EMT Final Part 2

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A normal heart rate for a newborn is: A. 120 to 160 beats per minute. B. 160 to 200 beats per minute. C. 80 to 120 beats per minute. D. 60 to 100 beats per minute.

120 to 160 beats per minute

Which of the following respiratory rate ranges is normal for a child between 1 and 3 years of age? A. 40 to 60 breaths per minute B. 20 to 30 breaths per minute C. 25 to 50 breaths per minute D. 12 to 20 breaths per minute

20 to 30 breaths per minute

A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

When a female has reached menarche: A. she is capable of becoming pregnant. B. she can no longer produce an ovum. C. she usually requires hormone therapy. D. menstrual periods become less frequent.

When a light is shone into the pupil: Select one: A. it should become smaller in size. B. it should become larger in size. C. both pupils should dilate together. D. the opposite pupil should dilate.

When providing care to multiple patients at the scene of a mass-casualty incident, your goal should remain focused on A. transporting patients to the hospital B. immobilizing all patients at the scene C. initiating CPR for those in cardiac arrest D. keeping all bystanders at a safe distance

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: A. quadruples. B. triples. C. doubles. D. is not affected.

Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidneys? Select one: A. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs. B. Only minimal force is needed to damage the kidneys. C. The kidneys are not well protected. D. Kidney injuries are rarely caused by blunt trauma.

Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes? A. "Have you had a sonogram?" B. "Is this your first baby?" C. "When are you due?" D. "Do you feel the need to push?"

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause cardiogenic shock? A. A drug that induces widespread vascular dilation B. Taking too much nitroglycerin for chest pain C. A massive MI that impairs the pump function of the heart D. A massive pulmonary embolus

A massive MI that impairs the pump function of the heart

A normal heart rate for a 13- to 18-year-old patient at rest is: A. 50 to 95 beats per minute. B. 120 to 165 beats per minute. C. 60 to 105 beats per minute. D. 90 to 135 beats per minute.

60 to 105 beats per minute.

The cervical spine is composed of _____ vertebrae. A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8

A young boy was riding his bicycle down the street when he hit a parked car. What was the first collision? A. The bike hitting the car. B. The bike rider hitting his bike or the car. C. The bike rider's internal organs against the solid structures of the body. D. The bike rider striking the pavement.

A young boy was riding his bicycle down the street when he hit a parked car. What will rate your index of suspicion for this collision? A. The mechanism of injury B. The type of bike C. How loudly he's crying D. A quick visual assessment

If direct pressure fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply: Select one: A. a tourniquet proximal to the injury. B. digital pressure to a proximal artery. C. a splint and elevate the extremity. D. additional sterile dressings.

Often the most important intervention for sexual assault patient is _____ and transport to a facility with staff specially trained to deal with this scenario. A. comforting reassurance B. excellent assessment skills C. bandaging skills D. emotional sympathy

Patients with open abdominal injures often complain of: A. pain B. nausea C. vomiting D. dyspnea

Significant clues to the possibility of severe injuries in motor vehicle collisions include: A. death of a passenger B. a blown out tires C. broken glass D. a deployed air bag

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called: A. tendons. B. cartilage. C. ligaments. D. fascia

Suspect a possible injury of the urinary bladder in all of the following findings EXCEPT: A. bruising to the left upper quadrant B. blood at the urethral opening C. blood at the tip of the penis or a stain on the patient's underwear D. physical signs of trauma on the lower abdomen, pelvis or perineum

The "PID Shuffle" refers to: A. a distinctive gait when the patient walks. B. rotation of the microorganisms that cause PID. C. symptoms that come and go. D. a structural that come and go.

The Adam's apple is: Select one: A. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. B. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. C. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. D. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea.

The energy of a moving object is called: A. kinetic energy. B. converted energy. C. potential energy. D. latent energy.

The information that would be of LEAST pertinence when educating the public on injury prevention is A. how to provide rescue breathing. B. the proper usage of child safety seats. C. building a childproof fence around a pool. D. teaching children to wear bicycle helmets.

The largest organ in the abdomen is the: A. liver B. spleen C. pancreas D. kidneys

The major complaint of patients with abdominal injury is: A. pain B. tachycardia C. rigidity D. swelling

The optic nerve endings are located within the: Select one: A. the retina B. the sclera C. the tragus D. the skull

The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: Select one: A. mandibular immobility. B. airway compromise. C. cervical spine injury. D. damage to the eyes.

The amount of kinetic energy that is converted to do work on the body dictates the _____ of the injury. A. location B. severity C. cause D. speed

The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the: A. air bag correctly deploys upon impact. B. headrest is appropriately positioned. C. rear end of the vehicle is initially struck. D. patient tenses up at the time of impact.

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: A. has obtained a complete set of vital signs. B. has gathered patient history information. C. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant. D. has formed a general impression of the patient.

Which of the following is NOT a hollow organ of the abdomen? A. Stomach B. Liver C. Bladder D. Urters

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding assessment and treatment of a woman who was the victim of sexual assault? A. You may be called to testify in court regarding the incident B. You should question the victim thoroughly about the assaulter in case the police missed any details C. The patient should be given the option of being treated by a female responder D. The patient should be discouraged from urinating or changing her clothes prior to examination at the hospital

Which organ or organ system has the greatest tolerance for lack of perfusion (shock)? Select one: A. Brain B. Gastrointestinal system C. Skeletal muscle D. Kidneys

Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood? Select one: A. Left B. Right C. Ventricles D. Atria

With regard to the three collisions that occur during a motor vehicle crash, which of the following statements regarding the first collision is correct? A. It provides the least amount of information about the mechanism of injury. B. It is the most dramatic part of the collision and may make extrication difficult. C. It occurs when the unrestrained occupant collides with the interior of the vehicle. D. It has a direct effect on patient care because of the obvious vehicular damage.

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. Select one: A. 50 lb B. 100 lb C. 150 lb D. 200 lb

B. 100 lb

The onset of menstruation usually occurs in women who are: A. 8 and 10 years B. 11 and 16 years C. 16 and 18 years D. 17 and 20 years

B. 11 and 16 years

A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response? Select one: A. 5 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4

B. 3

_____ is responsible for properly securing and stabilizing the vehicle and providing a safe entrance and access to the patient. Select one: A. Law enforcement B. The rescue team C. The EMS service D. The hazardous materials unit

B. The rescue team

The head is divided into two parts: the cranium and the: A. brain B. face C. skull D. medulla oblongata

B. face

Painful urination associated with burning and a yellowish discharge is associated with: A. chlamydia B. gonorrhea C. endometriosis D. syphilis

B. gonorrhea

Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: Select one: A. diving. B. hangings. C. falls. D. compression.

B. hangings.

You are treating a 42-year-old male complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. You notice that he appears pale, cool, and sweaty. What is the MOST likely reason for these findings? A. The patient's pain receptors are causing his vessels to expand and dilate. B. Blood vessels constrict in response to sympathetic stimulation, causing a decrease in blood flow to the skin. C. The body is attempting to rid waste products through the skin as well as the kidneys. D. Blood vessels are dilating, causing inadequate gas exchange.

Blood vessels constrict in response to sympathetic stimulation, causing a decrease in blood flow to the skin.

A young boy was riding his bicycle down the street when he hit a parked car. How many collisions took place? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Approximately 80% of the eyeball is protected by the: Select one: A. eyelids B. bony structure surrounding the eye C. orbit D. globe

As an EMT-Basic, your primary responsibility is to A. provide competent patient care B. ensure the safety of your partner C. keep yourself as safe as possible D. transport all patients to the hospital

The most common life-threatening event in a rollover is ____ or partial ejection of the passenger from the vehicle. A. vehicle intrusion B. centrifugal force C. ejection D. spinal cord injury

The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as: A. conversion. B. congruent. C. cavitation. D. capitation.

The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury: A. indicates a state of decompensated shock B. should be assumed to be a sign of shock C. is most commonly caused by severe pain D. is always accompanied by hypo tension

Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n): Select one: A. airway obstruction. B. basilar skull fracture. C. spinal column injury. D. displaced mandible.

Signs of injury to the kidney may include any of the following EXCEPT: A. bruises or lacerations on the overlying skin B. shock C. increased urgency of urination D. hematuria

The mastoid process is located approximately: Select one: A. 0.5" posterior to the external opening of the ear B. 1" anterior to the external opening of the ear C. 1" posterior to the external opening of the ear D. 0.5" posterior to the auditory canal

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant: A. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard. B. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle. C. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force. D. will most likely be thrown over the steering column.

In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: Select one: A. pneumothorax. B. myocardial contusion. C. cardiac tamponade. D. flail chest.

A. pneumothorax.

Upon arrival at a search-and-rescue incident, the EMS crew should _________. Select one: A. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient B. begin searching for the patient C. split up and request a search grid D. provide the incident commander with the crew's names and certification level(s)

A. prepare the equipment to carry the patient

The primary purpose for splinting a musculoskeletal injury is to: A. prevent further injury B. maximise distal circulation C. make the patient comfortable D. facilitate ambulance transport

A. prevent further injury

Immediately life-threatening chest injuries must be found and managed during the _______. Select one: A. primary assessment B. secondary assessment C. scene size-up D. patient history

A. primary assessment

When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT: Select one: A. pupillary constriction. B. increase in heart rate. C. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle. D. shunting of blood to vital organs.

A. pupillary constriction.

At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. remain outside the danger (hot) zone B. enter the danger (hot) zone for patient removal only C. stabilize the patient in the danger (hot) zone D. relocate the danger (hot) zone away from the patient

A. remain outside the danger (hot) zone.

When driving with lights and siren, you are _____ that drivers yield the right-of-way. Select one: A. requesting B. demanding C. offering D. None of these answers are correct

A. requesting

During the transfer of patient care: Select one: A. when possible, the team member giving the patient care report should hand off lifesaving care. B. both the team members giving and receiving the patient care report should focus on their own priorities. C. any lifesaving care should be done first and then any patient care reports can be done after the patient is transported. D. any lifesaving care should be completed quickly and only the relevant documentation of care need be transferred.

A. when possible, the team member giving the patient care report should hand off lifesaving care.

If an open chest wound is discovered during initial assessment, it should be immediately sealed with: A. your gloved hand. B. a trauma dressing. C. tape. D. an occlusive dressing.

A. your gloved hand.

Air bags decrease injury to all of the following EXCEPT: A. chest B. heart C. face D. head

Air in the abdominal cavity can cause all of the following EXCEPT: A. pain B. diarrhea C. infection D. tissue ischemia and infarction

As a woman approaches menopause: A. she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding. B. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity. C. her risk of developing PID lowers significantly. D. she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels.

Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: Select one: A. the abdomen must be vigorously palpated. B. prompt transport to the hospital is essential. C. vital signs should be monitored frequently. D. the EMT must perform a thorough exam.

Blunt abdominal injuries may result from: A. a stab wound B. seat belts C. a gunshot wound D. an impaled object

In any case of trauma to a female patient, you should always determine if the patient: A. is on birth control B. is pregnant C. is currently menstruating D. has a history of ovarian cysts

In cases of sexual assault, which of the following is true? A. You should always examine the genitalia for any sign of injury B. Advise the patient not to wash, urinate or defecate C. In addition to recording the facts, it is important to include your personal thoughts D. You should use plastic bags when collecting items such as clothes

Which of the following is typically helpful in assessing a pediatric patient? A. Let the patient know that you are in charge. B. Tell the patient to answer with "yes" or "no" only. C. Ask the parent to leave the room. D. Communicate with the patient at eye level.

Communicate with the patient at eye level.

For a patient at what stage of shock are the efforts of EMTs likely to be MOST successful and have the GREATEST impact on a positive outcome? A. Irreversible shock B. Refractory shock C. Decompensated shock D. Compensated shock

Compensated shock

A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should: A. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation. B. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint. C. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position. D. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints.

A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: A. olecranon process. B. proximal radius. C. radial head. D. distal humerus.

Rape is considered to be a _____ diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis. A. psychological B surgical C. sociological D. legal

Which of the following patients has experienced the MOST significant fall? A. A 5′0″ patient who fell 13′ B. A 5′9″ patient who fell 14′ C. A 4′6″ patient who fell 13′ D. A 4′8″ patient who fell 13′

Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume. Select one: A. 10% B. 5% C. 15% D. 20%

While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. a lacerated coronary artery. B. underlying cardiac disease. C. bruising of the heart muscle. D. traumatic rupture of the aorta.

While caring for a critically injured patient, you remove blood-soaked clothing in order to manage injuries. You should dispose of the clothing by A. leaving it at the scene B. leaving it at the hospital C. placing it in a biohazard bag D. placing it in the ambulance trash can

While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: A. open abdominal trauma. B. lower extremity fractures. C. neck and facial injuries. D. blunt trauma to the head.

Which of the following infections, when left untreated, may lead to infection of the blood and brain? Select one: A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Bacterial vaginosis C. Gonorrhea D. Chlamydia

C. Gonorrhea

Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. chronic medical conditions. B. prescription medication use. C. an acute onset of dementia. D. alcohol abuse and dependence.

C. an acute onset of dementia.

Closed injuries to the chest are the result of _______ trauma applied to the chest cavity. A. sustained B. open C. blunt D. internal

C. blunt

Hyperventilation during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation: Select one: A. will decrease the likelihood of aspiration. B. is acceptable if done for fewer than 2 minutes. C. can cause gastric distention and hypotension. D. provides a better oxygen reserve for the patient.

C. can cause gastric distention and hypotension.

General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. supplemental oxygen and keeping the patient supine. B. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina. C. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina. D. treating external lacerations with sterile compresses.

C. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina.

If a person is standing near a building that explodes, which of the following injuries would he or she MOST likely experience as a result of the pressure wave? A. Impaled objects B. Fractured bones C. Severe burns D. Stomach rupture

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull known as the: A. eustachian tube B. spinous process C. foramen magnum D. vertebral foramina

C. foramen magnum

Suspect kidney damage if the patient has a history or physical evidence of all of the following EXCEPT: A. an abrasion, laceration, or contusion in the flank B. a penetrating wound in the lower rib cage or the upper abdomen C. fractures on either side of the lower rib cage D. a hematoma in the umbilical region

The immobilization device most appropriate to use for a patient with multiple injuries and unstable vital signs is a A. scoop immobilization device B. vest-style immobilization device C. short spine board immobilization device D. long spine board immobilization device

The most common presenting sign of PID is: A. vaginal discharge. B. fever. C. nausea and vomiting. D. lower abdominal pain.

The onset of menstruation is called menarche and usually occurs in women who are: A. between 25 and 35 years of age. B. between 12 and 14 years of age. C. between 45 and 50 years of age. D. between 11 and 16 years of age.

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: A. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician. B. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented. C. performed in the presence of at least two police officers. D. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.

The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: A. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature. B. an expected finding in full-term infants. C. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed. D. that the baby's airway may be obstructed.

The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT: Select one: A. clinical signs and symptoms. B. poor general appearance. C. the mechanism of injury. D. systolic blood pressure.

When documenting a call in which a female was sexually assaulted, you should: A. only use quotation marks when recording any statements made by witnesses. B. translate the patient's words or statements using proper medical C. record your opinion only if you have reasonable proof to justify the statement. D. keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words.

When performing a full body scan, you should assess for ________. Select one: A. SAMPLE B. OPQRST C. AVPU D. DCAP-BTLS

When performing a history on a patient with abdominal trauma, which of the following questions would be appropriate regarding trauma? A. Is there any blood in your stool? B. Does your pain go anywhere? C. Do you have any nausea, vomiting or diarrhea? D. All of the above

When performing a physical exam on a victim of sexual assault, you should: A. expose and evaluate the patient's vaginal area regardless of whether there is bleeding. B. allow multiple people to observe the examination in case you have to testify. C. limit your examination to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries. D. place the patient's clothes into a paper bag.

When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: A. in a supine position with her legs spread. B. in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12 inches. C. on her left side with the right leg elevated. D. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches.

Which of the following would MOST likely result from the third collision in the "three-collision" effect that occurs during a high-speed, frontal impact motor vehicle crash? A. Extensive damage to the automobile B. Flail chest and lower extremity fractures C. Massive external trauma with severe bleeding D. Aortic rupture or compression injury to the brain

Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Caved-in passenger door B. Collapsed dashboard C. Intrathoracic hemorrhage D. Deformed steering wheel

Which portion of the blood carries oxygen to and wastes away from body tissues? Select one: A. Platelets B. Plasma C. White blood cells D. Red blood cells

_______________ is the preferred treatment for a patient with flail chest and inadequate breathing. A. Oxygen via nonrebreather at 15 lpm B. Rescue breathing C. A bulky dressing D. Positive pressure ventilation

D. Positive pressure ventilation

A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: A. pelvic girdle B. femoral shaft C. pubic symphysis D. proximal femur

D. proximal femur

The danger of fluid collecting inside the pericardial sac is: A. it forces the heart to contract more forcefully. B. the heart must beat faster. C. the heart is easily bruised. D. the heart cannot contract as effectively.

D. the heart cannot contract as effectively.

An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: Select one: A. a bullet shatters the underlying bone. B. bone ends protrude through the skin. C. a large laceration overlies the fracture. D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.

D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the: A. ovaries. B. uterus. C. fallopian tubes. D. urinary bladder.

D. urinary bladder.

The EMT's responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to _________. Select one: A. assist in the search on foot B. direct other incoming EMS units C. assume medical command D. wait at the staging area until the patient is located

D. wait at the staging area until the patient is located.

Injuries to the external male genitalia _______. A. frequently lead to hypovolemic shock B. usually result in permanent damage C. are often life-threatening D. are rarely life-threatening

D. are rarely life-threatening Chapter 30, page 1074, Injuries of the Genitourinary System

Flail segments and sucking chest wounds should be treated: A. during your focused physical exam. B. as soon as you complete your initial assessment of the patient. C. immediately after controlling external bleeding. D. as soon as you see them, during your initial assessment.

D. as soon as you see them, during your initial assessment.

Of the following adjustments to the vascular system, which will contribute the most to increased perfusion to the core? A. Decreased vascular diameter B. Increased blood volume C. Decreased heart rate D. Increased oxygen consumption

Decreased vascular diameter

For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. nature of the call. B. caller's phone number. C. location of the patient(s). D. patient's medical history.

D. patient's medical history.

An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: A. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. B. a progressively lowering blood pressure. C. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate. D. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury.

a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.

Which of the following is the most common cause of shock (hypo perfusion) in infants and children? a. infection b. cardiac failure c. accidental poisoning d. sever allergic reaction

a. infection

The stooped posture of some older people, which gives them a humpback appearance, is called: a. kyphosis b. arthritis c. scoliosis d. miosis

a. kyphosis

Which of the following signs or symptoms is more common in Children than adults following head trauma? A. Nausea and vomiting B. Altered mental status C. Tachycardia and diaphoresis D. Changes in pupillary reaction

a. nausea and vomiting

A 34-year old woman, who is 36 weeks pregnant, is having a seizure. After you protect her airway and ensure adequate ventilation, you should transport her A. on her left side. B. in the prone position C. in the supine position D. in a semi-sitting position

a. on her left side

A drop in blood pressure with a change in position is referred to as: a. orthostatic hypotension b. metastatic hypotension c. malignant hypotension d. psychogenic hypotension

a. orthostatic hypotension

Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of ______ elder abuse. a. physical b. financial c. emotional d. psychological

a. physical

Your 22 yo patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: a. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated b. gently pulling on the infant's leg in attempt to facilitate delivery c. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting d. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord

a. placing the mother supine with her dead down and pelvis elevated

Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to: a. pneumonia b. osteoporosis c. heart failure d. ischemic stroke

a. pneumonia

Upon arrival at a search and rescue incident, the EMS crew should ______. a. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient b. begin searching for the patient c. split up and request a search grid d. provide the incident commander with the crew's names and certification levels

a. prepare the equipment to carry the patient

A patient with leg pain who complains of sudden shortness of breath, tachycardia, fever, chest pain, and a feeling of impending doom is likely experiencing a: a. pulmonary embolism b. pneumonia c. myocardial infarction d. aortic aneurysm

a. pulmonary embolism

At the scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should ______. a. remain outside the danger zone b. enter the danger zone for patient removal only c. stabilize the patient in the danger zone d. relocate the danger zone away from the patient

a. remain outside the danger (hot) zone

Geriatric patients present as a special problem for caregivers because: a. the classic presentation of disease is often altered b. geriatric patients tend not to understand their underlying conditions c. their medications are rather difficult to learn d. the typical diseases of the geriatric population are uncommon

a. the classic presentation of disease is often altered

The second stage of labor begins when the cervix is fully dilated and ends when: a. the infant is born b. the water breaks c. the placenta is delivered d. the uterus stops contracting

a. the infant is born

Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. the speed of the fall. b. the surface struck. c. the height of the fall. d. the primary impact point.

a. the speed of the fall.

A 49-year-old male patient was injured with a chain saw while cutting down a tree. He sustained a deep, jagged laceration to his left thigh. On arrival, you find him to be conscious but breathing rapidly, with a rapid pulse and cold, clammy skin. What type of shock would you suspect that he is in? A. Cardiogenic shock B. Anaphylactic shock C. Neurogenic shock D. Hypovolemic shock

Hypovolemic shock

Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? A. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head. B. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. C. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. D. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head.

Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury.

You are managing a 27-year-old female with severe hemorrhage from her right ankle after a motor vehicle collision. You are unable to stop the hemorrhage with direct pressure. What intervention should you do next? A. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen. B. Apply a pressure dressing. C. Apply a bulky sterile dressing. D. Immediately apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound on the patient's femur.

Immediately apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound on the patient's femur.

What is the purpose of the Rule of Nines for burn injuries? A. It helps to determine the depth of the burn. B. It helps to determine the age of the burn. C. It helps to determine the extent of the surface area burned. D. It helps to determine the need for oxygen.

It helps to determine the extent of the surface area burned.

Which statement regarding the trachea in pediatric patients is TRUE? A. It is more rigid than in adults. B. It is harder than in adults. C. It is not easily obstructed. D. It is narrower than in adults.

It is narrower than in adults.

In your care of a patient suffering from shock due to a motor vehicle crash, which of the following is MOST critical? A. Gathering information from the bystanders, family, or police officers before leaving the scene B. Closely examining the vehicles that were involved to determine the mechanisms of injury C. Minimizing your scene time D. Conducting a detailed secondary assessment at the scene

Minimizing your scene time

Which of the following statements about burn management in pediatric patients is TRUE? A. It is best to keep the patient exposed to minimize the risk of infection. B. Always apply wet, sterile burn sheets. C. Moist dressings should be used with caution. D. Pediatric patients are not prone to hypothermia due to burns.

Moist dressings should be used with caution.

Which of the following statements about injuries to pediatric patients is TRUE? A. Most injuries to children are caused by penetrating trauma. B. Most injuries to children are caused by blunt trauma. C. Most injuries to children are unavoidable accidents. D. Most injuries to children are caused by abuse.

Most injuries to children are caused by blunt trauma.

You are inserting an OPA into a small child's airway. What is the preferred technique that you should use? A. The same technique as with adults B. Straight insertion technique with a tongue depressor C. 360 degree reverse twist D. 180 degree reverse twist

Straight insertion technique with a tongue depressor

Which of the following age groups typically do not like being separated from their parents? A. Adolescents B. School age C. Preschoolers D. Newborns

Preschoolers

When a patient has significant blood loss, which of the following clinical findings would you expect to find that signifies the presence of shock? A. Rapid heart rate B. Flushed, warm, dry skin C. Slowed breathing and a bounding pulse D. Calm and relaxed demeanor with mental alertness and verbal responsiveness

Rapid heart rate

Which of the following principles may help the MOST in ensuring the survival of a patient who is suffering from shock due to massive trauma? A. Rapid transport to an appropriate facility B. Waiting for the arrival of paramedics so that they can administer IV fluids C. Facilitating immediate transport to the local community hospital D. Starting oxygen administration at a low concentration and increasing it gradually to the desired levels to avoid hyperoxia

Rapid transport to an appropriate facility

What could be a sign of a patient experiencing internal bleeding into the abdomen? A. Cyanosis B. Contraction C. Tenderness D. Erythema

Tenderness

Which of the following statements regarding a basilar skull fracture is correct? A. Bloody CSF commonly leaks from the nose. B. In most cases, mastoid bruising occurs. C. The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle's sign does not rule it out. D. They are typically the result of local, low-energy trauma to the head.

The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle's sign does not rule it out.

Which of the following statements about a pediatric patient with a tracheostomy tube on a home ventilator is TRUE? A. Infection is rare in such patients. B. Parents of such patients are typically poor historians. C. EMTs are not permitted to care for such patients. D. There is a high risk of infection.

There is a high risk of infection.

Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? a) They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing. b) They are part of the CNS and control reflexes. c) They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord. d) They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.

They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.

Which of the following is TRUE about infants? A. They typically breathe through the nose. B. Hyperextension of the neck is needed to open the airway. C. The chest wall is more rigid than that in adults. D. They typically breathe through the mouth.

They typically breathe through the nose.

The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: A. a pulse that is rapid and thready. B. a decreased level of consciousness. C. an abnormally low blood pressure. D. decreased sensation in the extremities.

a decreased level of consciousness.

A substance that will stop bleeding is called: A. a pressure dressing. B. a hemostatic agent. C. a tourniquet. D. a coalescent.

a hemostatic agent.

For a pediatric patient with complications related to a tracheostomy tube, your care will primarily focus on addressing: A. trauma. B. malnutrition. C. dehydration. D. airway problems.

airway problems.

When assessing the mental status of a child, a well child will likely be: A. alert. B. unresponsive. C. drowsy. D. inattentive.

alert

A 44-year-old male fell through a plate glass window and has a severe laceration to the side of his neck. He is bleeding severely. You should first: A apply a tourniquet. B sit him up to elevate the wound. C apply direct pressure. D apply a pressure bandage.

apply direct pressure.

After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient's head, you should: A. apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar. B. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities. C. thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities. D. use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard.

assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities.

The body's functions that occur without conscious effort are regulated by the _________ nervous system. A. sensory B. somatic C. autonomic D. voluntary

autonomic

When controlling bleeding from a scalp laceration with a suspected underlying skull fracture, you should: a) elevate the patient's head and apply an ice pack. b) avoid excessive pressure when applying the bandage. c) apply firm compression for no longer than 5 minutes. d) apply manual pressure and avoid applying a bandage.

avoid excessive pressure when applying the bandage.

Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: a) carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle. b) muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma. c) the tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured. d) increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength.

b) muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma.

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _____ per cubic foot. a. 50 lb b. 100 lb c. 150 lb d. 200 lb

b. 100 lb

An 84-year-old male fell a week ago and has been bedridden since then. Today, he presents with an altered mental status. His skin is pale and cold and his respirations are rapid and shallow. The EMT should suspect: A. acute hyperglycemia. B. a systemic infection. C. hypovolemic shock. D. a subdural hematoma.

b. a systemic infection

When evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car-versus-pedestrian collision, you should first: a. determine if the patient was propelled away from the vehicle. b. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian. c. evaluate the vehicle that struck the patient for structural damage. d. determine if the patient was struck and pulled under the vehicle.

b. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian.

When you attempt to assess a 22 yo woman who has been sexually assaulted, she orders you not to touch her. Your most appropriate initial action should be to: a. ask the patient to sign a release form b. ask a female EMT to attempt to assess the patient c. explain to the patient that she must be examined d. transport the patient without performing an assessment

b. ask a female EMT to attempt to assess the patient

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: a. break the window and unlock the door b. ask the patient if he can unlock the door c. request the rescue team to extricate him d. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door

b. ask the patient if he can unlock the door

The heart rate should be in the normal adult rage for a geriatric patient but can be altered by medications such as: a. insulin b. beta-blockers c. alpha-blockers d. aspirin

b. beta blockers

Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: a. retinitis b. cataracts c. glaucoma d. conjunctivitis

b. cataracts

If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: a. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process b. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route c. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene d. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene

b. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route

Which of the following statements regarding 2-rescuer child CPR is correct? A. The chest should not be allowed to fully recoil in between compressions as this may impede venous return. B. Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-half to one third the diameter of the chest. C. The chest should be compressed with one hand and a compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2 should be delivered. D. A compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2 should be delivered without pauses in compressions to deliver ventilations

b. compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one half to one third the diameter of the chest

Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing's triad? A. blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg pulse, 55 beats/min respirations, 30 breaths/min B.blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg pulse, 120 beats/min respirations, 10 breaths/min C.blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg pulse, 140 beats/min pulse, 140 beats/min respirations, 28 breaths/min D.blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg pulse, pulse 30 beats/min respirations, 32 breaths/min

blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg pulse, pulse 30 beats/min respirations, 32 breaths/min

Shock is typically caused by a problem with the heart, fluid volume, or: A. blood vessels. B. age of the patient. C. cerebral hypoxia. D. core temperature.

blood vessels

During severe bleeding, which of the following structures is most sensitive to hypoxia from blood loss? A. Brain B. Heart muscle C. Lungs D. Skeletal muscle

brain

The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: A. cerebellum and brain. B. brain and spinal cord. C. cerebrum and meninges. D. meninges and spinal cord.

brain and spinal cord.

The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. spinal cord D. cerebral cortex

brain stem

The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is the: a) radius and ulna. b) scapula. c) clavicle. d) midshaft femur.

c) clavicle.

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? a) moderate sprain b) severe strain c) displaced fracture d) hairline fracture

c) displaced fracture

A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities. a) diaphyseal b) greenstick c) epiphyseal d) metaphyseal

c) epiphyseal

When splinting an injury of the wrist, the hand should be placed: a) into a fist. b) in a straight position. c) in a functional position. d) in an extended position.

c) in a functional position.

A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert, but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be MOST suspicious for: a) a thoracic spine fracture. b) anterior hip dislocation. c) posterior hip dislocation. d) fracture of the tibia or fibula.

c) posterior hip dislocation.

Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes? a. "when are you due?" b. "is this your first baby?" c. "have you had a sonogram?" d. "do you feel the need to push?"

c. "have you had a sonogram?"

Once the infant is delivered, feel for a brachial pulse or the pulsations in the umbilical cord. If the pulse rate is below _____ beats/min, begin assisted ventilations. a. 60 b. 80 c. 100 d. 120

c. 100

Which of the following statements regarding the first collision that occurs during a motor vehicle crash is correct? a. It provides the least amount of information about the mechanism of injury. b. It has a direct effect on patient care because of the obvious vehicular damage. c. It is the most dramatic part of the collision and may make extrication difficult. d. It occurs when the unrestrained occupant collides with the interior of the vehicle.

c. It is the most dramatic part of the collision and may make extrication difficult.

If a person is standing near a building that explodes, which of the following injuries would he or she MOST likely experience as a result of the pressure wave? a. Severe burns b. Fractured bones c. Stomach rupture d. Impaled objects

c. Stomach rupture

Which of the following patients has experienced the MOST significant fall? a. a 4′8″ patient who fell 12 feet b. a 5′0″ patient who fell 13 feet c. a 4′6″ patient who fell 13 feet d. a 5′9″ patient who fell 14 feet

c. a 4′6″ patient who fell 13 feet

Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. chronic medical conditions b. prescription mediation use c. an acute onset of dementia d. alcohol abuse and dependence

c. acute onset of dementia

You are caring for a 6 year old child with a possible fractured left arm and have reason to believe that the child was abused. How should you manage the situation? a. inform the parents of your suspicions b. call the police so the parents can be arrested c. advise the parents that the child needs to be transported d. transport the child to the hospital regardless of the parents wishes

c. advise the parents that the child needs to be transported

Seizures in children most often are the result of a. a life threatening infection b. a temperature greater than 102 F c. an abrupt rise in body temperature d. an inflammatory process in the brain

c. an abrupt rise in body temperature

Changes to the kidney and genitourinary tract in elderly patients can cause all of the following except: a. urinary incontinence b. urinary retention c. an increased response to sodium deficiency d. enlargement of the prostate

c. an increased response to sodium

Which of the following is NOT one of the three corners of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)? A. Work of breathing B. Grimace C. Circulation to skin D. Appearance

grimace

Distraction injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: A. falls. B. diving. C. hangings. D. compression.

hangings.

A 72-year-old woman has fallen down some stairs. As you approach her, you note she is awake and has minor bleeding from her left leg. After assuring that the scene is safe, you should next: A check her airway. B assure her breathing is adequate. C apply direct pressure to the bleeding. D assess her pulse and skin.

check her airway.

If a parent of your critically ill or injured pediatric patient is interfering with patient care, you should: A. have the parent removed from the patient-care area. B. refuse to treat the child further until the parent calms down. C. stop patient care and calm the parent down. D. contact medical direction for advice.

have the parent removed from the patient-care area.

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. constricted pupils. B. combative behavior. C. CSF leakage from the ears. D. decreased sensory function.

constricted pupils.

Hypoperfusion is: A. inadequate blood flow to the tissue. B. reduced blood volume. C. reduced oxygen saturation of the blood. D. inadequate oxygen delivery to the tissue.

inadequate blood flow to the tissue.

All shock involves: A. inadequate tissue perfusion B. heart failure C. hypertension D. sepsis

inadequate tissue perfusion

A pediatric patient has extensive burn injuries. Rescuers have applied a wet but sterile burn sheet. You know that this is likely to: A. increase the risk of hypothermia. B. decrease the risk of hypothermia. C. alleviate the patient's pain. D. increase the risk of infection.

increase the risk of hypothermia.

If there are downed power lines near a vehicle involved in a crash, you should: a. attempt to move the power lines yourself b. touch the power lines with an object to see if there is active electricity c. have the patient slowly exit the vehicle d. have the patient remain in the vehicle

d. have the patient remain in the vehicle

The leading cause of death in the geriatric patient is: a. hypertension b. altered mental status c. arthritis d. heart disease

d. heart disease

Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT to: a. determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact. b. assess the severity of the third collision of the crash. c. recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact. d. identify contact points and predict potential injuries.

d. identify contact points and predict potential injuries.

Which of the following statements regarding depression is true? a. Treatment typically involves medication, because counseling typically does not work b. Older adults in skilled nursing facilities are less likely to develop depression c. It generally does not interfere with ability to function in the elderly d. it is diagnosed three time more commonly in women than in men

d. it is diagnosed three times more commonly in woman than in men

Which of the following is NOT performed immediately following delivery of the infant? a. wrap the infant in a towel and place it on one side with the head lowered b. be sure the head is covered and keep the neck in a neutral position c. use a sterile gauze pad to wipe to infant's mouth, then suction again d. obtain an APGAR score

d. obtain an APGAR score

When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: a. in a supine position with her legs spread b. on her left side with the right leg elevated c. in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12 inches d. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches

d. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches

When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: a. only if the patient has experienced a major injury b. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables c. after receiving approval from the incident commander d. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized

d. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized

Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for geriatric patients to develop heart failure? a. hypertension b. coronary artery disease c. atrial fibrillation d. palpitations

d. palpitations

When you arrive at the scene where there is a potential for hazardous materials exposure: a. turn off your warning light b. do not waste time waiting for the scene to be marked and protected c. park your unit downhill of the scene d. park your unit uphill of the scene

d. park your unit uphill of the scene

A 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant is experiencing a seizure. Her husband tells you that her blood pressure has been high and that she had been complaining of a headache for the past few days. You should: a. elevate her legs to improve brain perfusion and keep her warm b. administer oral glucose for presumed hypoglycemia and transport c. insert an oral airway and ventilate her with a BVM d. place her on her side, administer high flow oxygen, and transport

d. place her on her side, administer big flow oxygen and transport

Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to: A. heart failure. B. ischemic stroke. C. osteoporosis. D. pneumonia.

d. pneumonia

While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should: a. locate the safety officer b. stay with the incident commander c. assess firefighter for signs of fatigue d. remain with the ambulance

d. remain with the ambulance

The termination phase of the rescue operation involves: A. investigating the cause of the crash. B. contacting management to log "hazard pay." C. moving the patient in one fast, continuous step. D. returning the emergency units and specialized equipment to service.

d. returning the emergency units and specialized equipment to service

When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: a. end of one to the start of the next b. start of one to the end of the next c. end of one to the end of the next d. start of one to the start of the next

d. start of one to the start of the next

The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: a. an expected finding in full-term infants b. that the baby's airway may be obstructed c. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature d. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed

d. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed

A unique consideration when dealing with a hybrid vehicle is that: A. you must locate the ignition switch and cut it to prevent a fire B. cutting the battery cables often results in an explosion or fire C. rescue teams should disconnect the positive battery cable first D. the battery has higher amperes than a traditional vehicle battery

d. the battery has higher amperes than a traditional vehicle battery

The EMT's responsibility during search and rescue operations is to _____. a. assist in the search on foot b. direct other incoming EMS units c. assume medical command d. wait at the staging area until the patient is located

d. wait at the staging area until the patient is located

The brain decreases in terms of ______ and volume as a person ages. a. length b. width c. size d. weight

d. weight

You suspect that your patient has a GI bleed. She presents with tachycardia, hypotension, and pale skin. What stage of shock is she MOST likely in? A. Hypovolemic shock B. Compensated shock C. Decompensated shock D. Early shock

decompensated shock

When assessing a conscious patient with an MOI that suggests spinal injury, you should: A. determine if the strength in all extremities is equal. B. rule out a spinal injury if the patient denies neck pain. C. defer spinal immobilization if the patient is ambulatory. D. ask the patient to move his or her head to assess for pain.

determine if the strength in all extremities is equal.

The method of bleeding control that is the FIRST and MOST successful method to try is: A. a tourniquet. B. the use of a pressure point. C. direct pressure. D. the application of cold.

direct pressure

Which method is the LEAST invasive and can control bleeding in MOST cases? A. Elevation B. Direct pressure C. Hemostatic agents D. Tourniquets

direct pressure

The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: A. pia mater. B. arachnoid. C. gray mater. D. dura mater.

dura mater.

Once a pressure dressing has been applied, the EMT should NEXT: A. place the patient on high-flow oxygen. B. ensure that bleeding is controlled. C. immediately check for a distal pulse. D. obtain a baseline set of vital signs.

ensure that bleeding is controlled.

Because pediatric patients are abdominal breathers: A. evaluating their breathing is different than evaluating an adult. B. their lungs are less easily damaged from trauma. C. they are less susceptible to abdominal injury. D. they are less susceptible to fatigue of the muscles involved in respiration.

evaluating their breathing is different than evaluating an adult.

During your primary assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma, you note that she has slow, shallow breathing and a slow, bounding pulse. As your partner maintains manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should: A. perform a focused secondary assessment of the patient's head and neck. B. instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment. C. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and obtain baseline vital signs. D. immediately place her on a long backboard and prepare for rapid transport.

instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment.

Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n): A. epidural hematoma. B. intracerebral hematoma. C. subdural hematoma. D. intracranial hematoma.

intracerebral hematoma.

A bulging fontanelle can be a sign of: A. hypothermia. B. intracranial pressure. C. epiglottitis. D. shock.

intracranial pressure.

A sunken fontanelle may indicate that the infant: A. is dehydrated. B. is hypoglycemic. C. has increased intracranial pressure. D. has a birth defect

is dehydrated

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: A. the patient adamantly denies neck pain. B. lateral immobilization has been applied. C. it causes a problem managing the ABCs. D. sensory and motor functions remain intact.

it causes a problem managing the ABCs.

When treating a pediatric patient, you should NEVER: A. initiate any treatment without parental consent. B. assume that the patient is being honest. C. lie to the patient. D. do anything that causes pain.

lie to the patient.

Which of the following skull fractures would be the LEAST likely to present with palpable deformity or other outward signs? A. linear B. basilar C. open D. compressed

linear

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: A. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate. B. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate. C. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status. D. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

It would be MOST appropriate to perform a focused secondary assessment on a patient who: A. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position. B. was restrained during a high-speed motor vehicle crash. C. has blood draining from the ears following a head injury. D. struck his or her head and is experiencing nausea or vomiting.

fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position.

Which of the following is a common cause of seizures in young children but NOT in adults? A. Oxygen deficiency B. Hypoglycemia C. Fever D. Meningitis

fever

Which of the following problems is MOST likely in a child who is wheezing? A. Fluid in the oropharynx B. Partial upper airway obstruction C. Lower airway disorder D. Shallow breathing

lower airway disorder

Lacerations to the scalp: A. bleed minimally because the scalp has few vessels. B. uncommonly cause hypovolemic shock in children. C. may be an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries. D. are most commonly associated with skull fractures.

may be an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries.

When a patient experiences a severe spinal injury, he or she: A. will likely be paralyzed from the neck down. B. may lose sensation below the level of the injury. C. most commonly has a palpable spinal deformity. D. often loses motor function on one side of the body.

may lose sensation below the level of the injury.

When you are assessing a child's appearance in the Pediatric Assessment Triangle, which of the following is observed when assessing the patient's tone? A. Apparent mood or emotion B. Pitch of the voice or cry C. Muscle tone D. Skin color

muscle tone

You are called by law enforcement to evaluate a toddler who was found alone in an apartment. Neighbors state that the child is often left home alone. What form of abuse is this? A. Psychological abuse B. Emotional abuse C. Neglect D. Physical abuse

neglect

The term that means of or pertaining to a patient who has yet to reach puberty is: A. pediatric. B. characteristic. C. geriatric. D. physiologic.

pediatric

When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT: A. pupillary constriction. B. increase in heart rate. C. shunting of blood to vital organs. D. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle.

pupillary constriction.

A patient who cannot remember the events that preceded his or her head injury is experiencing: A. retrograde amnesia. B. anterograde amnesia. C. perigrade amnesia. D. post-traumatic amnesia.

retrograde amnesia.

When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: a) fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. b) rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head. c) a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure. d) significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater.

rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.

When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: a) significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater. b) rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head. c) fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. d) a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure.

rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.

Which of the following nerves carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord? A. motor B. central C. somatic D. sensory

sensory

You have been called to a nursing home where you find an 88-year-old female patient who is confused and combative. The staff states that this is not her normal behavior but that she has been bedridden from a previous stroke. They also report that she has had a recent urinary tract infection from an indwelling catheter. You note that her skin is flushed and warm, her pulse is 108, and her blood pressure is 80/44. You should suspect: A. anaphylactic shock. B. hypovolemic shock. C. septic shock. D. neurogenic shock.

septic shock

You are evaluating an 18-month-old child who presents with a history of fever, diarrhea, and vomiting. Her radial pulse is weak in comparison with her carotid pulse. Her respirations are 30 with adequate depth. Her skin is pale, cool, and clammy, and she cries without tears. What is the primary problem for which you will treat this patient? A. Respiratory failure B. Mild dehydration C. Hypoglycemia D. Shock

shock

A 10-year-old male has been struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He has a minor hemorrhage on his lower left leg and complains of abdominal pain. He is awake and has pale skin. His vital signs are P 130, R 32, BP 100/60. These findings are most likely the result of: A a fracture in the leg. B hypothermia as evidenced by his pale skin. C pain associated with his abdomen. D shock.

shock.

Moderate elevation in intracranial pressure with middle brain stem involvement is characterized by: A. increased blood pressure, bradycardia, reactive pupils, and rapid respirations. B. sluggishly reactive pupils, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and posturing. C. ataxic respirations, unequal pupils, no response to pain, and an irregular pulse. D. fixed and dilated pupils, decreased blood pressure, and irregular respirations.

sluggishly reactive pupils, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and posturing.

What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? A. central B. sensory C. somatic D. autonomic

somatic

Adolescent patients will NOT likely cooperate if you: A. express empathy. B. speak down to them. C. advocate for them. D. are honest with them.

speak down to them.

The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the: A. spinal canal. B. vertebral body. C. vertebral arch. D. intervertebral disc.

spinal canal.

During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: A. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. C. immobilize his spine and transport immediately. D. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood.

suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.

Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. mastoid process bruising. B. ecchymosis around the eyes. C. noted deformity to the skull. D. superficial scalp lacerations.

superficial scalp lacerations.

The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: A. the clothes drag. B. the four-person log roll. C. to use a scoop stretcher. D. the direct patient carry.

the four-person log roll.

When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated: a) hormones are released that prepare the body for stress. b) heart rate and blood pressure increase. c) the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate d) blood is shunted away from the digestive organs.

the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate

Who is the best source of patient history information for an older adolescent patient? A. The patient B. The parents C. The patient's friends D. The school nurse

the patient

When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: A. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. B. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. C. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. D. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.

the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.

A retraction relates to: A. the work of breathing. B. emotional state. C. skin color. D. tone and position

the work of breathing.

A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: A. proximal femur. B. pubic symphysis. C. femoral shaft. D. pelvic girdle.

A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12′ from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain? A. Energy transmission to the spine B. Secondary fall after the initial impact C. Direct trauma to the spinal column D. Lateral impact to the spine

A 30-year-old female presents with redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing: Select one: A. conjunctivitis. Correct B. a detached retina. C. a corneal abrasion. D. acute retinitis.

A comprehensive regional resource capable of providing every aspect of trauma care from prevention through rehabilitation is the definition of a _____ trauma center. A. Level I B Level II C. Level III D. Level IV

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should: Select one: A. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. B. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution. C. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport. D. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical.

A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: A. 16 hours. B. 8 hours. C. 10 hours. D. 4 hours.

A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that: A. is wrapped around the baby's neck. B. has separated from the placenta. C. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery. D. has abnormally developed blood vessels.

Abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever are most likely due to _______. Select one: A. infection B. hemorrhage C. evisceration D. hypovolemia

According to the Association of Air Medical Services (AAMS), you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if: A. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome. B. he or she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor. C. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries. D. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away.

Air bags are designed to: A. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries. B. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma. C. be used with or without a shoulder harness. D. prevent a second collision inside the car.

An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: A. the overlying skin is no longer intact. B. bone ends protrude through the skin. C. a large laceration overlies the fracture. D. a bullet shatters the underlying bone.

An unrestrained driver collided with a bridge pillar. Upon inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you note that the lower dashboard is crushed. During your assessment of the patient, you will MOST likely encounter: A. trauma to the pelvis. B. blunt abdominal trauma. C. a severe closed head injury. D. penetrating thoracic trauma.

Bacterial vaginosis is a condition that occurs when: A. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms. B. numerous bacteria enter the uterus through the cervix and cause severe tissue damage. C. abnormal bacteria enter the vagina and cause damage without causing any symptoms. D. harmful bacteria infect and cause damage to the uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes.

Because solid organs have a rich supply of blood, any injury can result in major: A. hemorrhaging B. damage C. pain D. guarding

By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's: A. belly button. B. superior diaphragm. C. pubic bone. D. xiphoid process.

Crepitus and false motion are: A. positive indicators of a fracture. B. most common with dislocations. C. indicators of a severe sprain. D. only seen with open fractures.

Damage to the body that resulted from a pressure wave generated by an explosion is found in what type of blast: A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. miscellaneous

During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: A. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse. B. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow. C. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. D. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints.

During your visual inspection of a 25-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? A. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers. B. Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord. C. Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately. D. Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers.

EMTs treating a patient of a sexual assault may not only be dealing with medical issues, but with _____ issues as well. A. psychological B. physiological C. educational D. sociological

Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the: A. fallopian tube. B. vagina. C. cervix. D. uterus.

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: A. intracranial bleeding. B. a fracture of the skull. C. spinal cord injury. D. airway compromise.

Following a call in which a 6-week old infant in cardiac arrest did not survive, your partner is exhibiting significant anxiety and irritability. How can you most effectively help her? A. Allow her to voice her feelings to you. B. Tell her that she needs psychiatric help. C. Tell her to go home and get 12 hours of sleep D. Report her behavior to the medical director

Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: A. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion. B. elevate her legs 6 to 8 inches and cover her with a blanket. C. place her legs together and position her on her left side. D. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina.

In a motor vehicle collision, as the passenger's head hits the windshield, the brain continues to move forward until it strikes the inside of the skull, resulting in a _____ injury. A. compression B. laceration C. lateral D. motion

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: A. may be relatively painless. B. is typically not as severe. C. can be controlled in the field. D. often presents with acute pain.

In older patients, the first indicator of non-traumatic internal bleeding may be: Select one: A. weakness or dizziness. B. diaphoresis and pale skin. C. a heart rate over 120 beats/min. D. a low blood pressure.

In rare cases, _____ causes arthritis that may be accompanied with skin lesions and inflammation of the eyes and urethra. A. chlamydia B. gonorrhea C. PID D. vaginal bleeding

It is not uncommon for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: A. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted. B. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide. C. have a falsely positive home pregnancy test result. D. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours.

The role of triage officer at a mass-casualty incident should be assumed by the A. most knowledgeable EMS provider B. EMS provider with the most years of experience. C. first EMS provider who is willing to perform the task D. EMS medical director via telephone communication

The solid organs of the urinary system include the: A. kidneys B. ureters C. bladder D. urethra

The ultimate goal of any EMS quality improvement program should be to A. deliver a consistently high standard of care to all patients who are encountered B. make sure that all personnel receive an adequate number of continuing education credits. C. provide EMS protocols to all EMTs and hold them accountable when protocols are not adhered to. D. provide recognition to all EMT's who have demonstrated consistency in providing competent patient care

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: A. osteoporosis can cause a fracture that may have resulted in the fall. B. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury. C. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls. D. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma

When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, it is MOST important to: A. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you. B. suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries. C. realize that the air bag malfunctioned at the time of impact. D. recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe.

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? A. Deployment of the air bag B. Steering wheel deformity C. Intrusion into the vehicle D. Dismounted seats

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? A. Rapid transport to a trauma center B. Elevation of the lower extremities C. Intravenous fluid administration D. Early administration of oxygen

Which of the following scene size-up findings is LEAST suggestive of an unsafe environment? A. A large man standing in his yard awaiting your arrival B. Liquid draining from a car that struck a telephone pole C. Screaming and yelling coming from inside a residence. D. The sound of breaking glass as you approach a residence

Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? Select one: A. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly. B. They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull. C. They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx. D. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control.

Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct? A. Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis. B. Only a licensed physician can make a diagnosis of rape. C. The EMT should try to determine if rape occurred. D. Rape causes more physical harm than emotional harm.

While assessing a 21 year old female who struck a tree head-on with her small passenger car, you not that her air bag deployed. You should: A. life the air bag and look for deformity to the steering wheel. B. carefully assess her upper chest for seat belt-related injuries C. perform a head-to-toe assessment while she is in the car D. extricate her immediately and transport to a trauma center

Whiplash injuries are MOST common following _________ impacts. A. rear-end B. rollover C. frontal D. lateral

You are called to the scene of a possible assault. Upon arrival, you are directed by police to a dark room where you find a 22 year old woman who says she was sexually assaulted by a coworker this afternoon. Your first course of action should be to: A. determine whether the patient is physically injured. B. establish the exact events of what took place. C. allow the patient to use the restroom. D. let the police question the patient before conducting a primary assessment.

You are called to treat a 25-year-old man who is alert and having difficulty breathing. After making contact with your patient, he extends his arm out to allow you to take his blood pressure. This is an example of A. actual consent B. informed consent C. implied consent D. formal consent

Which of the following statements regarding cervical collars is correct? A. Once a cervical collar is applied, you can cease manual head stabilization. B. A cervical collar is used in addition to, not instead of, manual immobilization. C. Cervical collars are contraindicated in patients with numbness to the extremities. D. The patient's head should be forced into a neutral position to apply a cervical collar.

A cervical collar is used in addition to, not instead of, manual immobilization.

Which of the following physiological events generally indicates the onset of decompensated shock? A. Pale, cool, and clammy skin B. An increase in breathing rate C. An increase in heart rate D. A drop in the patient's blood pressure

A drop in the patient's blood pressure

Spiral fracture

A fracture caused by twisting or spinning force, causing a long, spiral-shaped break in the bone. This is sometimes the result of abuse in young children.

Oblique fracture

A fracture in which the bone is broken at an angle across the bone. This is usually the result of a sharp, angled blow to the bone.

Comminuted fracture

A fracture in which the bone is broken into more than two fragments.

Pathologic fracture

A fracture of weakened or diseased bone, seen in patients with osteoporosis, infection, or cancer; often produced by minimal force

Incomplete fracture

A fracture that does not run completely through the bone; a nondisplaced partial crack

Epiphyseal fracture

A fracture that occurs in a growth section of a child's bone and may lead to growth abnormalities

Transverse fracture

A fracture that occurs straight across the bone. This is usually the result of a direct blow injury

Which of the following most likely indicates respiratory failure in a pediatric patient? A. A bounding pulse B. An irregular pulse C. A pulse of 190 beats per minute D. A pulse of 40 beats per minute

A pulse of 40 beats per minute

During severe external bleeding, the brain MAY suffer a lack of oxygen. Which of the following contributes most to that lack of oxygen? A. The vasodilation that occurs during shock B. A reduction in the number of red blood cells and blood pressure C. A redirection of blood flow to the site of the injury D. A reduction in the rate of breathing from shock

A reduction in the number of red blood cells and blood pressure

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who complains of lower abdominal pain, fever and chills, and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Which of the following additional assessment findings would increase your index of suspicion for pelvic inflammatory disease? Select one: A. A shuffling gait when walking B. Bright red blood in the urine C. A history of ectopic pregnancy D. Vaginal passage of blood clots

A. A shuffling gait when walking

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the treatment of bleeding from a neck injury? A. Apply firm pressure to the carotid artery to reduce the amount of bleeding. B. Apply pressure to the bleeding site using a gloved fingertip C. Apply a sterile occlusive dressing D. Use gauze to secure the dressing in place

A. Apply firm pressure to the carotid artery to reduce the amount of bleeding.

Which of the following is true regarding chest injuries? A. Cavitation from a bullet is much greater than the size of the bullet itself. B. Muscles in the lungs expand and pull air in from the atmosphere, so any damage to the lungs can greatly impede breathing. C. Open injuries to the chest are the result of blunt trauma. D. The heart is a special type of strong contractile muscle that is injured by penetrating trauma, but not blunt trauma.

A. Cavitation from a bullet is much greater than the size of the bullet itself.

What is the main purpose of eye blinking? A. Clean the eye B. Prevent eye muscle atrophy C. Natural reflex to bright light D. Refocus the eye

A. Clean the eye

Which of the following would indicate that the endotracheal tube is NOT in the trachea? Select one: A. Decreased resistance when ventilating B. Absence of sounds over the epigastrium C. Steady increase in the oxygen saturation D. Absence of an end-tidal CO2 waveform

A. Decreased resistance when ventilating

A disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact is known as what? A. Dislocation B. Fracture C. Sprain D. Strain

A. Dislocation That's Correct! A dislocation is a disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact.

Which of the following is generally NOT acceptable when interviewing an older patient? Select one: A. Do not initiate eye contact, because many geriatric patients might find this disrespectful. B. Speak slowly and distinctly. C. Give the patient time to respond unless the condition appears urgent. D. Explain what you are doing before you do it.

A. Do not initiate eye contact, because many geriatric patients might find this disrespectful.

A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. Select one: A. I B. II C. III D. IV

A. I

Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidneys? A. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs. B. The kidneys are not well protected. C. Only minimal force is needed to damage the kidneys. D. Kidney injuries are rarely caused by blunt trauma.

A. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs. Chapter 30, page 1073, Injuries of the Genitourinary System

A. Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis.

What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? Select one: A. Somatic B. Autonomic C. Sensory D. Central

A. Somatic

You are attending to a patient with a nondisplaced elbow fracture. She has a strong pulse and good capillary refill. How should you address this type of injury? A. Splint from the shoulder joint to the wrist joint to stabilise the entire arm. B. Apply a Sager traction splint to stabilize the joint. C. Apply a sling and swathe to reduce pain. D. Apply ice to reduce swelling.

A. Splint from the shoulder joint to the wrist joint to stabilise the entire arm. That's Correct! When splinting a fracture in and around a joint, be sure to stabilize the bones above and below the injured joint.

Which of the following signs/symptoms is considered particularly significant in gynecological emergencies? Select one: A. Syncope B. Abdominal cramping C. Painful urination D. Vaginal bleeding

A. Syncope

Which of the following is a drawback of an air splint? A. Temperature changes affect air pressure in the splint. B. It does not provide uniform contact, so bone movement is possible. C. It restricts distal blood flow. D. It is complicated to use and requires multiple EMTs.

A. Temperature changes affect air pressure in the splint. That's Correct! A drawback of an air splint is that temperature or altitude changes affect the air pressure in the splint.

Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the: A. fallopian tube B. cervix C. uterus D. vagina

A. fallopian tube

During the natural process of aging, the number of functional cilia in the respiratory system decreases, resulting in: Select one: A. a decreased ability to cough. B. baseline respiratory distress. C. an increased risk of COPD. D. air-trapping within the alveoli.

A. a decreased ability to cough

Paradoxical chest movement is typically seen in patients with: A. a flail chest. B. a pneumothorax. C. isolated rib fractures. D. a ruptured diaphragm.

A. a flail chest.

Which of the following scenarios is an example of a direct injury? A. a passenger fractures her patella after it strikes the dashboard B. A skier dislocates his knee after a twisting injury to the ankle C. a person lands on his or her feet and fractures the lumbar spine. D. a child dislocates his elbow after falling on his outstretched arm.

A. a passenger fractures her patella after it strikes the dashboard

A flail chest occurs when: Select one: A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. B. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase. C. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. D. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage.

A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.

An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: A. absent urine output. B. bulging fontanelles. C. moist oral mucosa. D. excessive tearing.

A. absent urine output.

When a child is struck by a car, the area of greatest injury depends MOSTLY on the: A. age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her. B. height of the child and the speed at which the car was traveling. C. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact. D. speed at which the car was traveling when impact occurred.

A. age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her.

The sperm typically fertilizes the egg in the _________. Select one: A.fallopian tube B. vagina C. uterus D. ovary

A. fallopian tube

The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to: A. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child. B. facilitate a rapid head-to-toe assessment of the child by visualization only. C. determine if the child's vital signs are within the age-appropriate limits. D. gather critical data by performing a rapid hands-on assessment of the child.

A. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child.

A young female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a piece of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with active venous bleeding. As your partner manually stabilizes the patient's head. You should? A. apply direct pressure to her arm wound B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen C. stabilize the impaled glass in her eye D. carefully remove the glass from her eye

A. apply direct pressure to her arm wound

During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: Select one: A. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse. B. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow. C. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. D. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints.

A. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.

A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing. B. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication. C. administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings.

A. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing. Chapter 30, page 1078, Emergency Medical Care of Genitourinary Injuries

art 2You are called to the scene of a 56-year-old female patient who was the driver of a car that struck a telephone pole. The patient is sitting in her vehicle with her seat belt on and the air bag has deployed. A bystander approaches as you arrive and informs you that he is an off-duty firefighter and was first on the scene. The bystander wishes to provide you with a patient care report. You should: Select one: A. ask your partner to perform the primary survey while you listen to the report. B. ask the bystander to wait and you will take their report after you have finished your assessment. C. listen to the report while you perform a primary survey and render care to the patient. D. ask the bystander for any formal identification and listen to the report once it is verified.

A. ask your partner to preform the primary survey while you listen to the report.

Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to: Select one: A. pneumonia. B. osteoporosis. C. heart failure. D. ischemic stroke.

A. pneumonia.

Pale skin in a child indicates that the: A. blood vessels near the skin are constricted. B. oxygen content in the blood is decreased. C. child's core body temperature is elevated. D. child is in severe decompensated shock.

A. blood vessels near the skin are constricted.

Health care teams that infrequently train and work together: Select one: A. can create delays in patient care. B. need less-explicit verbal direction. C. often work better under pressure. D. are unable to accomplish their tasks.

A. can create delays in patient care.

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: Select one: A. cleaning. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. high-level disinfection.

A. cleaning.

You are attending to a 46-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. Shortly after you begin to render care, an ALS unit arrives and the transfer of care is made. The decision is made to start an intravenous line and administer medication. You should: Select one: A. clear space and, if necessary, explain the procedure to the patient. B. move out of the ALS provider's way and clear the scene. C. ensure that enough assessments have been done to justify the decision. D. acknowledge that it is no longer your patient and stand back, allowing the ALS provider to work.

A. clear space and, if necessary, explain the procedure to the patient.

Often the most important intervention for a sexual assault patient is _____ and transport to a facility with a staff specially trained to deal with this scenario. A. comforting reassurance B. excellent assessment skills C. bandaging skills D. emotional sympathy

A. comforting reassurance

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is MOST correct? A. compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury B. It most commonly occurs following a pelvic fracture C. It is caused by elevated pressure within the bone cavity D. It most commonly develops within minutes of the injury

A. compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury

The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________. Select one: A. complex access B. simple access C. vehicle stabilization D. incident management

A. complex access

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on: Select one: A. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received. B. protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control. C. a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks. D. rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities.

A. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries in the face is MOST effectively controlled with: A. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings B. ice packs and elevation fo the patient's head C. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs D. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point

A. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings

Infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with: A. drooling or congestion. B. skin that is cool and dry. C. extreme restlessness. D. acute respiratory distress.

A. drooling or congestion.

You are attending to a 66-year-old male patient in cardiac arrest. As you gather history and begin the resuscitation, an Advanced Life Support (ALS) provider arrives on scene. You should: Select one: A. ensure that CPR is ongoing by the other providers present and then provide a patient care report off to the side. B. stay focused on the resuscitation and allow the ALS provider to make his or her own assessment. C. pause the resuscitation and provide a patient care report as quickly as possible. D. . continue the resuscitation and provide a patient care report while you work.

A. ensure that CPR is ongoing by the other providers present and then provide a patient care report off to the side.

The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: Select one: A. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene. B. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm. C. ask her follow-up questions about the details of the crash. D. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication

A. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene.

The "E" of the GEMS diamond stands for: Select one: A. environmental assessment. B. events leading to the incident. C. extrication of the patient. D. emergency assessment.

A. environmental assessment.

A 40-year-old man, who was the unrestrained driver of a car that hit a tree at a high rate of speed, struck the steering wheel with his chest. He has a large bruise over the sternum and an irregular pulse rate of 120 beats/min. You should be MOST concerned that he: A. has injured his myocardium. B. has a collapsed lung and severe hypoxia. C. has extensive bleeding into the pericardial sac. D. is at extremely high risk for ventricular fibrillation.

A. has injured his myocardium.

As a woman approaches menopause: Select one: A. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity. B. she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels. C. she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding. D. her risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease lowers significantly.

A. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity.

Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hyperglycemia. B. infection. C. electrolyte imbalances. D. poisonings or ingestion.

A. hyperglycemia.

You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should: A. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM. B. suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min. C. reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status. D. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed.

A. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM. Chapter 30, pages 1065-1066, Patient Assessment of Abdominal Injuries

In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: Select one: A. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. B. does not cause pressure within the skull. C. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness. D. results from a laceration to the brain tissue.

A. involves physical injury to the brain tissue.

The stooped posture of some older people, which gives them a humpback appearance, is called: Select one: A. kyphosis. B. arthritis. C. scoliosis. D. miosis.

A. kyphosis.

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: Select one: A. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries. B. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented. C. performed in the presence of at least two police officers. D. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician.

A. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: Select one: A. may be relatively painless. B. is typically not as severe. C. can be controlled in the field. D. often presents with acute pain.

A. may be relatively painless.

When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: Select one: A. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. B. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5¢ to 6¢ from the ground. C. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise. D. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors.

A. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.

Of the following musculoskeletal injuries, which is considered to be the LEAST severe? A. nondisplaced pelvic fracture B. open fractures of a long bone C. an amputation of an extremity D. multiple closed long bone fractures

A. nondisplaced pelvic fracture

A. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms.

A drop in blood pressure with a change in position is referred to as: Select one: A. orthostatic hypotension. B. metastatic hypotension. C. malignant hypotension. D. psychogenic hypotension.

A. orthostatic hypotension.

A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: Select one: A. paralysis of the intercostal muscles. B. paralysis of the diaphragm. C. immediate cardiac arrest. D. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles.

A. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.

Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of ____________ elder abuse. Select one: A. physical B. financial C. emotional D. psychological

A. physical

Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include: A. multiple rib fractures. B. coughing up blood. C. an irregular pulse. D. vomiting blood.

When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: Select one: A. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head. B. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. C. a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure. D. significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater.

A. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.

The pectoral girdle consists of the: A. scapulae and clavicles B. clavicles and rib cage C. sternum and scapulae D. acromion and clavicles

A. scapulae and clavicles

When a female has reached menarche: Select one: A. she is capable of becoming pregnant. B. she can no longer produce an ovum. C. she usually requires hormone therapy. D. menstrual periods become less frequent.

A. she is capable of becoming pregnant.

A 31-year-old male fell and landed on is left elbow. Your assessment reveals that the elbow is grossly deformed, his forearm is cool and pale, and the distal pulse is barely palpable. His vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries. Your transport time to the closet appropriate hospital is approximately 12 minutes. You should: A. splint the elbow in the position found and transport B. gently manipulate the elbow to improve circulation C. gently straighten the elbow and apply an air splint D. apply a heat pack to the elbow to reduce swelling.

A. splint the elbow in the position found and transport

A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: Select one: A. stabilise her head and perform a primary assessment. B. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. C. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. D. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment.

A. stabilise her head and perform a primary assessment.

The EMT should perform a "rapid scan" to determine if the patient is __________ during the __________. Select one: A. stable or unstable; primary assessment B. breathing or not breathing; primary assessment C. complaining of vaginal bleeding; history taking D. pregnant; secondary assessment

A. stable or unstable; primary assessment

During your rapid trauma exam of a patient with a chest injury, check for air trapped under the skin in the upper chest and neck. This condition is called: A. subcutaneous emphysema. B. tracheal deviation. C. tension pneumothorax. D. jugular vein distention.

A. subcutaneous emphysema.

Patients with chest injuries will often present with _______. Select one: A. tachypnea B. agonal respirations C. Kussmaul respirations D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations

A. tachypnea

Motion of the mandible occurs at the: A. temporomandibular joint B. mastoid process C. chin D. mandibular ankle

A. temporomandibular joint

Geriatric patients present as a special problem for caregivers because: Select one: A. the classic presentation of disease is often altered. B. geriatric patients tend not to understand their underlying conditions. C. their medications are rather difficult to learn. D. the typical diseases of the geriatric population are uncommon.

A. the classic presentation of disease is often altered.

The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: Select one: A. the four-person log roll. B. the direct patient carry. C. the use of a scoop stretcher. D. the clothes drag.

A. the four-person log roll.

EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that: Select one: A. the patient had a reported syncopal episode. B. she should contact the EMR about the incident. C. the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode. D. there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode.

A. the patient had a reported syncopal episode.

When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: Select one: A. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard. B. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. C. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. D. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization.

A. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.

EMTs receive a call for a possible sexual assault. The patient is a young female who is conscious and alert and has no apparent injuries. She states, "I cannot remember anything, but I know I was raped." The EMTs should suspect that: Select one: A. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident. B. the patient knew her attacker, but is afraid to say. C. an underlying head injury is causing her amnesia. D. the traumatic experience has created a mental block.

A. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident.

Children are often "belly breathers" because _______. Select one: A. their intercostal muscles are not developed B. their diaphragm is not functional C. they are consciously controlling ventilations D. they are routinely hypoxic

A. their intercostal muscles are not developed

Which age group is most heavily influenced by their peers and what their peers think? A. School age B. Infants C. Toddlers D. Adolescents

Adolescents

Which of the following is part of the appearance component of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle? A. Jaundice B. Alertness and verbal response C. Pupils D. Skin color

Alertness and verbal response

Which of the following patients at the scene of an accident is most likely developing shock? A. A young adult female is gesturing for your attention B. A middle-aged male is leaning against a paramedic for support C. A male child is crying in an adult female's arms D. An elderly female is vomiting on her hands and knees

An elderly female is vomiting on her hands and knees

Greenstick fracture

An incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of the bone but may still cause substantial angulation; occurs in children.

Your patient presents with signs and symptoms of shock after a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following would be one such sign? A. Increased docility B. Measured speech C. Apparent agitation D. Heightened alertness

Apparent agitation

In a patient with uncontrolled hemorrhage due to a traumatic amputation, which of the following interventions is likely to be MOST effective? A. Application of direct pressure B. Elevation of the extremity C. Application of pressure points D. Application of a tourniquet

Application of a tourniquet

You have a patient with a long laceration to his thigh after falling through a roof he was working on. The bleeding is bright red and spurting, and the patient is becoming increasingly pale and disoriented. How would you characterize this bleeding? A. Venous B. Arterial C. Capillary D. Noncritical

Arterial

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Arteries have valves that prevent backflow of blood. B. Arteries carry blood from the heart. C. Arteries carry only oxygen-rich blood. D. Arteries lack a middle layer of smooth muscle.

Arteries carry blood from the heart.

In neurogenic shock, what mechanism causes hypoperfusion? A. Nervous control necessary for the heart to continue to beat effectively is lost. B. Arteries that are under continuous nervous control lose their ability to maintain contraction and dilate fully, causing a drop in blood pressure. C. Injury to the neurological system causes the blood vessels to leak extensively. D. Loss of nervous regulation results in the blood vessels contracting completely, not allowing blood to flow.

Arteries that are under continuous nervous control lose their ability to maintain contraction and dilate fully, causing a drop in blood pressure.

A 20 year old male was accidentally shot in the right upper abdominal quadrant with an arrow during an archery contest. Prior to your arrival, the patient removed the arrow. Your assesment reveals that he is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. The entrance wound is bleeding minimally and appears to be superifical. You should: A. carefully probe the wound to determine its depth B. assume that the arrow injured an internal organ C. clean the wound and apply a dry, sterile dressing D. transport only if signs of shock begin to develop.

A 22-year-old male was walking on the beach and had sand blown into his eyes. He complains of pain and decreased vision to his right eye. Treatment should include: Select one: A. irrigating both his eyes B. irrigating his right eye laterally C. cleaning his right eye D. cleaning both his eyes

A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should: A. administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport promptly. B. administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay. C. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vaginal area for signs of trauma, place her on her side, and transport. D. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device, place one sterile dressing into her vagina, perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport.

A 40-year-old unrestrained female impacted the steering wheel of her vehicle with her chest when she hit a tree while traveling at 45 mph. She is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following injuries did this patient likely NOT experience? A. Cardiac contusion B. Head injury C. Multiple rib fractures D. Pulmonary contusion

A 43-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats/min and bounding. Preferred treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. having the patient pinch his own nostrils and then lie supine. B. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward. C. packing both nostrils with gauze pads until the bleeding stops. D. placing a rolled 4² × 4² dressing between his lower lip and gum.

A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: A. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. B. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing. C. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury. D. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates.

A 66 year old male presents with dark red rectal bleeding and abdominal pain. He is conscious and alert, however, his skin is cool and clammy and his heart rate is elevated. Further assessment reveals that his blood pressure is 112/60 mm Hg. Which of the following questions would be MOST pertinent to ask him? A. Do you take any over-the-counter medications? B. Have you experienced recent abdominal trauma? C. Has blood soaked through your undergarments? D. What does your blood pressure normally run?

A 67-year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: Select one: A. acute appendicitis. B. gastrointestinal bleeding. C. intrathoracic hemorrhaging. D. an aortic aneurysm.

A contusion to a patient's forehead along with a spider-webbed windshield suggests possible injury to the: A. nose B. brain C. face D. heart

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she: A. experiences multiple impacts. B. is ejected or partially ejected. C. remains within the vehicle. D. is wearing only a lap belt.

A fall from more than _____ times the patient's height is considered to be significant. A. two B. three C. four D. five

A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A. abnormality in the structure of a bone. B. break in the continuity of the bone. C. total loss of function in a bone. D. disruption in the midshaft of a bone.

A young boy was riding his bicycle down the street when he hit a parked car. What was the second collision? A. The bike hitting the car. B. The bike rider hitting his bike or the car. C. The bike rider's internal organs against the solid structures of the body. D. The bike rider striking the pavement.

A young male experienced severe blunt chest trauma when his passenger car struck another vehicle head-on. During your inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you would MOST likely find: A. deployed airbags. B. steering wheel deformity. C. starring of the windshield. D. a crushed instrument panel.

According to the United States Department of Transportations EMT-Basic National Standard Curriculum, minimum staffing for a basic life support ambulance includes A. an EMT-Basic who functions as the driver B. at least one EMT-Basic in the patient compartment C. at least two EMT-Basics in the patient compartment D. a minimum of two EMT-Basics in the ambulance

By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height? A. Potential energy is created as the person is falling; the potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy upon impact. B. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop. C. As the person falls, the amount of kinetic energy is converted into work; work is then converted to kinetic energy upon impact. D. Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy; the potential energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.

Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' oxygen, nutritional, and waste-removal needs is termed _______. Select one: A. coagulation B. perfusion C. hemorrhage D. hypoperfusion

Compression injuries to the abdomen that occur during a motor vehicle crash are typically the result of: A. air bag deployment B. a poorly placed lap belt C. failure to wear seat belts D. rapid vehicle deceleration

During your assessment of a patient with a head injury, you note that he opens his eyes when you pinch his trapezius muscle, is mumbling, and has his arms curled in toward his chest. You should assign him a GCS score of: A. 9. B. 7. C. 8. D. 10.

Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the height of the fall. B. the speed of the fall. C. the surface struck. D. the primary impact point.

Following blunt abdominal trauma, a 30 year old male complains of referred pain to the left shoulder. This finding is called the: A. Grey Turner sign B. Kehr sign C. Brudzinski sign D. Cullen sign

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. optic vessel compression. B. a blowout fracture. C. a lacerated globe. D. a ruptured eyeball.

If a patient with vaginal bleeding present with a rapid pulse and pale or cool skin, you should: A. attempt to locate the source of bleeding and correct it. B. place the patient in a supine position with her legs elevated. C. consider this to be a normal sign in a menstruating woman. D. inquire about recent problems with urination.

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? A. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes B. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain C. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity D. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent

Kinetic energy is a calculation of: A. weight and size. B. weight and speed. C. mass and weight. D. speed and force.

Late signs of peritonitis may include: A. soft abdomen B. nausea C. normal bowel sounds D. diarrhea

Optimally, on-scene time for critically injured patients should be less than _____ minutes. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

Painful urination associated with burning and a yellowish discharge is assocated with: A. chlamydia. B. gonorrhea. C. endometriosis. D. syphilis.

Potentially life-threatening consequences of PID include: A. bacterial vaginosis and chlamydia. B. ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy. C. ovarian cysts and gonorrhea. D. uterine rupture with severe bleeding.

The driver of a sport utility vehicle lost control and struck a utility pole head-on. The driver was killed instantly. The passenger, a young female, is conscious and alert and has several small abrasions and lacerations to her left forearm. Treatment for the passenger should include: A. transport to a community hospital. B. transport to a trauma center. C. a secondary assessment at the scene. D. a focused exam of her forearm.

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. B. your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. C. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries. D. the way in which traumatic injuries occur.

The most common sign of significant abdominal injury is: A. pain B. tachycardia C. rigidity D. distention

The musculoskeletal system refers to the: A. involuntary muscles of the nervous system. B. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. C. nervous system's control over the muscles. D. connective tissue that supports the skeleton.

The onset of menstruation usually occurs between the ages of: A. 8 and 10 years. B. 11 and 16 years. C. 16 and 18 years. D. 17 and 20 years.

Three days after delivering her baby, a 30-year-old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: A. acute pulmonary edema. B. pulmonary embolism. C. spontaneous pneumothorax. D. intrauterine bleeding.

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: A. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious. B. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. C. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave. D. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious.

When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: A. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening. B. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. C. assume that minimal force was applied to the back. D. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back.

When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: A. start of one to the end of the next. B. start of one to the start of the next. C. end of one to the end of the next. D. end of one to the start of the next.

When treating a patient with an amputation of the penile shaft, your top priority is: A. locating the amputated part B. controlling bleeding C. keeping the remaining tissue dry D. delaying transport until bleeding is controlled

When you arrive at a mass-casualty incident at which other ambulances already have arrived, you should first A. repeat the triage process B. report to the incident commander C. initiate care for the most critically injured patients D. obtain information from the fire service commander

Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point first. B. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released. C. bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the bleeding. D. the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible because this provides better bleeding control.

Which of the following conditions does NOT typically present with vaginal discharge? A. PID B. genital herpes C. chlamydia D. gonorrhea

Which of the following is considered a type of impact from a motor vehicle collision? A. Ejection B. Rollover C. Crush D. Peneration

Which of the following is not considered a type of impact associated with a motorcycle crash? A. Head-on B. Rotational C. Controlled D. Ejection

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? A. Severe strain B. Displaced fracture C. Moderate sprain D. Hairline fracture

Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? Select one: A. Hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting. B. Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously. C. Approximately 25% of the population has hemophilia. D. Hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who complains of lower abdominal pain, fever and chills, and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Which of the following additional assessment findings would increase your index of suspicion for PID? A. a history of ectopic pregnancy B. a shuffling gait when walking C. bright red blood in the urine D. vaginal passage of blood clots

You arrive at the scene of a fall where you encounter a male patient who fell approximately 30' and landed on his head. He is unconscious with an open head injury and exposed brain matter. Upon identifying this patient as an organ-donor, you should A. request authorization from medical control not to initiate care. B. manage the patient aggressively and provide rapid transport C. recognize that the patient's injuries disqualify him as an organ donor. D. provide supportive care only because the patient likely will not survive.

You respond to an 18 year old high school football player who was hit in the right flank with a helmet several hours ago. He is complaining of pain in the area. He is alert and oriented. His airway is open and his respirations are within normal limits. His pulse is regular. He has a radial pulse. He tells you that he is noticing blood in his urine. Based on this information, the patient is likely to have an injury to the: A. liver B. kidney C. gallbladder D. appendix

Your awareness and concern for potentially serious obvious and underlying injuries is referred to as the: A. mechanism of injury. B. index of suspicion. C. scene size-up. D. general impression.

Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33 year old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: A. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient. B. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once. C. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings D. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport

Your primary concern when dealing with an unresponsive patient with an open abdominal injury is: A. covering the wound with a moist dressing B. maintaining the airway C. controlling the bleeding D. monitoring vital signs

_____ impacts are probably the number one cause of death associated with motor vehicle collisions. A. Frontal B. Lateral C. Rear-end D. Rollover

Signs and symptoms of bacterial vaginosis typically include _________. Select one: A. blood associated with vaginal intercourse B. "fishy," foul-smelling discharge C. low back pain D. rectal pain and discharge

B. "fishy," foul-smelling discharge

Which of the following is most likely to cause immediate death? Select one: A. Pulmonary contusion B. Aortic rupture C. Aortic dissection D. Myocardial contusion

B. Aortic rupture

What is the primary goal of in-line traction? A. Minimize pain B. Avoid further neurovascular compromise C. Reduce swelling D. Prevent permanent disability

B. Avoid further neurovascular compromise That's Correct! The goal of in-line traction is to avoid further neurovascular compromise.

Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of child abuse? A. Evidence of alcohol consumption or drug use at the scene B. Consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver C. An unexplained delay in seeking medical care after the injury D. Burns to the hands or feet that involve a glove distribution

B. Consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver

A patient experienced a severe compression to the chest when trapped between a vehicle and a brick wall. You suspect traumatic asphyxia due to the hemorrhage into the sclera of his eyes and which other sign? A. Flat neck veins B. Cyanosis in the face and neck C.Asymmetrical chest movement D. Irregular heart rate

B. Cyanosis in the face and neck

Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? Select one: A. Widening pulse pressure B. Engorged jugular veins C. Diminished breath sounds D. A rapid, irregular pulse

B. Engorged jugular veins

Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? Select one: A. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. B. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. C. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head. D. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head.

B. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury.

The type _____ ambulance is a standard van with a forward-control integral cab body. Select one: A. I B. II C. III D. IV

B. II

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? Select one: A. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent B. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain C. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes D. If a traction splint will be used to immobilise the injured extremity

B. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

Which MOI causes a fracture or dislocation at a distant point? A. Direct blow B. Indirect force C Twisting force D. High-impact injury

B. Indirect force That's Correct! An indirect force is more likely to cause a fracture or dislocation at a distant point.

Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure? Select one: A. Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea C. Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath D. Slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea

B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea

What purpose does a one-way "flutter valve" serve when used on a patient with an open pneumothorax? A. It prevents air escape from within the chest cavity. B. It allows a release of air trapped in the pleural space. C. It only prevents air from entering an open chest wound. D. It allows air to freely move in and out of the chest cavity.

B. It allows a release of air trapped in the pleural space.

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? Select one: A. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active. B. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. C. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past. D. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain.

B. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.

Patient complaints of pain during intercourse, lower abdominal discomfort, and nausea may be indicative of which of the following? Select one: A. Chlamydia B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. Gonorrhea D. Bacterial vaginosis

B. Pelvic inflammatory disease

You are called to the home of a 48 year old woman who has a history of high blood pressure and now has a major nose bleed. She is alert and oriented and converse freely with you. Her respirations and pulse are within normal limites. Her blood pressure is 194/108 mm Hg. You have been able to rule out trauma. How you you manage the nose bleed? A. Apply a sterile dressing B. Pinch the nostrils together C. Put the patient in a supine position D. Have the patient hold ice in her mouth

B. Pinch the nostrils together

In the musculoskeletal injury grading system, under which category would you place a laceration of a major nerve or blood vessel? A. Moderate B. Serious C. Severe D. Critical

B. Serious That's Correct! A laceration of a major nerve or blood vessel is considered a serious injury.

In which of the following situations would the EMTs MOST likely utilize a police escort? Select one: A. The weather is treacherous and there are numerous roads washed out. B. The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area. C. The EMTs are transporting a critical pediatric patient through traffic. D. The call is dispatched as an unresponsive patient with CPR in progress.

B. The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area.

Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond? Select one: A. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect. B. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. C. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living. D. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months.

B. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with: A. conjunctivitis B. a brain injury C. contact lenses D. retinitis

B. a brain injury

You should suspect a kidney injury anytime the patient presents with _______. A. nausea B. a hematoma in the flank region C. abdominal distention D. dyspnea

B. a hematoma in the flank region Chapter 30, page 1073, Injuries of the Genitourinary System

Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: Select one: A. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. B. according to the urgency and frequency of their use. C. based on recommendations of the health department. D. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft.

B. according to the urgency and frequency of their use.

You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: Select one: A. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. B. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. C. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. D. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards.

B. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit.

A tension pneumothorax may occur when: A. a simple pneumothorax caused by a penetrating wound to the chest is left untreated for an extended period. B. air leaks into the chest cavity from a damaged lung, with no opening through the outer chest. C. a fractured rib breaks through the skin of the outer chest and keeps the wound sealed with the bone end. D. a sucking chest wound is sealed with an occlusive dressing taped on only three sides.

B. air leaks into the chest cavity from a damaged lung, with no opening through the outer chest.

When the chest impacts the steering wheel during a motor vehicle crash with rapid deceleration, the resulting injury, which often kills patients, usually within seconds, is: A. a hemothorax. B. aortic shearing. C. a pneumothorax. D. a ruptured myocardium.

B. aortic shearing.

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: Select one: A. break the window and unlock the door. B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. C. request the rescue team to extricate him. D. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door.

B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: Select one: A. perform a rapid secondary assessment. B. assist her ventilations with a BVM. C. assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs. D. perform a visual assessment of her vaginal area.

B. assist her ventilations with a BVM.

Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler: A. at the head. B. at the feet. C. en route to the hospital. D. in the ambulance.

B. at the feet.

During your focused history and physical exam of a patient with a chest injury, you should: A. palpate the chest during your exam, and frequently thereafter during transport to continually reassess for pain. B. auscultate the breath sounds bilaterally. C. obtain a SAMPLE history before beginning your physical exam. D. begin with a focused physical exam of the chest.

B. auscultate the breath sounds bilaterally.

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: Select one: A. diverts blood flow to the vagina. B. becomes engorged with blood. C. thins and begins to separate. D. sheds and is expelled externally.

B. becomes engorged with blood.

Closed chest injuries are typically caused by _______. Select one: A. penetrating trauma B. blunt trauma C. high-velocity weapons D. flying debris

B. blunt trauma

A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a: A. total loss of function in a bone B. break in the continuity of the bone C. disruption in the midshaft of a bone D. abnormality in the structure of a bone

B. break in the continuity of the bone

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: Select one: A. have a false positive home pregnancy test result. B. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted. C. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours. D. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide.

B. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.

Pulmonary contusion are serious injuries because they: A. become very tender. B. can interfere with oxygen exchange. C. take a long time to clot off. D. typically require intubation.

B. can interfere with oxygen exchange.

Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: Select one: A. retinitis. B. cataracts. C. glaucoma. D. conjunctivitis.

B. cataracts.

If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: Select one: A. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process. B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route. C. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene. D. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene.

B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.

When assessing a patient with a possible fracture of the leg, the EMT should: A. assess proximal circulation B. compare it to the uninjured leg. C. carefully move it to elicit crepitus D. ask the patient to move the injured leg

B. compare it to the uninjured leg.

A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should: A. suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once. B. cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital. C. allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital. D. place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever.

B. cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital.

A viral infection that may cause obstruction of the upper airway in a child is called: A. asthma. B. croup. C. bronchitis. D. epiglottitis.

B. croup.

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should: Select one: A. engage the team member at once. B. discuss the problem after the call. C. contact the medical director at once. D. ignore the problem to avoid conflict.

B. discuss the problem after the call.

A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: Select one: A. proximal radius. B. distal humerus. C. olecranon process. D. radial head.

B. distal humerus.

Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. scalding water in a bathtub. B. entrapment in a structural fire. C. exposure to caustic chemicals. D. hot items on a stovetop.

B. entrapment in a structural fire.

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: Select one: A. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status. B. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. C. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate. D. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate.

B. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

B. has gathered patient history information.

When caring for a female child who has possibly been sexually abused, you should: A. encourage the child to urinate and take a shower. B. have a female EMT remain with her if possible. C. immediately report your suspicions to the parents. D. carefully examine the genitalia for signs of injury.

B. have a female EMT remain with her if possible.

Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. face shields. B. hazardous materials gear. C. safety goggles. D. turnout gear.

B. hazardous materials gear.

Signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hemoptysis. B. hematemesis. C. asymmetrical chest movement. D. increased pain with breathing.

B. hematemesis.

You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: Select one: A. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. B. immediately request ALS support. C. perform a focused secondary exam. D. insert an oropharyngeal airway.

B. immediately request ALS support.

During your secondary assessment of a 19-year-old female with multiple trauma, you note bilateral humeral deformities and a deformity to the left midshaft femur. Her skin is diaphoretic and her pulse is rapid and weak. Your partner has appropriately managed her airway and is maintaining manual stabilisation of her head. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. splinting her femur fracture with padded board splints. B. immobilising her to a backboard and rapidly transporting C. applying a traction splint to immobilise her femur D. carefully splinting each of her deformed extremities

B. immobilising her to a backboard and rapidly transporting

You are at a mass-casualty scene and in the process of organizing a group to be responsible for ongoing patient care. In order for the group to be successful: Select one: A. individual goals are accomplished. B. individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals. C. individuals see this as a one-time exercise and that the group may change. D. all individuals have the same roles.

B. individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals.

A simple pneumothorax: Select one: A. often has a nontraumatic cause. B. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma. C. heals on its own without any treatment. D. is caused by penetrating chest trauma.

B. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma.

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: Select one: A. sensory and motor functions remain intact. B. it causes a problem managing the airway. C. lateral immobilization has been applied. D. the patient adamantly denies neck pain.

B. it causes a problem managing the airway.

The conjuctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the: A. corneal duct B. lacrimal gland C. posterior orbit D. optic chiasma

B. lacrimal gland

In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are _______. A. more protected by the thorax compared to adults B. larger in proportion to the abdomen C. smaller in proportion to the abdomen D. less likely to bleed when injured

B. larger in proportion to the abdomen Chapter 30, page 1058, Anatomy and Physiology of the Abdomen

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a(n): A. esophageal tear B. laryngeal fracture C. collapsed trachea D. crushed cricoid

B. laryngeal fracture

When splinting a possible fracture of the foot it is MOST important for the EMT to: A. use a pillow as a splint B. leave the toes exposed C. apply a pneumatic splint D. observe for tissue swelling

B. leave the toes exposed

Talking about an elderly patient in front of him or her to other members of the family: Select one: A. often causes the patient to become paranoid and untrusting of your help. B. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions. C. will anger the patient and result in his or her refusal to accept care or transport. D. is usually beneficial because the patient's cognitive skills are typically impaired.

B. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions.

Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: A. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort. B. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. C. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full. D. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression.

B. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. Chapter 30, page 1074, Injuries of the Genitourinary System

A patient with vaginal bleeding _________. Select one: A. will have profound and obvious signs of shock B. may not have obvious signs of shock even if she has experienced significant blood loss C. may want to stand, rather than sit or lie on the stretcher D. will have a weak and rapid pulse but not pale or diaphoretic skin

B. may not have obvious signs of shock even if she has experienced significant blood loss

If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she: Select one: A. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same. B. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume. C. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply. D. often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury.

B. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.

The first month of life after birth is referred to as the: A. premature phase. B. neonatal period. C. toddler period. D. start of infancy.

B. neonatal period.

Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: Select one: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. observe the scene for safety hazards. C. determine if additional units are needed. D. carefully assess the mechanism of injury.

B. observe the scene for safety hazards.

You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: Select one: A. begin ventilatory assistance. B. partially remove the dressing. C. call for a paramedic ambulance. D. begin rapid transport at once.

B. partially remove the dressing.

Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: Select one: A. allow extrication to commence. B. perform a primary assessment. C. administer high-flow oxygen. D. begin treating his or her injuries.

B. perform a primary assessment.

When blood collects inside the pericardial sac, it is called: A. hemothorax. B. pericardial tampanode. C. excess pericardial pressure. D. pressothorax.

B. pericardial tampanode.

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: Select one: A. allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment. B. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags. C. ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her. D. advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes.

B. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.

When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST likely have to: Select one: A. force the head into a neutral alignment. B. place blankets behind the patient's head. C. secure the patient's head before the torso. D. use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll.

B. place blankets behind the patient's head.

If a patient with vaginal bleeding presents with a rapid pulse and pale or cool skin, you should: A. attempt to locate the source of bleeding and correct it B. place the patient in a supine position with her legs elevated C. consider this to be a normal sign in a menstruating woman D. inquire about recent problems with urination

B. place the patient in a supine position with her legs elevated

Crepitus and false motion are: Select one: A. most common with dislocations. B. positive indicators of a fracture. C. indicators of a severe sprain. D. only seen with open fractures.

B. positive indicators of a fracture.

A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to providing supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. determine if he has cardiac problems. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. apply an AED and assess his BP. D. apply bulky dressings to the sternum.

B. prepare for immediate transport.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should: Select one: A. advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence. B. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma. C. ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or relative. D. perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries.

B. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma.

The MAST is absolutely contraindicated in patients who have: A. a pelvic fracture B. pulmonary edema C. bilateral femur fractures D. any trauma below the pelvis

B. pulmonary edema

Applying ice to and elevating an injured extremity are performed in order to : A. prevent further injury B. reduce pain and swelling C. enhance tissue circulation D. maintain extremity perfusion

B. reduce pain and swelling

Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should: Select one: A. limit your physical examination to the area of pain or injury. B. rely exclusively on family members for the medical history. C. attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems. D. perform a rapid assessment on all geriatric patients you treat.

B. rely exclusively on family members for the medical history.

Blood levels of medications may rise in the elderly, sometimes to toxic levels. This is MOST likely due to: Select one: A. pancreatic failure. B. renal insufficiency. C. intentional overdose. D. splenic dysfunction.

B. renal insufficiency.

When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on: Select one: A. following local protocol. B. solving a clinical problem. C. completing the procedure. D. learning to perform the skill.

B. solving a clinical problem.

A __________ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is a partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments. A. strain B. sprain C. fracture D. dislocation

B. sprain

Frequent reassessments of the patient with face or neck injuries are MOST important because: A. hospital staff require frequent patient updates B. such injuries can affect the respiratory system C. they lend credibility to your documentation D. rapid facial swelling may mask hidden injuries

B. such injuries can affect the respiratory system

Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. altered mental status. B. sunken fontanelles. C. headache and fever. D. a stiff or painful neck.

B. sunken fontanelles.

When stabilizing a large foreign object in the eye, you should first cover the eye with a moist dressing, then: A. irrigate the eye with saline B. surround the object with a doughnut-shaped collar made from gauze C. apply tape around the object and then secure the tape to the forehead D. place an ice pack over the eye to reduce swelling

B. surround the object with a doughnut-shaped collar made from gauze

The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: Select one: A. fever and a cough that produces green sputum. B. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. C. jugular venous distention and peripheral edema. D. swelling of the lower extremities and weakness.

B. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called: Select one: A. fascia. B. tendons. C. ligaments. D. cartilage.

B. tendons.

When air is trapped in the chest cavity and creates enough pressure to collapse the lung on the injured and uninjured side, it is called a: A. sucking chest wound. B. tension pneumothorax. C. simple pneumothorax. D. flail segment.

B. tension pneumothorax.

Your patient has received a blunt trauma injury to the chest from being hit with a baseball bat. You notice a flail segment, lung sounds are diminished, and the patient is having difficulty breathing. You note the trachea is deviating towards the uninjured side. You suspect a(n): A. pneumothorax. B. tension pneumothorax. C. hemothorax. D. open wound that you cannot see.

B. tension pneumothorax.

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called: Select one: A. the standard of care. B. the continuum of care. C. patient care advocacy. D. the scope of practice

B. the continuum of care.

In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: Select one: A. transport time is less than 15 minutes. B. the patient is clinically unstable. C. deformity and swelling are present. D. the patient is in severe pain.

B. the patient is clinically unstable.

Assisting with endotracheal intubation may include: Select one: A. visualization of the vocal cords. B. ventilation and preoxygenation. C. inserting a supraglottic airway should the intubation attempt be unsuccessful. D. providing deep suctioning via the ET tube.

B. ventilation and preoxygenation.

Your EMS system requires EMTs to report suspected child abuse. Which of the following statements about reporting suspected abuse is TRUE? A. If you think the parent is the type of person who would be an abuser, report that assumption. B. Your subjective impression of the patient is important to report. C. Identify the person you suspect of being an abuser as the "child abuser." D. Be careful to qualify statements of your suspicions with words such as "suspected" and "possible."

Be careful to qualify statements of your suspicions with words such as "suspected" and "possible."

"For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction" is: A. Newton's first law. B. Newton's second law. C. Newton's third law. D. a false statement.

20-year-old man has major open facial injuries after his vehicle struck a tree head-on. Which of the following findings within the car would MOST likely explain his injury pattern? A. Deployed airbag B. Bent steering wheel C. Nonintact windshield D. Crushed instrument panel

A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. inspect the helmet for cracks. C. stabilize her entire spine. D. leave her bicycle helmet on.

A 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant is experiencing a seizure. Her husband tells you that her blood pressure has been high and that she had been complaining of a headache for the past few days. You should: A. insert an oral airway and ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. B. administer oral glucose for presumed hypoglycemia and transport. C. place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport. D. elevate her legs to improve brain perfusion and keep her warm.

A 30-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the neck when he was attacked outside a nightclub. During your assessment, you should be MOST alert for: A. alterations in his mental status. B. damage to internal structures. C. potential airway compromise. D. injury to the cervical spine.

A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: Select one: A. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab. B. use tweezers to try to remove the object. C. transport her to the emergency department. D. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline.

In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: A. the patient is in severe pain. B. transport time is less than 15 minutes. C. the patient is clinically unstable. D. deformity and swelling are present.

A small compact car was involved in a rollover crash. As you are approaching the vehicle, you note that the roof is significantly collapsed. The patient, a 29-year-old male, is complaining of severe pain in his neck and to the top of his head as well as numbness and tingling in his extremities. Witnesses who removed the patient from the vehicle state that he was wearing his seatbelt. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for this patient's condition? A. Impact of the head against the steering wheel B. Whiplash injury to the neck during the rollover C. Compression of the head against the roof D. Lateral bending of the neck during the crash

A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then: A. auscultate bowel sounds. B. apply a cervical collar. C. assess for an exit wound. D. obtain baseline vital signs.

A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should: Select one: A. perform a secondary assessment. B. apply a nonrebreathing mask. C. assist the patient's ventilations. D. obtain baseline vital signs.

All of the following male genitalia lie outside the pelvis cavity EXCEPT the: A. urethra B. penis C. seminal vesicles D. testes

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with: Select one: A. ice packs and elevation of the patient's head. B. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs. C. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings. D. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point.

Energy can be: A. created. B. destroyed. C. converted. D. all of the above.

Following direct trauma to the superior aspect of the throat, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice, and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a/an: Select one: A. damage to trachea B. compromised airway C. laryngeal fracture D. epiglottitis

From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? A. Cervix B. Perineum C. Uterus D. Vagina

General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina. B. treating external lacerations with moist, sterile compresses. C. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina. D. supplemental oxygen and lower extremity elevation.

Hypovolemic shock occurs when: Select one: A. the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced. B. the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. C. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss. D. at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost.

If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at: A. 7:59. B. 7:53. C. 7:57. D. 8:00.

If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT must assume that she: A. is pregnant. B. has an infection. C. is in shock. D. has an ectopic pregnancy.

Immediately upon leaving the scene with a patient, you should A. contact medical control B. notify the receiving facility C. advise dispatch of your status D. can't read the answer

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: A. sheds and is expelled externally. B. diverts blood flow to the vagina. C. becomes engorged with blood. D. thins and begins to separate.

Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because: A. the area of damage is usually smaller than the bullet. B. the caliber of the bullet is frequently unknown. C. the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body. D. exit wounds caused by the bullet are usually small.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should: A. advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence. B. perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries. C. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma. D. ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or relative.

Left untreated, _____ can lead to premature birth or low birth weight in pregnant women. A. chlamydia B. gonorrhea C. bacterial vaginosis D. vaginal bleeding

Medium-velocity penetrating injuries may be caused by a: A. knife. B. military assault rifle. C. handgun. D. sling-shot.

Open abdominal injuries are also known as: A. blunt injuries B. eviscerations C. penetrating injuries D. peritoneal injuries

Passengers who are seated in the rear of a vehicle and are wearing only lap belts have a higher incidence of injuries to the: A. lumbar and coccygeal spine. B. thoracic and sacral spine. C. thoracic and lumbar spine. D. lumbar and sacral spine.

Patients suffering from an open wound to the neck may suffer from all of the following EXCEPT: A. significant bleeding. B. air embolism. C. tension pneumothorax. D. subcutaneous crepitation.

Proper body mechanics when lifting and moving a patient include A. maintaining a slight curvature of your back B. using the muscles of your lower back to lift C. keeping the weight as close to you as possible D. twisting at the waist when moving a patient around a corner

Severe abrasion injuries can occur when motorcycle riders are slowed after a collision by road drag. Road drag is most often associated with which type of motorcycle impact? A. Head-on collision B. Angular collision C. Ejection D. Controlled crash

The energy of a moving object is called: A. potential energy. B. thermal energy. C. kinetic energy. D. work.

The safest ambulance driver is one who A. is physically fit B. has a positive attitude C. drives with due regard D. drives with lights and siren

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: Select one: A. at the angle of the jaw. B. slightly above the ear. C. just anterior to the tragus. D. over the mastoid process.

The three collisions in a frontal impact include all of the following EXCEPT: A. car striking object. B. passenger striking vehicle. C. air bag striking passenger. D. internal organs striking solid structures of the body.

The upper jawbones are called the: Select one: A. mandible. B. mastoid. C. maxillae. D. zygoma.

Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: A. motor vehicle collisions and stabbings. B. low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls. C. falls and motor vehicle collisions. D. gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT's immediate priority should be to: Select one: A. consider the mechanism of injury. B. manually stabilize the patient's head. C. wear gloves and facial protection. D. closely assess the patient's airway.

When evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car versus pedestrian collision, you should first: A. determine if the patient was struck and pulled under the vehicle. B. determine if the patient was propelled away from the vehicle. C. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian. D. evaluate the vehicle that struck the patient for structural damage.

When is it most appropriate to complete your prehospital care report for a critically ill patient? A. During the initial assessment phase B. During the ongoing assessment phase C. As soon as all patient care activities are completed D. After the ambulance has been restocked at the station

When taking a history on a patient experiencing a gynecologic emergency, you should consider asking all of the following EXCEPT: A. Are you taking birth control? B. When was your last menstrual period? C. How many sexual partners have you has in the past? D. Do you have any history of sexually transmitted diseases?

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: Select one: A. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery. B. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed. C. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient. D. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital.

When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should: A. suspect an accompanying cardiac tamponade. B. use a demand valve to ventilate the patient. C. avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure. D. administer large amounts of intravenous fluid.

When treating a patient with an evisceration, you should: A. attempt to replace the abdominal contents B. cover the protruding organs with a dry, sterile dressing C. cover the protruding contents with moist, sterile gauze compresses

Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be: A. thoroughly assessed, even if no signs of injury exist. B. encouraged to take a shower and change her clothes. C. given the option of being treated by a female EMT. D. asked to provide a brief description of the perpetrator.

Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with PID? A. left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever B. upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding C. lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge D. pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Forehead lacerations B. Extremity fractures C. Aortic rupture D. Flail chest

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? A. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis. B. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. C. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. D. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity.

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is correct? A. Mild infections with gonorrhea cause abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever. B. Symptoms of gonorrhea usually appear within 3 months after being infected. C. Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in men and women. D. Most men who are infected with gonorrhea do not experience symptoms.

Which of the following statements regarding low-energy penetrating injuries is correct? A. Exit wounds are typically easy to locate with low-energy penetrating injuries. B. It is usually easy to differentiate between an entrance wound and an exit wound. C. The area of injury is usually close to the path the object took through the body. D. Internal injuries caused by low-velocity bullets are usually easy to predict.

Which of the following statements regarding the use of an escort vehicle when en route to an emergency call is true? A. an escort vehicle will allow you to arrive at the scene quicker. B. To avoid getting separated from the escort vehicle, you should closely follow it. C. An escort vehicle should be used only if you are unfamiliar with the patients location. D. With an escort vehicle, the risk of an accident at an intersection is reduced significantly.

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? Select one: A. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost. B. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost. C. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. D. It is a clear, watery fluid surrounding the eye and can be replaced if it is lost.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: Select one: A. regularly sees a family physician. B. noticed the change during a meal. C. has a history of eye surgeries. D. is allergic to any medications.

You are called to a residence for a woman in cardiac arrest. As you are initiating CPR, the patient's husband presents you with an unsigned document that states "do not resuscitate". Your most appropriate action in this case should be to A. stop all resuscitative efforts in accordance with the document. B. stop CPR until the document can be validated by a physician C. continue CPR until you have contacted medical control for guidance D. contact medical control prior to beginning any resuscitation measures.

You are called to the scene of a possible assault. Upon arrival, you are directed by police to a dark room where you find a 22 year old woman who says she was sexually assaulted by a coworker this afternoon. The second course of action involves the psychological care of the patient. You should avoid: A. making attempts to get a female EMT to examine the patient. B. examination of the vaginal canal, even if active bleeding is taking place. C. attempting to gather information to assist the police. D. granting the patient's wishes for refusing care and transport.

You are caring for a 6-year old child with a swollen, painful deformity to the left forearm. As you communicate with the parents of this child, you should A. ask them repeatedly how the child was injured B. use appropriate medical terminology at all times. C. make sure that they remain aware of what you are doing. D. tell them that the child will be transported to the hospital

You are giving a presentation to a group of laypeople on the importance of calling EMS immediately for cardiac arrest patients. What point should you emphasize the most? A. Laypeople are incapable of providing adequate CPR B. Rapid transport significantly reduces patient mortality C. CPR and defibrillation are key factors in patient survival D. Cardiac drug therapy is the most important EMS treatment

Your _____ is the best tool to gain the patient's confidence to seek medical help. A. professionalism B. content knowledge C. compassion D. empathy

Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min, his Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is: A. 8. B. 11. C. 9. D. 10.

Your quick primary assessment of the patient and evaluation of the _____ can help to direct lifesaving care and provide critical information to the hospital staff. A. environment B. index of suspicion C. mechanism of injury D. abdominal area

_____ takes place in the solid organs. A. digestion B. Excretion C. Energy production D. Absorption

Menstrual flow will typically last approximately _________. Select one: A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 1 week D. 1 month

C. 1 week

While the ages can vary, women typically experience menstruation from approximately _________ to ____________ years of age. Select one: A. 10; 40 B. 20; 60 C. 11; 50 D. 10; 70

C. 11; 50

When a patient has a chemical burn to the eye, you should irrigate the eye for at least 5 minutes, however, if the burn was caused by an alkali or strong acid, you should irrigate for: A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 25 minutes

C. 20 minutes

Chest injuries can also result in a pneumothorax. Which of the following is correct regarding a pneumothorax? A. Due to the nature of the injury, a pneumothorax must be caused by an open chest wound. B. A pneumothorax means there is bleeding inside the thoracic cavity. C. An open chest wound called a "sucking chest wound" can pull air into the thoracic cavity. D. Air moving in and out of an open wound to the chest is known as a tension pneumothorax.

C. An open chest wound called a "sucking chest wound" can pull air into the thoracic cavity.

You are requested out to County Road 93 for a vehicle collision at a rural area known for serious crashes. After driving with lights and sirens for nearly 20 minutes to reach the scene, you arrive at the intersection at the east end of the county. As you pull up, you see two pickup trucks crushed into a mass of twisted, smoking metal. A sheriff's deputy is shouting and waving you over to the passenger side door of one of the demolished trucks. You quickly look down all four roads leading to the scene and note that they are deserted as far as you can see. How would you ensure the proper control of traffic around this scene? Select one: A. Put out flares in a pattern that leads other vehicles safely around the involved vehicles. B. Because the roads were deserted when you arrived, it is not a priority. C. Ask the law enforcement officer to control any traffic. D. Pull completely off the roadway and leave your red emergency lights flashing.

C. Ask the law enforcement officer to control any traffic.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of a possible facial fracture? A. Bleeding in the mouth B. Absent or loose teeth C. Bleeding from the forehead D. Loose and/or moveable bone fragments

C. Bleeding from the forehead

A 5-year-old child has had severe vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which of the following assessment findings would be the MOST indicative of decompensated shock? A. Capillary refill time of 4 seconds B. Pulse rate greater than 120/min C. Blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg D. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min

C. Blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg

Which of the following structures is regulated by smooth muscle? A. Heart B. Skeleton C. Blood vessels D. Diaphragm

C. Blood vessels

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated? Select one: A. Genital herpes B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Chlamydia D. Ovarian cysts

C. Chlamydia

What is typically the most important intervention that an EMT can provide to the victim of sexual assault? Select one: A. Control of vaginal bleeding B. Calling for ALS personnel C. Comfort and reassurance D. High-flow oxygen therapy

C. Comfort and reassurance

A 14-year-old baseball player was hit in the chest with a line drive. He is in cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? A. Myocardial contusion B. Traumatic asphyxia C. Commotio cordis D. Hemothorax

C. Commotio cordis

Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is correct? A. Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable. B. The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy. C. Death as a result of SIDS can occur at any time of the day or night. D. SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection.

C. Death as a result of SIDS can occur at any time of the day or night.

Which sign/symptom would give you a high index of suspicion that a patient may have compartment syndrome? A. Referred pain B. Limb deformity C. Disproportionate pain D. Hypersensation

C. Disproportionate pain That's Correct! Disproportionate pain on passive stretch of muscles within the compartment is a sign of compartment syndrome.

______________ may be a cause of vaginal bleeding in a patient who states that she is NOT pregnant. Select one: A. Bacterial vaginosis B. Hypotension C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Menopause

C. Ectopic pregnancy

You are responding to the dementia unit at a nursing home for respiratory distress. When you arrive, you notice that the patient is experiencing mild dyspnea and has an altered mental status. What can you do to help determine if the patient's altered mental status is appropriate for her underlying dementia? Select one: A. As long as the patient is alert and able to answer most questions, there is no need to determine if this is normal behavior. B. Ask the patient's roommate if this is normal behavior for the patient. C. Find a staff member who can explain the patient's underlying mental status to you. D. Because the patient already has dementia, there is no need to investigate this further.

C. Find a staff member who can explain the patient's underlying mental status to you.

Compression injury is most likely due to which of the following? A. Hollow-organ rupture B. Stabbing C. Improperly placed lab belt D. Ejection of unrestrained driver

C. Improperly placed lab belt Chapter 30, page 1059, Injuries to the Abdomen

C. Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in men and women.

Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock? A. Hip B. Femur C. Pelvis D. Humerus

C. Pelvis

When assessing distal circulation in a patient's lower extremities, which pulse should you palpate? A. Femoral B. Dorsalis pedis C. Popliteal D. Iliac

C. Popliteal That's Correct! You would palpate the popliteal artery in lower extremity wounds.

Since positive pressure ventilations may actually complicate a pneumothorax, what should the EMT do when the pneumothorax patient is NOT breathing adequately? A. Administer oxygen at 15 lpm via nonrebreather. B. Assist the patient into the tripod position and provide "blow-by" oxygen at 25 lpm. C. Provide positive pressure ventilations anyway. D. Place the patient in a full Fowler's position and transport immediately.

C. Provide positive pressure ventilations anyway.

Which of the following would you use to stabilize an AC separation? A. Zippered air splint B. Rigid splint C. Sling and swathe D. Traction splint

C. Sling and swathe That's Correct! An AC separation occurs in the shoulder and so using a sling and swathe is an effective way to splint the injury.

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? A. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. B. Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. C. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist. D. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration.

C. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist. Chapter 30, page 1071, Emergency Medical Care of Abdominal Injuries

When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence initially? A. What time did the ingestion occur? B. Have you noticed any signs or symptoms? C. Why did your child ingest the poison? D. Do you know what substance was ingested?

C. Why did your child ingest the poison?

An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: Select one: A. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury. B. a progressively lowering blood pressure. C. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. D. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate.

C. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. CSF leakage from the ears. B. decerebrate posturing. C. a rapid, thready pulse. D. widening pulse pressure.

C. a rapid, thready pulse.

While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should: Select one: A. immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. B. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest. C. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital. D. recognize that he needs a needle decompression.

C. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital.

When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: Select one: A. only if the patient has experienced a major injury. B. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. C. after receiving approval from the incident commander. D. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized.

C. after receiving approval from the incident commander.

A construction worker's arm was severed just above the elbow when a steel girder fell on it. The stump is covered with a blood-soaked towel The patient's skin is cool, clammy, and pale. The EMT should: A. administer high-flow oxygen to the patient B. remove the towel and inspect the wound C. apply a tourniquet just below the shoulder D. wrap the severed arm in a sterile dressing

C. apply a tourniquet just below the shoulder

A 76-year-old male experienced sudden pain to his left thigh when he was standing in line at the grocery store. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis and deformity to the distal aspect of his left femur, just above the knee. Distal circulation and sensory and motor function are intact. You should: A. apply a traction splint to realign the deformity B. flex the knee slightly and apply a formable splint C. apply padded board splints to both sides of the leg D. bind the legs together and elevate them 6 to 8 inches.

C. apply padded board splints to both sides of the leg

Emergency care of a patient with an open chest wound should include: A. removing the occlusive dressing if the patient's breathing status deteriorates. B. positioning the patient on the uninjured side so the lung can inflate more fully. C. applying an occlusive dressing taped on three sides to any open chest wound. D. immediate removal of any impaled object from the chest wound.

C. applying an occlusive dressing taped on three sides to any open chest wound.

With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: A. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact B. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury D. part of the body that sustained secondary injury

C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury

You have applied a zippered air splint to a patient's left arm. During transport, the patient complains of increased numbness and tingling in his left hand. You reassess distal circulation and note that it remains present. Your MOST appropriate action should be to: A. Elevate the injured arm and reassess distal sensory function B. inflate the splint with more air until the patient is comfortable C. assess the amount of air in the splint and let out air as necessary D. remove the air splint and reimmobilise with padded board splints

C. assess the amount of air in the splint and let out air as necessary

A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of: Select one: A. distraction. B. hyperflexion. C. axial loading. D. hyperextension.

C. axial loading.

Left untreated, _____ can lead to premature birth or low birth weight in pregnant women. A. chlamydia B. gonorrhea C. bacterial vaginosis D. vaginal bleeding

C. bacterial vaginosis

You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should: A. begin documenting the call on the patient care form. B. forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition. C. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently. D. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment.

C. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently. Chapter 30, page 1069, Patient Assessment of Abdominal Injuries

Signs of a cardiac tamponade include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. muffled heart tones. B. a weak, rapid pulse. C. collapsed jugular veins. D. narrowing pulse pressure.

C. collapsed jugular veins.

Your _____ is the best tool to gain the patient's confidence to seek medical help. A. professionalism B. content knowledge C. compassion D. empathy

C. compassion

During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates. B. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. C. converse with the patient and provide reassurance. D. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital.

C. converse with the patient and provide reassurance.

The ______ connects the cricoid cartilage and thyroid cartilage. A. larynx B. cricoid membrane C. cricothyroid membrane D. thyroid membrane

C. cricothyroid membrane

When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she: Select one: A. will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor. B. will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task. C. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task. D. will rely on the group leader for making virtually all decisions.

C. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

In dependent groups: Select one: A. each individual is responsible for his or her own area. B. everyone works together with shared tasks C. each individual is told what to do by his or her supervisor or group leader. D. individuals do not have to wait for their assignment before taking action.

C. each individual is told what to do by his or her supervisor or group leader.

The middle ear is connected to the nasal cavity by the: A. frontial sinus B. zygomatic process C. eustachian tube D. superior trachea

C. eustachian tube

The _____________ connect(s) each ovary with the uterus. Select one: A. abdomen B. egg C. fallopian tubes D. cervix

C. fallopian tubes

When flushing an eye with saline to remove a foreign object, it is important to remember to: A. flush from the outside of the eye in toward the nose B. flush from the top of the eye in toward the nose C. flush from the nose side of the eye toward the outside D. flush only along the bottom of the eye

C. flush from the nose side of the eye toward the outside

When a patient stiffens the muscles of the abdomen, it is known as _______. A. crepitus. B. distention. C. guarding. D. instability.

C. guarding. Chapter 30, page 1060, Injuries to the Abdomen

You are attending to a 68-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. An ALS provider arrives shortly after you do and the transfer of care is made. The ALS provider asks that you assist in the endotracheal intubation. As part of this process, you may be required to: Select one: A. ventilate and preoxygenate the patient but not handle any of the equipment required for the intubation. B. visualize the airway and look for any potential complications in advance of the intubation. C. help position the patient for a better view of the airway during the procedure. D. perform the intubation with assistance.

C. help position the patient for a better view of the airway during the procedure.

It is essential that ______ oxygen be continuously administered to all patients with a suspected chest injury. A. 50 percent B. low-flow C. high-flow D. 10 percent

C. high-flow

You are assessing a 70-year-old female who complains of intense thirst, frequent urination, and dizziness. She has a history of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout. Her blood glucose reads "high." She is conscious, but confused. Her blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min and shallow. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. diabetic ketoacidosis. B. hyperglycemia with moderate dehydration. C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome. D. acute renal failure with associated hyperglycemia.

C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: Select one: A. begin triage to determine injury severity. B. call medical control for further direction. C. immediately request additional resources. D. request law enforcement for traffic control.

C. immediately request additional resources.

A 17-year-old football player collided with another player and has pain to his left clavicle. He is holding his arm against his chest and refuses to move it. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to the midshaft clavicle. After assessing distal pulse, sensory, and motor functions, you should: A. perform a rapid secondary assessment B. straighten his arm and apply a board splint C. immobilise the injury with a sling and swathe D. place a pillow under his arm and apply a sling

C. immobilise the injury with a sling and swathe

The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is: Select one: A. inside the jump kit. B. near the side or rear door. C. in the driver's compartment. D. on the ambulance stretcher.

C. in the driver's compartment.

Abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever are most likely due to _______. A. hypovolemia B. evisceration C. infection D. hemorrhage

C. infection Chapter 30, page 1058, Anatomy and Physiology of the Abdomen

The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: Select one: A. stop signs. B. stop lights. C. intersections. D. railroad crossings.

C. intersections.

After spiking a bag of IV fluid for the paramedic, the EMT notices that the drip chamber is too full. The EMT should: Select one: A. let the IV flow rapidly for 20 to 30 seconds. B. replace the administration set with a new one. C. invert the IV bag and squeeze the drip chamber. D. squeeze the IV bag to force fluid into the tubing.

C. invert the IV bag and squeeze the drip chamber.

An abdominal aortic aneurysm: Select one: A. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early. B. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders. C. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis. D. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area.

C. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis.

A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: Select one: A. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. B. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor. C. it interferes with your assessment of the airway. D. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard.

C. it interferes with your assessment of the airway.

A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should: Select one: A. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position. B. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint. C. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints. D. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation.

C. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints.

The __________ and _________ are folds of tissue that surround the urethral and vaginal openings. Select one: A. fallopian tubes; uterus B. perineum; anus C. labia majora; labia minora D. vagina; cervix

C. labia majora; labia minora

Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? A. left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever B. upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding C. lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge D. pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness

C. lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge

If fertilization has not occurred in approximately 14 days postovulation: Select one: A. the ovum will begin to travel to the uterus. B. another egg will be released. C. menstruation will begin. D. All of these answers are correct.

C. menstruation will begin.

Which of the following statements regarding shoulder dislocations is correct? A. posterior dislocations are most common B. they are caused by forced arm adduction C. most shoulder dislocations occur anteriorly D. they involve the acromion process and humerus

C. most shoulder dislocations occur anteriorly

Ambulances today are designed according to strict government regulations based on _____ standards. Select one: A. local B. state C. national D. individual

C. national

Facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because: A. bleeding must be controlled early B. the spine may be injured as well C. of the risk for airway problems D. swelling may mask hidden injuries

C. of the risk for airway problems

A(n) _______ chest injury is the result of a penetrating chest wound. A. internal B. sustained C. open D. blunt

C. open

When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: A. the abdomen will become instantly distended. B. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock. C. peritonitis may not develop for several hours. D. it commonly protrudes through the injury site.

C. peritonitis may not develop for several hours. Chapter 30, page 1062, Injuries to the Abdomen

Paradoxical movement caused by a flail segment can be stabilized by placing bulky dressings, a ______, or towels over the unstable segment. A. pressure dressing B. Vaseline gauze C. pillow D. occlusive dressing

C. pillow

Air in the pleural space is called: A. hemothorax. B. tension emphysema. C. pneumothorax. D. subcutaneous emphysema.

C. pneumothorax.

When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: Select one: A. park downhill from the scene. B. ask the driver to exit the vehicle. C. position the ambulance upwind. D. quickly gain access to the patient.

C. position the ambulance upwind.

A 30-year-old man complains of severe pain to this right tibia following an injury that occurred the day before. The patient's leg is pale and he is unable to move his foot. The EMT should suspect that: A. the nerves behind the knee are compromised B. a severe infection has developed in the muscle C. pressure in the fascial compartment is elevated. D. the nerves supplying the foot have been severed.

C. pressure in the fascial compartment is elevated.

Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: A. the EMT must perform a thorough exam. B. vital signs should be monitored frequently. C. prompt transport to the hospital is essential. D. the abdomen must be vigorously palpated.

C. prompt transport to the hospital is essential. Chapter 30, page 1061, Injuries to the Abdomen

When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Select one: A. remove him or her using a short backboard. B. move him or her in one fast, continuous step. C. protect the cervical spine during the entire process. D. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal.

C. protect the cervical spine during the entire process.

A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of the chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect: Select one: A. massive hemothorax. B. tension pneumothorax. C. pulmonary contusion. D. traumatic asphyxia.

C. pulmonary contusion.

General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. avoiding one-way streets whenever possible. B. assuming that other drivers will not see you. C. regularly using the siren as much as possible. D. avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion.

C. regularly using the siren as much as possible.

Extrication is defined as: Select one: A. using heavy equipment to access a patient. B. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. C. removal from a dangerous situation or position. D. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her.

C. removal from a dangerous situation or position.

Chlamydia, bacterial vaginosis, and gonorrhea are all examples of _________. Select one: A. "women's conditions" B. diseases that can cause scarring of the fallopian tubes C. sexually transmitted diseases D. causes of vaginal bleeding

C. sexually transmitted diseases

Assisting with vascular access may include: Select one: A. visualization of the vocal cords. B. inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle. C. spiking the IV bag. D. ensuring that the equipment is handled only by the ALS provider and not by you.

C. spiking the IV bag.

All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT the: A. ureters. B. bladder. C. spleen. D. stomach.

C. spleen. Chapter 30, page 1058, Anatomy and Physiology of the Abdomen

During your rapid secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25′, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: Choose one answer. A. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center. B. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. C. stabilise the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine. D. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once.

C. stabilise the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.

During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: Select one: A. assist his ventilations with a BVM. B. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood. C. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. D. immobilize his spine and transport immediately.

C. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.

Lighting at a scene, establishing a tool and equipment area, and marking for a helicopter landing all fall under: Select one: A. logistics operations. B. EMS operations. C. support operations. D. law enforcement.

C. support operations.

The EMT should ensure that vaginal bleeding is _________. Select one: A. controlled directly by the patient B. not caused by traumatic injury C. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation D. severe enough to warrant transport

C. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation

When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should: A. refrain from taking a blood pressure. B. rely solely on the parent for information. C. talk to the child, not just the caregiver. D. use a toe-to-head assessment approach.

C. talk to the child, not just the caregiver.

Returning the emergency unit to service is part of the _________. Select one: A. transfer phase B. hazard-control phase C. termination phase D. support phase

C. termination phase

During your scene size-up and initial assessment of a patient with a chest wound, remember: A. that you may need to enter an unsecured scene to treat a patient with a life-threatening injury to the chest. B. to open the patient's airway by using the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver. C. that a tension pneumothorax will make it increasingly more difficult to ventilate the patient. D. that, if you note paradoxical movement of the chest wall, immediately place your gloved hand over the wound, then an occlusive dressing.

C. that a tension pneumothorax will make it increasingly more difficult to ventilate the patient.

In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure (BP) upon standing because: Select one: A. their red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate. B. the aging process results in an overall increase in blood volume. C. the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes. D. any change in position causes blood to be shunted to the brain.

C. the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes.

Passengers who are seated in the rear of a vehicle and are wearing only lap belts have a higher incidence of injuries to the: Choose one answer. A. thoracic and sacral spine. B. lumbar and coccygeal spine. C. thoracic and lumbar spine. D. lumbar and sacral spine.

C. thoracic and lumbar spine.

A 4 year old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: A. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline B. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab C. transport her to the emergency department D. use tweezers to try to remove the object

C. transport her to the emergency department

You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should: A. quickly suction his oropharynx B. reassess his breathing adequacy C. turn the backboard onto its side D. alert the hospital of the situation

C. turn the backboard onto its side

A medical transport helicopter is incoming and you are responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). You should: Select one: A. use yellow caution tape to mark of the LZ perimeter. B. ask bystanders to stand at all four corners of the LZ. C. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ. D. place four flares 100 feet apart in an "X" pattern.

C. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ.

When caring for a patient with signs of a pneumothorax, your MOST immediate concern should be: A. hypovolemia. B. intrathoracic bleeding. C. ventilatory inadequacy. D. associated myocardial injury.

C. ventilatory inadequacy.

You arrive on scene to an 8-year-old male patient who fell while skating. He is responsive but lying down on the pavement. As you assess the patient, you notice abrasions with self-controlled bleeding located on both his knees. Based on your assessment, what type of external bleeding is this? A. Capillary B. Arterial C. Venous D. Non-significant

Capillary

Which of the following signs of shock is useful in pediatric patients but not in adults? A. Tachycardia B. Capillary refill C. Tachypnea D. Restlessness

Capillary refill

Which of the following would NOT indicate severe airway obstruction of a pediatric patient? A. Respiratory difficulty accompanied by stridor B. Child's cough becomes ineffective C. Cyanosis D. Child cries loudly

Child cries loudly

Which of the following statements about shock in pediatric patients is TRUE? A. Children compensate for shock for a long time, then crash quickly. B. Children decompensate quickly but also recover quickly. C. Children are unable to compensate for shock. D. Children rarely develop shock because of their large blood volume.

Children compensate for shock for a long time, then crash quickly.

Your pediatric patient is showing signs and symptoms of hypothermia. Which of the following should be done FIRST after getting the patient out of the cold environment? A. Confirm the patient's axillary temperature. B. Contact medical direction. C. Complete the patient care report. D. Conserve the patient's body heat.

Conserve the patient's body heat.

A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: A. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. B. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. C. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. D. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.

A 40-year-old man was standing near a building when it exploded. He has multiple injuries, including a depressed skull fracture, severe burns, and an impaled object in his abdomen. His head injury MOST likely occurred during the ___________ phase of the explosion. A. blast B. primary C. secondary D. tertiary

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should: Select one: A. assist ventilations with a BVM device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport. B. fully immobilize her spine, irrigate her empty tooth sockets, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, and transport. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport. D. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport.

A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is: Select one: A. quickly immobilizing her spinal column. B. careful monitoring her vital signs. C. requesting a paramedic ambulance. D. rapidly transporting her to the hospital.

A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: A. placenta previa. B. gestational diabetes. C. preeclampsia. D. an ectopic pregnancy.

A patient complaining of chest tightness, coughing up blood, and subcutaneous emphysema following an explosion may be suffering from a: A. myocardial blast injury. B. ruptured tympanic membrane. C. ruptured peritoneal cavity. D. pulmonary blast injury.

A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or "floaters" in his or her field of vision has MOST likely experienced: Select one: A. optic vessel compression. B. a blowout fracture. C. a lacerated globe. D. a detached retina.

A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: A. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate. B. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma. C. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure. D. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.

According to the American College of Surgeons, an adult trauma patient meets Level I criteria if he or she: A. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min. B. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed. C. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury. D. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 8 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.

All of the following are considered types of motorcycle impacts EXCEPT: A. head-on collision. B. angular collision. C. controlled crash. D. rear collision.

All of the following systems contain organs that make up the contents of the abominal cavity EXCEPT: A. the digestive system B. the urinary system C. the genitourinary system D. the limbic system

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during: A. rear-end collisions. B. rollover collisions. C. frontal collisions. D. lateral collisions.

Burns from hot gases and respiratory injuries from inhaling toxic gas are associated with which type of blast injury? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Miscellaneous

Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. thorough drying with a towel. B. suctioning of the upper airway. C. some form of tactile stimulation. D. positive-pressure ventilations.

Death from a rollover motor vehicle crash is MOST often secondary to: A. crushing injuries. B. airbag-related trauma. C. multiple collisions to the interior of the car. D. ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle.

Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is MOST indicative of a ruptured: Select one: A. stomach. B. aorta. C. spleen. D. diaphragm.

During the triage process, which of the following injuries or conditions would classify a patient as a high priority? A. Pulselessness and apnea B. Unilateral femur fracture and tachycardia C. Partial-thickness burns with no respiratory difficulty D. A large avulsion to the arm and an altered mental status

During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred: A. during the secondary phase. B. during the primary phase. C. as a direct result of the pressure wave. D. during the tertiary phase.

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: A. perform a rapid secondary assessment. B. perform a visual assessment of her vaginal area. C. assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs. D. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.

During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: A. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. B. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once. C. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center. D. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.

Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT to: A. determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact. B. recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact. C. assess the severity of the third collision of the crash. D. identify contact points and predict potential injuries.

Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year-old female complains of diffuse abdominal pain and pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the: Select one: A. liver. B. pancreas. C. gallbladder. D. spleen.

Force acting over a distance defines the concept of: A. potential energy. B. latent energy. C. kinetic energy. D. work.

If applying a dressing to control the bleeding of a patient's arm, the EMT should ________. Select one: A. apply direct pressure first B. use large or small gauze pads or dressings depending upon the size of the wound C. cover the entire wound, above and below, with the dressing D. All of these answers are correct.

If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should: A. rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma. B. transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain. C. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries. D. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.

If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of ________. Select one: A. altered LOC B. GI trauma C. hypotension D. vomiting

In contrast to a Level III trauma center, a Level I trauma center must: A. be able to stabilize patients before transferring to a higher level facility. B. be involved in trauma prevention programs. C. have access to an emergency physician within 30 minutes. D. have general surgeons that are in-house 24 hours a day.

In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are _______. Select one: A. more protected by the thorax compared to adults B. smaller in proportion to the abdomen C. less likely to bleed when injured D. larger in proportion to the abdomen

Injuries to the external male genitalia _______. Select one: A. usually result in permanent damage B. are often life-threatening C. frequently lead to hypovolemic shock D. are rarely life-threatening

Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is MOST often controlled by: Select one: A. applying chemical ice pack. B. applying a tourniquet. C. keeping the patient warm. D. splinting the extremity.

Medical control has ordered you to administer one tube of oral glucose to your patient suspected of having hypoglycemia. Immediately after receiving this order, you should A. document the order on the prehospital care report B. administer the medication and reassess the patient C. ask medical control to repeat the order word for word D. repeat the order back to medical control word for word

PID typically does NOT affect the: A. ovaries. B. uterus. C. fallopian tubes. D. urinary bladder.

Possible causes of vaginal bleeding include all of the following EXCEPT: A. ectopic pregnancy. B. cervical polyps. C. vaginal trauma. D. peptic ulcer.

The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: A. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. B. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. C. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. D. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.

The amniotic fluid serves to: A. remove viruses from the fetus. B. transfer oxygen to the fetus. C. assist in fetal development. D. insulate and protect the fetus.

The first signs of peritonitis include all of the following EXCEPT: A. severe abdominal pain B. tenderness C. muscular spasm D. nausea

What mechanism(s) does the body use to control bleeding? Select one: A. Clotting B. Coagulation C. Vasoconstriction D. All of these answers are correct.

What types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? A. Rear-end and rotational B. lateral and rollover C. frontal and rotational D. rotational and rollover

When a driver is in a car equipped with an air bag, but is not wearing a seatbelt, he or she will MOST likely strike the __________ when the air bag deploys upon impact. A. windshield B. dashboard C. steering wheel D. door

When a patient stiffens the muscles of the abdomen, it is known as _______. Select one: A. crepitus. B. distention. C. instability. D. guarding.

When assessing a stab wound, it is important for the EMT to remember that: A. stabbings to an extremity are rarely associated with an exit wound. B. the majority of the internal trauma will be near the path of the knife. C. most stabbings are unintentional and cause less severe internal injury. D. more internal damage may be present than the external wound suggests.

When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the: A. index of suspicion. B. kinetic energy. C. potential energy. D. mechanism of injury.

When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT's main focus should be to: A. determine the underlying cause of her problem. B. ask questions related to her gynecologic history. C. keep assessment and treatment to a minimum. D. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay.

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to PID if left untreated? A. genital herpes B. ovarian cysts C. ectopic pregnancy D. chlamydia

Which of the following findings would be the MOST significant when assessing a patient with possible internal bleeding? Select one: A. The patient has not eaten in 24 hours. B. The patient had a stroke 5 years prior. C. The patient has a history of hypertension. D. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto).

Which of the following is NOT considered appropriate use of air medical services? A. The distance to a trauma center is greater than 25 miles. B. Traffic/road conditions make it unlikely to get the patient to the hospital in a timely manner. C. There is a mass-casualty incident. D. The closest trauma center is 10 minutes away by ground transport.

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of death from a blast injury? A. amputation B. burns C. chest trauma D. head trauma

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? A. An amputated extremity B. Bilateral femur fractures C. Nondisplaced long bone fractures D. Pelvic fracture with hypotension

Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding? Select one: A. Vacuum splint B. Sling and swathe C. Cardboard splint D. Air splint

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal evisceration's is correct? A. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration. B. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. C. Most evisceration's occur to the left upper quadrant D. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? A. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury. B. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries. C. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma. D. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury.

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? A. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain. B. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past. C. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active. D. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.

With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: A. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted. B. part of the body that sustained secondary injury. C. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. D. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.

You and your partner are both male and are attending to a 28-year-old female patient complaining of diffuse abdominal pain. The patient is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. The patient refuses to allow you to examine her, and her husband informs you that their culture does not allow males to examine or care for pregnant women. You should: A. inform the patient that by calling for an ambulance, she is agreeing to the care provided and continue with your assessment and management. B. insist that the patient requires proper care and that requires an adequate physical assessment and that you cannot be responsible for the outcome. C. call for the police to ensure that patient assessment is carried out. D. respect the patient's wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient.

You are attending to a 23-year-old female patient who is 16 weeks pregnant with her second child. The patient has apparently fallen and sustained an injury to her upper right arm. When you ask about the incident history, the patient is reluctant to explain what happened and becomes very quiet. Based on this information, you should: A. contact police and remain at the scene until they arrive and escort you to the hospital. B. immediately remove the patient from the environment and transport. C. ask more detailed questions and press the issue until you have a more detailed understanding of the incident. D. continue your care in a private area, document any details regarding the scene and the incident, and reassure her as you provide care.

You are called to the local bar where a fight has taken place. The police department tells you that you have a 36 year old man who has been stabbed twice in the abdomen. Upon your arrival, the patient is alert and oriented. His airway is open. His respirations are at 24 breaths/min, pulse is rapid, regular and weak. He has distal pulses. With the penetrating trauma, you should assume that the object: A. has penetrated the peritoneum B. has entered the abdominal cavity C. has possibly injured one or more organs D. all of the above

You are called to the scene of a possible assault. Upon arrival, you are directed by police to a dark room where you find a 22 year old woman who says she was sexually assaulted by a coworker this afternoon. The patient tells you that she would really like to be transported to the hospital but refuses a physical examination. You should: A. explain to her that she cannot be transported without a physical exam. B. have the police take the patient into custody in order to legally force a physical exam. C. explain to her that this is a criminal case and that she must be examined. D. follow your system's refusal of treatment policy and respect the patient's wishes without judgement.

You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who was kicked in the abdomen by her boyfriend. While en route to the scene, you should ask the dispatcher if: A. the severity of the injury is known. B. the patient is conscious. C. there are other patients involved. D. law enforcement is at the scene.

You are providing care to a male patient at the scene of a shooting. the police are at the scene collecting evidence Your actions should include A. limiting your care to the initial assessment. B. beginning care when the police authorize you to C. beginning immediate care as you would with any other patient D. providing care to the patient while manipulating the scene minimally.

You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should: Select one: A. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed. B. reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status. C. suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min. D. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM.

You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should: Select one: A. begin documenting the call on the patient care form. B. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment. C. forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition. D. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently.

You arrive at the scene of a traffic accident in which multiple vehicles are involved. You see at least two patients who appear to be unconscious. Your first action should be to A. begin triaging the patients B. begin immediate patient care C. notify medical control for advice D. request an additional ambulance

Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: A. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery. B. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord. C. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting. D. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.

Your documentation on a sexual assault victim should _______. Select one: A. include your opinion of the nature of the incident B. describe the status of the suspect(s) C. be subjective and summarize the crime D. be objective and factual

Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph. Select one: A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30

D. 30

When arriving at the scene of a cave-in or trench collapse, response vehicles should be parked at least _____ away from the scene. Select one: A. 50 feet (15 m) B. 150 feet (46 m) C. 250 feet (76 m) D. 500 feet (152 m)

D. 500 feet (152 m)

The Microdrip administration delivers 1 mL of fluid for every ____ drops. Select one: A. 10 B. 15 C. 45 D. 60

D. 60

Causes of vaginal bleeding include which of the following? Select one: A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Vaginal trauma C. Spontaneous abortion D. All of these answers are correct.