your recent hypoglycemia and you should increase your food intake." d. "You should take only half your insulin dosage for the next few days to get your glucose level back to normal."
36. a. Blood glucose levels of 80 to 90 mg/dL (4.4 to 5 mmol/L) are within the normal range and are desired in the patient with diabetes, even following a recent hypoglycemic episode. Hypoglycemia is often caused by a single event, such as skipping a meal, taking too much insulin, or vigorous exercise. Once corrected, normal glucose control should be maintained.
37. Which statement best describes atherosclerotic disease affecting the cerebrovascular, cardiovascular, and peripheral vascular systems in patients with diabetes? a. It can be prevented by tight glucose control. b. It occurs with a higher frequency and earlier onset than in the nondiabetic population. c. It is caused by the hyperinsulinemia related to insulin resistance common in type 2 diabetes. d. It cannot be modified by reduction of risk factors such as smoking, obesity, and high fat intake.
37. b. The development of atherosclerotic vessel disease seems to be promoted by the altered lipid metabolism common in diabetes. Although tight glucose control may help to delay the process, it does not prevent it completely. Atherosclerosis in patients with diabetes does respond somewhat to a reduction in general risk factors, as it does in nondiabetics, and reduction in fat intake, control of hypertension, abstention from smoking, maintenance of normal weight, and regular exercise should be carried out by all patients.
38. What disorders and diseases are related to macrovascular complications of diabetes (select all that apply)? a. Chronic kidney disease b. Coronary artery disease c. Microaneurysms and destruction of retinal vessels d. Ulceration and amputation of the lower extremities e. Capillary and arteriole membrane thickening specific to diabetes
38. b, d. Macrovascular disease causes coronary artery disease and ulceration and results in amputation of the lower extremities. However, neuropathy may also contribute to not feeling ulcerations. The remaining options are related to microvascular complications of diabetes
39. The patient with diabetes has been diagnosed with autonomic neuropathy. What problems should the nurse expect to find in this patient (select all that apply)? a. Painless foot ulcers b. Erectile dysfunction c. Burning foot pain at night d. Loss of fine motor control e. Vomiting undigested food f. Painless myocardial infarction
39. b, e, f. Autonomic neuropathy affects most body systems. Manifestations of autonomic neuropathy include erectile dysfunction in men and decreased libido, gastroparesis (nausea, vomiting, gastroesophageal reflux and feeling full), painless myocardial infarction, postural hypotension, and resting tachycardia. The remaining options would occur with sensory neuropathy.
4. What characterizes type 2 diabetes (select all that apply)? a. β-cell exhaustion b. Insulin resistance c. Genetic predisposition d. Altered production of adipokines e. Inherited defect in insulin receptors f. Inappropriate glucose production by the liver
4. a, b, c, d, e, f. Type 2 diabetes is characterized by β-cell exhaustion, insulin resistance, genetic predisposition, altered production of adipokines, inherited defect in insulin receptors, and inappropriate glucose production by the liver. The roles of the brain, kidneys, and gut in type 2 diabetes development are being studied
40. Following the teaching of foot care to a patient with diabetes, the nurse determines that additional instruction is needed when the patient makes which statement? a. "I should wash my feet daily with soap and warm water." b. "I should always wear shoes to protect my feet from injury." c. "If my feet are cold, I should wear socks instead of using a heating pad." d. "I'll know if I have sores or lesions on my feet because they will be painful."
40. d. Complete or partial loss of protective sensation of the feet is common with peripheral neuropathy of diabetes, and patients with diabetes may suffer foot injury and ulceration without ever having pain. Feet must be inspected during daily care for any cuts, blisters, swelling, or reddened areas
41. A 72-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes. What does the nurse recognize about the management of diabetes in the older adult? a. It is more difficult to achieve strict glucose control than in younger patients. b. Treatment is not warranted unless the patient develops severe hyperglycemia. c. It does not include treatment with insulin because of limited dexterity and vision. d. It usually requires that a younger family member be responsible for care of the patient.
41. a. Older adults have more conditions that may be treated with medications that impair insulin action. Hypoglycemic unawareness is more common, so these patients are more likely to suffer adverse consequences from blood glucose-lowering therapy. Clinical manifestations of long-term complications of diabetes take 10 to 20 years to develop, so the goals for glycemic control are not as rigid as in the younger population. Treatment is indicated and insulin may be used if the patient does not respond to oral agents. The patient's needs rather than age determine the responsibility of others in care.
42. A patient with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes has been given a prescription to start an oral hypoglycemic medication. The patient tells the nurse she would rather control her blood sugar with herbal therapy. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach the patient that herbal therapy is not safe and should not be used. b. Advise the patient to discuss using herbal therapy with her HCP before using it. c. Encourage the patient to give the prescriptive medication time to work before using herbal therapy. d. Teach the patient that if she takes herbal therapy, she will have to monitor her blood sugar more often.
42. b. Advise the patient to seek the guidance of the HCP regarding the safety, efficacy, and specifics of using herbal therapy rather than or with the medication prescribed. Not all herbal therapy is unsafe, but dosages are not universal
5. Which laboratory results would indicate that the patient has prediabetes? a. Glucose tolerance result of 132 mg/dL (7.3 mmol/L) b. Glucose tolerance result of 240 mg/dL (13.3 mmol/L) c. Fasting blood glucose result of 80 mg/dL (4.4 mmol/L) d. Fasting blood glucose result of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L)
5. d. Prediabetes is defined as impaired glucose tolerance and impaired fasting glucose or both. Fasting blood glucose results between 100 mg/dL (5.56 mmol/L) and 125 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/L) indicate prediabetes. A diagnosis of impaired glucose tolerance is made if the 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) results are between 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) and 199 mg/dL (11.0 mmol/L).
6. The nurse is teaching the patient with prediabetes ways to prevent or delay the development of type 2 diabetes. What information should be included (select all that apply)? a. Maintain a healthy weight. b. Exercise for 60 minutes each day. c. Have blood pressure checked regularly. d. Assess for visual changes on a monthly basis. e. Monitor for polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia.
6. a, e. To reduce the risk of developing diabetes, the patient with prediabetes should maintain a healthy weight, learn to monitor for symptoms of diabetes, have blood glucose and glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) tested regularly, exercise regularly, and eat a healthy diet.
7. In type 1 diabetes there is an osmotic effect of glucose when insulin deficiency prevents the use of glucose for energy. Which classic symptom is caused by the osmotic effect of glucose? a. Fatigue b. Polydipsia c. Polyphagia d. Recurrent infections
7. b. Polydipsia is caused by fluid loss from polyuria when high glucose levels cause osmotic diuresis. Cellular starvation from lack of glucose and the use of body fat and protein for energy contribute to fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia in type 1 diabetes.
8. Which patient should the nurse plan to teach how to prevent or delay the development of diabetes? a. An obese 40-yr-old Hispanic woman b. A child whose father has type 1 diabetes c. A 34-yr-old woman whose parents both have type 2 diabetes d. A 12-yr-old boy whose father has maturity-onset diabetes of the young
8. c. Type 2 diabetes has a strong genetic influence (8% to 14% risk for offspring) and offspring of parents who both have type 2 diabetes have an increased chance of developing it. In contrast, type 1 diabetes is associated with a genetic susceptibility that is related to human leukocyte antigens (HLAs). Offspring of a mother with type 1 diabetes have a 1% to 4% chance of developing the disease, while offspring of a father with diabetes have 5% to 6% risk. Other risk factors for type 2 diabetes include obesity; Native American, Hispanic, or African American descent; and age of 55 years or older. Although 50% of people with a parent with maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) will develop MODY, it is autosomal dominant, and treatment depends on which genetic mutation caused it. It is not associated with obesity or hypertension and is not currently considered preventable.
