EMT Block 1 - JBL ( Chapters 1-10)
A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. Which aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury? Select one: A. Plantar B. Ventral C. Palmar D. Dorsal
A
In relation to the chest, the back is: Select one: A. posterior. B. inferior. C. anterior. D. ventral.
A
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? Select one: A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment. B. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. C. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. D. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport.
A
Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? Select one: A. Immunity B. Age C. Race D. Gender
A
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated? Select one: A. Expressed B. Actual C. Implied D. Informed
C
Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? Select one: A. Simplex station B. Duplex station C. Scanner D. Mobile repeater
C
Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? Select one: A. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen B. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin C. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device D. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain
C. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device
EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of: Select one: A. the Department of Transportation's White Paper: Death and Dying. B. the Emergency Medical Services Act. C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society. D. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured.
C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.
The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: Select one: A. avoid outer clothing with zippers. B. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat. C. wear at least three layers of clothing. v D. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton.
C. wear at least three layers of clothing.
A ____________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. Select one: A. duplex B. scanner C. decoder D. repeater
D
After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: Select one: A. hemiplegia. B. hematemesis. C. hemolysis. D. hemostasis.
D
All information recorded on the PCR must be: Select one: A. reflective of your opinion. B. a matter of public record. C. typewritten or printed. D. considered confidential.
D
An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? Select one: A. Supine B. Dorsal C. Recumbent D. Prone
D
Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and a receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a: Select one: A. multiplex. B. mobile radio. C. repeater. D. base station.
D
Enlargement of the liver is called: Select one: A. hydrocephalus. B. nephritis. C. pneumonitis. D. hepatomegaly.
D
Putrefaction is defined as: Select one: A. separation of the torso from the rest of the body. B. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. C. blood settling to the lowest point of the body. D. decomposition of the body's tissues.
D
Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? Select one: A. A confused young male who says he is the president B. A man who is staggering and states that he had three beers C. A diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date D. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain
D
Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct? Select one: A. Such laws provide the EMT with absolute immunity from a lawsuit. B. Such laws guarantee that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued. C. Such laws do not protect EMTs who are off duty. D. Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.
D
White blood cells, which are also called leukocytes, function by: Select one: A. carrying oxygen and other nutrients. B. producing blood-clotting factors. C. producing the body's erythrocytes. D. protecting the body from infection.
D
You could be sued for ________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. Select one: A. negligence B. assault C. libel D. slander
D
The EMT certification exam is designed to: Select one: A. ensure that EMTs are competent and v have the same level of knowledge and skills. B. rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam. C. provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved. D. identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training.
A. ensure that EMTs are competent and v have the same level of knowledge and skills.
The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: Select one: A. state office of EMS. B. American Heart Association. C. National Registry of EMTs. D. regional trauma center.
A. state office of EMS
A positive TB skin test indicates that: Select one: A. you have been exposed to TB B. you are actively infected with TB. C. you have never been exposed to TB. D. the TB disease is currently dormant but might later become active.
A. you have been exposed to TB.
A patient with a pneumothorax has unilateral chest expansion. This means that: Select one: A. both sides of his chest are moving minimally. B. only one side of his chest rises when he inhales. C. his chest and his abdomen are moving in opposite directions. D. both of his lungs are expanding when he inhales.
B
A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be: Select one: A. witnessed by a notary. B. an informed refusal. C. authorized by a judge. D. reported to the police.
B
A pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This means that: Select one: A. she has frequent urination. B. she has excessive vomiting. C. her respiratory rate is rapid. D. her unborn baby is very large.
B
Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: Select one: A. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. B. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. C. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital. D. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient.
B
Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called: Select one: A. flexion. B. abduction. C. extension. D. adduction.
B
Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: Select one: A. have large, rounded lenses. B. offer little or no side protection. C. do not have shatterproof lenses. D. are not secured with a strap.
B
The most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: Select one: A. tension among coworkers and supervisors. B. substandard or inappropriate patient care. C. low morale and frequently missed shifts. D. punitive action and the loss of a job.
B
When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: Select one: A. using coded medical language. B. not disclosing his or her name. v C. refraining from objective statements. D. withholding medical history data.
B
Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"? Select one: A. Medial B. Posterior C. Anterior D. Palmar
B
Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure? Select one: A. Chickenpox B. Syphilis C. Mumps D. Rubella
B
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than hours following the incident. Select one: A. 12 B. 72 C. 24 D. six
B. 72
Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? Select one: A. Online B. Off-line C. Direct D. Radio
B. Off-line
Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT? Select one: A. A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care B. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases C. Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course D. Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds
B. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: Select one: A. EMT. B. paramedic C. АЕМТ. D. EMR.
B. paramedic
Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called: Select one: A. negligence. B. battery. C. assault. D. libel.
C
Ethnocentrism is defined as: Select one: A suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. B. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. C. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture. D. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you believe that your own values are more acceptable.
C
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): Select one: A. EMT. B. paramedic. C. EMR. D. advanced EMT (AEMT).
D. advanced EMT (AEMT).
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: Select one: A. EMS training officer. B. EMS medical director. C. State Bureau of EMS. D. individual EMT.
D. individual EMT.
Continuing education in EMS serves to: Select one: A. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care. B. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training. C. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system. D. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills.
D. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills.
If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: Select one: A. determine which device the American Heart Association recommends. B. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. C. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. D. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.
D. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.
A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: Select one: A. is excessively thirsty. B. urinates frequently. C. is unable to swallow. D. has low blood sugar.
A
A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a: Select one: A. distal humerus fracture. B. proximal humerus fracture. C. distal forearm fracture. D. proximal elbow fracture.
A
An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she: Select one: A. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient. B. remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report. C. terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request. D. refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife.
A
The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is: Select one: A. evacuating the bystanders. B. ensuring your personal safety. v C. calling the hazardous materials team. D. identifying the hazardous material.
B
Which of the following incidents does not require a report to be filed with local authorities? Select one: A. Gunshot wounds B. Cardiac arrest C. Animal bites D. Spousal abuse
B
Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except: Select one: A. smoke and toxic gases. B. risk of building collapse. C. carbon dioxide deficiency. D. high ambient temperatures.
C. carbon dioxide deficiency.
A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: Select one: A. unilateral. B. proximal. C. medial. D. bilateral.
D
You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for eight hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is most effectively managed by: Select one: A. conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day. B. requesting a CISM team to provide on- v scene peer support. C. providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers. D. allowing each worker to sleep in 15- to 30-minute increments.
B
Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? Select one: A. Teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR B. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving C. Protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height D. The construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash
B. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving
The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based mostly on: Select one: A. local protocols. B. EMS research. C. the lead EMT's decision. D. regional trauma guidelines.
B. EMS research.
The continuous quality improvement (CQl) process is designed to: Select one: A. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office. B. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed. C. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient. D. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols.
B. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: Select one: A. touches another person without his or her consent. B. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. C. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts. D. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy.
B. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.
A type _ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. Select one: A. I|l B. Il C.1 D. N
C
As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: Select one: A. the general public. B. the medical director. C. another EMT. D. a paramedic supervisor.
C
Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except: Select one: A. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response. B. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment. C. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. D. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips.
C
For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must: Select one: A. be updated a minimum of every 6 months. B. be dated within the previous 24 months. C. clearly state the patient's medical problem. D. be signed by the local justice of the peace.
C
In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: Select one: A. potential falsification of the patient care form. B. thorough documentation was not required. C. inadequate patient care was administered D. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form.
C
The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: Select one: A. EMS supervisor. B. state EMS office. C. medical director. D. local health district.
C
The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is: Select one: A. midaxillary. B. midclavicular. C. medial. D. lateral.
C
Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMTs ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTs is considered: Select one: A. legal and ethical. B. illegal but ethical. C. legal but unethical. D. illegal and unethical. X
C
Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. direct contact. B. inanimate objects. C. animals or insects. D. smoke or dust.
C
When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: Select one: A. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. B. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. C. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. D. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel.
C
Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) most affects EMS personnel? Select one: A. Controlling insurance costs B. Ensuring access to insurance C. Protecting patient privacy D. Preventing insurance fraud
C
Which of the following most accurately defines negligence? Select one: A. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs B. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will C. Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury D. Transterring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training
C
Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment? Select one: A. A physician assumes patient care from an EMT. B. An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic. C. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT. D. An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse.
C
Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? Select one: A. Cardiac arrest B. Accidental knife wound C. Attempted suicide D. Drug overdose
C
The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called: Select one: A. wellness. B. eustress. C. resilience. D. distress
C. resilience.
During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, except: Select one: A. selecting and notifying the correct EMS response units and personnel. B. coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel. C. screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols. D. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives.
D
In relation to the wrist, the elbow is: Select one: A. lateral. B. medial. C. distal. D. proximal.
D
The patient care report (PCR) ensures: Select one: A. legal protection. B. availability of research data. C. quality assurance. D. continuity of care.
D
The topographic term used to describe the parts of the body that are nearer to the feet is: Select one: A. superior. B. internal. C. dorsal. D. inferior.
D
Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes which mode of communication? Select one: A. Duplex B. Complex C. Multiplex D. Simplex
D
Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: Select one: A. have a weak immune system. B. are older than 35 years of age. C. received a hepatitis B vaccination. D. have been infected with hepatitis A in the past.
D
When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: Select one: A. lengthy and complete. B. coded and scripted. C. spoken in a loud voice. D. brief and easily understood.
D
Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is correct? Select one: A. Unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions. B. Most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms. C. The EMT should give the child minimal information to avoid scaring him or her. D. Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety.
D
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: Select one: A. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly. B. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids. C. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. D. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
D. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery B. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery C. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion D. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
D. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? Select one: A. An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so. B. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patients spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled. C. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first. D. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.
D. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.
As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: Select one: A. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. B. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. C. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. D. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call.
A
In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: Select one: A. is self-supporting and lives by him-or herself. B. has a poor relationship with his or her parents. C. is mentally competent and able to refuse. D. possesses a valid driver's license.
A
In which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient? Select one: A. Calm and confident B. Authoritative C. Loud and official D. Passive
A
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: Select one: A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. B. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. C. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. D. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive.
A
The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the: Select one: A. standard of care. B. scope of practice. C. code of ethics. D. EMT oath.
A
The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to: Select one: A. careless handling of sharps. B. noncompliance with standard precautions. C. excessive blood splashing or splattering. D. lack of proper immunizations.
A
The term "pericardiocentesis" means: Select one: A. the removal of fluid from around the heart. B. a surgical opening made in the heart. C. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart. D. surgical repair of the sac around the heart.
A
What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? Select one: A. Ensure the vehicle is stable. B. Contact medical control. C. Request another ambulance. D. Check for other patients.
A
When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should: Select one: A. determine the degree of the patient's impairment. B. recall that most visually impaired patients are blind. C. expect the patient to have difficulty understanding. D. possess an in-depth knowledge of sign language.
A
You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death? Select one: A. Dependent lividity B. Profound cyanosis C. Absence of a pulse D. Absent breath sounds
A
Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? Select one: A. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured B. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients D. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting
A. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? Select one: A. Automated external defibrillation v B. Oral glucose for hypoglycemia C. Intranasal medication administration D. Use of a manually triggered ventilator
A. Automated external defibrillation
Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? Select one: A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. B. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. C. The NREMT regulates EMS training standards. D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.
A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: Select one: A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. B. demand that the patient remain quiet and cooperative during transport. C. reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be. D. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.
A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include: Select one: A. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation. B. the inability to remain focused, because the task at hand is demanding. C. short term loss of energy due to the high physical demands of the job. D. long-term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call.
A. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.
The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: Select one: A. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis. B. wash your hands in between patient contacts. C. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date. D. undergo an annual physical examination.
B
The term "supraventricular tachycardia" means: Select one: A. a slow heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. B. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles. C. a rapid heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. D. a slow heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.
B
You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate? Select one: A. "We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?" B. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." C. "This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem." D. "I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you."
B
