EMT Chapter 22, 23, 33, 34

Which of the following intracranial physiological events is most likely to occur in a patient with traumatic brain injury but not in a patient with nontraumatic brain​ injury? A. Increased intracranial pressure B. Cerebral contusion C. Cerebral hemorrhage D. Cerebral edema

Cerebral contusion

Which of the following is least necessary for a patient to maintain​ consciousness? A. Water B. Medication C. Glucose D. Oxygen

Medication

For a patient complaining of​ dizziness, what would you ask regarding​ vomiting? A. ​"Is the vomit black and​ tarry?" B. ​"Is there blood or material resembling coffee​ grounds?" C. ​"Was the vomiting accompanied by an urge to​ urinate?" D. ​"Is the vomit clear or​ opaque?"

"Is there blood or material resembling coffee​ grounds?"

If you are computing a Revised Trauma Score and the​ patient's GCS score is 14 with a respiratory rate of​ 30/min., a blood pressure of 102​ systolic, and a heart rate of​ 104, what is the​ patient's total Revised Trauma​ Score? A. 12 B. 9 C. 10 D. 11

11

The possible numerical range for the Glasgow Coma Scale​ is: A. 3-15. B. 0-15. C. 3-10. D. 0-10.

3-15

Up to how many points are assigned to each element of the Revised Trauma​ Score? A. 4 B. 8 C. 15 D. 12

4

Which of the following readings on a glucometer for a symptomatic diabetic person with diaphoresis or mildly altered mental status would be of concern to the​ EMT? A. 108​ mg/dl B. 58​ mg/dl C. 118​ mg/dl D. 78​ mg/dl

58​ mg/dl

Your patient responds to painful stimulus with decorticate posturing​ (arms bent to his​ chest, fists​ clenched, and legs straight​ out), his eyes do not open to​ pain, and he makes incomprehensible sounds when you pinch him. What score would you give him on the Glasgow Coma​ Scale? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 5

6

Which of the following statements is​ true? A. A complex partial seizure is often preceded by an​ aura, which might be a rising sensation in the stomach. B. A patient tends to experience an aura during the tonic phase of a convulsive seizure. C. Auras involving bright lights always precede all​ seizures, whether partial or generalized. D. A patient tends to experience an aura during the clonic phase of a convulsive seizure.

A complex partial seizure is often preceded by an​ aura, which might be a rising sensation in the stomach.

Your multisystem trauma patient also has a burn injury. Which of the following destinations is​ recommended? A. A burn center B. A designated trauma center C. An urgent care center D. The closest hospital

A designated trauma center

Which of the following situations would most likely lead to​ hyperglycemia? A. A patient​ self-administers too much insulin. B. A patient forgets to​ self-administer insulin. C. A patient fails to eat adequately after​ self-administering insulin. D. A patient overexercises after​ self-administering insulin.

A patient fails to eat adequately after​ self-administering insulin.

Which patient has least likely suffered a disruption of the reticular activating​ system? A. An unresponsive patient appears to have overdosed on prescribed painkillers. B. A patient complains of frequent absence seizures. C. A patient complains of​ acute-onset slurred speech. D. A patient has sustained minor lacerations from falling off a bicycle.

A patient has sustained minor lacerations from falling off a bicycle.

If a standard medically approved occlusive dressing is not​ available, what material might be effective in treating an open neck​ wound? A. A​ water- or​ saline-soaked 4×4 gauze pad B. Aluminum foil C. Elastic wrap​ (e.g., an Ace​ bandage) D. A piece of heavy plastic that is at least 2 inches larger in diameter than the wound site

A piece of heavy plastic that is at least 2 inches larger in diameter than the wound site

Which of the following patients would most likely be triaged to a trauma​ center? A. A trauma patient with tachycardia and tachypnea with hypertension B. A trauma patient with a long bone fracture C. A patient who was injured in a motorcycle accident D. A pregnant multisystem trauma patient

A pregnant multisystem trauma patient

If a patient had a longstanding vascular malformation in her brain that went unrecognized for years but finally resulted in a burst blood​ vessel, with what type of stroke will she likely​ present? A. An ischemic stroke on the opposite side of the brain B. A subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke C. A transient ischemic attack D. An ischemic stroke with bilateral deficits

A subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke

An​ 18-year-old male has been found unconscious. Which of the following findings would indicate that his altered mental status has been caused by​ hyperglycemia? A. Acetone breath B. Urinary retention C. ​Cool, moist skin D. Rapid onset of symptoms

Acetone breath

What mechanism is responsible for most​ strokes? A. Low blood sugar B. Prolonged hypertension C. High blood sugar D. An artery occluded by a clot or embolism

An artery occluded by a clot or embolism

Which case of altered mental status is least likely to be rapidly correctable by treating the underlying​ cause? A. An infant showing no sign of infection or trauma appears to be convulsing and unresponsive. B. A dehydrated patient is confused. C. A patient suffering an asthma attack is hypoxic and is losing consciousness. D. An overdosing patient is unresponsive.

An infant showing no sign of infection or trauma appears to be convulsing and unresponsive.

A​ 19-year-old female has lost consciousness while traveling home from a house party. Friends note that she vomited and then she appeared to​ "pass out" for several minutes. They note this has never happened before. The patient is​ responsive, has a patent​ airway, and is breathing adequately. She insists that she did not drink or take any drugs at the party. Which of the following questions would be least appropriate to this​ situation? A. ​"Are you afraid of the consequences of admitting substance​ abuse?" B. ​"Did you have any​ warning? If​ so, what was it​ like?" C. ​"Did you hurt​ yourself?" D. ​"What position were you in when the episode​ happened?"

Are you afraid of the consequences of admitting substance​ abuse?"

Which of the following findings is least likely in a patient with nontraumatic brain​ injury? A. Slurred speech B. Battle sign C. Unequal pupils D. Altered level of consciousness

Battle sign

Which of the following scenarios is an anatomical criterion for transporting a motor vehicle collision patient to a trauma​ center? A. Hypotension B. Unresponsiveness C. Bilateral femur fractures D. Death of another occupant

Bilateral femur fractures

Which of the following statements about blood glucose meters is​ true? A. Blood glucose meters are not commonly used. B. Blood glucose meters are portable and reliable. C. People with diabetes typically use blood glucose meters no more than once a day. D. Blood glucose meters are typically unreliable unless administered by specialized personnel in a hospital setting.

Blood glucose meters are portable and reliable.

A​ 70-year-old male was sitting comfortably when he suddenly had a brief syncopal episode. His vital signs are P​ 46, R​ 20, BP​ 96/60, indicating a slow heart rate but normal respiration and a blood pressure that is not elevated. Which of the following do you suspect caused the syncopal​ episode? A. Cardiac dysrhythmia B. DKA C. Hypertension D. Hypovolemia

Cardiac dysrhythmia

Which of the following is a transport decision for a multisystem trauma​ patient? A. Deciding how long to spend on scene B. Deciding to manage some injuries en route to the hospital C. Deciding what to do when there is disagreement on patient care D. Deciding on a hospital destination

Deciding on a hospital destination

Which of the following is a component of Cushing​ reflex? A. Decreased intracranial pressure B. Decreased heart rate C. Decreased blood pressure D. Increased cerebral perfusion

Decreased heart rate

Which of the following is likely the most critical associated injury from serious blunt or penetrating trauma to the​ face? A. Mandibular dislocation B. Dislodged teeth stuck in the airway C. The entrance of blood into the digestive tract D. Distortion of the facial landmarks

Dislodged teeth stuck in the airway

Your patient attempted suicide by hanging. What type of spinal injury is most​ likely? A. Extension injury B. Compression injury C. Distraction injury D. Flexion injury

Distraction injury

Which of the following is most likely to have associated spinal​ injury? A. Burn injury B. Abdominal injury C. Facial trauma D. Extremity trauma

Facial trauma

Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in​ infants? A. Infection B. Fever C. Head injury D. Epilepsy

Fever

The Revised Trauma Score rates​ the: A. diastolic blood​ pressure, systolic blood​ pressure, and respiratory rate. B. Glasgow Coma​ Scale, systolic blood​ pressure, and respiratory rate. C. heart​ rate, pulse​ rate, and respiratory rate. D. skin​ condition, color, and temperature.

Glasgow Coma​ Scale, systolic blood​ pressure, and respiratory rate.

What is not a typical sign of​ stroke? A. Nausea or vomiting B. High blood pressure C. Heightened alertness D. Difficult respiration or snoring

Heightened alertness

You have a patient with an altered mental status that has developed over the past 2-3 ​days, according to family members. He is wearing a medical alert tag that is inscribed with the letters​ "DM." What is your initial field​ impression? A. Hyperglycemic episode B. Hyperosmolar episode C. Hypertension episode D. Hyperinsulin episode

Hyperglycemic episode

A​ 50-year-old female patient has been found unconscious and unresponsive. She is breathing rapidly and has​ pale, sweaty skin. Her vital signs are P​ 130, R​ 30, BP​ 140/80. Which of the following conditions would most likely explain these​ findings? A. Presyncope B. transient ischemic attack C. Stroke D. Hypoglycemia

Hypoglycemia

Diabetic problems are a common cause of altered mental status. Which of the following statements is true of diabetes​ mellitus? A. All patients with type II diabetes require insulin to maintain an appropriate blood sugar level. B. Type I diabetes is usually acquired in​ adulthood, and is often controlled by diet and oral medication. C. Insulin is a hormone secreted by the liver that is needed to move glucose from the blood into the cells. D. ​Hypoglycemia, or low blood​ sugar, may result from too much​ insulin, which causes glucose to be used up by the cells too rapidly.

Hypoglycemia, or low blood​ sugar, may result from too much​ insulin, which causes glucose to be used up by the cells too rapidly.

A​ 24-year-old female who has been ill with diarrhea reports increasing dizziness that is made worse by standing up. She has a rapid pulse rate and is diaphoretic. She has no history of diabetes and takes no medications. What is the most likely source of her​ dizziness? A. Stroke B. Low blood sugar C. Use of recreational drugs D. Hypovolemia

Hypovolemia

You arrive on scene to an assault victim who is grabbing the side of her neck. You notice hemorrhage on the left side of her neck. How should you manage this​ patient's neck wound once you arrive at her​ side? A. Apply​ firm, direct pressure bilaterally to the neck B. Locate an occlusive dressing and place it on the wound in a timely fashion C. Immediately cover the wound with a gloved hand D. Immediately wrap a bandage around the neck

Immediately wrap a bandage around the neck

Which of the following indicates a possible mandible​ injury? A. Memory loss B. Improperly aligned teeth C. Bruising around the eyes D. Unequal pupils

Improperly aligned teeth

Why does diabetic ketoacidosis cause​ dehydration? A. The ketoacidosis begins breaking down adipocytes and releasing their water stores into the bloodstream. The kidneys then remove this influx of water from the body via urine. B. The ketones bind with the​ cells' receptors, preventing water from being absorbed into the cytosol. C. In an attempt to rid the blood of excess​ sugar, the body will increase urination. D. The high glucose level in the bloodstream causes oversaturation in the brain cells. This leads to a form of euphoric instability marked by the inability to care for oneself.

In an attempt to rid the blood of excess​ sugar, the body will increase urination.

You witness an adult patient experiencing a seizure in which a progressive twitching of his right arm leads to his entire​ body's twitching. What can you reasonably say about the​ seizure's origin? A. The seizure was caused by a stroke on the right side of the brain. B. It was a partial seizure that became generalized to the entire body. C. The beginning of the seizure in the arm has no clinical relevance. D. The seizure focus likely began in the right hemisphere of his brain.

It was a partial seizure that became generalized to the entire body.

Which manual airway maneuver should you always use to open the airway of a patient with a suspected neck​ injury? A. ​Cross-fingers technique B. ​Jaw-thrust maneuver C. ​Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver D. ​Head-tilt, neck-lift maneuver

Jaw-thrust maneuver

What is your first priority for a patient with massive facial​ trauma? A. Keeping the airway open B. Protecting the​ patient's privacy C. Preventing permanent scarring D. Bandaging all open injuries

Keeping the airway open

Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to a​ stroke? A. Asthma B. Longstanding high blood pressure C. Anemia D. Low blood pressure

Longstanding high blood pressure

For an unconscious stroke​ patient, you would provide oxygen based on saturation readings and transport the patient as soon as possible. What else should you​ do? A. Maintain an open airway B. Refrain from aggressive​ treatment, to avoid overtreatment C. Administer a​ clot-busting thrombolytic drug D. Administer fluids by mouth in order to keep the patient hydrated

Maintain an open airway

Which of the following structures is the only movable part of the​ face? A. Zygoma B. Maxilla C. Mandible D. Mastoid

Mandible

What is the underlying pathophysiology of​ DKA? A. Too much insulin B. Not enough glucagon C. Not enough insulin D. Not enough glycogen

Not enough insulin

Which of the following statements about patients with altered mental status is​ correct? A. One of the most common causes of altered mental status is hypoxia. B. A patient is considered alert if the patient is at least responsive to a verbal stimulus. C. You may assume that a patient is still responsive even if there is no response to a painful stimulus. D. Hypoperfusion in combination with shock generally does not cause altered mental status.

One of the most common causes of altered mental status is hypoxia.

Under what circumstance can an EMT use a glucometer to determine a​ patient's blood glucose​ level? A. If the patient allows it and signs a release first B. Only if no higher level of EMS is available C. Under no circumstance D. Only if allowed by medical direction and local protocols

Only if allowed by medical direction and local protocols

Which of the following statements about altered mental status in pediatric patients is​ correct? A. Assess mentation in children just as you would for an adult. B. Altered mentation in pediatric patients will be obvious. C. Parents are usually poor historians regarding their children. D. Parents are usually the best judges of their​ children's mental status.

Parents are usually the best judges of their​ children's mental status.

Which of the following statements about an epidural hematoma is​ true? A. The bleeding site is between the brain and the dura mater. B. Patients with epidural hematomas may present similarly to those with subdural hematomas. C. Unlike subdural​ hematomas, which occur​ rapidly, epidural hematomas take hours or days to develop. D. Epidural hematomas do not carry the threat to life that subdural hematomas do.

Patients with epidural hematomas may present similarly to those with subdural hematomas.

According to the​ CDC, which of the following factors should be taken into consideration in triaging a trauma​ patient? A. Distance from a trauma center B. Availability of an air ambulance C. Physiological criteria D. Patient age

Physiological criteria

In managing an open wound to the​ neck, what actions can you take while waiting for occlusive dressings to be obtained or​ opened? A. Apply oxygen via a nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm. B. Apply direct pressure to the open wound with two fingers. C. Place a​ standard, sterile 4×4 gauze pad over the wound. D. Place your gloved hand over the wound to close it off from air entry.

Place your gloved hand over the wound to close it off from air entry.

Which of the following statements about a seizure that is unusually long in duration is​ correct? A. Patients with prolonged seizures have a history of​ epilepsy, and often require no medical care. B. Patients with prolonged seizures should be suspected of being off their antiseizure medication. C. Prolonged seizures can be​ life-threatening. D. Prolonged seizures mean that the patient has a history of seizures.

Prolonged seizures can be​ life-threatening.

With a multisystem trauma​ patient, which of the following should be used to determine when to bypass one hospital for​ another? A. Provider preference B. Protocols C. Area familiarity D. Making a shift change on time

Protocols

When you are caring for a victim of multisystem​ trauma, which of the following is LEAST likely to be a part of scene​ treatment? A. Stopping any serious external hemorrhage B. Securing an advanced airway C. Providing appropriate fluid resuscitation D. Ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilations

Providing appropriate fluid resuscitation

Which of the following findings are commonly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis​ (DKA)? A. Overhydration B. Low blood sugar C. Rapid breathing D. Slow breathing

Rapid breathing

During the primary​ assessment, what is a sign of​ shock? A. Radial pulses B. Flushed skin C. Perfusion D. Rapid heart rate

Rapid heart rate

Which of the following is the highest priority for your multisystem trauma​ patient? A. Management of all secondary injuries B. Determining the exact extent of injuries C. Rapid transport D. Thorough documentation

Rapid transport

For a stroke​ patient, what is the most important treatment​ priority? A. Keeping the patient calm B. Rapid transport to an appropriate destination C. Administering supplemental​ oxygen, if necessary D. Monitoring the​ patient's airway

Rapid transport to an appropriate destination

The family of a​ 30-year-old male states that the patient recently had a tonic-clonic seizure. The event lasted 5​ minutes, and the family notes that the patient has no previous history of seizures. The family also states that the patient has no past medical history of any kind. Until the point he began​ seizing, he had seemed fine. Which of the following causes most likely explains the previous​ findings? A. Anxiety B. Recent head trauma C. Hypoxia D. Hypoglycemia

Recent head trauma

You are on scene with a​ 24-year-old female car crash victim. During your​ assessment, she tells you that she​ can't feel all of her teeth. You note swelling to the jaw and misaligned teeth. Your primary concern in treating this patient is which of the​ following? A. Identifying the type of Le Fort fracture B. Obtaining a baseline set of vital signs C. Trending the​ patient's vital signs to identify signs of increased intracranial pressure D. Removing debris from the airway

Removing debris from the airway

You respond to the scene of an​ assault, where you find a​ 26-year-old male patient with a knife impaled in the left lobe of his skull near the temporal membrane. He is alert but disoriented. How should you manage this​ patient's injury? A. Perform a secondary assessment prior to stabilizing the knife B. Stabilize the knife with bulky dressings C. Stabilize the knife and carefully cut the handle off to prepare for transport D. Approximate the depth of insertion and carefully remove the knife

Stabilize the knife with bulky dressings

Your patient is a​ 19-year-old male who was reportedly unconscious for a brief time. You learn that he regained consciousness in about 30 seconds. You find no evidence of drowsiness or neurological deficits. Which of the following is most likely the​ cause? A. Status epilepticus B. Syncope C. Hyperglycemia D. Stroke

Syncope

You are caring for an adult trauma patient. Which of the following is a definitive sign that your patient is in​ shock? A. Diastolic BP below 90 mmHg B. Systolic BP below 100 mmHg C. Diastolic BP above 90 mmHg D. Systolic BP below 90 mmHg

Systolic BP below 90 mmHg

You are the second unit on the scene of a​ multiple-vehicle crash. You and your partner are caring for a​ middle-aged woman who is sitting in the passenger seat of a vehicle that seems undamaged. You see no signs of injury in this patient. When you ask her about​ pain, she replies in a foreign language. What should you​ do? A. Examine the patient more​ closely, and look for physical signs of pain when you palpate her back. B. The​ patient's language has no bearing on how you treat here. She does not require immobilization. C. Take full spinal​ precautions, because you cannot determine the extent of the​ patient's injuries. D. Although communication is​ important, given the fact that there are no MOIs and no signs of​ injury, you can safely choose not to immobilize the patient.

Take full spinal​ precautions, because you cannot determine the extent of the​ patient's injuries.

Which of the following will help you and your crew best manage a multisystem trauma​ patient? A. An incident commander B. Waiting for ALS personnel to arrive C. Teamwork and communication D. ​Slow, deliberate decision making

Teamwork and communication

Why is it necessary to take the patient to the hospital if the symptoms of a stroke have subsided by the time you arrive on the​ scene? A. The patient will probably need to be given insulin. B. The patient is likely to start seizing. C. The patient still needs assessment and treatment for stroke. D. The patient will need a period of bed rest.

The patient still needs assessment and treatment for stroke.

Which of the following statements regarding the spinal cord is​ true? A. The nerves that branch from the spinal cord at the vertebrae alternate from left to right. B. If the spinal cord is​ severed, the body will experience widespread vasoconstriction. C. The spinal cord lacks the membranes that surround the brain. D. The spinal cord is the central pathway for messages to and from the brain.

The spinal cord is the central pathway for messages to and from the brain.

Over which of the following factors that affect the survivability of a stroke patient does the EMT have the most​ influence? A. Initiation of an IV by ALS providers B. Reduction of blood pressure C. Intubation of the trachea D. Time to treatment

Time to treatment

What is your overall goal in caring for a multisystem trauma​ patient? A. To manage all injuries discovered B. To treat immediate threats to life C. To manage the patient until ALS personnel arrive D. To provide definitive care

To treat immediate threats to life

A seizure that affects the entire brain and is characterized by jerking movements of paired muscle groups is often called what type of​ seizure? A. Postictal B. Tonic-clonic C. Jacksonian D. Petit mal

Tonic-clonic

What type of convulsion usually lasts for only a few​ minutes, and has three distinct​ phases? A. Hypoglycemia B. Stroke C. Partial seizure D. Tonic-clonic-seizure

Tonic-clonic-seizure

What is a less immediate benefit of trauma scores that does not involve determining whether a patient should go to a trauma​ center? A. A trauma score helps evaluate an​ EMT's standard of care. B. Trauma scores are useful for medical billing and insurance coding. C. Trauma centers may use the scores to compare outcomes of trauma patients with similar injuries. Your answer is correct. D. They provide proof of care in case of malpractice lawsuits.

Trauma centers may use the scores to compare outcomes of trauma patients with similar injuries.

A​ 12-year-old boy experienced a tonic-clonic seizure after being struck in the head with a baseball. Which of the following would most likely be the cause of the​ seizure? A. Epilepsy B. Toxins C. Hypoxia D. Traumatic brain injury

Traumatic brain injury

What is the typical mental status of a patient who is actively experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic ​seizure? A. Awake B. Confused C. Unresponsive D. Cyanotic

Unresponsive

Which of the following would be an appropriate description of the reticular activating​ system? A. Vegetative and thought center B. React and move center C. Wake and sleep center D. Feed or breed center

Wake and sleep center

Which of the following is the best explanation of how dehydration leads to altered brain​ function? A. Water is essential to keep the brain fully expanded. B. Water is necessary to remove waste products from the brain. C. Water is necessary to keep brain tissue hydrated. D. Water is necessary for electrical signals to travel throughout the brain.

Water is necessary to keep brain tissue hydrated.

When is administering oral glucose to a hypoglycemic patient the worst thing you could​ do? A. When the patient​ can't protect the​ patient's airway B. When the patient desperately needs sugar C. When the patient has an altered mental status D. When the patient has a history of diabetes

When the patient​ can't protect the​ patient's airway

Which of the following is vehicle telemetry LEAST likely to be able to tell​ you? A. Whether the driver suffered an amputation proximal to the wrist or ankle B. Which part of the vehicle was struck C. Whether the vehicle rolled over D. Vehicle speed at time of crash

Whether the driver suffered an amputation proximal to the wrist or ankle

While assessing a patient using the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke​ Scale, you note that the patient has​ acute-onset facial droop on the left side. This​ indicates: A. a normal finding for older patients. B. the likelihood that the patient experienced a seizure. C. a likelihood that the patient is experiencing a stroke. D. that the patient had a previous stroke.

a likelihood that the patient is experiencing a stroke.

A​ 5-year-old male is frequently witnessed simply staring off into space. Several times a day he loses​ focus, which has been affecting his ability to pay attention to instructions and know​ what's going on around him. Today his teacher saw him fall off his chair and strike his head on his desk. He now has a bleeding laceration above his right eye. The patient is now awake and crying. His vital signs are P​ 100, R​ 24, BP​ 100/60. His blood glucose level is 80​ mg/dl. Given the​ patient's history, you suspect he has been suffering​ from: A. tonic-clonic-seizures. B. simple partial seizures. C. absence seizures. D. complex partial seizures.

absence seizures.

Your adult trauma patient has a score of 14 on the Glasgow Coma​ Scale, a systolic blood pressure of 90 mm​ Hg, and a respiratory rate of 10. You​ should: A. package the patient for immediate transport to a trauma center. B. reassess blood pressure and respiratory rate. C. decide whether the mechanism of injury is significant enough to merit transport to a trauma center. D. address whether the patient meets the anatomic criteria for transport to a trauma center.

address whether the patient meets the anatomic criteria for transport to a trauma center

A​ 73-year-old female complains of a new onset of​ vertigo, and states that she almost passed out when she tried to stand. She is alert but weak. Her vital signs are P​ 70, R​ 20, BP​ 100/60. Her pulse oximeter reads​ 95%. The action among the following that it is least necessary to take for this patient is​ to: A. administer oxygen. B. loosen any tight clothing around the neck. C. lay the patient flat. D. assess the​ patient's likelihood to remain stable.

administer oxygen.

A​ 24-year-old male has regained consciousness after a tonic-clonic seizure and is now alert. He is​ fatigued, and complains of generalized muscle pain. You note that he is slightly cyanotic and breathing rapidly. His vital signs are P​ 116, R​ 28, BP​ 174/88. You should​ next: A. initiate rapid transport. B. place the patient in the recovery position. C. administer supplemental oxygen. D. administer a tube of oral glucose.

administer supplemental oxygen.

A patient in the postictal state will​ have: A. violent movements of the body and possible cyanosis of the face and lips. B. altered mental status. C. bradycardia and dry skin. D. rigidity or stiffening of the muscles and loss of bladder control.

altered mental status.

A large puncture wound or laceration to the neck must be immediately sealed with an occlusive dressing to​ prevent: A. an air embolus. B. cervical spine injury. C. excessive bleeding. D. airway compromise.

an air embolus.

During the primary​ assessment, one clinical indication that a patient may be experiencing a hypoglycemic emergency​ is: A. an altered mental status. B. flushed skin. C. shallow breathing. D. a loss of appetite.

an altered mental status.

A sensation experienced by a seizure patient right before the seizure​ is: A. an aura. B. a vital sign. C. a premonition. D. a symptom.

an aura.

When a clot or embolism occludes an​ artery, this​ causes: A. a hemorrhagic stroke. B. receptive aphasia. C. expressive aphasia. D. an ischemic stroke.

an ischemic stroke.

In managing a patient who you have decided has an AVPU of​ "U," it will be important​ to: A. administer oxygen by nasal cannula. B. apply a pressure bandage. C. assess the​ patient's position and place an airway adjunct if necessary. D. use the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale.

assess the​ patient's position and place an airway adjunct if necessary.

Emergency medical care of a patient with suspected spinal injury​ includes: A. using manual cervical spine traction until a cervical collar can be applied. B. opening and maintaining the airway using the​ head-tilt, chin-lift method if the patient is responsive. C. assessing neurological deficits by testing grip strength. D. using sandbags to immobilize the​ patient's head on the long backboard.

assessing neurological deficits by testing grip strength.

Another term for a compression injury to the spine​ is: A. ankylosing spondylitis. B. extension injury. C. axial loading. D. flexion injury.

axial loading

Hyperglycemia is​ high: A. blood sugar. B. carbon dioxide. C. carbohydrates. D. oxygen.

blood sugar.

A stroke refers to the death or injury​ of: A. heart muscle. B. a major artery. C. brain tissue. D. a patient.

brain tissue

A patient presenting with dizziness and a rapid heart rate may be​ experiencing: A. hypovolemia. B. vasovagal syncope. C. cardiac dysrhythmia. D. hypoglycemia.

cardiac dysrhythmia

In assessing a possible stroke patient for arm​ drift, it is important to have the​ patient: A. keep one eye open. B. blink rapidly. C. close both eyes. D. keep both eyes open.

close both eyes.

A​ 52-year-old male complains of not feeling well. Family members state that upon awakening this​ morning, they noticed that the patient had​ right-sided facial droop and was slurring his words slightly. The patient states that he is a​ diabetic, and 5 minutes​ ago, his blood glucose was 88​ mg/dL. After completing the primary​ assessment, you should​ next: A. complete a Cincinnati Prehospital stroke assessment. B. administer​ high-concentration oxygen. C. administer oral glucose. D. recheck the​ patient's blood glucose.

complete a Cincinnati Prehospital stroke assessment.

A diver struck his head on the bottom of the swimming pool and now complains of neck pain and numbness in his lower extremities. You​ suspect: A. distraction injury. B. rotational injury. C. crush injury. D. compression injury.

compression injury.

When an individual sustains​ blunt-force trauma to the head that results in a brief disruption of the neural network without any physical evidence or lasting residual​ effects, this would be termed​ a: A. cerebral hematoma. B. brain contusion. C. concussion. D. herniation.

concussion

A​ 76-year-old male patient has been found with facial droop and paralysis to the left side of his body. His vital signs are P​ 88, R​ 20, BP​ 210/100. His oxygen saturation is​ 90%. You administer oxygen and initiate transport to the local stroke center. Ten minutes​ later, you note that he has recovered fully. You should​ next: A. continue to the stroke center. B. divert to the nearest hospital. C. discontinue the oxygen. D. return the patient to his home.

continue to the stroke center.

In diabetic​ ketoacidosis, shock is usually caused​ by: A. vasoconstriction. B. blood loss. C. vasodilation. D. dehydration.

dehydration.

A stroke patient appears to understand you but​ can't find the correct words to express his condition. The words he uses​ don't make sense. This​ is: A. expressive aphasia. B. a partial seizure. C. receptive aphasia. D. a generalized seizure.

expressive aphasia

The hole where the spinal cord exits the cranium is called​ the: A. vertebral foramen. B. tentorium cerebri. C. foramen magnum. D. brainstem.

foramen magnum.

An idiopathic​ seizure: A. is caused by hypoglycemia. B. is caused by infection. C. has no known cause. D. is caused by irregularities in the​ patient's metabolism.

has no known cause.

The process by which the brain is compressed toward and through the foramen magnum is known​ as: A. cerebral contusion. B. herniation. C. concussion. D. subdural hematoma.

herniation

Hemorrhagic stroke is frequently the result of​ longstanding: A. high blood pressure. B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD). C. high sodium intake. D. ​blunt-force trauma to the head.

high blood pressure

After properly measuring a​ patient's blood glucose​ level, the glucometer reading displays the word​ "low." This finding​ indicates: A. hypoxemia. B. hypoglycemia. C. hyperglycemia. D. a normal blood glucose level.

hypoglycemia.

A patient fainted when she tried to stand​ up, and you discover signs of internal bleeding during your assessment. This​ patient's syncope was likely​ from: A. hypovolemia. B. hypoxia. C. absence seizure. D. cardiac dysrhythmia.

hypovolemia

Skull injuries divide into two general​ categories, which​ are: A. direct and indirect. B. open and closed. C. subdural and epidural. D. traumatic and nontraumatic.

open and closed.

The police call you for a​ 50-year-old male patient who has a history of intoxication and belligerence. You find him sitting on the curb with a small​ abrasion, minimal bleeding to his​ forehead, and his hands cuffed behind his back. He is exhibiting​ tremors, and his speech is slurred. He denies any​ pain, denies any consumption of​ alcohol, and says that he sustained the abrasion 3 days earlier. You​ should: A. transport him without spinal precautions. B. explain the risks to the patient and let him choose whether or not to be immobilized. C. ask law enforcement for permission to immobilize the patient. D. immobilize​ him, because the history seems unreliable.

immobilize​ him, because the history seems unreliable.

Paralysis of the extremities is probably the most reliable sign of spinal cord​ injury: A. if accompanied by paresthesia. B. if verbal response is also impaired. C. in patients who are conscious. D. in pediatric patients.

in patients who are conscious

Abnormally high pressure within the skull is known​ as: A. cerebral hypertension. B. intracranial hemorrhage. C. concussive injury. D. increased intracranial pressure.

increased intracranial pressure.

When treating a patient with damage to the facial​ bones, you should have a high index of suspicion​ for: A. cranial cohesion B. thoracic separation. C. injury to the brain. D. aphagia.

injury to the brain

A patient with more than one serious​ injury: A. has a triage score of 3. B. is a triage patient. C. is a multiple trauma patient. D. is a multisystem trauma patient.

is a multiple trauma patient.

If you describe a patient as​ presyncope, you mean that the​ patient: A. is experiencing an absence seizure. B. is about to faint. C. is agitated. D. is hypoglycemic.

is about to faint.

A​ 16-year-old male athlete suffered a syncopal episode while playing soccer on a​ hot, humid day. You find him lying supine and complaining of dizziness. He has no apparent injuries. You​ should: A. ask the patient to stand while you take his pulse and blood pressure. B. apply​ high-concentration oxygen, and transport in Trendelenburg position. C. initiate​ high-priority transport to the nearest hospital and intercept with ALS. D. keep the patient supine and allow him to slowly recover. Consider ALS​ and/or transport.

keep the patient supine and allow him to slowly recover. Consider ALS​ and/or transport.

Hyperglycemia is usually caused by a decrease in​ insulin, which: A. causes an excessive amount of water to build up in the tissues of the body. B. leaves sugar in the bloodstream rather than helping it enter the cells. C. signals the liver to release glycogen to raise blood glucose levels. D. engages the​ fight-or-flight response of the autonomic nervous system.

leaves sugar in the bloodstream rather than helping it enter the cells.

A​ 17-year-old female has been actively seizing for over 5 minutes. The​ patient's jaw is​ clenched, and you note that she is cyanotic around her lips. Her vitals are P​ 130, R​ 18, BP​ 180/92. You should​ next: A. protect the patient from injury until the convulsions subside. B. begin CPR. C. maintain the airway and administer oxygen as appropriate. D. reassess the patient.

maintain the airway and administer oxygen as appropriate.

Dizziness: A. is simply another term for altered mental status. B. means different things to different people. C. is the sudden sensation of a loss of strength. D. is the rapid onset of extreme vertigo.

means different things to different people.

Your patient was involved in a motor vehicle collision. You have decided to transport him to a trauma center because another occupant in the same vehicle died. Your decision is based​ on: A. physiological findings. B. pathophysiological findings. C. mechanism of injury. D. anatomical findings.

mechanism of injury.

The three sections of the Glasgow Coma Scale​ (GCS) include: A. appearance. B. motor response. C. level of consciousness. D. breathing effort.

motor response.

To prevent additional injuries during repeated​ seizures, you​ should: A. place the patient on his back. B. move objects away from the patient. C. immediately transport the patient. D. bind the​ patient's hands and feet.

move objects away from the patient.

​Shock, or​ hypoperfusion, caused by a spinal cord injury is classified​ as: A. hypovolemic. B. neurogenic. C. cardiogenic. D. idiopathic.

neurogenic.

In neurogenic​ shock, the pulse rate may​ be: A. normal. B. lower than the blood pressure. C. undetectable. D. erratic.

normal.

Syncope due to gastrointestinal bleeding is especially common​ in: A. younger patients. B. older patients. C. diabetic patients. D. otherwise healthy patients.

older patients

In the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale​ (CPSS) screening​ method, arm drift is​ when: A. one arm drifts compared with the other. B. both arms are held to the​ patient's sides. C. both arms move equally. D. the palms of both hands face upward.

one arm drifts compared with the other.

A partial seizure​ affects: A. consciousness. B. one part or one side of the brain. C. the extremities. D. the entire brain.

one part or one side of the brain

You arrive on scene at a motor vehicle​ crash, where you notice that the patient has severe bleeding from her head with gray matter showing. This type of injury is​ a(n): A. open skull fracture. B. closed head injury. C. subdural hematoma. D. mortal injury.

open skull fracture.

Hyperglycemia typically​ develops: A. over the course of an hour or so. B. over days or even weeks. C. in a few seconds. D. in a few minutes.

over days or even weeks

A​ 62-year-old female was found confused and diaphoretic. Her blood glucose level was assessed to be 35​ mg/dl. After administering a tube of oral​ glucose, you should​ next: A. make sure the patient can swallow. B. perform a reassessment. C. administer a second tube of oral glucose. D. initiate transport.

perform a reassessment.

If your patient is actively​ seizing, it may be necessary​ to: A. insert a tongue depressor. B. place the patient on the floor or ground. C. insert a bite block. D. forcibly restrain the patient.

place the patient on the floor or ground.

If a patient becomes unresponsive during administration of oral​ glucose, the EMT​ should: A. insert a tongue depressor. B. reassess the airway and breathing. C. repeat the oral glucose. D. give oxygen via a nonrebreather mask.

reassess the airway and breathing

After administering oral glucose to a patient in a diabetic​ emergency, you​ should: A. find out if the patient has a history of diabetes. B. take the​ patient's vital signs. C. perform a primary assessment. D. reassess the patient.

reassess the patient.

If a patient in a diabetic emergency is not awake enough to​ swallow, then: A. treat the patient as though the patient has an alert mental​ status, and let the patient​ self-administer oral glucose. B. secure the​ airway, provide ventilations if​ necessary, and be prepared to perform CPR if necessary. C. position the patient on the​ patient's back, to prevent choking on or aspiring fluids or vomitus. D. administer oral glucose and then reassess the patient.

secure the​ airway, provide ventilations if​ necessary, and be prepared to perform CPR if necessary.

The steps in immobilizing a supine patient to a long backboard​ include: A. removing the cervical collar once the patient is immobilized on the board. B. securing the​ patient's torso to the board before securing the head. C. not placing padding on the​ board, as it might move the spine out of alignment. D. using the logroll and then quickly assessing the anterior body.

securing the​ patient's torso to the board before securing the head.

Objects that are impaled into the head and interfere with transport should​ be: A. gently but firmly removed. B. left in place and transported in a​ flat-bed vehicle. C. stabilized and cut with minimal movement of the object. D. pushed through to the other side for removal.

stabilized and cut with minimal movement of the object.

Diabetes mellitus is also known​ as: A. stroke. B. sugar diabetes. C. hypoglycemia. D. hyperglycemia.

sugar diabetes

In a patient who sustained massive impact trauma to the face during a motor vehicle​ crash, the presence of facial fractures and a fractured mandible should lead you to​ suspect: A. That the patient was unrestrained. B. that the patient is not likely to have a brain​ injury, because the facial fractures absorbed all of the energy at impact. C. that a compromised airway is not very likely. D. that the energy involved might have caused skull or brain injury.

that the energy involved might have caused skull or brain injury.

An injury to the cranium would directly​ affect: A. the part of the nervous system that controls involuntary functions. B. the fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. C. the two fused bones forming the upper jaw. D. the bony structure making up the forehead and​ top, back, and upper sides of the skull.

the bony structure making up the forehead and​ top, back, and upper sides of the skull.

The term​ "golden hour" refers to the importance of getting critical trauma patients to surgery within one hour of the time​ when: A. EMS arrived on scene. B. EMS was activated. C. the injury occurred. D. the patient was transported.

the injury occurred.

The difference between a multisystem trauma patient and a multiple trauma patient​ is: A. the seriousness of injuries. B. whether the injuries involve blood loss. C. the number of body systems affected. D. whether the injuries involve the cardiovascular system.

the number of body systems affected.

You are taking the history of a​ 35-year-old male patient who is unresponsive in the postictal phase of a tonic-clonic seizure from the​ patient's spouse, who informs you that the patient has been taking a prescribed medication for managing generalized seizures for several months. Based on this​ information, you suspect it is most likely​ that: A. the patient failed to take his prescribed medication. B. the prescribed​ medication's dosage was probably insufficient to manage the​ patient's seizures. C. the prescribed medication is not correct for the​ patient's type of seizure. D. the prescribed medication has expired without the​ patient's realizing it.

the patient failed to take his prescribed medication.

A hypoglycemic​ 15-year-old female has been found unconscious. You should not administer oral​ glucose, because: A. the patient is not awake enough to swallow. B. the​ patient's problem is too little insulin. C. the patient is severely hypoglycemic. D. the patient needs to consent to glucose administration.

the patient is not awake enough to swallow

If your patient is wearing a​ helmet, you should leave it in place​ if: A. there are no impending airway or breathing problems. B. the helmet is loose enough to allow you to assess the​ patient's head and neck. C. the helmet has been damaged. D. the helmet is not too snug to remove easily.

there are no impending airway or breathing problems.

Contraindications to the use of oral glucose in a patient with altered mental status and a history of​ medication-controlled diabetes​ include: A. the​ patient's taking insulin today but not eating. B. the​ patient's being unable to swallow. C. not knowing whether the patient has taken insulin today. D. a history of type II diabetes.

the​ patient's being unable to swallow.

Your patient has a Revised Trauma Score of 3. This means​ that: A. the patient has the lowest score possible. B. the patient has the highest score possible. C. the​ patient's condition is moderate. D. the​ patient's condition is critical.

the​ patient's condition is critical.

The 12 vertebrae in the upper back are known as​ the: A. thoracic spine. B. lumbar spine. C. coccyx. D. sacral spine.

thoracic spine

During your primary​ assessment, it is important to​ remember: A. that inadequate breathing may result from spinal cord damage from a thoracic spine injury. B. that the​ patient's skin may be​ cool, pale, and moist below the site of spinal cord injury and warm and dry above the site of injury. C. to open the airway of an unresponsive patient using the​ head-tilt, chin-lift method. D. to initiate immediate manual​ in-line spinal stabilization according to patient need.

to initiate immediate manual​ in-line spinal stabilization according to patient need.

The phase of the seizure in which muscles become contracted and tense is called​ the: A. postictal phase. B. tonic phase. C. preictal phase. D. clonic phase.

tonic phase.

Your patient fell 15 feet from a roof. He has a deformed lower leg and a decreased level of consciousness. You designate the patient as a multisystem trauma patient who should be taken to a nearby trauma center. This is​ a: A. physical examination. B. secondary assessment. C. transport decision. D. primary assessment.

transport decision.

Calculating the trauma score may help to determine whether a patient should go to​ a(n): A. trauma center. B. emergency department. C. burn center. D. hospital.

trauma center.

You are caring for an elderly trauma patient. The mechanism of injury is not​ remarkable, but your instincts tell you that something is wrong. You​ should: A. delay your transport decision and further evaluate the patient. B. ignore your instincts until you have evidence. C. trust your judgment. D. wait for ALS personnel to arrive.

trust your judgment.

The purpose of spinal motion restriction is to prevent movement of​ individual: A. tendons. B. joints. C. muscles. D. vertebrae.

vertebrae