emt quizzes till 33

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Which of the following is the process in which heat is lost from the body as wind passes over it? a) condensation b) convection c) hydrodynamic cooling d) exposure

A 65-year-old man was doing some work on his roof when he lost his footing and fell to the ground, approximately 15 feet. He is unconscious but his respirations are normal. You note an obviously angulated left leg. You are more concerned about a possible head injury. Which of the following would indicate a possible head injury? a) Increased blood pressure b) Increased pulse rate c) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 15 d) Constricted pupils

A burn extending into the subcutaneous fat would be classified as which type of burn? a) full thickness b) superficial partial thickness c) superficial d) deep partial thickness

A hormone called insulin is secreted by the a) islets of Langerhans in the pancreas b) gallbladder found in the pancreas. c) islets of Langerhans in the liver d) None of the above.

A patient who is lying on cold ground is losing the most amount of heat by what mechanism? a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Shivering

A patient who is lying on cold ground is losing the most amount of heat by what mechanism? a) conduction b) convection c) radiation d) shivering

A pillow is frequently used to splint an ankle or foot injury. It is effective, rapid, and can be used for most patients. Its main weakness is: a) you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle b) it requires three people to apply c) you might not have a pillow on your ambulance d) it is hard to access distal pulses after application.

A seizure that occurs spontaneously from an unknown cause is called: a) idiopathic b) hypoglycemic c) tonxinic d) hypoxic

According to the signs of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which of the following infection patients has an increased risk of sepsis? a) A patient with a temperature of 95.4°F and a respiratory rate of 28 b) A patient with a heart rate of 88 and a temperature of 99.6°F c) A patient with respiratory rate of 19 and a heart rate of 112 d) A patient with a systolic blood pressure of 75 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 18

Although it can be difficult to definitively determine hip dislocation in the field, certain signs and symptoms are usually there. Which of the following statements is false? a) An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward b) The posterior hip dislocation is the most common. c) Often there is lack of sensation in the limb d) A posterior hip dislocation presents with a bent knee and the foot may hang loose.

An infant's birth weight is considered low if it is less than ________ pounds a) 5.5 b) 2.5 c) 4.5 d) 3.5

An unresponsive patient is found sitting in the front seat of a vehicle with his legs pinned under the dash. Once his legs have been freed, which of the following methods should be used for removal of the patient? a) Rapid extrication technique b) Quick extraction c) Scoop stretcher d) Rapid take-down

At which point should you complete your prehospital care report (PCR)? a) As soon as you are free from patient duties b) As soon as you arrive at the hospital c) En route to the hospital d) At the end of your shift

Barbiturates may be referred to as which of the following? a) downers b) meth c) uppers d) acid

Bleeding from open abdominal injuries should initially be controlled with which one of the following techniques? a) Applying direct pressure to the wound b) Applying an ice pack or chemical cold pack c) Packing the wound with rolled gauze d) Applying a sterile dressing

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries should initially be controlled with which one of the following techniques? a) direct pressure b) Running cold water over the wound c) Elevation of the injured part d) Application of an ice pack or chemical cold pack

Blood at the meatus of the penis (opening of the urethra) is a sign of: a) pelvic trauma/fracture b) spinal fracture or injury c) pelvic dislocation syndrome d) priapism

Blunt and penetrating injuries can You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED advises shock. After defibrillating the patient, what is your next intervention? a) Continue CPR b) Check for a pulse c) Place in the recovery position. d) insert a Combitube

Blunt trauma is the leading cause of internal injuries and bleeding. Which of the following are mechanisms of blunt trauma that may cause internal bleeding? 1. Falls 2. Motor vehicle or motorcycle crashes 3. Auto-pedestrian collisions 4. Blast injuries a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 3 c) 1, 2, 3 d) 1, 4

Burns pose a greater risk to infants and children for which of the following reasons? a) Pediatric patients have a greater risk of shock from the burn b) Pediatric patients have a greater risk of heart problems associated with the burn c) Infants and children have a greater risk of infection from the burn. d) None of the above

By which of the following means does the fetal blood pick up nourishment from the mother? a) Diffusion b) Indirect circulation c) Direct circulation d) Osmosis

Distinguishing between a knee dislocation and a patella dislocation can sometimes be difficult. Which of the following statements is not true? a) In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced. b) In a knee dislocation, the tibia is forced anteriorly or posteriorly in relation to the distal femur. c) You should always check for a distal pulse d) The lack of a distal pulse could be a signal of a real emergency

External bleeding may be classified according to types. Which of the following is one of those types? a) capillary bleeding b) cardiac bleeding c) liver bleeding d) brain bleeding

Failure to formally transfer the patient to medical staff in the emergency department could place the EMT in danger of being held liable for: a) abandonment b) patient endangerment c) false imprisonment d) unlawful consent

For which of the following reasons are newborns, infants, and the elderly more readily affected by the heat than other age groups? a) Poor ability to regulate body temperature b) Inadequate salt intake c) Faster metabolism d) Increased body mass

How does the pain felt by a patient when receiving a shock from a pacemaker compare to the pain felt when receiving a shock from an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)? a) Pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful b) Both are painful. c) Pacemakers are painful and AICDs are painless. d) Both are painless

If you are first on scene, what should you do first in determining where and how you should park your apparatus? a) Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking. b) Immediately park in the same direction and in single file. c) Provide downstream blocking if you are driving one of the larger units. d) se apparatus to institute "downstream blocking" of the scene to protect the work area

In caring for a 27-year-old male who has a large laceration on his anterior forearm, you have noticed that your pressure dressing has become saturated with blood. Which of the following should you do next? a) Apply additional dressing material over the top of the original dressing and bandage it in place. b) Apply a tourniquet. c) Remove the saturated dressings and apply a large trauma dressing d) Apply an ice pack over the original dressing.

In cases of extreme hypothermia, you will find the patient unconscious, with no discernible vital signs, and skin cold to your touch with stiff joints as if they appear dead. What is the emergency care for these patients? a) Assess the carotid pulse for at least 60 seconds; if there is no pulse, start CPR immediately and prepare to apply the AED pads. b) Check distal CSM, apply warming packs to the extremities, and transport the patient. c) Call the coroner as indications are the patient is cold and deceased, which is a definitive sign of death d) Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient.

In which of the following circumstances should a helmet be removed? a) If the helmet interferes with airway management b) If the helmet fits so snugly that you cannot inspect the ears for the presence of blood or fluid c) If you suspect a skull fracture and need to palpate the head d) f you want to place a nasal cannula on the patient but cannot because his ears are covered by the helmet

In which of the following circumstances should a helmet be removed? a) Spinous process b) Dermatome c) Vertebrae d) Foramen magnum

In which of the following zones is the EMT expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? a) cold zone b) hot zone c) ground zero d) warm zone

Inexperienced ambulance drivers tend to ________ while driving with the siren operating. a) speed up b) stop c) pull to the left d) pull to the right

Looking at the following list, which of the items does NOT correctly compare the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia? a) The hypoglycemic patient usually complains of a headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient does not. b) Hyperglycemic patients often have warm, red, dry skin, whereas hypoglycemic patients have cold, pale, moist, or clammy skin c) The hyperglycemic patient often has acetone breath, whereas the hypoglycemic patient does not d) Hyperglycemia usually has a slower onset than hypoglycemia.

Many stroke patients are candidates for thrombolytic drugs. One of the most important things that an EMT can do to optimize the care of a stroke patient who is a candidate for the drugs is: a) determine the exact time of onset of symptoms. b) transport to the closest hospital because the patient must go to the operating room as soon as possible. c) do a thorough physical exam of the patient d) transport the patient to a Level I trauma center

Messages from the body to the brain are carried by which of the following types of nerves? a) sensory b) skeletal c) motor d) cranial

Multiple trauma and multisystem trauma patients are situations in which the EMT is expected to perform which of the following? a) Make decisions beyond what is usually called for. b) Provide the best quality care possible, including definitive care on scene c) Practice outside the scope of practice in order to provide the greatest good. d) Respond above and beyond the call of duty.

Normal maternal blood loss during delivery of an infant usually does not exceed how much? a) 500 cc b) 1000 cc c) 250 cc d) 100 cc

On arrival at a vehicle collision, you observe a small fire in the engine compartment. A bystander is attempting to smother the fire with a jacket as you approach with an A-B-C extinguisher from your ambulance. Which of the following is the best method of extinguishing the fire? a) Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out. b) Sweep the nozzle of the extinguisher left and right using short bursts until you are out of extinguishing agent c) Aim the nozzle to the side of the fire and, with a sweeping motion, push the fire at its base d) Close the hood to contain the fire within the engine compartment

Once access to the patient is gained, which of the following is the next goal during an auto extrication? a) Primary assessment and rapid trauma exam b) Extrication of the patient from the vehicle c) Disentanglement of the patient d) Stabilization of the vehicle

One of the more serious conditions that EMTs are confronted with would occur as follows: A fracture or crush injury causes bleeding and swelling within the extremity. Pressure and swelling caused by the bleeding within the muscle compartment become so great that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against the pressure. Cellular damage occurs and causes additional swelling. Blood flow to the area is lost. The limb itself may be lost if the pressure is not relieved. What is this condition called? a) Compartment syndrome b) Crushing syndrome c) Fracture syndrome d) Perfusing syndrome

Reducing the pain of a marine animal sting can be accomplished by rinsing the affected area with which of the following? a) Vinegar b) Sterile saline solution c) Cold water d) Gasoline or kerosene

Regarding drowning in adults, which of the following statements is true? a) The colder the water, the better the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning b) Water temperature makes no difference in the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning c) The warmer the water, the better the chances of survival in saltwater drowning. d) Colder water improves survival chances in saltwater drowning but not in freshwater drowning.

Signs and symptoms of alcohol abuse include all of the following except: a) an acetone or ketone odor to the breath. b) swaying and unsteadiness of movement. c) confusion. d) nausea and vomiting.

Supine hypotensive syndrome is easily prevented by transporting all third-trimester patients in which of the following positions? a) Lying on the left side b) Tilted slightly onto the right side c) On the hands and knees with the hips elevated d) Supine with the head lower than the hips

The bony bumps you feel along the center of a person's back are known as which of the following? a) Spinous process b) Dermatome c) Vertebrae d) Foramen magnum

The condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall is known as which of the following? a) Abruptio placentae b) Ectopic pregnancy c) Preeclampsia d) Placenta previa

The drug ecstasy is classified as what type of drug? a) hallucinogen b) depressant c) tranquilizer d) barbiturate

The medical term for fainting is a) syncope b) vertigo c) dehydration d) altered RAS status

The muscle contraction mechanism that moves an egg down the fallopian tube toward the uterus is the same mechanism that moves: a) food from the esophagus to the stomach b) air down the bronchial tubes to the alveoli c) sweat to the surface of the skin d) fluid into and out of the cell

The muscular organ in which a baby develops during pregnancy is called the: a) uterus b) placenta c) amniotic sac d) fetal membrane

The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) may last up to: a) 24 hours b) 1 hour c) 30 minutes

The sound or feeling of the ends of broken bones rubbing together is called: a) crepitus b) parethesia c) angulation d) deformity

The strong white fibrous material called the periosteum: a) covers the bones b) surrounds the heart. c) surrounds the abdominal cavity. d) protects the perineum.

The term blanching, used to describe localized cold injury, means the tissue has turned to which of the following colors? a) white b) red c) blue or purple d) black

To respond to a hazardous materials incident, the EMT should be trained at which level? a) awareness b) specialist c) operations d) technician

Upon delivering a patient to the emergency department, you remove your gloves and find that your hands are red and itchy. Which of the following is most likely? a) You are having an allergic reaction to the latex in the gloves b) You have been exposed to an infectious disease through contact with the patient. c) You have come into contact with poison ivy in the patient's yard d) ou are showing early signs of an anaphylactic reaction

Volatile chemicals are agents that are able to change easily from a ________ into a ________. a) liquid; gas b) solid; liquid c) gas; liquid d) solid; vapor

What are the three elements of the Revised Trauma Score? a) GCS, systolic blood pressure, and respiratory rate b) Level of consciousness, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate c) GCS, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate d) GCS, pulse rate, and respiratory rate

What is a drawback to using sterile aluminum foil as an occlusive dressing? a) The foil may lacerate eviscerated organs. b) A flutter valve is difficult to create with foil c) Sterility cannot be ensured unless the foil was autoclaved d) Foil cannot create an airtight seal.

What is epilepsy? a) A condition in which a person has multiple seizures usually controlled by medication b) A condition in which a person has an aura followed by seizure usually caused by infection c) A condition caused by congenital brain abnormalities that causes seizures only twice a year d) A condition in which a person has generalized seizures that start in childhood

What is the definition of multiple trauma? a) A trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury b) Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system c) A trauma in which there are multiple casualties d) A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies

What is the most important treatment for a patient who has inhaled a poison? a) Administer high-concentration oxygen b) Administer the correct antidote c) Administer activated charcoal. d) Administer epinephrine via auto-injector.

What source will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work site? a) safety data sheets b) bill of lading c) placard d) shipping manifest

When a chemical substance is taken for reasons other than therapeutic use, this action is called: a) substance abuse b) tolerance c) psychological dependence d) addiction

When a patient has a serious open wound to the neck, you are concerned about the possibility of an air embolism. The reason an air embolism can occur is because of: a) pressure in the large neck veins that is lower than atmospheric pressure b) the negative pressure in the chest c) the higher pressure in the vessels of the neck d) damage to the trachea.

When actively rewarming a frostbitten extremity in warm water, you should change the water when the temperature falls below ________ °F. a) 100 b) 60 c) 85 d) 115

When attempting to extinguish a fire inside the passenger compartment, it is important to: a) use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder b) aim the nozzle of the extinguisher away from the patient to avoid hitting the patient c) apply the extinguishing agent liberally to speed up the extinguishing process. d) resist the urge to extinguish the fire and focus on extricating any patients.

When blood accumulates between the brain and the dura mater, what is the result? a) Subdural hematoma b) Epidural contusion c) Epidural hematoma d) Subdural contusion

When deciding where to transport a patient who has internal bleeding or who has the potential for internal bleeding, which of the following is the most important service to be provided by the receiving hospital? a) immediate surgical capabilities b) rehabilitation services c) availability of a chaplain d) critical-care nursing

When extrication will involve cutting the roof off a vehicle, stabilization of the vehicle should include: a) deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems b) deflating all tires by slashing them c) placing wheel chocks on both sides of all wheels. d) placing chocks on both sides of at least two wheels

When placing cribbing: a) always squat, so you can move away quickly. b) kneel or squat as necessary. c) kneel on one knee only so you can move away quickly d) kneel on both knees for stabilization.

When seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials incident, which of the following information is important to provide? a) An estimate of the amount of the substance involved b) Your level of EMS certification c) Your background in chemistry

When several agencies work independently but cooperatively, rather than one agency exercising control over the others, this is called: a) unified command b) ICS c) single incident command d) NIMS

When submerged in water, biological death may be delayed if the water temperature is below ________°F.70 a) 70 b) 50 c) 98.6 d) 32

When using an AED, which of the following people is responsible for calling to "clear" the patient before delivering a shock? a) EMT operating the defibrillator b) EMT doing chest compressions c) EMT managing the airway d) EMT supervising bystanders

Where could you find the phalange bones? a) hands and feet b) legs c) arms d) skull and neck

Where is the decontamination corridor located where patients, personnel, and equipment are decontaminated? a) warm zone b) hot zone c) cool zone d) cold zone

Where should constricting bands be placed to reduce lymphatic flow after a venomous snake bite? a) 2 inches above and below the bite b) 4 inches above and below the bite c) Directly over the bite d) None of the above

Which body system is most likely to be affected by exposure to radiologic material? a) Central nervous system b) Respiratory system c) Urinary system d) Integumentary system

Which of the following BEST describes status epilepticus? a) Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciouness b) A period of drowsiness following tonic-clonic seizures c) A seizure that occurs without a known cause d) A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body

Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life support, even when EMTs in the community carry AEDs? a) Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation b) The patient may need medications to support his cardiac rhythm and blood pressure prior to attempting defibrillation. c) Before attempting defibrillation, it may be necessary to obtain a 12-lead ECG on the patient d) All of the above

Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies? a) OSHA and EPA b) NHTSA and NRC c) NAEMT and NHTSA d) DOT and FCC

Which of the following animals is the direct source of exposure to the bacterium that causes the plague in humans? a) fleas b) bees c) rats d) squirrels

Which of the following best defines domestic terrorism? a) Groups or individuals directing violent acts at their own population or government b) Acts of violence perpetrated by American citizens against the government of another country c) Politically motivated act of violence that occurs within the United States d) Interpersonal violence between family members

Which of the following best describes a difference between the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and the quick sepsis-related organ failure assessment (qSOFA)? a) SIRS is used to predict the likelihood a patient will develop sepsis, whereas qSOFA is used to predict the likelihood of patient death from sepsis. b) SIRS creates a score based on the number of abnormal findings, whereas qSOFA uses the presence of two or more specific criteria. c) SIRS relies on the measurement of exhaled carbon dioxide to detect sepsis, whereas qSOFA uses a variety of measures. d) SIRS is more commonly used in the intensive care setting, whereas qSOFA is more commonly used in field assessments.

Which of the following best describes the compartment syndrome? a) A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure b) A serious condition caused by the amount of equipment that must be carried in the ambulance compartments c) A non-life-threatening condition caused by orthopedic injuries in which blood flow is stopped when the bone ends compress the blood vessels d) A life-threatening condition caused by trapping the blood flow by a fracture when the bone ends cut the blood vessels

Which of the following best describes the term crowning? a) presenting part of the baby being visible at the vaginal opening b) Discharge of bloody mucus c) Delivery of the head during a breech birth, completing delivery d) Complete dilation of the cervix

Which of the following best explains the reason for minimizing scene time for the trauma patient with significant hemorrhage or the potential for significant hemorrhage? a) It is essential to get the shock patient to more definitive care. b) The clock for the "golden hour" of trauma begins at the time of your arrival. c) There is nothing the EMT can do for a patient in shock d) It gives the EMT less opportunity to make mistakes in the patient's care.

Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an adult? a) 80 mg/dL b) 180 mg/dL c) 40 mg/dL d) 150 mg/dL

Which of the following bones is found in the chest? a) sternum b) ilium c) tarsals d) metacarpals

Which of the following choices is not a justifiable reason for delaying transport of a critical trauma patient? a) Awaiting arrival of police on scene b) Suctioning the airway c) Ventilating a patient in respiratory distress d) Immobilizing the patient to a long spine board

Which of the following could worsen the effects of a snake bite? a) Application of ice b) Constricting bands above and below the bite c) Cutting and suctioning out the venom d) Having the patient lie still

Which of the following describes the proper application of an occlusive dressing for an open chest wound? a) Apply an occlusive dressing to each penetrating wound. b) Trim the dressing so that it is the exact size of the wound. c) Traditional gauze dressings create the best seal over open wounds d) Use a porous material such as a 4" by 4" gauze pad.

Which of the following describes vehicle glass that is designed to break into small pieces rather than shattering into sharp fragments? a) tempered glass b) plexiglass c) alloy glass d) leaded glass

Which of the following does not make infants and children more prone to hypothermia? a) Inefficient metabolism b) Little body fat c) Large body surface area d) Small muscle mass

Which of the following groups of people makes up the largest portion of the homeless population? a) veterans b) females c) families d) children

Which of the following increases a scuba diver's risk of decompression sickness? a) Flying within several hours after a dive b) Breathing 100% oxygen before a dive c) Taking cold or sinus medications before a dive d) Diving on a full stomach

Which of the following is a common sign and symptom in poisonings of all types? a) Nausea and vomiting b) Pain and diaphoresis c) Headache and diaphoresis d) Dizziness and palpitations

Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of dressings used in the prehospital management of most open wounds? a) sterile b) occlusive c) adherent d) absorbent

Which of the following is a general term for a substance to which the body may have an anaphylactic reaction? a) allergen b) antibody c) pyrogen d) pathogen

Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident Command? a) Command is most effective when one person is responsible for no more than seven other people b) Police, fire, and EMS must establish separate command locations c) The command location must not be revealed to anyone on the scene d) None of the above

Which of the following is a substance that will neutralize a poison or its effects? a) antidote b) deactivator c) antibody d) vaccine

Which of the following is a type of chemical weapon? a) Vesicants b) Bomb containing radioactive material c) Plastic explosives d) Bacterial toxin

Which of the following is acceptable in the management of a patient stung by a honey bee? a) Remove jewelry from any affected limbs b) Treat for shock if you see signs it is developing c) Take care not to pull the stinger out using tweezers d) Encourage the patient to move around.

Which of the following is adequate protection for the EMT's head while at the scene of an auto extrication? a) NFPA standard rescue helmet b) Nomex hood c) Watch cap d) Firefighting helmet

Which of the following is an action of insulin? a) It helps the movement of sugar from the bloodstream to the cell. b) It blocks the uptake of sugar by the body's cells c) It assists the transfer of sugar from the stomach and small intestine to the bloodstream. d) It increases the circulating level of glucose in the blood

Which of the following is another name for the condition of shock? a) hypoperfusion b) internal bleeding c) hemorrhage d) hypotension

Which of the following is appropriate when assessing an emotionally disturbed patient? a) Both A and B b) Establish eye and verbal contact. c) Use assertive body language to show you are in control. d) Listen to the patient without being judgmental.

Which of the following is appropriate when caring for a premature baby? a) Wrapping the infant in a blanket, covering his head, and keeping the temperature in the ambulance between 90°F and 100°F b) Encouraging family members to hold the infant c) Deeply suctioning the airway with a rigid tonsil-tip d) Applying high-concentration oxygen with a neonatal nonrebreather mask

Which of the following is not a benefit of splinting an injury to bones and connective tissues? a) It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling. b) It may prevent a closed injury from becoming an open injury. c) It reduces pain. d) It prevents neurological damage due to movement of bone ends or fragments

Which of the following is not a classification of localized cold injury? a) hypothermia b) frostnip c) frostbite d) all of the above

Which of the following is not a common field finding in spinal injuries? a) deformity b) pain with movement c) impaired breathing d) tenderness

Which of the following is not a phase of the extrication process? a) Simplification b) Disentanglement c) Gaining access to the patient d) Terminating the rescue

Which of the following is not a principle of splinting that must be considered by the EMT? a) Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination. b) Check the distal neurovascular function before and after splinting. c) Immobilize the site of an extremity injury from the joint above it to the joint below it. d) Splint an isolated extremity injury before moving the patient to the stretcher

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction involving the skin? a) cyanosis b) flushing c) itching d) hives

Which of the following is not an open tissue injury? a) contusion b) abrasion c) laceration d) avulsion

Which of the following is not part of the treatment for a 15-year-old female who has swallowed drain cleaner? a) Administer activated charcoal. b) Administer milk or water. c) Call medical control. d) Maintain the airway.

Which of the following is one of the most common characteristics of a stroke? a) weakness on one side of the body b) sudden, severe headache c) sudden onset of violent behavior d) projectile vomiting

Which of the following is the EMT's key role at the scene of an auto extrication? a) patient advocate b) rescue technician c) incident commander d) safety officer

Which of the following is the best initial intervention for a patient who has inhaled a poison? a) Provide a patent airway, ventilation, and high-concentration oxygen. b) Provide plenty of fresh air and monitor pulse oximetry readings c) Transport in a position of comfort and provide oxygen for patients with a decreased level of consciousness. d) Perform abdominal thrusts to clear the airway, followed by high-concentration oxygen.

Which of the following is the highest priority for the EMT when delivering an infant with meconium-stained amn a) Being prepared to suction the infant immediately before he takes a breath b) Vigorously rubbing the infant's back immediately upon delivery to stimulate breathing c) Checking for fever d) None of the above

Which of the following is the most important means of managing a patient who has inhaled a poison, after the airway has been established? a) High concentrations of oxygen b) Hyperventilation c) Administering a specific antidote d) Monitoring pulse oximetry

Which of the following is the most important thing you can do when treating patients during a public crisis related to a newly recognized infectious disease? a) Follow the recommendations of the CDC and your local health department b) Tell patients not to worry because new reports exaggerate the severity of these diseases c) Gather data about patient signs and symptoms and report them to the local health department. d) Share information with patients about the prevalence of the disease

Which of the following is the proper method of disposing of a used epinephrine auto-injector? a) Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container b) Bend the needle at an angle to prevent accidental punctures and place it in the trash c) Leave it at the scene for the patient or his family to dispose of d) Take it to the hospital for disposal in the emergency department

Which of the following is the reason why infants rarely experience anaphylactic reactions? a) Infants have not yet developed antibodies to allergens b) Infants have received natural immunity to allergens from their mothers before birth c) Allergens do not affect infants d) None of the above

Which of the following is true concerning a patient's reaction to toxic gases from smoke inhalation? a) Signs and symptoms may be delayed b) Inhalation of the toxic gases will cause cherry-red skin or lips c) The patient will present with vague, flulike symptoms d) If the patient is feeling fine, they do not need to see a physician.

Which of the following is true concerning parietal pain? a) It is generally localized to a particular area b) It is often described as "crampy" or "colicky." c) It arises from solid organs. d) It is usually intermittent in nature.

Which of the following is true concerning trauma in the pregnant woman? a) She may lose up to 35 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock b) She may lose up to 15 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock. c) The increase in blood volume during pregnancy makes shock an unlikely cause of death. d) The mother's body will preferentially protect the life of the fetus over that of the mother.

Which of the following is true regarding helicopter transport and safety? a) Helicopter crew should direct the loading of the patient. b) Approach a parked helicopter from the uphill side when the aircraft is on a hill. c) Keep traffic and vehicles at least 30 feet from the helicopter. d) Always walk around the back of the helicopter near the tail rotor.

Which of the following may result from the application of a cervical collar that is too large for the patient? a) Hyperextension of the neck b) Excessive lateral movement of the mandible c) Rotation of the head and neck d) Hyperflexion of the neck

Which of the following measures can the EMT take to create a safer extrication scene? a) Setting up road flares every 10 feet for a safe distance to divert traffic away from the collision b) Setting up road flares around hazards such as spilled fuel c) Dropping road flares from the ambulance as you are approaching the scene d) Both B and C

Which of the following most affects the extent of damage a poison does to the body? a) Patient's age, weight, and general health b) Patient's race, age, and medications taken c) Patient's genetics, height, and medications taken d) Patient's nutritional status, genetics, and strength of the immune system

Which of the following organs is located in the retroperitoneal space? a) kidneys b) uterus c) stomach d) liver

Which of the following patients should have an automated external defibrillator applied? a) A 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic b) A 6-month-old in severe respiratory distress c) A 67-year-old man with severe, crushing chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin d) A 40-year-old female in cardiac arrest due to chest injuries sustained in a motor vehicle crash

Which of the following phases of extrication follows the other three phases? a) Immobilizing and extricating the patient b) Gaining access to the patient c) Recognizing and managing hazards d) Stabilizing the vehicle

Which of the following serious health problems is related to homelessness? a) tuberculosis b) heart disease c) hypertension d) liver disease

Which of the following should be used to protect a patient during extrication? a) goggles b) plastic blanket c) netting d) none of the above

Which of the following statements about treating a patient who appears to be in shock is false? a) Spend time on scene to correct the causes of the shock so it does not worsen. b) Airway management is a top priority c) The patient should be promptly put on high-concentration oxygen. d) Prompt transportation is a very high priority

Which of the following statements is not true concerning a pelvic wrap? a) It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock b) It can be used if the pelvis shows instability c) It can be used if the pelvis shows deformity. d) You can consider its use based on mechanism of injury (MOI).

Which of the following statements is not true concerning the proper transport of an avulsed ear? a) It should be in a dry sterile dressing b) It should not be immersed in cooled water or saline. c) It should be kept as cool as possible d) It should be labeled with the patient's name, as well as the date and time it was bagged

Which of the following substances may be ordered by medical control to dilute a poison? a) milk or water b) water with syrup of ipecac c) milk of magnesia citrate d) milk or milk of magenisa

Which of the following terms refers to the delivery of oxygen and nutrients and the removal of wastes at the body's cellular level? a) perfusion b) cardiopulmonary response c) compensation d) circulation

Which of the following trauma triage criteria would justify transportation to a trauma center based on mechanism of injury alone? a) Auto versus pedestrian b) Intrusion into the occupant area greater than 8 inches c) Vehicle crash-generated telemetry data d) Vehicle rollover

Which of the following traumatic conditions could account for signs and symptoms of a behavioral emergency? a) Hemorrhage b) Partial thickness burn c) Fractured tibia d) Fractured lumbar vertebra

Which of the following vessels contain blood under the highest amount of pressure? a) arteries b) veins c) capillaries d) venules

Which of the following vessels has thick muscular walls that allow constriction and dilation? a) arteries b) capillaries c) veins d) lymphatic vessels

Which one of the following patients would justify the need to directly transport to a trauma center based on special patient considerations? a) A pregnant female in the third trimester who is spotting (showing small amounts of vaginal bleeding) following a low mechanism of injury MVC b) An elderly patient who slipped out of her wheelchair and is complaining of pelvic pain c) An unlicensed teenage driver who has a pulse rate of 120 after a MVC and a 4 minute EMS response d) An end-stage renal disease (ERSD) patient who tripped and fell and is complaining of shoulder pain on the same side as his shunt

While caring for a patient known to have hepatitis B, you are splattered across the face with blood. You were not wearing eye protection at the time and some of the blood got onto your eyeball. You have never received your hepatitis B vaccination. Which of the following postexposure actions would not lower your risk of developing hepatitis B? a) Taking antiviral medication b) Having the vaccination c) Washing your eye with water d) Receiving immune globulin

While performing night operations, which of the following combinations of lights provide maximum visibility? a) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON b) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights ON, fog lights ON, and traffic directional boards ON c) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights ON, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON d) Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards OFF

Why are infants and young children more prone to hypothermia than adults? a) They have less fat than adults b) They shiver more than adults c) They are unable to recognize how cold they are d) Their immune system is not fully developed.

Why is it important to keep patients at rest when they are hypothermic? a) Because the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold b) Because the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold c) Because the blood is warmest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the war d) None of the above.

You are assessing a 30-year-old male patient that had his arm caught in a piece of machinery. By the time you arrive, he has been freed. The patient tells you that he does not understand why you were called, but as you inspect the injured limb you notice a small puncture wound. You should have a high index of suspicion of which of the following injuries? a) high-pressure injection b) puncture c) chemical burn d) crush injury

You are at the scene of a vehicle collision and have found that there is one patient who is in stable condition. At this point, the call can be categorized as: a) no longer a true emergency. b) a non-incident c) an unfounded call d) triaged.

You are beginning triage at the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which a commuter train has derailed. Which of the following should you do first? a) Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building. b) Identify all Priority 1 patients c) Do a quick pulse check on all patients at the scene d) Check the airway status of all patients who do not appear to be moving.

You are called for a possible imminent delivery. Your patient is a 15-year-old girl who is, by your estimation, about 8 months pregnant. She tells you that she has been hiding her pregnancy. You are especially concerned about problems she might have during the delivery. Which of the following are findings indicate that there may be a need for neonatal resuscitation? a) The mother has not had prenatal care b) The mother's water has already broken c) The mother does not intend to breastfeed d) The mother has a blood pressure of 130/82.

You are called to a residence for a 50-year-old male complaining of difficulty breathing. He is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. The patient presents with hives over the chest, stridor, a swollen tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He is breathing 32 times per minute. He is speaking in two- to three-word sentences. What is the best treatment for the patient? a) Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control b) Rapid transport to the nearest facility c) Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask d) Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask

You are called to the local park on a hot summer day for an 8-year-old child in respiratory distress. The child can barely speak and appears to be getting sleepy. Vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 120, and respiratory rate 32. Your physical exam reveals a swollen tongue, inspiratory stridor, wheezing, and hives on the neck and chest. What condition do you suspect? a) anaphylaxis b) heat exhaustion c) allergic reaction d) asthma

You are called to the scene of a 17-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her mother suspects that she tried to commit suicide by taking her pain pills. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, has agonal respirations, and has vomited. She has a weak carotid pulse. After securing the airway and providing oxygen by bag-valve mask, what is your next action? a) Perform a secondary assessment of the patient b) Perform a focused assessment. c) Question the mother about the patient's suicidal tendencies. d) . Ask the mother the name of her pain medication.

You are dispatched to a motorcycle crash with one patient involved. What on-scene intervention is inappropriate for this patient? a) Extensively splint the patient's injuries. b) Suction vomit and secretions from the airway c) Manually stabilizing the cervical spine. d) Begin chest compressions.

You are dispatched to a suicide attempt. You arrive to find a 16-year-old who is extremely agitated and pacing up and down in the living room of his house. Apparently, he threatened to go out, get a gun, and shoot himself. His parents called it in as an attempted suicide. The scene is safe and there are apparently no weapons accessible to the patient. Which of the following would not be appropriate in caring for this patient? a) Make certain the patient gets between you and the door. The patient should always feel he has an escape route. b) Always be on the watch for weapons c) Do not take any action that may be considered threatening by the patient; doing so may bring about hostile behavior directed against you or others. d) Do not isolate yourself from your partner or other sources of help

You are en route to the trauma center with a patient who was injured when he was thrown from a horse. You suspect multiple trauma injuries including a closed head injury. You will monitor his mental status using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) per your protocols. Which of the following will you check? a) Eye opening, motor response, and verbal response b) Motor response, verbal response, and attentiveness c) Verbal responses, motor skills, and mental status d) Speech patterns, motor patterns, and mental status

You are examining a 24-year-old female patient with lower quadrant abdominal pain. What is the most lethal possibility? a) ectopic pregnancy b) pelvic inflammatory disease c) cholecystitis d) menstrual irregularity

You are on an EMS standby for a boxing tournament. During one of the matches, one of the female boxers delivers a forcible uppercut to the chest of her opponent, who falls to the ground. The match is declared over on the basis of a TKO. However, the opponent fails to arise following a 1- to 2-minute interval. EMS is summoned to the ring. You find the patient pulseless and breathing agonal gasps. You suspect which of the following traumatic conditions? a) Commotio Cordis b) tension pneumothorax c) aortic dissection d) cardiac tamponade

You are on the scene of a 40-year-old male patient who is anaphylactic and still unresponsive following a single epinephrine injection. Prior to giving the injection, you inserted an oral airway and administered oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask and your partner found diminished lung sounds. Following the epinephrine administration, your partner reassesses lung sounds and tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields. What is the next action you should perform? a) Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine. b) Hyperventilate the patient. c) Discontinue bagging the patient d) Place the patient on a nonrebreather mask.

You are on the scene of a church bus roll-over collision. There are 30 passengers involved. As triage officer, which one of the following patients should you assign the highest priority? a) 70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side b) Unresponsive 9-year-old male with an open skull fracture who is in cardiac arrest c) 35-year-old pregnant woman with a cut on her head, neck pain, and numbness and tingling in her arms d) 30-year-old man with multiple lower extremity fractures who is awake, has a strong radial pulse, and is complaining of severe pain

You are the first on the scene of a 72-year-old patient in cardiac arrest. You have your medical supply kit, oxygen, and an AED. At least 4 to 5 minutes of high-quality CPR has been provided by the police officer who arrived before you. You have confirmed an open airway, apnea, and pulselessness. Which of the following should you do next? a) Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated. b) Contact medical direction before taking any action c) Perform one-rescuer CPR until additional personnel arrive d) Perform bag-valve mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen for 30 seconds before applying the defibrillator pads.

You are transporting a patient who is experiencing frequent discharges of her automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). You are caring for the patient in the back of the ambulance en route to the hospital. To protect yourself from being shocked if the defibrillator discharges, you should: a) not worry; the defibrillator does not pose a danger to others b) limit direct contact with the patient c) wear protective gloves that cannot conduct electricity d) make sure you do not touch the patient directly.

You have been called for a 32-year-old female who is in active labor. During your assessment and interview, you note that she is 37 weeks along, this is her first child, and her contractions are 5 minutes apart. She also tells you that her pregnancy is considered "high risk." Your first concern should be: a) getting to the hospital. b) assembling your delivery kit. c) calling for a back-up unit. d) preparing for the delivery

You have been called to the scene of a single vehicle crash. The victim lost control of the vehicle on an icy road and hit a tree. He shows signs of facial injury with bleeding, but is conscious and aware of his surroundings. Before you begin providing care to him, he tells you that he has HIV and is currently taking medication that has helped suppress his viral load. Based on this information, which of the following actions should you take? a) Take Standard Precautions while providing care for the patient b) Avoid direct contact with the patient but provide him with dressings he can apply himself c) Call medical direction and ask how you should proceed d) Provide care without using precautions because his viral load is suppressed.

You have responded to a local pool for a drowning patient. Lifeguards have pulled the patient out of the pool prior to your arrival. You find a 22-year-old male patient unresponsive with agonal respirations and a weak carotid pulse. Bystanders state the patient was not using the diving board and was found in the shallow end. Why are cervical spine precautions necessary? a) The patient may have suffered a spinal injury by jumping in shallow water b) The patient may have hit his head on the side wall while swimming laps. c) The patient may have suffered a cervical spine injury when pulled out of the water d) The patient may have been using the diving board after all and injured his cervical spine

You have responded to a woman who has possible premature labor. She is 8 months pregnant and is experiencing labor pains. During your assessment, you note that the baby is not yet crowning. You need to determine whether delivery is imminent or not. You should next: a) time her contractions. b) check the level of the fundus c) check for cervical dilation. d) complete a set of vital signs.

You respond to a 32-year-old male who fell 20 feet off a ladder. He is responsive to painful stimuli. He has snoring respirations at 20 a minute with decent chest rise and fall. He has a broken femur, a broken wrist, and a lacerated radial artery that is bleeding profusely. Which of these injuries is the highest priority? a) Arterial bleed b) Broken wrist c) Snoring respirations d)femur fracture

You respond to a 75-year-old female who is complaining of epigastric pain that feels like heartburn and radiates to the right shoulder. Her vital signs are stable and she has a previous history of myocardial infarction. She has prescription nitroglycerine tablets. An ALS unit is en route. After performing a physical examination and applying oxygen by nasal cannula, you should: a) contact medical control regarding the administration of the patient's nitroglycerin b) cancel the ALS unit: this is just gallstones and BLS can transport c) apply the AED and prepare for imminent cardiac arrest from a myocardial infarction d) transport the patient in the supine position for shock

You respond to a call for a patient in active labor with her second child. Your interview with the patient shows that she is 40 weeks pregnant and has been in active labor for several hours. You determine that her vital signs are all within normal limits. After your physical exam, you determine the baby is crowning. You should next: a) prepare to deliver the baby on-scene. b) contact medical direction for orders. c) delay delivery until arrival at the hospital d) begin transport and plan to deliver in the ambulance.

You respond to a local swim park for a 29-year-old male who was stung by a bee and "passed out." Upon arrival, you find the patient unresponsive to all stimuli with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. You insert an oral airway and administer oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask. You notice that it is difficult to bag the patient. Your partner listens to lung sounds and states they are very diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower fields. What is the best action? a) Request orders from medical control to administer epinephrine. b) Request an ALS unit. c) Request orders from medical control for an emergency cricothyroidotomy d) Hyperventilate the patient.

You respond to the scene of a 50-year-old male complaining of severe abdominal pain. He has a history of alcohol and drug abuse. His vital signs are stable and he presents with epigastric pain that radiates to the back. He has guarding and point tenderness in the upper quadrants. You suspect: a) pancreatitis b) myocardial infarction c) gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) d) cholecystitis

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision involving a small pickup truck that struck the rear of a moving tractor-trailer. The driver of the tractor-trailer is walking around and complains of neck pain. The driver of the pickup truck is conscious but cannot exit the vehicle because the door is stuck and the steering wheel is displaced onto his lap. The passenger of the pickup truck is sitting upright in the passenger seat, is unconscious, but has radial pulses. Access to the passenger is not obstructed. A fourth patient, who was sitting in the pickup truck bed, is found about 10 feet away and responds to commands appropriately. Assuming your ambulance is the only emergency vehicle on the scene currently, which of the following patients should be packaged for transport first by the next arriving ambulance? a) Passenger in the pickup truck's front seat b) Pickup truck driver c) Passenger ejected from the pickup truck bed d) Tractor trailer driver

Your patient has a history of severe anaphylaxis and carries several auto-injectors. You have administered one of the auto-injectors, but the patient's condition continues to worsen. Which of the following is the next best course of action? a) Contact medical control. b) Divert transport to a hospital with critical care capabilities. c) Immediately administer a second auto-injector. d) Continue supportive care en route to the hospital.

Your patient has sustained a serious laceration to his neck. He appears to have lost a lot of blood, and you are considering how you will control the bleeding. Your primary treatment should be to: a) place your gloved hand over the wound before placing an occlusive dressing b) pack the wound with bulky dressings while avoiding placing pressure on the wound c) apply a dry, sterile dressing to the wound and then wrap with gauze d) transport the patient immediately in the supine position

Your patient is a 16-year-old centerfielder on his high school baseball team. He was injured when he and the left fielder collided trying to catch a fly ball. He is disoriented and is unable to tell you what happened. His vital signs are pulse 88, blood pressure 132/86, respiratory rate 16, and pupils equal. As you assess his head, you do not see any cuts or bleeding, but you feel a spongy, depressed area over his left ear. You should suspect a(n): a) open head injury b) laceration injury c) closed head injury d) indirect injury

Your patient is a 16-year-old male who was ejected from an all-terrain vehicle and struck his head on a large rock. He was not wearing a helmet. He is unresponsive with shallow, irregular respirations; a blood pressure of 170/110 mmHg; and a heart rate of 50 beats per minute. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate? a) Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate via bag-valve mask at 10 to 12 breaths per minute b) Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) and ventilate via bag-valve mask (BVM) at 30 breaths per minute c) Insert an oropharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 10 lpm. d) Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask (NRB) at 15 lpm

Your patient is a 17-year-old with a history of asthma. She is complaining of pain in her lower abdomen. Assessment reveals that her breath sounds are clear and equal, she has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 96 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 112/74 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? a) Provide high-concentration oxygen b) Insert a nasopharyngeal airway in the patient's nose c) Assist the patient in the administration of her metered-dose inhaler d) Have the patient breathe into a paper bag to rebreathe some of her carbon dioxide

Your patient is a 25-year-old female with a history of diabetes. She is confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present illness, which of the following should you suspect as the likely cause of the patient's presentation? a) Failure to intake sufficient sugar b) Excessive intake of foods high in sugar, such as soda or candy c) Failure to take her insulin d) A nondiabetic-related problem, such as a head injury or mental illness

Your patient is a 25-year-old man who picked up an iron skillet with a very hot handle. He has a reddened area with blisters across the palm of his hand. Which of the following must be avoided in the prehospital management of this wound? a) Application of antibiotic ointment b) Application of a dry sterile dressing c) Keeping the site clean d) Removing rings

Your patient is a 28-year-old male who was ejected from his motorcycle after striking a parked vehicle. He has multiple deformities to his upper and lower extremities on both sides. Which of the following would be the best way to immobilize this patient's extremities prior to transport? a) Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually b) Use moldable splints for the upper and lower extremities, padding any voids to fully stabilize the fractures c) Use traction splints for the lower extremities and allow the upper extremities to be immobilized by the long backboard. d) Use padded board splints for the upper extremities and a PASG for the lower extremities.

Your patient is a 35-year-old woman who was driving a minivan that was struck in the driver's side door by another vehicle. You notice that when you apply pressure to her sternum with your knuckles she extends her legs and flexes her arms and wrists. When giving your radio report, which of the following terms should you use to describe this? a) posturing b) Cushing reflex c) tonic-clonic activity d) Battle sign

Your patient is a 40-year-old male who has been exposed to a dry chemical powder and is complaining of severe pain on both of his hands, the site of the contact. He is working in an illegal chemical manufacturing plant and there is no decontamination shower on site. Which of the following would be the best way to manage this situation? a) Brush away as much of the powder as possible and then have the patient hold his hands under running water from a faucet or regular garden hose. b) Have the fire department connect to a hydrant and spray down the patient from head to toe. c) Brush away the powder and bandage the hands in a position of function d) Brush away as much powder as possible and then pour a bottle of sterile saline solution over his hands.

Your patient is a 45-year-old female who is allergic to sesame seeds, which she accidentally ingested when she ate a deli sandwich. She is having difficulty breathing and she has hives, watery eyes, a weak pulse of 120 per minute, and swelling of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the best course of immediate action? a) Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector b) Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) c) Transport immediately d) Contact dispatch to see where the closest ALS unit is.

Your patient is a 55-year-old male who was found in the parking lot behind a tavern. He states that he was assaulted and robbed by three individuals. He is complaining of being "hit in the face and kicked and punched in his ribs and stomach." Your examination reveals contusions and swelling around both eyes, bleeding from the nose, a laceration of his upper lip, and multiple contusions of the chest, abdomen, and flanks. Which of the following should cause the greatest concern regarding the prehospital care of this patient? a) The potential for serious internal damage b) The presence of any defensive wounds the patient may have sustained c) Reducing the swelling around his eyes by applying a cold pack d) The possibility of commotio cordis

Your patient is a 55-year-old male who was found in the parking lot behind a tavern. He states that he was assaulted and robbed by three individuals. He is complaining of being "hit in the face and kicked and punched in my ribs and stomach." Your examination reveals contusions and swelling around both eyes, bleeding from the nose, a laceration of his upper lip, and multiple contusions of the chest, abdomen, and flanks. Which of the following should cause the greatest concern regarding the prehospital care of this patient? a) Potential internal injuries b) The swelling around his eyes, which may be reduced by applying a cold pack c) Getting a description of the assailants d) The presence of any defensive wounds the patient may have sustained

Your patient is a 6-year-old child who has fallen down while running on a sidewalk. She has abrasions on both knees and the palms of both hands, which are oozing blood. This is an example of bleeding from which of the following types of vessels? a) capillaries b) arteries c) venules d) veins

Your patient is a 7-year-old male who ate an unknown type of mushroom on a dare by his friends. You should ask all of the following questions except: a) Why did you eat the mushroom? b) When did you eat the mushroom? c) How much did you eat? d) Are there any more of the mushrooms?

Your patient is a 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior. Upon your arrival you introduce yourself to the patient, who responds, "Not until nine o'clock." This phenomenon is BEST described as: a) receptive aphasia b) disorientation to time c) unresponsive to verbal stimuli d) expressive aphasia

Your patient is an unresponsive 30-year-old male wearing a Medic-Alert bracelet indicating that he is a diabetic. The patient's coworkers came by his house to check on him when he did not show up for work and did not call in sick. Your assessment does not clearly indicate to you whether the patient may be hypoglycemic or hyperglycemic. Which of the following should you do next? a) Apply oxygen and begin transport without taking further action b) Use your glucometer to check his blood sugar level. c) Administer oral glucose, as it will not cause additional harm in hyperglycemia but may prevent brain damage if the patient is hypoglycemic. d) Use the patient's glucometer to check his blood sugar level.

Your patient is exhibiting bizarre and aggressive behavior; he starts shouting and becomes violent. He has extra strength and appears insensitive to pain. Drug paraphernalia is visible on-scene. This behavior is known as: a) excited delirium b) delusions c) sensory excitement. d) chemical delirium

Your patient is waking up from a seizure; it was the patient's first seizure ever. When you ask what happened, the patient tells you she had the smell of fresh mown grass just before she seized. This sensation is known as a(n): a) aura b) clonic phase c) postictal phase d) tonic phase

A 17-year-old girl was injured when her car was struck from behind while she was stopped at a red light. She is complaining of a headache with neck and back pain. You suspect she has sustained a(n): a) extension injury b) whiplash injury. c) compression fracture d) distraction injury.

A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again. When you attempt to splint the shoulder, it "pops back into place." What should your next step be? a) Report the popping sound to the receiving physician when you arrive at the hospital. b) Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient. c) Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient d) Check distal CSM, apply a traction splint, and transport the patient.

A patient has a dry powder poison covering both upper extremities and chest. You should: a) cover the patient's arms with a burn sheet to preserve the powder for the emergency room b) brush the powder off and irrigate the contaminated area with large amounts of water. c) immediately wash the powder off to prevent further exposure. d) flush the area with large amounts of water and then brush the remaining poison off.

A patient uses a home ventilator connected to his tracheostomy tube to breathe. Which of the following is the correct procedure to use when moving this patient to the ambulance? a) Ventilate the patient's nose and mouth with a bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator. b) Ventilate the patient's tracheostomy tube via a connected bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator. c) Ventilate the patient with mouth-to-mask ventilations at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator d) Do nothing; there is no need to ventilate the patient between the house and the ambulance

A patient-carrying device should have at least ________ straps to hold the patient securely a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 1

A respiratory rate of less than ________ or greater than ________ in cases of trauma is a criterion for immediate transportation to a trauma center according to the CDC physiologic guidelines. a) 5; 45 b) 10; 29 c) 12; 20 d) 8; 32

A suspected musculoskeletal injury of the shoulder is best managed by which of the following techniques? a) Placing two long padded board splints on either side of the extremity, extending from the shoulder to the wrist b) Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body c) Using an upper extremity traction splint d) Using a long-arm air splint

A wound in which the epidermis is scraped away with minimal bleeding, such as commonly occurs when a child falls on his knees on a sidewalk, is called a(n): a) avulsion b) abrasion c) laceration d) contusion

According to the rule of nines for infants and young children, the patient's head and neck account for what percentage of the total body surface area? a) 14 percent b) 18 percent c) 1 percent d) 9 percent

After activating the EpiPen auto-injector, how long should it be held in place before removing it from the patient's thigh? a) 30 seconds b) 10 seconds c) it should be removed from the injection site immediately d) 1 minutes

All of the following are elements of adult high-performance CPR, EXCEPT: a) compression rate of at least 100 per minute b) compressing the patient's chest to no more than 1 inch in depth before allowing full relaxation. c) placing the heel of one hand on the center of the victim's chest d) maintaining a 2:30 ratio of ventilations to compressions

All of the following are general rules for dealing with a psychiatric patient except: a) make eye contact with the patient. b) do not be judgmental; instead, show pity, because he needs to know that you understand him. c) speak slowly and clearly, and use a calm and reassuring tone d) listen to the patient, showing you are listening by repeating part of what the patient says back to him

All of the following are signs of adequate breathing and circulation in the newborn except: a) heart rate greater than 100 b) relaxation of the extremities. c) vigorous crying d) cyanosis of only the hands and feet.

An area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident and on the same level is a good locatio a) treatment zone b) safe zone c) hot zone d) danger zone

An injury caused by heavy pressure to the tissues, such as when an extremity is trapped under a fallen tree, that results in damage to underlying structures, bleeding, and inflammation is called a(n): a) abrasion b) crush injury c) contusion d) avulsion

Andrea is an EMS supervisor with a combined EMS/Fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she acts as a liaison with federal, state, and local authorities. Andrea's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. a) Hazardous Materials Technician b) Hazardous Materials Specialist c) First Responder Awareness d) First Responder Operations

As it pertains to hazardous materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to: a) ensure there is at least one person on-site trained at the technician level b) document the appropriate level of training for each employee c) train employees to handle any type of hazardous materials incident d) have knowledge of all hazardous materials on the premises

As pressure within the cranium increases, which of the following is the result? a) Increased blood pressure, increased pulse b) Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse c) Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse d) Decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse

At 0330, you respond to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. What organization could you contact to obtain information about the liquid the truck is carrying? a) CHEM-TEL b) CHEMTREC c) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) d) Regional poison control center

At which point may manual stabilization of the cervical spine be terminated? a) After a short immobilization device has been applied b) When the patient is secured to a long backboard c) After a cervical collar has been applied d) Only when directed to do so by medical control

Bariatrics is defined as the branch of medicine that deals with the cause, prevention, and treatment of which of the following diseases? a) diabetes b) obesity c) sleep apnea d) blindness

Biologic warfare is most effective when the agent can gain access through which of the following routes? a) blood b) respiratory tract c) skin d) gastrointestinal tract

Blunt and penetrating injuries can damage chambers of the heart or cause conditions like: a) ventricular fibrillation b) pericardial tamponade c) ventricular tachycardia d) asphyxial cardiac arrest

By definition, a premature infant is one who is born before how many weeks of pregnancy? a) 40 b) 37 c) 34 d) 28

Chloe was born with a cardiac problem that she will have to manage the rest of her life. This disease is considered a) acquired b) congenital c) autoimmune d) genetic

Cold is sometimes used to help control bleeding. When using cold, the following guidelines and statements are true except: a) it should not be used alone but rather in conjunction with other manual techniques. b) it should be applied directly to the skin and will not be effective if anything is between the cold agent and the wound. c) it should not be left in place for more than 20 minutes. d) it will reduce pain.

Common signs and symptoms following an injury to a hollow abdominal organ include: a) absence of unilateral pulses. b) irritation and peritonitis c) . massive hemorrhage d) increasing intrathoracic pressures. Question 330 / 1 point

Concerning attempted suicide, which of the following statements is true? a) Attempted suicide is a matter for law enforcement, not EMS. b) All suicide attempts must be taken seriously c) There is always an indication that a suicide attempt is imminent. d) Truly suicidal patients nearly always leave a note.

EMTs may come across a situation where a patient begins to act extremely agitated or psychotic. Uncontrolled psychiatric illness and sometimes drug intoxication may be present. The patient may suddenly cease struggling, and often within minutes the patient develops inadequate or absent respirations and subsequently dies. It is important for the EMT to be alert for this sequence of events in a patient who exhibits this behavior and monitor the patient constantly throughout the call. This condition is called: a) bipolar disorder. b) excited or agitated delirium c) excited psychosis d) psychotic delirium

Full immobilization of a trauma patient, including placing a cervical collar and securing the patient to a backboard, should take place at which of the following points in time? a) En route to the hospital b) Before moving the patient to the ambulance c) Before the primary assessment d) After checking for cervical range of motion

Gamma hydroxybutyrate (GHB) is an example of which of the following types of drugs? a) volatile spirit b) depressant c) stimulant d) cannabis

Heat stroke is caused by which of the following mechanisms? a) Extreme dilation of all the blood vessels b) Failure of temperature regulation mechanisms c) Blockage of blood flow to the brain d) Heat-induced swelling of brain tissue

How does carbon monoxide cause toxic effects? a) Prevents red blood cells from releasing carbon dioxide b) Prevents red blood cells from carrying oxygen c) Causes red blood cells to clump together d) Prevents the blood from clotting

If the blood sugar level is very high, which of the following may result? a) Excessive insulin, excessive glucose, and excessive urination b) Excessive urination, excessive thirst, and excessive hunger c) Hyperactivity, excessive thirst, and polyuria d) Polyuria and hyperactivity

If the steering wheel must be displaced during extrication and the airbag has not deployed, which of the following actions is recommended by airbag manufacturers? a) Firmly strike the hub of the steering wheel with a mallet to deactivate the airbag before displacing the steering wheel b) Disconnect the battery cables c) No action is required; only frontal impact will deploy airbags d) Secure a long backboard across the steering wheel to deflect the airbag from the patient should it deploy

Immediate effects of alcohol are due to effects on which body system? a) gastrointestinal system b) central nervous system c) cardiovascular system d) respiratory system

In what position should the patient complaining of severe abdominal pain be placed if there are no signs or symptoms of shock? a) left lateral recumbent b) one of comfort c) supine with feet elevated d) Semi-Fowler with knees bent

In which of the following situations would a person lose heat by conduction? a) Wearing wet clothing in windy weather b) Breathing c) Sitting on cold metal bleachers at a football game d) Going outside without a coat during a cold but calm day

In which of the following ways does cardiac arrest in children differ from cardiac arrest in adults? a) Ventricular fibrillation is not common in adults b) Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure c) Cardiac arrest in adults is more likely to be due to respiratory failure d) Ventricular fibrillation is common in children

Localized cold injury occurs due to vasoconstriction and: a) loss of calcium. b) ice crystal formation in the tissues c) blood clots d) chemical imbalance in the tissues

Many diabetics today have an insulin pump. Which of the following statements about insulin pumps is NOT true? a) They are usually worn on the belt. b) They are usually worn around the ankle c) They have a catheter that enters into the abdomen or thigh d) They are about the size of a deck of cards.

Most radiant heat is lost through which part(s) of the body? a) Hands and feet b) Head and neck c) Torso d) Buttocks

Obesity is defined as a body mass index greater than: a) 35 b) 30 c) 25 d) 40

Of the following venomous snakes, which one usually has the highest incidence of a "dry bite"? a) Water moccasin b) Coral snake c) Copperhead d) Rattlesnake

Once you have established with reasonable certainty that your patient is suffering from a behavioral emergency, which of the following is the best course of action? a) Establish the best way to restrain the patient before he has the opportunity to become violent b) Attempt to determine whether there is a possible physical cause for the patient's behavior. c) There is no need to assess for medical conditions if the patient does not have a history of past medical problems. d) Begin intense individual counseling with the patient.

One of the greatest hazards associated with EMS highway operations is a) sharp objects b) traffic flow c) power lines. d) explosion.

Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This is known as driving: a) as a public servant b) with due regard. c) defensively. d) with emergency privilege

OxyContin is an example of which of the following types of drugs? a) Appetite suppressant b) narcotic c) antidepressant d) barbiturate

Pain felt in the epigastric region of the abdomen is of concern because of the possibility of which of the following? a) kidney stones b) myocardial infarction c) extreme diarrhea with dehydration d) influenza

Pain that originates in an organ, such as the intestines, is called ________ pain. a) visceral b) acute c) referred d) parietal

Signs that identify the hazardous material contained within a transport vehicle are called: a) indicators b) placards c) panels d) warnings

Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) is a system that relies on some simple commands and what three physiologic parameters? a) Respiration, pain, and mental status b) Respiration, pulse, and mental status c) Circulation, sensory, and motor status d) Respiration, sensory, and motor status

Stabilizing a vehicle is unnecessary when a vehicle is on its roof with: a) the trunk lid in contact with the ground b) all roof supports collapsed c) the vehicle horizontal and resting entirely on the roof. d) the front edge of the hood in contact with the ground.

Studies have shown that drivers of other vehicles do not usually see or hear ambulances or other emergency vehicles until they are within ________ feet of it. a) 250 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200

Terrorist incidents typically involve all of the following agents except: a) nuclear agents. b) allergens c) biologic agents. d) explosives

Tests have shown that ________ ambulance operators tend to speed up by 10 to 15 miles per hour when the siren is sounding. a) privately employed b) inexperienced c) all d) experienced

The PASG may be used as a splinting device for patients with which of the following suspected injuries? a) None of the above b) Fractured pelvis c) Hip dislocation d) Compression fracture of the lumbar or sacral spine

The best way for a terrorist to weaponize and disseminate a chemical nerve agent to expose a large number of people would be to: a) throw a Molotov cocktail loaded with nerve agent into a windshield of a passenger bus b) steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolize the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision. c) put it in a paper bag in a crowded mall and puncture the bag with a stick d) throw a paper bag loaded with nerve agent onto a busy subway train

The condition in which there is an insufficient amount of sugar in the blood is called: a) hyperglycemia b) hypoglycemia c) tachycardia d) diabetic ketoacidosis

The mechanism of injury in which a patient's chest has struck an immovable object, such as a steering wheel, may most accurately be described as a(n): a) penetrating injury b) compression injury c) open chest injury d) tension pneumothorax

The most common fatal primary injury from a blast is a) a liver laceration b) a lung injury c) an extremity fracture d) an impaled object

The most common form of hemostatic agent is: a) granules b) gauze or dressings c) discs d) powders

The most common medical emergency for the diabetic is hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. Which of the factors below is NOT a cause of hypoglycemia? a) Takes too much insulin b) Reduces sugar intake by eating too much c) Over-exercises or over-exerts himself d) Vomits a meal

The technique for central rewarming requires the application of heat to which of the following areas of the patient's body? a) Head, neck, chest, and back b) Lateral chest, neck, armpits, and groin c) Head, neck, chest, and groin d) Chest, back, neck, and armpits

The term for a baby developing inside the mother's womb after 8 weeks is: a) neonate b) fetus c) infant d) embryo

There are general rules that apply to all types of splinting. Which of the following is not a general rule of splinting? a) Assess distal CSM b) In order to avoid loss of use of a limb, it is important to splint before moving, even if the patient is unstable. c) Expose the injury. d) Align long-bone injuries to anatomical position.

There are two types of seizures; if your patient is having a seizure that affects only one body part and does not cause her to lose consciousness, it is called a: a) generalized seizure b) partial seizure c) postictal seizure d) tonic-clonic seizure

To assess skin temperature for a possibly hypothermic patient, the EMT should place the back of his hand against which part of the patient's body? a) Forehead b) Abdomen c) Cheek d) Inner wrist

Upon arrival at the scene of a motor vehicle collision, you find a vehicle that is on fire. The fire is confined to the engine compartment and the hood is tightly closed. Of the following, which is the best course of action? a) Wet the interior of the vehicle to keep the fire from spreading. b) Let the fire burn and concentrate on extricating the patient c) Discharge a dry chemical fire extinguisher onto the patient's clothing to protect him from the fire d) Use a long-handled pry-bar to open the hood and put out the fire with a fire extinguisher

Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who has no pulse is deemed a________ patient. a) priority 1 b) priority 0 c) priority 2 d) priority 3

Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is alert and able to walk is deemed a ________ patient. a) priority 0 b) priority 3 c) priority 2 d) priority 1

What are some of the most important critical decisions an EMT can make on the scene of a serious trauma? a) Diagnosing the causes for a patient's presentation and identifying a course of definitive care b) Determining patient severity, amount of time on scene, and transport destination c) Determining the potential liability involved in performing life-saving interventions d) Deciding whether to treat life-threatening injuries on scene or to load and go

What constitutes a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)? a) An event that unfolds over a long period of time and requires federal, state, and local response b) An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources c) Any event that requires additional ambulances to adequately transport the patients from the scene d) An incident with 3 to 15 patients that the service handles without calling for additional resources

What is a common sign or symptom of high-altitude cerebral edema? a) Paresthesia b) Altered mental status c) Peripheral edema d) Nosebleed

What is a primary problem when treating musculoskeletal injuries? a) Most musculoskeletal injuries are simply splinted and not a life threat to the patient b) Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb c) Splints do not adequately fit the patient's extremities and must be modified with padding to ensure immobilization. d) All musculoskeletal injuries are life threatening due to the bone bleeding leading to hypoperfusion.

What is another name for a severe allergic reaction? a) respiratory distress b) anaphylaxis c) stridor d) urticaria

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of your adult male patient who has fallen off a horse, has his eyes open, and can follow your commands to squeeze his hands, but is confused about what happened and his whereabouts? a) 12 b) 14 c) 15 d) 13

What is the process that removes the biological (etiological) contamination hazards because it destroys microorganisms and their toxins? a) dilution b) disinfection c) absorption d) emulsification

What is the temporary organ of pregnancy, which functions to supply the developing fetus with oxygen and nu a) amnion b) placenta c) cervix d) uterus

When a patient or bystander at the scene of an emergency displays fear, anger, or grief, this is best described as which of the following? a) Post-traumatic stress disorder b) Stress reaction c) Neurosis d) Catharsis

When a person acts in a manner that is unacceptable to himself or those around him, this would be considered which of the following? a) Mental illness b) Behavioral emergency c) Psychotic episode d) Psychosomatic reaction

When assessing a conscious patient for a possible stroke using the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale, which of the following three functions should be tested by the EMT? a) Ability to walk, ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds, and ability to name common objects b) Control of facial muscles, ability to speak, and ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds c) Memory, ability to speak, and ability to track movement with the eyes d) Ability to walk, control of facial muscles, and balance

When caring for patients with autism spectrum disorders (ASD), it is a good idea to do all of the following except a) provide simple, precise instructions about what you need the patient to do b) gather repeat vital signs at five-minute intervals even if the patient seems very stable c) ask short, closed-ended questions whenever possible d) turn off as many pagers, radios, and noisy pieces of equipment as possible.

When delivering a baby, you should do all of the following except a) position your gloved hands at the vaginal opening b) place your fingers in the armpit to assist with delivery by pulling on the baby c) have someone stay at the mother's head if possible d) suction the mouth first, then the nose

When disconnecting a battery cable to disrupt a vehicle's electrical system, the EMT should disconnect the: a) negative cable from the alternator b) negative cable from the battery c) positive cable from the battery d) positive cable from the alternator

When engaged in a nonemergency transport in an authorized vehicle while functioning as an EMT for an authorized emergency service, the actions you take while driving are: a) packaging b) loading c) immobilizing d) wrapping

When grossly decontaminating a patient who is not wearing personal protective equipment in a hazardous materials incident, which of the following techniques should be used? a) Scrubbing with a long-handled brush b) Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower c) Sponging with a dilute solution of water and white vinegar d) Using a high pressure water jet system

When managing a patient who may hurt himself or others, you should do all of the following except: a) retreat if the patient becomes threatening b) make sure only you and the patient are in the room c) keep bystanders a safe distance away d) watch for sudden changes in the patient's behavior.

When responding to a multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the following? a) Keeping a log of all patients transported b) Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated section officer c) Setting up a triage center from the back of your ambulance d) Staying on station until called upon to receive a patient

When someone is experiencing hypoglycemia, the body attempts to compensate by using the fight-or-flight mechanism of the autonomic nervous system. Which of the following is NOT one of the fight-or-flight responses? a) the heart pumps faster b) the skin is hot and dry c) blood vessels constrict d) breathing accerlerates

When the EMT is assessing compromise to an extremity, perhaps due to an orthopedic injury, the EMT should initially check what "six Ps"? a) Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, placement, and pressure b) Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure c) Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pad d) Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pressure

When the body is in water, how many times faster does it lose heat than when it is in still air? a) 100 b) 25 c) 2 d) 10

When transporting a patient who is morbidly obese to the hospital, it is important to monitor which of the following vital signs? a) blood pressure b) oxygen saturation c) pulse rate d) blood glucose level

When transporting patients from the scene of a mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving hospital? a) Transporting EMT b) Transportation supervisor c) Incident commander d) Triage officer

When treating a patient with acute abdominal pain, you should do which of the following? a) Administer sips of water if patient complains of thirs b) Have the patient lie still and assume a position of comfort c) Have him drink milk to coat the stomach and reduce the pain d) Have him take antacids in an attempt to decrease the pain

When using the rule of palm to estimate the approximate body surface area burned, the patient's palm equals about what percentage of the body's surface area (BSA)? a) 5 percent b) 1 percent c) 2 percent d) 3 percent

Where are automatic implanted cardiac defibrillators typically placed in patients who require one? a) In the lower left chest b) In the upper left chest c) In the lower right chest d) In the upper right chest

Which of the following actions is the most appropriate for the EMT to take when managing a patient with a behavioral emergency? a) Establish control of the situation by a show of force. b) Remain calm and reassure the patient. c) Quickly perform a head-to-toe exam and transport without delay. d) Find out if the patient's insurance covers psychiatric treatment.

Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed to, and contaminated by, a hazardous material? a) Placing towels on the floor of the ambulance to soak up contaminated runoff water b) Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood pressure cuffs and backboards c) Wearing heavy cloth gloves d) Wearing a gown, mask, and goggles to prevent secondary contamination

Which of the following activities should not occur during the scene size-up? a) Determining the extent of the patient's entrapment b) Providing airway management c) Determining the need for additional resources d) Determining the mechanism of injury

Which of the following best describes a disease such as deafness? a) Acquired disease b) Either a congenital or acquired disease c) Neither a congenital nor acquired disease d) Congenital disease Question 2

Which of the following best describes the events that occur during the first stage of labor? a) Rupture of the amniotic sac b) Thinning and dilation of the cervix c) Expulsion of the placenta d) Expulsion of the fetus through the birth canal

Which of the following best describes the function of blood? a) It flows from the heart with the vital gases and nutrients needed to maintain a lack of perfusion. b) It transports gases and nutrients, aids in excretion, and provides protection and regulation c) It clots, flows, transports, protects, and excretes on a daily basis. d) It is a life-giving liquid that supports all the body's functions to maintain hypoperfusion

Which of the following best describes the origins of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? a) Congenital disease b) Acquired disease c) Neither a congenital nor acquired disease d) Either a congenital or acquired disease

Which of the following best describes the potential benefit of a three-sided occlusive dressing over a four-sided occlusive dressing for an open chest wound? a) It eliminates the need to continue monitoring the patient's respiratory status b) It may reduce the chances of developing a tension pneumothorax. c) It allows easy access for reexamination of the wound en route to the hospital d) It prevents the development of a hemothorax by allowing blood to escape

Which of the following blood vessels cannot stop bleeding by constricting? a) veins b) capillaries c) arterioles d) arteries

Which of the following causes worsening of the damage in a brain injury? a) Allowing seepage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose b) Improper management of airway and ventilation c) Failure to keep the patient awake and talking d) Administration of 100% oxygen

Which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the cells? a) Blister agents b) Cyanide c) Nerve agents d) All of the above

Which of the following conditions may be mimicked by hypoglycemia? a) heart attack b) intoxication c) respiratory distress d) all of the above

Which of the following contributes most significantly to the occurrence of ambulance crashes? a) Time of day b) Speed of the vehicle c) Size of the vehicle d) Weather conditions

Which of the following describes the normal appearance of amniotic fluid? a) Thick fluid, greenish-black in color b) Clear and colorless fluid c) Thin fluid, greenish-yellow in color d) A fluid containing blood and mucus

Which of the following does not have an impact on the behavior of a chemical in a mass-casualty incident? a) Physical state of the agent b) Whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure c) Route of entry into the body d) Volatility of the agent

Which of the following does not indicate that a patient may be about to become violent? a) Rapid pulse and breathing b) Crying c) Rapid speech and movement d) Tense body posture or clenched fists

Which of the following explains why a patient may experience difficulty breathing during anaphylaxis? a) Allergens clump together and block blood flow through the lungs. b) Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing. c) Swelling in the brain decreases the respiratory drive. d) Allergens bind to hemoglobin, preventing it from carrying oxygen.

Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist attacks? a) Low potency b) High infectivity c) Instability d) Low virulence

Which of the following groups is the most susceptible to the effects of a poison? a) teenager b) elderly c) pre-teens d) adults

Which of the following happens to blood vessels during an anaphylactic reaction? a) constriction b) dilation c) spasm d) no change

Which of the following individuals is likely in the incubation period of chickenpox? a) A patient who was vaccinated last year, exposed 4 weeks ago, and shows no signs b) A patient who was exposed 6 days ago but does not yet have a fever or rash c) A patient whose rash and fever went away a week ago d) A patient with a fever and a rash on the abdomen and back that began 3 days ago

Which of the following is a characteristic of child abusers of special need patients? a) They usually identify with the child's pain and suffering b) They may be inappropriately unconcerned about the child c) Alcohol and drug abuse are uncommon d) They usually want the child's injuries treated

Which of the following is a common hazard associated with the inner circle of a typical auto extrication? a) Penetrating injury from extrication tools b) Shield of a Firefighter's helmet c) Face conforming goggles d) Plastic face shield of the type used for Standard Precautions

Which of the following is a common sign of a pre-delivery emergency? a) The amniotic sac ruptures b) There is profuse vaginal bleeding c) A sensation of lightening as the baby drops into the birth canal d) Contractions become more intense and closer together.

Which of the following is a potential complication of hyperventilating a patient with a brain injury? a) Increasing blood flow to the brain b) Decreasing blood flow to the brain c) Decreasing the patient's blood pressure d) Increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood

Which of the following is a purpose for carrying an aluminum foil roll on an ambulance? a) o control major arterial bleeding b) To keep a newborn warm c) To care for amputated parts d) None of the above

Which of the following is a reason that the vehicle doors are removed to extricate the patient rather than pulling the patient through an open window? a) To make the interior of the vehicle less accessible b) To allow a patient with life-threatening injuries to be removed quickly c) To avoid criticism from bystanders d) To avoid being cut by glass

Which of the following is a resource for specific actions to be taken by personnel dealing with a hazardous materials incident? a) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) tollfree hotline b) Emergency Response Guidebook c) Medical dictionary d) Medical protocols

Which of the following is a standardized test to evaluate a conscious patient for possible stroke? a) Michigan TIA Assessment b) Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale c) The Functional Analysis Stroke Test d) The Numbness-Aphasia-Paralysis (NAP) Test

Which of the following is a trade name for activated charcoal? a) actifed b) actidose c) charcoal d) mesquite

Which of the following is a typical cause of seizures in children 6 months to 3 years of age? a) asthma b) fever c) administration of glucose to a hyperglycemic patient d) chest pain

Which of the following is a vascular organ in the abdomen that can produce blood loss quickly enough to result in life-threatening hemorrhage following high mechanism of injury blunt trauma? a) kidneys b) liver c) pancreas d) intestines

Which of the following is an accurate definition of a flail chest? a) Lung that has been punctured by a fractured rib, resulting in a buildup of air b) Section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems c) Fracture of one rib in two or more consecutive places d) Fracture of at least four ribs in two or more places

Which of the following is an injury that commonly occurs in alcoholic patients with even minor head injuries? a) skull fracture b) subdural hematoma c) intracerebral hematoma d) concussion

Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with hyperglycemia? a) Pale and sweaty skin, confusion, and increased heart rate b) A "fruity" odor of the breath c) Use of excessive amounts of insulin or lack of adequate food intake d) Sudden onset of altered mental status

Which of the following is classified as an open head injury? a) Contusion without a skull fracture b) Laceration with a skull fracture c) Laceration without a skull fracture d) Both A and B

Which of the following is controlled by the left side of the brain? a) Movement of the left arm b) Sensation of the right leg c) Sensation in the left arm d) Movement of both lower extremities

Which of the following is defined as an area of the body surface that is innervated by a single spinal nerve? a) maxilliae b) dermatome c) malar d) spinous process

Which of the following is indicated in the prehospital management of a prolapsed umbilical cord? a) Encourage the mother to push forcefully in order to speed delivery b) Place the mother in a head-down position with pillows under her hips c) Use your gloved hand to push the umbilical cord back up through the cervix d) Immediately clamp the cord in two places and cut it between the clamps.

Which of the following is not a consideration in the general protection against agents used in terrorist attacks? a) Shielding from the agent b) Immunization c) Distance from event d) Duration of exposure

Which of the following is not a role of dialysis in a renal failure patient? a) Remove waste from the body b) Stimulate blood cell production c) Filter and detoxify the blood d) Remove fluid from the body

Which of the following is not a significant mechanism of injury for a driver in a vehicle accident according to CDC guidelines? a) Encroachment greater than 12 inches of the driver's compartment b) Spidering of the windshield c) Ejection from the vehicle d) Death of a passenger in the same vehicle

Which of the following is not a way in which poisons can access the body? a) inhalation b) radiation c) injection d) absorption

Which of the following is not an open tissue injury? a) avulsion b) contusion c) abrasion d) amputation

Which of the following is not essential equipment on an ambulance? a) Portable oxygen tanks b) Automatic transport ventilator c) Portable suction unit d) Pediatric oxygen administration devices

Which of the following is not traditionally a responsibility of an EMT on the scene of a hazardous materials incident caused by terrorism? a) Activation of the notification process b) Identification of any indicators of a particular agent c) Establishing perimeter control d) Scene size-up

Which of the following is not true concerning lacerations? a) They may indicate deeper underlying tissue damage. b) They may involve degloving injuries to the skin or tissue. c) They may be caused by blunt trauma. d) They may be caused by penetrating trauma.

Which of the following is of greatest concern for the EMT in the prehospital care of a woman with vaginal bleed a) Obtaining a thorough gynecological history b) Monitoring for hypovolemic shock c) Finding out if the patient is currently sexually active d) Preventing infection

Which of the following is part of the body's compensatory response to blood loss? a) Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate decreases. b) Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases c) Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate increases d) Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate decreases.

Which of the following is required in the management of all open soft-tissue injuries? a) Application of a disinfectant solution b) Use of Standard Precautions by the EMT c) Cervical spine precautions d) Provision of high-concentration oxygen

Which of the following is the MOST critical piece of equipment to have immediately available for the seizure patient who has just stopped convulsing? a) glucometer b) suction c) bite block d) cervical collar

Which of the following is the cause of most strokes? a) a ruptured cerebral artery due to hypertension b) Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain c) A spasm in an artery supplying part of the brain d) A ruptured cerebral artery due to an aneurysm

Which of the following is the correct order of operations when transferring a stable patient from his or her house to the ambulance? a) Package the patient for transport, select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance. b) Select the proper patient-carrying device, package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance c) Select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, package the patient for transport, and load the patient into the ambulance. d) Package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, select the proper patient-carrying device, and load the patient into the ambulance.

Which of the following is the highest priority during extrication? a) Gaining access to the patient b) Ensuring your personal safety c) Controlling major bleeding d) Maintaining the patient's airway

Which of the following is the most common type of multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond to? a) structure fire b) automobile collisions c) outbreaks of influenza d) hazardous materials incidents

Which of the following is the most important reason for controlling external bleeding? a) To make clean-up of the ambulance and your equipment easier after the call b) To prevent and manage hypoperfusion c) To prevent the spread of infectious diseases d) To prevent the patient from becoming upset at the sight of blood

Which of the following is the role of glucose in the body? a) It is an essential building block for body tissues, such as muscle and bone. b) It provides energy for brain cells and other cells in the body. c) It allows the body to use insulin. d) It assists the pancreas in the manufacture of insulin.

Which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a collision? a) It is stable if the ignition is turned off. b) It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel. c) It is stable if it is upright on all four wheels d) It is stable if the transmission is in "Park" or the parking brake is on.

Which of the following is true in regard to touching a patient who is being shocked with an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)? a) It depends on the AICD model as to whether or not the EMT can feel the shock. b) The EMT cannot feel the shock of an AICD when delivered to the patient. c) The EMT will feel the shock, and it is very dangerous to the EMT. d) The EMT will feel the shock, but it is not very painful.

Which of the following is true of patients with autism spectrum disorders (ASD)? a) They respond well to gentle, reassuring contact from EMTs b) They may have very high pain thresholds and tolerate excruciating injuries c) They find faint background noise comforting d) They cope well with change when that change occurs quickly.

Which of the following is true of patients with autism spectrum disorders (ASD)? a) They respond well to gentle, reassuring contact from EMTs. b) No action beyond transport is required because the patient already has an implanted defibrillator c) CPR should be started, but the AED should not be used while on-scene or transporting the patient. d) CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while on-scene and transporting the patient.

Which of the following is true regarding a pregnant woman? a) Her blood pressure is usually higher during pregnancy. b) Diabetes may be made worse during pregnancy. c) Her respirations usually remain the same during pregnancy. d) Her pulse rate should be lower than normal.

Which of the following is true regarding ectopic pregnancies? a) It may cause painless bright red bleeding b) The fallopian tubes cannot stretch to accommodate a fetus. c) It usually occurs during the second trimester. d) The fertilized egg usually implants in the wall of the uterus.

Which of the following is within the EMT's scope of practice for the treatment of the diabetic patient? a) Assisting the patient with the administration of his insulin b) Administration of oral glucose c) Rectal administration of glucose d) Both A and B

Which of the following may cause a patient to exhibit abnormal behavior? a) Allergic reaction b) Hypoxia c) Gastroenteritis d) Gastroenteritis

Which of the following may result in hypoglycemia in the diabetic patient? a) lack of exercise b) Vomiting after eating a meal c) Failure to take insulin or oral diabetes medications d) Overeating

Which of the following most accurately describes the pathophysiology of sepsis? a) More than one type of infectious agent invades the body, limiting the immune system's response to each agent. b) The body overreacts to an infection and secretes substances that hurt cells, tissues, and organs c) An infectious agent in the body multiplies very rapidly, overwhelming the body's natural immune response d) Vasoconstriction and internal fluid retention lead to shock that does not respond to intravenous fluids

Which of the following patients would be considered to be at the greatest risk for suicide? a) 44-year-old woman who has just recovered from a serious illness b) 22-year-old man who has lost his job and is getting divorced c) 30-year-old married man who has just learned that his employer is transferring him to a different state d) 35-year-old female who has a child with a serious illness

Which of the following poses the greatest danger to the pregnant woman and her fetus when trauma occurs? a) Neurogenic shock b) Hemorrhagic shock c) Distributive shock d) Supine hypotensive

Which of the following questions is inappropriate when taking the history of a female patient with abdominal pain? a) Are you having vaginal bleeding or discharge now? b) What is your sexual orientation? c) If you are menstruating, is the flow normal? d) Have you had sexual intercourse since your last menstrual period?

Which of the following refers to difficulty in using words or understanding speech as a result of a stroke? a) ischemia b) aphasia c) ataxia d) hemiparesis

Which of the following should the EMT do during the treatment of localized cold injury? a) Encourage the patient to use the affected part. b) Gradually warm the affected area c) Massage the affected area. d) Rub the affected area with snow.

Which of the following signs would you least expect to see in a patient suffering from severe hypothermia? a) Numbness b) Heavy shivering c) Skin cool to the touch d) Drowsiness

Which of the following situations are frequently problematic for patients who have tracheostomy tubes? a) tracheal tears b) mucus buildup c) tube malplacement d) air embolism

Which of the following statements about the application of a tourniquet is incorrect? a) The tourniquet should be placed approximately 2 to 3 inches above the bleeding b) If possible, the tourniquet should be placed on a joint. c) Commercial tourniquets are preferable to improvised tourniquets d) The tourniquet should be at least 2 inches wide

Which of the following statements concerning behavioral emergencies is true? a) A person with a behavioral emergency is mentally ill. b) It may be difficult to determine what behavior is abnormal for a given person in a given situation. c) Emotional outbursts are considered behavioral emergencies. d) The person with a behavioral emergency requires prolonged institutionalization.

Which of the following statements concerning forcible restraint of patients is true? a) It causes irreparable emotional harm to most patients. b) This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement. c) This is necessary only with mentally ill individuals. d) It is easily accomplished by two EMTs with a good plan.

Which of the following statements concerning people who have made prior suicide attempts is true? a) They are usually just making a cry for help but do not want to die b) They are at an increased risk for a subsequent successful suicide c) They should be allowed to sign a release if their injuries are not serious d) They do not require psychological counseling like a person who is depressed.

Which of the following statements is true regarding abuse and neglect of adults and elders with special needs a) Caregivers rarely interfere with assessment, treatment, or transport of patients b) Signs of hunger and malnourishment are common signs of neglect. c) Sexual abuse is never seen among elder patients with special needs d) The signs of abuse and neglect in adult and elder patients are easy to spot.

Which of the following statements regarding syrup of ipecac is not true? a) It can cause a patient to aspirate stomach contents into the lungs. b) It has an immediate action c) It removes only about one-third of stomach contents. d) It causes vomiting in all patients with a single dose

Which of the following structures connect bone ends and allow for a stable range of motion? a) periosteum b) ligaments c) cartilage d) tendons

Which of the following types of snake is not a pit viper? a) water moccasin b) coral snake c) rattlesnake d) copperhead

Which of the following would you expect to see in a patient with severe hypothermia? a) Tachycardia b) Irrational behavior c) Rapid respirations d) Loss of muscle tone

Which patient would most likely benefit from the administration of activated charcoal? a) 45-year-old patient suffering from insecticide poisoning b) 14-year-old female who overdoses on her grandfather's cardiac medication c) 8-year-boy who has a headache from carbon monoxide poisoning d) 18-year-old patient who is passed out from drinking too much beer

Which portions of the spine are the most vulnerable to injury? a) Thoracic and lumbar b) Cervical and lumbar c) Thoracic and sacra d) Cervical and sacra

While assessing a patient with a laceration to the neck, the EMT must be aware that which of the following conditions may develop? a) concussion b) air embolus c) increasing intracranial pressure d) contusion

While assessing a patient with partial thickness burns to his chest and neck, what should be your highest priority (even if there are no symptoms presently)? a) bleeding b) airway c) hypothermia d) blood pressure

Why is Lyme disease not considered a communicable disease? a) A person can only pass the disease to another via contact with blood b) A person with the disease cannot pass it to other people c) The condition is not fatal. d) It is spread by an insect, not a bacteria, virus, or microbe

With START triage, when you arrive on the scene, you ask all the patients who can walk to move to one area. These patients are categorized as: a) Priority 4 walking wounded b) Priority 3 walking wounded. c) yellow tagged d) red tagged

With advances in clot-busting (thrombolytic) drugs, the patient has a window of ________ hours to receive treatment. a) 4 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

You are assessing a pregnant woman whose chief complaint is vaginal bleeding. She is 8 months pregnant and has moderate, bright red bleeding with no abdominal pain. She says that her doctor was concerned about the location of the placenta. This condition is known as: a) unstable placenta b) placenta previa c) placenta disruption d) abruptio placentae

You are at the scene of a vehicle collision on an interstate highway. There are two cars involved and both are out of the lanes against the median wall. As an EMS provider, what is your primary safety concern? a) Searching for sharp edges of broken glass and torn metal b) Watching for distracted drivers who are driving past the scene c) Evaluating the risk of fire caused by ruptured fuel lines d) Ensuring the patient is properly packaged for transport

You are called for a man who is not acting right. His wife says he was outside working in the garden but didn't come in for lunch when he was called. She went to check on him and found him sitting next to a stump, confused. You assessment shows a pulse rate of 58, blood pressure of 186/82, respirations of 16, and one of his pupils is dilated. You are unable to detect any signs of trauma and you don't see any obvious indication that he has fallen. You should suspect a(n): a) insecticide poisoning b) nontraumatic brain injury c) open head injury d) closed head injury.

You are called for a woman who is about to deliver. During the labor process, your patient's water breaks. She experiences a rush of amniotic fluid and an increase in uterine contractions. The purpose of this amniotic fluid is to: a) 1 b) 7 c) 3 d) 12

You are called to a 25-year-old male complaining of right lower quadrant (RLQ) pain. His other symptoms are nausea and vomiting, fever, and decreasing pain in the umbilicus area. As an EMT, you feel this patient might have: a) peritonitis b) appendicitis c) cholecystitis d) pancreatitis

You are called to a farmhouse on a sunny spring afternoon. Upon arrival, a frantic mother tells you that her 3-year-old daughter was playing in the yard, accidentally stepped on a hornets' nest, and was stung repeatedly. The patient is alert, screaming and crying, and can follow her mother's commands. Her arms and legs are swollen and show the marks of several stings. Her body is covered in hives. Her vital signs are blood pressure 90/40, pulse 110, respiratory rate 24, and oxygen saturation 99 percent. Her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Her mother states she put "nox-a-sting" on the bites but the bites only seemed to get worse. What condition is the patient suffering from? a) Moderate anaphylactic reaction b) Allergic reaction from the hornets' stings c) Minor anaphylactic reaction d) Anaphylactic reaction from the "nox-a-sting" swabs

You are called to a garden center where four shoppers have collapsed after a section of shelving fell and dumped hazardous products on the floor. When you arrive on the scene, you should: a) secure the scene quickly, triage each patient, and move to fresh air b) recognize a HAZMAT incident, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request HAZMAT response c) recognize a HAZMAT incident, dress in a Tyvek suit, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request HAZMAT response. d) recognize a HAZMAT incident, dress in a Tyvek suit, access the scene to identify the spilled product, secure the MSDS sheets, and remove victims to fresh air.

You are called to a nursing home for an 85-year-old patient complaining of abdominal pain. The patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you. The nurse states the patient has been vomiting for about an hour, and the vomit looks like dark coffee grounds. His blood pressure is 90/40, pulse 100, and respiratory rate of 24. Aside from the airway, what is your greatest concern? a) The patient will have a myocardial infarction b) The patient will go into shock. c) The patient will have a stroke d) The patient will become dehydrated

You are called to a nursing home for an 85-year-old patient complaining of abdominal pain. The patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you. The nurse states the patient has been vomiting for about an hour, and the vomit looks like dark coffee grounds. His blood pressure is 90/40, pulse 100, and respiratory rate of 24. In what position should you transport the patient? a) Trendelenburg b) Left lateral recumbent c) Supine d) Supine with knees bent

You are called to a nursing home for an 85-year-old patient complaining of abdominal pain. The patient has a history of dementia and cannot describe the pain to you. The nurse states the patient has been vomiting for about an hour, and the vomit looks like dark coffee grounds. His blood pressure is 90/40, pulse 100, and respiratory rate of 24. Why should the EMT use an oxygen mask with caution? a) The oxygen will cause the patient to start vomiting again. b) The patient cannot clear any additional vomit c) The patient may hyperventilate d) The patient may become unresponsive

You are called to a residence for a 48-year-old male patient. He is lying in bed, groaning in pain and curled into a fetal position. His blood pressure is 88/50, pulse 136, and respiratory rate of 32. His wife states that he complained of lower right abdominal pain for several days that got progressively worse, until about an hour ago when it became suddenly unbearable. The wife states the husband had been refusing to see a doctor, but she finally called 911. You suspect appendicitis and are concerned about the subsequent onset of: a) splenic rupture b) peritonitis c) renal colic d) pancreatitis

You are called to a residential neighborhood at 12:30 A.M. Your patient has just finished eating a super-sized meal of deep fried fish. He is now complaining of a "crampy" pain in the right upper quadrant and has had two episodes of nausea and vomiting with green vomit. What condition do you suspect that your patient is experiencing? a) intestinal obstruction b) cholecystitis c) appendicitis d) peptic ulcer

You are called to the scene of a 13-year-old male with a fever and cough. Upon assessment, you note a red blotch rash on the face and trunk, and small bluish-white spots on the inside of the cheeks. Based on this presentation, the patient likely has: a) shingles. b) measles c) hepatitis A d) chickenpox

You are called to the scene of a 14-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her mother states she has been teased and bullied at school and she suspects that she tried to commit suicide by taking her pain pills. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, with agonal respirations, and has vomited. She has a weak carotid pulse. Your first action is to: a) administer oxygen by bag-valve mask (BVM). b) suction the patient's airway c) administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask (NRB). d) administer an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)

You are called to the scene of a 21-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her boyfriend suspects that she tried to commit suicide by overdosing on her depression medications. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, with agonal respirations, and has vomited. She has a weak carotid pulse. After securing the airway and providing oxygen by bag-valve mask, what is the most important question the EMT can ask regarding the medication? a) Were the medications new? b) What medication did she take? c) Why is she on that particular depression medication? d) How many pills did she take?

You are dispatched to a 42-year-old male who was shot in the abdomen and thrown from a vehicle. The patient is critical and high-category trauma; however, due to the mechanism of injury, it is necessary to backboard the patient prior to transport. What is an important assessment before securing the patient? a) Searching for presence of diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hypotension b) Examining the patient for entrance and exit wounds c) Verifying trauma center ER bed availability d) Performing a distal neurological assessment

You are dispatched to an auto repair shop for an "accident." You arrive and are told by the owner that one of the workers apparently got his hand in the way while using a high-pressure grease gun and injected the grease into his hand. You find the patient seated in a chair with a coworker applying ice to the injured hand. Your examination reveals a minor round laceration in the hand. The patient is complaining of pain in the area but wants to let the wound take care of itself and go back to work. What should you do? a) Continue to apply cold, elevate and splint the limb, and transport the patient high priority. b) Remove the ice from the wound, then elevate and splint the limb. Transport the patient high priority. c) The patient is correct. This type of wound will heal on its own and he can go back to work. d) Tell the patient that if it does not get better within the next few days he should consult his own doctor.

You are dispatched to the local elementary school for an injured student. Upon arrival, you find that two 7-year-olds got into a fight and one of them jabbed a pencil in the other's cheek. The pencil is still sticking out of the child's cheek. When you examine the patient, you cannot see the end of the pencil that went through the cheek, as it appears to be stuck in the palate. There is not significant bleeding, and the child is not having any difficulty breathing. The child is very upset and wants you to pull the pencil out. What should you do? a) Let the child carefully pull the object out. b) Stabilize the object, but do not try to remove it. c) Call the parents and see what they want you to do d) Remove the object and put a bandage on the outside of the cheek

You are in charge of your department's personnel at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. As the incident progresses, you request additional resources, and a neighboring department assists you. As part of this department's response, a battalion chief responds to oversee operations. At the command post, you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident. This cooperative management effort is known as a) dual command b) unified command c) incident command d) redundant command

You are managing a patient who is being extricated from a vehicle by a rescue crew using hydraulic tools. Which of the following items should you use in order to protect your patient during the extrication process? a) Oxygen mask to prevent inhalation of noxious fumes b) Short spine board to prevent debris from contacting the patient c) Aluminized rescue blanket to protect the patient from sharp edges d) Wool blanket to protect the patient from broken glass

You are on the scene of a 22-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. The patient's mother states that she is deathly allergic to peanuts and accidentally ate stir fry cooked in peanut oil. The patient is unresponsive with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. What is your first action? a) Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask b) Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask. c) Perform a complete assessment and confirm that the patient is actually in anaphylaxis d) Administer epinephrine with medical control consent

You are on the scene of a 68-year-old male patient complaining of severe chest pain for the last 20 minutes. He has a previous history of myocardial infarction and states it feels "just like the last time." You have applied oxygen and assisted him in administering aspirin and nitroglycerin with no reduction in the chest pain. Your nearest facility is 5 minutes away, a Level III Trauma Center is 10 minutes away, and a hospital with cardiac catheterization capabilities is 20 minutes away. The patient is requesting to be transported to his cardiologist's hospital, which is 30 minutes away. Which hospital is the best destination? a) the nearest facility b) the nearest hospital with cardiac catheterization c) the hospital the patient requests d) the trauma center

You are on the scene of a riot following a decision in a controversial court case. A large group of people have set fire to vehicles, broken windows, and assaulted people in the area. Which of the following would be the best method of incident command? a) Single incident command by law enforcement b) Unified command by police, fire, and EMS c) Single incident command by fire service d) Single incident command by EMS

You are on the scene of a vehicle collision involving a downed power line. You are walking in an area you feel is a safe distance from the line and begin to feel a tingling sensation in your feet. Which of the following would be a proper method of ensuring your safety while exiting the area? a) Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area. b) Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area c) Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and hop to a safe place on one foot d) Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and quickly run to a safe location

You are preparing a patient in cardiac arrest for an AED when you palpate a small lump below the patient's right clavicle. How should this modify your placement of the AED? a) Place the AED pads over the patient's abdomen. b) While placing the pads in the general area you need them, keep them several inches away from the lump. c) Do not place the AED but transport the patient immediately d) Place the AED as you would for any patient

You are responding to a 52-year-old male patient complaining of heartburn with epigastric pain. The patient's vital signs are stable and he does not have any pain upon palpation. He has a history of reflux disease and is on several medications for heartburn and acid reflux. What is your greatest concern with this patient? a) His appendix will rupture. b) He is suffering from a myocardial infarction. c) He will develop peritonitis. d) He will aspirate on vomit.

You are transporting a 41-year-old female suffering from severe anaphylaxis. Her respiratory rate is 42 per minute, she is cyanotic, and she has a decreased level of responsiveness. Which of the following is the highest priority of care for this patient? a) Search for an epinephrine auto-injector. b) Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. c) Elevate the patient's head d) Transport rapidly

You are transporting a 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are 5 minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? a) Initiate CPR and continue transporting b) Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary c) Analyze the cardiac rhythm and deliver shocks as necessary d) Tell the driver to stop and assist you with CPR, and request another unit for assistance

You are transporting a resident of a nursing home to the hospital for a complaint of abdominal pain that has lasted for 3 days. During your assessment, you note a tube protruding from the patient's nose, which is connected to a bag of milky-white fluid. This tube is known as a(n): a) endotracheal tube b) nasogastric tube c) J-tube d) gastric tube

You are transporting a stable patient who was involved in a minor fall from a ladder at a height of about 10 feet to a local community hospital. You assumed full spinal precautions not only because the patient has midline back pain in the sacrum, but also because he was knocked unconscious. While transporting, the patient begins to become increasingly confused, develop an irregular respiratory rate, and experience a drop in heart rate with an increase in blood pressure. You just called in a radio report and are about 7 minutes from the hospital. A trauma center is about 10 minutes away. Which of the following is the best transport decision? a) Continue transporting to the local hospital because you've already given your report and they accepted the patient. b) Divert to the trauma center because the patient is becoming symptomatic. c) Continue transporting to the local hospital because it's the closest facility. d) Call medical control for advice from the trauma center

You are treating a 16-year-old skateboarder who has fallen at the skate park. She has an angulated left forearm that she has in a guarded position. When do you splint this injury? a) En route to the hospital b) During the secondary exam c) Immediately d) During the primary exam

You are treating a 38-year-old female patient with abdominal distress. The patient's vital signs are stable and you are getting ready to transport. What is the best position to transport the patient? a) supine b) position of comfort c) right lateral d) semi-Fowler's

You are treating a 61-year-old who is a chronic alcohol abuser. He is complaining of "snakes slithering around his ankles," and he tells you that he had only two drinks tonight. You notice that he is sweating, trembling, and anxious. Before you can complete your assessment, he begins to have a seizure. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this situation? a) The patient drank mouthwash instead of beverage alcohol. b) The patient is suffering from alcohol withdrawal c) The patient could not find an alcoholic beverage and drank antifreeze instead d) The patient is suffering from acute alcohol poisoning.

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #1 is a 16-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 28, pulse 132, and altered mental status with cool clammy skin. a) Priority 4, black tag b) Priority 1, red tag c) Priority 3, green tag d) Priority 2, yellow tag

You assess a 35-year-old female patient with a chemical burn to her right forearm and hand. As you assess the burn, you notice a white powder on the burn. What should be your next step? a) Brush off the powder, bandage the arm, and transport the patient to the closest trauma center b) Brush the powder off the patient's arm and hand, and then flush with copious amounts of water c) Transport the patient immediately to the closest burn center d) Flush the arm and hand with copious amounts of water.

You have arrived on the scene of a call for a possible stroke. On your arrival, the patient denies signs and symptoms, is alert and oriented, and moves all extremities well. Her husband states that before you arrived the patient could not move her right arm and the left side of her face seemed to be "slack." Which of the following has most likely occurred? a) The patient suffered a stroke. b) The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack c) The patient is suffering from aphasia d) The patient has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage

You have been called for a young female in labor. She is lying on the floor in obvious distress from labor pains. While you are assessing her for crowning, your partner is getting a set of vital signs. She tells you that she is getting dizzy and nauseated. Vital signs are pulse rate 120, respiratory rate 22, and blood pressure 98/62. You should be concerned that she has: a) Braxton-Hicks contractions. b) supine hypotensive syndrome c) placenta previa. d) contracted food poisoning

You have been called to the scene of an 83-year-old woman with a high fever who reports chills and shortness of breath. She is tachypneic and showing signs of pain upon inspiration. You talk with her a bit and she seems confused and unaware of where she is, who she is, or who you are. Based on this presentation, the patient likely has: a) tuberculosis b) pneumonia c) pertussis d) croup.

You have responded to a park where you find a 23-year-old female sitting on a bench near a running trail. She states that she has been running for the past 30 minutes and suddenly cannot catch her breath. She states that this has never happened before and she usually runs 5 miles a day. Your assessment reveals that she is flushed, her pulse is fast and weak, her respirations are fast and she is wheezing, and she has hives on her arms and chest. She is most likely suffering from which of the following? a) hyperventilation syndrome b) anaphylaxis c) allergic reaction d) heat stroke

You have transported a patient to the emergency department and are in the process of cleaning the ambulance while your partner is completing all required paperwork. At what point is the final phase of an ambulance call complete? a) As soon as you put the stretcher back in the ambulance with a clean sheet and you notify your dispatch center you are available b) After all required paperwork is complete and the ambulance has been completely cleaned and restocked c) As soon as your partner completes the patient care report and you are restocking the supplies used during the call d) As soon as you get back to the station and notify your dispatch center you are in quarters

You respond to a 32-year-old female who is having a seizure. You arrive on the scene to find the patient drowsy, confused, and complaining of a headache. This patient is demonstrating the: a) clonic phase b) postictal phase c) tonic phase d) aura phase

You respond to a 65-year-old patient complaining of abdominal pain. Your physical exam reveals a nonpulsating mass in the lower left quadrant. You suspect: a) splenic rupture b) hernia c) aortic abdominal aneursym d) appendicitis

You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient is breathing 28 times a minute. The patient's friends state they were diving when he unexpectedly came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What is your first action? a) Transport the patient b) Suction the airway. c) Place the patient on high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. d) Insert an oropharyngeal airway.

You respond to a construction site on a very hot summer day for a person "not acting right." You find a 38-year-old male patient seated in a work vehicle with the air conditioner on maximum. Coworkers state the patient was working for the last 2 hours pouring concrete when he started "speaking gibberish" and nearly collapsed. The patient is responsive to verbal stimuli. Your initial vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 136, and respiratory rate 24. The patient's skin is hot to the touch and dry, but his shirt is wet with visible salt rings. Which is the best treatment for the patient? a) Have the patient sip water slowly to replace what he has lost. b) Apply high-concentration oxygen and rapidly transport to the nearest medical facility. c) Cool the patient with tepid water. d) Have the patient drink at least 1 liter of water to replace what he has lost.

You respond to a construction site on a very hot summer day for a person "not acting right." You find a 44-year-old male patient seated in a work vehicle with the air conditioner on maximum. Coworkers state the patient was working for the last 2 hours pouring concrete when he started "speaking gibberish" and nearly collapsed. The patient is responsive to verbal stimuli. Your initial vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 136, and respiratory rate 24. The patient's skin is cool to the touch and moist, and his shirt is wet with visible salt rings. You suspect: a) myocardial infarction b) heat exhaustion c) heat stroke d) heat cramps

You respond to assist law enforcement with a 35-year-old male patient who, according to them, is "high as a kite." The patient is anxious, tachycardic, and angry. What condition do you suspect? a) marijuana overdose b) cocaine overdose c) alcohol overdose d) GHB overdose

You respond to the scene of a 14-year-old patient found outside in a cold environment. He is unresponsive and hypothermic. Emergency Medical Responders have moved the patient inside and secured the airway prior to your arrival. What is your next action? a) Actively rewarm the patient. b) Passively rewarm the patient. c) Assess for signs of frostbite and treat immediately d) Vigorously rub the patient to increase the body temperature.

You respond to the scene of a private residence for a patient who is known to have insulin-dependent diabetes. The patient is combative and cursing as you approach. Should this patient be restrained? a) No, this patient is not likely experiencing a behavioral emergency b) There is not enough information to answer this question. c) Yes, he is combative and all combative patients can be restrained d) . \\\\Yes, he likely has a medical condition that requires treatment.

You're an off-duty EMT who encounters a patient sitting behind the wheel of a vehicle that ran off an isolated county road. It appears the patient was not wearing a seat belt and struck the steering wheel with his chest. On assessment, you notice a paradoxical motion to the patient's chest on inspiration and expiration. When you radio for dispatch of an ambulance, which of the following pieces of information would you be sure to include? a) The patient is showing signs of an open chest injury. b) The patient may have a flail chest. c) The patient may have an abdominal evisceration. d) The patient is showing signs of abdominal bleeding.

Your patient has an open abdominal wound with intestines protruding. You should: a) cover the entire abdomen with a blanket b) cover the organs with moist sterile dressings c) leave them alone and transport rapidly. d) attempt to place the organs back into the abdomen.

Your patient has been injured by a fall down a flight of steps. He is alert and oriented but complains of back and neck pain. You immobilize him on a long spine board with a cervical collar on his neck as a precaution because you know that the: a) thoracic spine is especially vulnerable to injury. b) cervical spine is not supported by other bony structures c) coccyx is easily dislocated. d) lumbar area is rarely injured due to the rib support.

Your patient is a 15-year-old female who has been diagnosed with a personality disorder. She has no history of violent behavior. The staff at her residential care facility wants her to be transported for evaluation of a possible urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the best way to handle this situation? a) Ask that the patient be given a tranquilizer injection prior to transport. b) Have a female EMT attend to the patient c) Transport the patient, but do not speak to her or perform an assessment d) Refuse to transport the patient without a police escort

Your patient is a 17-year-old male who is spitting and coughing after swallowing some gasoline while siphoning from a gas tank. Which of the following should you do first? a) Have the patient drink a glass of milk b) Contact medical control. c) Insert a Combitube or another blind insertion device, if you are trained to do so. d) Administer syrup of ipecac.

Your patient is a 21-year-old male who has a sucking gunshot wound to the chest. Which of the following is the highest priority in managing this patient? a) Placing a pressure dressing over the wound to control bleeding b) Placing an occlusive dressing over the wound c) Placing the patient in the shock position d) Performing a rapid trauma assessment

Your patient is a 22-year-old male who has ingested a large amount of alcohol and is vomiting. He is conscious but uncooperative. He allows you to examine him but refuses transport to the hospital. You have sought assistance from law enforcement on scene. Which of the following is the best action? a) Obtain a witnessed refusal. b) Contact medical direction for further advice c) Find a relative or neighbor to come over and stay with the patient d) Stay with the patient until he has stopped vomiting

Your patient is a 23-year-old male who is unresponsive in the restroom of a bar. His respirations are slow and shallow, he has a heart rate of 50 beats per minute, he is sweating profusely, and he has constricted pupils. Which of the following substances is most likely responsible for the patient's condition? a) PCP b) Heroin c) LSD d) Ecstasy

Your patient is a 3-year-old female who has taken an unknown quantity of aspirin. She is conscious and alert. Which of the following orders is likely to be given by medical control? a) Induce vomiting by placing your finger in the child's throat. b) Administer activated charcoal c) Administer syrup of ipecac. d) Administer one to two glasses of milk.

Your patient is a 30-year-old construction worker who fell from scaffolding and has been impaled through the right orbit by a 36-inch piece of concrete reinforcement bar. The patient responds to verbal stimuli and appears to have multiple other injuries. Which of the following is the best course of action? a) Remove the reinforcement bar and pack the orbit with sterile moist dressings to keep the scene time under 10 minutes. b) Firmly stabilize the reinforcement bar in place so that the rescue crew can cut it short c) Test the reinforcement bar for stability and remove it only if it is loose enough to be easily pulled from the wound. d) Transport with the reinforcement bar in place to prevent delay at the scene

Your patient is a 32-year-old man with a fish hook that has perforated his hand between the thumb and index finger. Which of the following is the best way to manage the situation in the prehospital setting? a) Push the hook through the wound to avoid further damage from the barbed end. b) Leave the hook in place and try not to disturb it. c) Apply a pressure dressing over the hook. d) Pull the hook out from the same direction in which it entered the hand.

Your patient is a 35-year-old female who spilled a cup of hot coffee on herself. She has an area about twice the size of the palm of her hand on her right thigh that is red and painful, but without blisters. When caring for this injury in the prehospital setting, which of the following is appropriate? a) Apply a lotion containing a topical anesthetic and aloe vera. b) Apply a dry sterile dressing. c) Apply an antibiotic ointment. d) Apply a plastic bag full of ice to the skin

Your patient is a 38-year-old male who has taken an overdose of several different medications and has consumed some household cleaning agents as well. On your arrival, the patient only responds to painful stimuli and has a heart rate of 90 beats per minute with a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute. Medical control orders you to give the patient two to three glasses of milk to drink to dilute the contents of the stomach. Which of the following actions should you do? a) Assist the patient in drinking only one glass of milk to reduce the risk of aspiration. b) Refuse the order and explain why c) Ask medical control if you can substitute water for the milk since water will not damage the lungs if aspirated. d) Assist the patient in drinking as much of the two to three glasses of milk as he can.

Your patient is a 40-year-old man who was burned when he spilled gasoline on his pants as he was standing near the pilot light of his hot water heater. He has partial thickness burns from his feet to just above his knees, and circumferentially around both legs. Using the rule of nines, which of the following most accurately represents the extent of body surface area burned? a) 4.5 percent b) 18 percent c) 36 percent d) 9 percent

Your patient is a 44-year-old female who has collapsed while jogging. She has been unresponsive for 4 to 5 minutes by the time you arrive. Her husband appears to be performing high-quality CPR. Which of the following should be your FIRST action? a) Insert an oropharyngeal airway and begin ventilations. b) Apply the AED c) Stop CPR and check for a pulse d) Load the patient into the ambulance for further assessment

Your patient is a 44-year-old female with a history of alcoholism. She has been walking around at an outdoor fair on a hot, sunny day. She is disoriented to time; has hot, dry skin; and appears to be generally weak. Which of the following is the appropriate sequence of treatment for this patient? a) Get as much ice as possible from the food vendors at the fair, place the patient in a large container of ice, and apply b) Give oxygen by nonrebreather mask, remove heavy clothing, and place cold packs on her neck, armpits, and groin. c) Have the patient stand outside the ambulance and slowly drink an electrolyte solution or sports drink d) Give oxygen by nonrebreather mask and have the patient rest, monitoring the patient's improvement over time

Your patient is a 44-year-old male with a history of diabetes. He is lying on the living room floor, unresponsive to all stimuli. He has a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute and heart rate of 112 beats per minute, and is pale and sweaty. Which of the following should you do to treat this patient? a) Place the patient in the recovery position to protect the airway and place oral glucose solution under the patient's tongue b) Place the patient in the recovery position, administer oxygen, and monitor his airway status c) Encourage the patient's family to administer his insulin d) Apply oral glucose solution to a tongue depressor and insert it between the patient's cheek and gums.

Your patient is a 7-year-old girl who was prescribed an antibiotic for an ear infection. After 4 days on the antibiotic, the patient is experiencing hives and itching on her face, throat, and neck. Which of the following should you do? a) Advise the parents to call the pediatrician for a different antibiotic b) Provide supportive care and monitor the patient's condition during transport to the hospital c) Immediately administer EpiPen Jr. ® d) Advise the parents that these symptoms are related to the ear infection and the antibiotic will take care of these symptoms if taken as directed.

Your patient is a conscious 16-year-old female who has ingested an unknown number of sleeping pills. Which of the following questions is least pertinent to the care of this patient? a) How much do you weigh? b) Who do these sleeping pills belong to? c) Has anyone tried to treat you with anything? d) Over what period of time did you take the pills?

Your patient is an 11-year-old male who has a swollen, painful, and angulated right lower arm after falling from his bicycle onto his hands. Which of the following should be considered in the immobilization of his injured extremity? a) Do not attempt to realign the extremity before splinting. b) Check pulse, movement, and sensation distal to the injury before and after splinting c) Use an upper extremity traction splint. d) Immobilize from the shoulder to the wrist.

Your patient is an infant who has just been delivered 3 weeks before her due date. She is breathing adequately, has a heart rate of 140 beats per minute, and has cyanosis of her face and chest. Which of the following interventions should be done first? a) Begin CPR with a compression rate of 120/minute. b) Place oxygen tubing near the infant's face at a flow rate of 10 to 12 liters per minute c) Perform ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen. d) Place a neonatal nonrebreather mask on the infant's face.

our patient is a 10-year-old male whose jacket hood caught on a branch as he jumped out of a tree. He was momentarily suspended about 12 inches off the ground but was immediately lowered to the ground by his brothers. Which of the following injuries should you suspect? a) Thoracic spine injury b) Cervical spine injury c) Soft-tissue injury of the neck only d) Lumbar spine injury

f the baby's umbilical cord is noted to be wrapped around his neck after the head is delivered, which of the following should be done? a) Immediately cut the cord before delivering the baby. b) Try to slip the cord over the baby's head and shoulder c) Clamp the cord in two places, but do not cut it until the baby is delivered d) Transport emergently without further intervention

35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of itchy, watery eyes. Her blood pressure is beginning to fall, but she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her condition? a) mild allergy b) dyspnea c) anaphylaxis d) shock

A 37-year-old male was hit by a trolley and his foot was almost severed. It is only connected by some skin and crushed bone. What should you do? a) Complete the amputation. It will make the injury much easier to handle b) Immediately apply a tourniquet to control bleeding. c) Apply a pressure dressing to control bleeding, stabilize the foot by splinting, apply oxygen, and transport as a priority patient. d) Because of the seriousness of the injury, wait for ALS before providing any care.

A method of assessing compromise to an extremity when a musculoskeletal injury is suspected is to learn and follow the six Ps. Which of the items below is not one of the six Ps? a) pallor b) pain c) parenthesis d) paresthesia

A patient who demonstrates any one of the three symptoms from the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale has a(n) ________% chance of having an acute stroke. a) 50 b) 80 c) 70 d) 60

A patient who has abused "uppers" will display which of the following signs and symptoms? a) Slurred speech, constricted pupils, and frequent urination b) Constricted pupils, hypotension, and blurred vision c) Excessive talkativeness, dilated pupils, and dry mouth d) Dilated pupils, excessive salivation, and food cravings

A patient with jugular vein distention is most likely suffering from which of the following injuries? a) Hemopneumothorax b) Hemothorax c) Pneumothorax d) Tension pneumothorax

A respiratory rate of less than ________ in infants is a significant finding and indicates a critical patient who should be immediately transported to a trauma center if secondary to trauma. a) 18 b) 25 c) 30 d) 20

A traction splint may be used on which of the following musculoskeletal injuries? a) Suspected multiple fractures of the femur, tibia, and fibula b) Possible fracture of the humerus c) Possible fracture of the femur d) Possible fracture of the cervical spine

According to CDC guidelines, a systolic blood pressure (BP) of less than ________ indicates a patient should be transported to a trauma center. a) 100 b) 80 c) 90 d) 110

According to coworkers, your 25-year-old female patient suddenly began acting aggressively and being verbally abusive. She tells you she is "starving" and you notice that she is pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following would be an appropriate general impression? a) Sudden onset of schizophrenia b) Alcohol withdrawal c) An underlying physical illness d) Alcoholic intoxication

According to the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) system, which of the following criteria would not contribute to a patient's likelihood of developing sepsis? a) Systolic blood pressure of 76 b) Respiratory rate of 32 c) Heart rate of 87 d) Temperature of 95.3°F

After administering epinephrine per medical control via an auto-injector to an unresponsive anaphylactic adult patient, your partner reassesses the lung sounds. He tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields whereas before the injection they were diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower. What is your suspicion regarding the patient's condition? a) The patient's condition is worsening. b) The patient's condition is improving. c) The patient is about to go into cardiac arrest d) There is no change in the patient's condition

Allowing a patient's body temperature to increase by preventing further heat loss is referred to as which of the following? a) Core rewarming b) Natural rewarming c) Passive rewarming d) Active rewarming

Assessing blood pressure on a patient with an AV shunt, fistula, or graft could lead to which of the following? a) Nothing, because there is no need to avoid assessing blood pressure in a patient's arm with an AV fistula, shunt, or graft. b) Inaccurate blood pressure readings c) Damage to the AV shunt, fistula, or graft, requiring surgery d) Uncontrollable hemorrhage in the extremity

By definition, a systemic poison causes harm to which of the following? a) Specific organ b) . Stomach and intestines c) Entire body d) Localized areas of tissue

Concerning the threat of nuclear devices used in terrorist attacks, which of the following is most likely to be used in such an attack? a) Military nuclear device b) Improvised nuclear weapon c) Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research d) Radiologic dispersal device

Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions that should be written to address the events that are conceivable for a particular location. They should also be: a) written, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed. b) written, realistic, and rehearsed c) well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed d) well publicized, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed.

During transport, where should the catheter bag be after loading the patient and stretcher into the ambulance if the patient has an indwelling urinary catheter? a) In the patient's lap, but not higher than his heart b) On the ambulance floor c) Lower than the patient, but not on the floor d) Hanging from the ceiling of the ambulance or IV pole higher than the patient

During your primary assessment, you find your patient has an altered mental status. This could indicate which of the following? a) The need to complete a secondary assessment b) Problems with the RAS due to hypertension c) Failing respiratory system d) The need for suctioning of the airway

EMS operations generally include which six areas? a) Extrication, Staging, Triage, Air operations, Transportation, and Rehabilitation b) Extrication, Operations, Logistics, Triage, Finance, and Transportation c) Extrication, Staging, Triage, Treatment, Transportation, and Rehabilitation d) Extrication, Staging, Logistics, Triage, Operations, and Transportation

Eduardo is an EMT for a major metropolitan fire department. He is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaking drum. Eduardo's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. a) First Responder Operations b) Hazardous Materials Specialist c) Hazardous Materials Technician d) First Responder Awareness

For the EMT, which of the following is the most important question to ask of a diabetic patient or his family members? a) Do you have a family history of diabetes? b) Do you have a fruity taste in your mouth? c) When was the last time you had something to eat? d) What kind of insulin do you take?

For the reticular activating system (RAS) to work correctly, what three substances are needed? a) Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, insulin to nourish brain tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated b) Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, insulin to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated c) C. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated d) Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated

For which of the following patients should the EMT carefully continue to monitor the patient's ventilatory status throughout treatment and transport due to the greatest risk of respiratory failure? a) 17-year-old male with a blistering sunburn on his face b) 28-year-old male who spilled a strong industrial acid on his legs c) 16-year-old male whose shirt caught on fire, resulting in circumferential burns of his chest d) 34-year-old male who opened the radiator of his car and had hot fluid spray on his chest, resulting in redness and pain in an area about the size of the patient's hand

For which of the following wounds should the EMT apply an absorbent dressing moistened with sterile saline? a) Stab wound to the chest b) Laceration to the neck c) Gunshot wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding d) A hemothorax from an object impaled into the chest

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a neurological assessment that looks at which of the following? a) Motor response, arm movement, and speech b) Grip strength, verbal response, and eye opening c) Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response

If a patient is having a myocardial infarction not an allergic reaction and receives an epinephrine auto-injection, which of the following will most likely occur? a) no reaction if administered inadvertently b) bradycardia c) stronger and faster heartbeat d) relief of shortness of breath

If an EMT is tasked with managing the family of a patient who is deceased after termination of resuscitation, what is an effective care strategy? a) Minimize the family's time with the deceased patient. b) Prevent the family from seeing the deceased patient c) Be straightforward and use direct language d) Tell the family the EMT knows how they feel.

If the baby's head is delivered with the amniotic sac still intact, which of the following should be done first? a) Call medical control before taking action b) Leave the sac intact until the entire body is delivered. c) Use your fingers to tear the sac away from the baby's face d) Use the scissors in the obstetrics kit to cut the sac away from the baby's head.

If you do not have a commercial tourniquet available, what common supply found on the ambulance can be used as a substitute? a) cold pack b) air splint c) triangle bandage d) rope tie-down

In mild cases, what may overcome acute mountain sickness? a) Vigorous exercise b) Positive-pressure ventilations c) Rest and rehydration at altitude d) Moving the patient to a higher altitude

In most cases, which of the following is the correct way to provide initial management of a suspected cervical spine injury? a) Provide approximately 15 pounds of upward cervical traction b) Maintain the patient's head and neck in the position they are found. c) Hold the patient's head still in a neutral, "eyes forward" position d) Gently apply pressure to the top of the patient's head

It is a chilly fall morning and you are called to an RV campground for three patients who are complaining of headache, dizziness, and nausea. Your primary assessment reveals that they are cyanotic and have an altered mental status. You suspect: a) food poisoning b) bee sting c) carbon monoxide poisoning d) snake bit

It is important that, as an EMS provider, you avoid creating a situation where positional asphyxia could occur. Which of the following is positional asphyxia? a) Positional asphyxia is the position the person is seated in when you approach him b) Positional asphyxia is a birth defect that causes psychiatric issues and is initiated because of the way the fetus was positioned in the uterus. c) Positional asphyxia is inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body position that restricts breathing d) Positional asphyxia is the name for the position someone assumes after she has been hit with a taser.

Johnny is an EMT with a local ambulance service. As part of his job, he is trained to recognize the existence of a potentially dangerous scene involving hazardous materials and know when to request a HAZMAT response. Johnny's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. a) First Responder Operations b) Hazardous Materials Technician c) First Responder Awareness d) Hazardous Materials Specialist

Many factors that cause dizziness and syncope are generally related to the: a) heart b) lungs c) brain d) kidneys

Mechanical CPR devices are used by EMS agencies in order to provide: a) a 100% success rate b) better quality of care with less training. c) high-quality compressions d) a faster response time to the scene.

Most cases of accidental poisoning involve which of the following? a) adolescents b) infants c) young children d) adults

Most epinephrine auto-injectors contain how many doses of epinephrine? a) two b) three c) one d) none of the above

Most of the diabetic emergencies that you will be called to deal with will be related to hypoglycemia. However, occasionally you will experience an instance of hyperglycemia. In the list below, which item is NOT likely to be a sign or symptom of hyperglycemia? a) nausea b) chronic thirst c) reduced rate of breathing d) excessive urination

Most state statutes allow an emergency vehicle operator to do which of the following on emergency calls? a) Drive around lowered cross-arms at a railroad crossing. b) Be exempt from liability in the event of a collision. c) Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered d) Pass a stopped school bus with its red flashers on.

Mumps infection is primarily spread through a) blood and saliva b) all body fluids c) saliva and droplets d) airborne droplets and direct contact.

Of the following patients, which injury is the highest priority to receive bag-valve mask ventilations? a) 70-year-old male who struck his head when he fell in the parking lot, has a large laceration on his forehead, and is disoriented b) 25-year-old male who regained consciousness one or two minutes after being struck on the head by a baseball bat and is now asking repetitive questions c) 15-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle, struck her head on a tree, and displays decerebrate movements in response to painful stimuli d) 25-year-old female victim of battery who is awake but complains of a headache and has bloody fluid draining from her nose and left ear

Pain that the patient feels in a body part or area of the body that has nothing to do with a diseased organ is termed: a) retroperitoneal pain. b) abdominal pain. c) referred pain. d) epigastric pain.

Regarding activated charcoal, which of the following is not true? a) It can reduce the amount of poison absorbed by the gastrointestinal system. b) Ingestion of strong acids or alkalis is a contraindication to its use. c) It is an antidote to many poisons d) It does not work on all poisons.

Regarding ambulance warning devices, which of the following statements is not true? a) It is a good idea for the light package of the ambulance to combine several types of lights b) In most states it is illegal to drive at night with only one headlight c) The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately. d) Four-way flashers should not be used as emergency lights.

Regarding the use of emergency sirens, which of the following is false? a) Dense shrubbery may block the sound of the siren. b) The sound of the siren may increase the patient's anxiety c) Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise d) EMTs should assume that other drivers cannot hear the siren.

Rough handling of a patient with severe hypothermia may result in which of the following? a) rewarming shock b) heart attack c) Ventricular fibrillation d) Seizures

Smoke inhalation can result in all of the following except: a) cardiac arrest b) respiratory arrest c) lung contusion d) carbon monoxide poisoning

The K-Specs standards deal with: a) training and education of field personnel. b) air evacuation of trauma victims. c) ambulance design. d) minimum standard medical protocols

The chest cavity can hold up to ________ liter(s) of blood in an adult, leading to the possibility of massive internal hemorrhage without any external blood loss a) 5 b) 1 c) 3 d) 0.5

The meatus is: a) in a male, the area between the scrotum and the anus. b) the canal through which urine is discharged from the bladder to the exterior of the body. c) the external opening of the urethra d) the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder

The opioid triad includes all of the following except: a) respiratory depression b) coma c) hypertension d) pinpoint pupils

The part of the skeleton that includes the skull and spinal column is called the: a) torso b) appendicular skeleton c) axial skeleton d) boney skeleton

The pathophysiology of ________ is one in which the pericardial sac fills with blood to the point that the chambers of the heart no longer fill adequately, usually secondary to trauma. a) commotio cordis b) cardiac tamponade c) pericardial effusion d) hemopneumothorax

The purpose of a constricting band after a venomous snake bite is to impede the spread of which of the following? a) lymph b) arterial blood c) venom d) both a and c

The senior EMT on the first vehicle that arrives on a scene with multiple patients should assume which of the following roles until relieved by a senior official? a) Triage supervisor b) Commander of the entire incident c) Incident Command of the scene d) Transportation supervisor

The type of radiation that requires lead shielding for your protection is: a) alpha b) delta c) gamma d) beta

To determine the appropriate depth an EMT should insert a catheter tip into a tracheostomy tube in order to clear a blocked airway, the EMT should: a) insert the catheter until the tip is no longer visible. b) measure from the stoma to the carina c) measure against the length of the obturator. d) multiply the internal diameter of the tracheal tube by 10

To rescue someone who has fallen through the ice, which of the following is the safest device to use? a) Jet-ski b) Ring buoy c) Flat-bottomed aluminum boat d) Ladder

Traditionally an APGAR score is taken at what time intervals after birth? a) 1 and 6 minutes b) 2 and 7 minutes c) 1 and 5 minutes d) 5 and 10 minutes

Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is not breathing initially, but begins breathing when the airway is open, is deemed a ________ patient. a) Priority 3 b) Priority 0 c) Priority 1 d) Priority 2

What clinical finding is most suggestive of an inhaled poison? a) Altered mental status b) Tachypnea c) Black-colored sputum d) Swollen tongue

What criterion based on the CDC guidelines allows a discretionary approach to trauma triage? a) Motorcycle crash greater than 20 mph b) Partial ejection from automobile c) EMS provider judgment d) Fall greater than 20 feet

What does ventricular fibrillation do? a) Forces the heartbeat to become quite rapid b) Causes asphyxial cardiac arrest c) Prevents the heart muscle from contracting normally d) Initiates commotio cordis

What is another name for the zygomatic bone? a) maxillae b) temporal c) malar d) mandible

What is the correct terminology for a wound in which a vacuum has been created within the chest, drawing air into the thorax through a penetration of the chest wall with each breath? a) Closed tension pneumothorax b) Open chest wound c) Sucking chest wound d) Paradoxical motion

What is the definition of multisystem trauma? a) Trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury b) A trauma in which there are multiple casualties c) One or more injuries that affect more than one body system d) A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies

What is the highest Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) measurement indicating altered mental status according to CDC guidelines? a) 14 b) 8 c) 13 d) 12

What is the underlying cause of bluish or reddish facial discoloration following traumatic asphyxia? a) The physiological strain of the body results in a flushed appearance and increased risk of a hypertensive event. b) The bluish or reddish facial discoloration is not associated with traumatic asphyxia; a pale discoloration is usually present. c) High pressure on the chest leads to blood being forced from the right atrium into the face and neck. d) The patient has become hypoxic due to a chest injury, and the finding suggests central cyanosis.

What type of trauma triage criteria regarding transport would a finger amputation receive? a) Trauma center b) Any hospital, as long as on-line medical direction approves the facility's capabilities c) Any hospital with surgical facilities d) Patient's choice of destination

When a poison attaches to the chemical structure of activated charcoal, which of the following best describes this mechanism of action? a) incorporation b) inactivation c) adsorption d) absorption

When arriving as the first unit at the location of a motor vehicle collision on an interstate highway, you should position the ambulance so that: a) it is at the bottom of the nearest on-ramp. b) you are nearest to the command post for easy communications with the incident commander c) the crash is blocked by traffic with your vehicle as a barrier. d) it is between the damaged vehicles.

When controlling the scene of an emergency involving damaged power poles and downed electrical wires, the EMT must remember to: a) use nonconductive implements to make a safe path to victims. b) render the scene safe before entering the danger zone c) request appropriate personnel to cut the power source d) use double-thickness gloves to insulate the body from electrocution

When log-rolling a patient with a suspected spinal injury, which of the following EMTs directs the move? a) EMT with the most seniority b) EMT at the heaviest portion of the patient c) EMT at the head of the patient d) EMT with the highest level of training

When managing an electrical burn, the EMT should: When managing an electrical burn, the EMT should: a) never attempt CPR unless it is within 4 minutes of contact. b) check for a source and ground burn injury c) always attempt to remove the patient from the electrical source d) quickly check the pulse, even if the patient is still in contact with the electrical source

When restraining a patient, which of the following is not a consideration? a) Number of people available to carry out the required actions b) Patient's size and strength c) Patient's informed consent d) How to position the patient

When should the EMT calculate a GCS with a patient who suffered a fall of 20 feet from his apartment building? a) At the hospital before writing the care report b) Before departing from the scene c) En route to the hospital d) As he approaches the patient

When the gallbladder is diseased, the pain is not only felt in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) but also in the right shoulder. This is known as a) parietal pain b) tearing pain c) referred pain d) visceral pain

Which of the following allows for smooth movement of bone surfaces against one another at joints? a) tendons b) smooth muscle c) cartlige d) ligaments

Which of the following best describes an evisceration? a) A penetrating chest wound in which air is "sucked" into the chest cavity b) Movement of ribs opposite to the direction of movement of the rest of the chest wall c) Open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude d) Fracture of two or more adjacent ribs in two or more places

Which of the following best describes placenta previa? a) The umbilical cord is the presenting part b) The pregnancy is lost before the 20th week of gestation. c) The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix d) The placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.

Which of the following best describes why it is important for the EMT to understand the extrication process? a) To take over the extrication process if requested by the rescue technicians b) To provide direction to the rescue technicians if they appear to be making errors c) To anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process d) All of the above

Which of the following describes an open extremity injury? a) A gunshot wound has penetrated the skin and then fractured the bone. b) Bone ends have lacerated the soft tissues and skin from the inside c) Both A and B d) The joint capsule has been torn open during a dislocation.

Which of the following describes any substance produced by a living organism that is poisonous to human beings? a) antigen b) acid c) toxin d) antibody

Which of the following describes the EMT's MOST important role in the ideal provision of emergency cardiac care? a) Postarrest care following advanced life support b) Recognition and activation of emergency response system c) Immediate high-quality CPR and rapid defibrillation d) Early advanced cardiac life support

Which of the following describes the condition of having an abnormally high body temperature? a) Perspiration b) Heat exhaustion c) Hyperthermia d) Heat shock

Which of the following describes the proper position of the patient's head for spinal immobilization? a) Chin tilted upward for airway maintenance b) The "sniffing" position c) Neutral, inline position d) Stabilized in position found

Which of the following does not commonly lead to anaphylaxis? a) penicillin b) wasp stings c) cat dander d) peanuts

Which of the following hazards may arise from properly splinting an injured extremity? a) Compromising circulation to the extremity b) Converting a closed fracture to an open one c) Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury d) All of the above

Which of the following injuries is considered an indirect brain injury? a) Depressed skull fracture with cerebral penetration by bone fragments b) Cerebral laceration c) Concussion d) Gunshot wound to the head

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of stroke? a) vomiting b) sudden impairment of vision c) chest pain d) seizure

Which of the following is a common reason that EMTs are struck by motor vehicles at the scene of motor vehicle collisions on roadways? a) EMTs sometimes lose track of what they are doing and wander into traffic b) Drivers who are angry at being delayed deliberately take out their frustrations on rescue workers c) Drivers are distracted by the scene of the collision and do not pay attention to what they are doing d) All of the above

Which of the following is a description of the rule of nines for an adult? a) The rule of nines assigns 9 percent to the head and neck, each upper extremity, the chest, the abdomen, the upper back, and the lower back and buttocks; 8 percent to the front of each lower extremity; and 10 percent for the back of each lower extremity, then 1 percent to the genital region b) The rule of nines assigns 9 percent to the head and neck, as well as each upper extremity; 10 percent to the chest, the abdomen, and the upper back; 8 percent to the lower back and buttocks, the front of each lower extremity, and the back of each lower extremity, then 1 percent to the genital region. c) The rule of nines assigns 9 percent to the head and neck, each upper extremity, the chest, the abdomen, the upper back, the lower back and buttocks, the front of each lower extremity, and the back of each lower extremity, then 1 percent to the genital region d) The rule of nines assigns 9 percent to the head and neck; 6 percent to each upper extremity; 12 percent to the chest and abdomen; 9 percent to the upper back, the lower back and buttocks, the front of each lower extremity, and the back of each lower extremity, then 1 percent to the genital region

Which of the following is a muscle injury caused by overstretching or overexertion of the muscle? a) fracture b) sprain c) strain d) luxation

Which of the following is a strategy to maintain adherence of an occlusive dressing to bloody or diaphoretic skin? a) Do not use occlusive dressings in this case b) Do not use adhesive tape c) Manually maintain pressure. d) Wrap the dressing circumferentially with gauze.

Which of the following is acceptable when actively rewarming a hypothermic patient? a) Encouraging the patient to exercise b) Giving the patient hot coffee c) Avoid rewarming the limbs d) Warming the patient as quickly as possible

Which of the following is acceptable when managing the patient with a behavioral or psychiatric emergency? a) Sit as close to the patient as you can to reassure him that you will not abandon him. b) Allow family members to confront the patient about his behavior c) Make supportive statements such as, "That must have been very hard for you." d) Go along with the patient's hallucinations or false beliefs.

Which of the following is an action caused by epinephrine in anaphylaxis? a) bronchoconstriction b) decreased heart rate c) vasconcstriction d) all of the above

Which of the following is an unreliable sign for determining the presence of a tension pneumothorax? a) distended neck veins b) signs and symptoms of shock c) trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury d) shortness of breath

Which of the following is caused by trapped nitrogen gas in the tissues due to a rapid ascent from a scuba dive? a) pulmonary embolism b) arterial gas embolism c) decompression sickness d) myocardial infarction

Which of the following is not a cause of abdominal pain? a) food poisoning b) diabetes c) stroke d) heart attack

Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of a traction splint? a) Injury to the lower third of the leg that would interfere with the ankle hitch b) Avulsion or partial amputation where traction could separate the extremity c) Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur d) Pelvis, hip, or knee injury

Which of the following is not a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous materials? a) disinfection b) disposal c) deodorization d) emulsification

Which of the following is not a purpose for making airway management the highest priority in shock patients with nonmassive bleeding? a) It allows for improved elimination of carbon dioxide. b) It allows for oxygenation of the lungs. c) It promotes bronchoconstriction of the smaller airways d) It minimizes the chances of aspiration of blood or vomit

Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials emergency? a) Staying in the cold zone b) Rehabilitating the HAZMAT team c) Decontaminating injured victims d) Treating injured patients

Which of the following is not a type of avulsion? a) The skin is stripped off the hand, like removing a glove. b) An ear is partially torn away from the head c) A finger is cut off with a butcher's saw d) The skin is partially torn away from the foot.

Which of the following is not an acceptable method or adjunct in restraining a patient? a) Restraining the patient face-up b) Securing all four limbs with leather restraints c) Hog-tying the patient d) Placing a surgical mask over the patient's face to prevent spitting

Which of the following is not an acceptable way of attempting to identify a hazardous material? a) Asking the driver of the tractor-trailer truck involved in the incident b) Using binoculars to obtain information from the placard on a container c) Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis d) Checking the safety data sheet

Which of the following is not an example of a specialty rescue team? a) High-angle rescue b) Water rescue c) Advanced cardiac life support d) Confined-space rescue

Which of the following is not an indication that epinephrine is helping the anaphylaxis patient's condition? a) increased blood pressure b) increased heart rate c) increased dyspnea d) both B and C

Which of the following is not considered soft tissue? a) the skin b) muscles c) cartilage d) membranes

Which of the following is not part of the circulatory system? a) blood b) blood vessels c) brain d) heart

Which of the following is not recommended when controlling epistaxis? a) Placing the unconscious patient in the recovery position b) Pinching the nostrils together c) Having the patient tilt the head backward to elevate the nose d) Keeping the patient calm and quiet

Which of the following is not relevant in determining whether or not delivery is imminent for a woman in labor? a) Finding out how many times the patient has been pregnant b) Determining whether the patient feels as if she needs to move her bowels c) Phoning the patient's obstetrician for advice d) Asking how long ago the contractions began

Which of the following is not the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materials emergency? a) Establishing a safe zone b) Requesting special resources to respond c) Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill d) Recognizing a hazardous materials emergency

Which of the following is optional equipment? a) flashlights b) disinfectant solution c) infant oxygen masks d) lubricating jelly

Which of the following is the LEAST important question in obtaining the history of a seizure patient in the prehospital setting? a) Did the patient lose control of his bladder? b) What was the patient doing before the seizure? c) Does the patient have a family history of seizures? d) How did the patient behave during the seizure?

Which of the following is the best protection for an EMT's upper body during an extrication operation? a) Nylon jacket with asbestos lining b) Thick fireproof blanket draped around the shoulders c) Firefighting turnout coat d) Thick wool coat

Which of the following is the cause of the black residue found in a patient's mouth and nose following smoke inhalation? a) tar b) cyanide c) carbon d) carbon monoxide

Which of the following is the correct position to use when transporting a patient who has a tracheostomy tube a) shock position b) prone c) head slightly elevated d) supine

Which of the following is the correct technique to check for crowning in the assessment of a woman in labor? a) Place your hand on the woman's abdomen, just above the umbilicus, and check for the firmness of the uterus during contractions b) Ask the woman to "push" or "bear down" as you inspect the vaginal opening c) Cover her with a sheet, have her remove her underwear, wait for a contraction, and then visualize the vaginal opening. d) None of the above

Which of the following is the correct way to time the frequency of contractions in the pregnant woman? a) From the beginning of a contraction to the end of the same contraction b) From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next c) From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next d) After counting the number of contractions in a 15-minute period, multiply by 4

Which of the following is the least effective method of controlling bleeding? a) direct pressure b) hemostatic agent c) elevation d) tourniquet

Which of the following is the main advantage of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis? a) Peritoneal dialysis is more effective b) Peritoneal dialysis is much faster. c) Peritoneal dialysis is likely to be done at the patient's home. d) Peritoneal dialysis is less prone to infection.

Which of the following is the major cause of shock that the EMT will encounter? a) excessive sweating b) vomiting c) hemorrhage d) high blood pressure

Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in adults? a) Withdrawal from alcohol b) Head trauma c) Failure to take prescribed medication d) Fever

Which of the following is the opening at the base of the skull? a) Spinous process b) Temporomandibular joint c) Foramen magnum d) Orbits

Which of the following is the underlying cause of neurogenic shock? a) Failure of the heart to adequately pump blood b) Blood loss from damaged spinal blood vessels c) Failure of the nervous system to control the diameter of blood vessels d) Extreme emotional response to paralysis

Which of the following is true concerning a stillborn baby? a) Resuscitation must always be attempted b) Infants born in cardiopulmonary arrest should not be resuscitated. c) The death may occur weeks before delivery d) The parents should never be allowed to see the baby, especially if it has begun to deteriorate.

Which of the following is true concerning prehospital delivery of twins? a) There are always two placentas b) The umbilical cord of the first infant must not be cut until the second infant is born c) The infants will probably be smaller than a single infant and special attention should be paid to keeping them warm d) This is a true emergency and cannot be managed outside the hospital setting without additional help

Which of the following may be a source of ignition when rescuing people who are trapped in a car that has stopped off the roadway in a field of dried grass? a) Battery b) Leaking coolant c) Catalytic converter d) Mobile radio

Which of the following must be treated by the EMT if present in a patient with an apparent behavioral emergency? a) Acute alcohol intoxication b) Severe clinical depression c) Hypoglycemia d) Suicidal ideology

Which of the following operational reasons warrant the use of helicopter transport from the scene to a medical fac a) The patient is in cardiac arrest b) The patient may go into shock shortly. c) The patient is located in a remote area. d) The distance to the medical facility is 15 minutes away

Which of the following patients is at the lowest risk of developing sepsis? a) An elderly patient who is recovering from abdominal surgery b) A patient with a compromised immune system who has a permanent gastrostomy tube c) A college-aged patient who breaks his arm in a skateboard crash d) A pediatric patient who has developed pneumonia in both lungs

Which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for patients in a hazardous materials emergency? a) HEPA mask b) HEPA mask c) Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls d) Chemical permeable gloves

Which of the following pieces of equipment is acceptable for use in the prehospital stabilization of suspected cervical spine injuries? a) soft cervical collars b) pair of pillows c) rigid cervical collas d) long spine board

Which of the following preventive measures is useful against all communicable diseases? a) Vaccination b) Covering sneezes and coughs c) Standard Precautions d) Hand washing

Which of the following refers to a condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living? a) handicapped b) terminal c) disability d) disabled

Which of the following signifies a failure in the patient's compensatory response to blood loss? a) pale, cool skin b) tachycardia c) hypotension d) tachypnea

Which of the following situations generally allows the EMT to transport a patient with a behavioral emergency against his or her wishes? a) The patient's personal physician gives you permission b) A family member gives consent and is willing to accompany the patient c) The patient is a threat to himself or others d) The patient's insurance company agrees to pay, even though the patient has not given consent.

Which of the following statements about bacteria is false? a) Over time, bacteria have developed resistance to some antibiotics. b) Sepsis is a serious and sometimes deadly complication of bacterial infection c) Bacteria need to be inside the body in order to reproduce. d) Some bacteria inside the body are good and necessary to survival.

Which of the following statements about neurogenic shock is true? a) Neurogenic shock is caused by the blood vessels overfilling with blood, causing leaking into the nerves. b) Neurogenic shock is the result of the blood vessels decreasing in size c) Neurogenic shock is sometimes caused by spinal injuries d) Neurogenic shock is the most common type of shock

Which of the following statements about seizures is NOT true? a) A generalized seizure affects the entire brain b) The most common seizure that EMTs are likely to be called on is a tonic-clonic seizure c) Many seizures are followed by an aura d) A partial seizure affects one part, or one side, of the brain

Which of the following statements about sepsis is true? a) Patients who use urinary catheters are at a decreased risk of sepsis because catheter use makes it harder for microbes to enter the urinary tract. b) Treatment of sepsis has changed and improved over time, but the definition of the condition has remained relatively unchanged c) The exact pathway for the development of sepsis remains unclear, and most cases do not have a clearly defined source d) Infections of the lungs commonly lead to sepsis, but sepsis is not typically associated with cases of pneumonia.

Which of the following statements concerning a concussion is true? a) It is a bruising of the brain tissue b) It is accompanied by recurrent episodes of unconsciousness. c) The patient may not have any symptoms of the injury d) All of the above

Which of the following statements is false regarding an electrical injury? a) Treatment of a source burn is the same as for other thermal burns. b) Patients with burns that appear insignificant are treated as having critical injuries. c) Injury is usually limited to the area around the source and ground burns. d) Patients with electrical burns may be treated with the automated external defibrillator (AED) and CPR.

Which of the following statements regarding behavioral emergencies is false? a) Patients experiencing a behavioral emergency are not always dangerous to themselves or others b) Cultural differences may cause a patient's behavior to initially appear abnormal to the EMT c) It is unusual to find a person with schizophrenia outside a mental health facility. d) Apparent behavioral emergencies may be due to an underlying medical cause

Which of the following systems includes the pairs of nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between each pair of vertebrae? a) Central nervous system b) Autonomic nervous system c) Peripheral nervous system d) All of the above

Which of the following types of radiation emits the most powerful rays? a) delta b) beta c) gamma d) alpha

Which of the following types of vessels have valves to maintain one-way blood flow? a) capillaries b) arteries c) veins d) arterioles

Which of the items below is NOT part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale? a) Have the patient repeat a simple sentence b) Ask the patient to smile. c) Test for equal grip strength. d) Test the patient for arm droop or lack of movement.

Which one of the following is not a key decision for the EMT when faced with a multisystem or multiple trauma patient? a) Do I need to minimize on-scene time? b) Should I transport to a trauma center? c) Should I allow police to interview the patient on scene? d) Is the patient seriously injured?

Which patient is experiencing visceral pain? a) 19-year-old female complaining of severe cramps in the lower abdominal quadrants b) 24-year-old male complaining of severe left flank pain c) 45-year-old female complaining of abdominal pain "all over" d) 28-year-old male with sharp pain in the right lower quadrant

Which patient is the highest priority? a) Patient with a Revised Trauma Score of 12 b) Patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 15 c) Patient with a penetrating chest injury d) Patient with a broken femur

Which patient requires transport to a trauma center? a) Patient who responds to verbal stimuli b) Patient responsive with a respiratory rate of 10 c) Unresponsive patient with hypotension d) Responsive patient with tachycardia

Which patient would most likely benefit from the administration of activated charcoal? a) 48-year-old man who attempted suicide by drinking Drano® b) 28-year-old male who is suffering from food poisoning after eating eggs contaminated with salmonella c) Alert 16-year-old female who overdosed on Tylenol® d) Unresponsive 28-year-old female who overdosed on sleeping pills

Which safety device prevents car doors from opening during a collision? a) Safety pin b) Safety lock c) Nader pin d) Nader jam

Which two types of terrorism does the Federal Bureau of Investigation define as occurring in the United States? a) Chemical and biologic b) Violence and intimidation c) Domestic and international d) Psychological and economic

Which type of wound has a small opening into the skin, but may be quite deep, and is often caused by instruments such as nails, ice picks, or pencils? a) incision b) avulsion c) puncture d) laceration

While assessing a 78-year-old male patient who escaped an apartment fire with partial thickness burns to both arms, the EMT must be aware of which of the following? a) The patient may need to be questioned by police and fire officials about the cause of the fire. b) Being involved in a crime makes the patient part of the chain of evidence, requiring a police officer to ride with you to the hospital. c) Medical conditions may be aggravated by the burn. d) The burn is the most serious injury to the patient.

While palpating the radial pulses of a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash, you notice a difference in the strength of the pulses bilaterally. This is a finding that you suspect may be associated with: a) commotio cordis. b) tension pneumothorax c) aortic dissection d) flail chest.

While staffing an emergency services dispatch center, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) receives a call from someone who is very upset and screaming that her friend was just shot. Which of the following does the EMD need to do in this situation? a) Provide the caller with information about local hospitals. b) Notify the victim's family of the incident. c) Ask the caller for her phone number d) Determine the location of the shooter.

Who is the person in charge of tracking the patient's final destination? a) Staging officer b) Incident Commander c) Transportation supervisor d) Treatment officer

Why is it important to remove constricting items such as rings before thawing a frozen extremity? a) Because thawing leaves clots behind in the veins b) To prevent damage to the property such as rings and watches c) Because thawed areas often swell d) All of the above

Why should an EMT utilize a local poison control center in managing a poisoning patient? a) They can activate a specialty team to come and treat the patient. b) It prevents the EMT from having to do training on poisons. c) They can assist in finding out important information about the poison d) It places any legal liability on the poison control center.

Why would an EMT give activated charcoal to a patient who overdosed on a medication? a) Activated charcoal is the antidote to medication poisoning. b) Activated charcoal coats the intestinal tract, preventing absorption by the body c) Activated charcoal binds to the medication, preventing absorption by the body d) Activated charcoal prevents the patient from vomiting.

You are an EMT on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which there are 50 patients from a bus roll-over. Incident Command has been established and EMS, law enforcement, and rescue sectors are established. You have just discovered that one of the bus passengers was carrying a suspicious package that is now leaking a white powdery substance. Which of the following entities should you contact about this? a) incident commander b) dispatch c) EMS officer d) rescue officer

You are assessing a 27-year-old female who is 9 months pregnant with her first child. She has been having contractions for the past 6 hours. As you are about to assist her to your cot, she asks you to wait because she feels the need to use the bathroom. Which of the following is the best course of action? a) Allow the patient to use the bathroom because it will make transport and delivery more comfortable b) Tell the patient she needs to be transported immediately and using the bathroom will have to wait until she arrives at the hospital. c) Advise the patient that this could be an indication that the baby is ready to be born and you need to check to see if the baby's head is visible d) Advise the patient that this could be a sign of a serious complication, have her lie on her left side, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport immediately

You are assessing a patient in the front seat of a vehicle that was involved in a head-on collision. As you examine the interior of the vehicle, you notice the airbags have not deployed. What action should you take in order to render the scene safe to work? a) Disconnect the battery and continue assessing the patient b) Use a long spine board to shield yourself from the undeployed airbag c) Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle d) Turn the ignition to the "off" position and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle

You are at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a single vehicle has collided with a tree. You note that the driver's side airbag has deployed. Which of the following is recommended by airbag experts? a) Cut away the fabric portion of the airbag to get it out of the way b) Sharply strike the front bumper to make sure the second airbag has deployed c) Lift the airbag and inspect the steering wheel for damage d) Use a portable fan to ventilate the car to remove the powder from the airbag.

You are called to a farm for a possible insecticide poisoning of one of the workers. Your first action is to: a) decontaminate the patient. b) call for an ALS unit c) call for specialized hazardous materials units d) bag the patient before he dies.

You are called to a residence for a 60-year-old male complaining of chest pain. You find the patient seated in bed. His past medical history includes hypertension and high cholesterol. The patient presents with hives over the chest, stridor, a swollen tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He denies any shortness of breath or respiratory distress, but does so in short two- to three-word statements. What condition do you suspect? a) angina pectoris b) asthma c) anaphylaxis d) acute myocardial infarction

You are called to the residence of a 78-year-old widow who lives alone with no children. She was found by neighbors on the floor of the living room. She has fallen and fractured her left humerus. She is disoriented and responds to verbal stimuli only. She has a blood pressure of 78/40 and a pulse of 48. She has a history of high blood pressure and takes medication for it. She also takes medication for high cholesterol and a medication to slow down a fast heart rate. Emergency Medical Responders find the medication bottles in the medicine cabinet and they are empty. Your partner suspects that she overdosed on her medications. Do you agree or disagree? a) Methamphetamine b) GHB c) Volatile chemicals d) Carbon monoxide poisoning

You are called to the scene of a local night club for a 21-year-old female patient who is bradycardic and in respiratory arrest. The patient's airway is patent and the chest easily rises with bag-valve-mask ventilation. The patient's friends state the patient had only one or two drinks when she suddenly complained of dizziness and "seeing things." Her friends state that she then passed out, started twitching like she was seizing, and then stopped. Her friends adamantly state that she does not do drugs. What situation do you suspect? a) alcohol overdose b) anaphylactic reaction to the alcoholic drink c) GHB overdose d) cocaine overdose

You are called to the scene of a patient with abdominal pain. Upon arrival, you find a 38-year-old Asian man on the floor next to his desk writhing in pain. He is complaining of severe right-sided flank pain. His blood pressure is 140/90, pulse 100, and his skin is ashen and diaphoretic. You suspect: a) myocardial infarction b) cholecystitis c) renal colic d) mid-cycle pain

You are called to the scene of a patient with influenza. She tells you her symptoms started about 5 days ago and that she began taking antiviral medication 2 days ago. Her symptoms have not improved since taking the medication. What is the most likely reason the medication has been ineffective? a) Antiviral medications are not effective against the flu because it is caused by bacteria rather than a virus. b) Antiviral medications for the flu work against the strains of the virus that are expected to be prevalent that year, and the medication isn't effective against the strain this patient has c) Antiviral medications for the flu must be started within 2 days of symptom onset to be effective. d) Antiviral medication is often ineffective because the flu virus is capable of rapidly mutating inside the body.

You are called to the scene of an attempted suicide. You arrive to find a 25-year-old man sitting on the sofa who apparently cut his wrists. Family members have bandaged them, and there does not appear to be any bleeding risk at this time. The scene is secure. Which action would not be appropriate in treating this patient? a) As soon as possible, perform a history and physical exam and provide emergency care on the wrist, if necessary. b) Watch for sudden changes in the patient's behavior and physical condition c) Take charge of the situation; let the patient know that what he has done is wrong and tell him he is coming with you whether he likes it or not d) Contact the receiving hospital and report on current mental status and other essential information.

You are caring for a 23-year-old female who fell off of a bicycle and sustained a severe laceration on the inside of her upper thigh. Her slacks are torn, and you can see most of the wound. What is the next step? a) You need to make sure the wound is very clean before trying to control bleeding by exposing the wound completely and cleaning it with alcohol. b) You can treat the wound without total exposure as exposing a wound in that area of the body could be embarrassing. c) You need to expose the wound completely, control bleeding, clean the surface by simply removing large pieces of foreign matter if any, and dress and bandage the wound. d) You need to expose the wound completely because you need to clear away any embedded particles and debris from the wound.

You are caring for a 27-year-old male who has a puncture wound to the right upper chest. The patient was stabbed with a serrated steak knife by his ex-girlfriend. You have placed an occlusive dressing on the site and begun emergent transport to the closest trauma center. However, while en route the patient begins to complain of increasing shortness of breath. You notice a decrease in ventilatory volume and an increase in thoracic diameter. Which of the following options would be the best step to perform next? a) Call dispatch for an ALS intercept en route to the hospital b) Begin providing CPR to the patient. c) Begin providing BVM-assisted ventilations to the patient d) Free a corner or edge of the dressing to release pressure buildup.

You are confronted with a patient experiencing personality changes ranging from irritability to irrational behavior, altered mental status, amnesia or confusion, irregular respirations, elevated blood pressure, and decreasing pulse. It appears to be a psychiatric emergency. What else could cause this behavior? a) Lack of oxygen b) Stroke c) Head injury d) Low blood sugar

You are dispatched to a motor vehicle crash on a rural mountain highway. You have a patient who was unconscious on arrival, had a seizure, and is currently awake but combative. You suspect he may have a head injury. What is the best approach regarding transport of this patient? a) Contact the community hospital to ask them if they think they can take this patient b) Begin transport to the trauma center on the ground, which is 1.5 hours' driving time c) Dispatch and await the medical helicopter, which is 20 minutes away

You are dispatched to a psychiatric emergency for a 68-year-old male. Dispatch provides no other information and, when questioned by you, they do not have any more information. Although all steps are important for dealing with this situation, which step is the most important? a) Secondary assessment b) Vital signs and SAMPLE history c) Scene size-up d) Primary assessment

You are dispatched to the local high school for a "person struck with a baseball." You arrive on the scene and find a 16-year-old male sitting on the bench. Apparently he was the pitcher and was struck in the abdominal area by a line drive ball that was hit very hard. He states that nothing is hurting except he has some mild pain in the area where he was struck. He is upset that the ambulance was called and wants to go back into the game and continue pitching. Your exam reveals nothing remarkable except mild pain when you palpate the injured area. Vital signs are normal. What is the next step? a) Tell the coach the patient is okay and he can go back into the ball game b) Have the patient walk to the ambulance and take him to the ED. No other care needs to be provided, as there is really no significant sign of any injury c) Take appropriate Standard Precautions, apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask, and transport the patient ASAP, carefully monitoring the patient during transport. d) Have the coach apply cold to the area and let the pitcher back in the game if he does not get worse in the next 15 minutes.

You are enjoying some time at the beach on your day off when you hear a swimmer crying for help. As you spot the swimmer about 30 feet from shore, she cries out again but appears to be getting weaker. Although there is no lifeguard on duty, there is a rowboat and a ring buoy available. Assuming you do not know how to swim or consider yourself a poor swimmer, which of the following should you do first? a) Row the boat out to the swimmer b) Use the buoy to float out to the swimmer c) Call for help and try to throw the buoy to the swimmer d) Find someone who can swim to try to swim out and save the swimmer

You are just leaving the scene of a multiple-casualty incident with two Priority 1 patients. Which of the following is appropriate regarding communication? a) Notify the receiving facility by radio of the nature of the patients' injuries b) Have dispatch relay your patient reports to the receiving facility c) Allow the transportation supervisor to notify the receiving facility d) Notify the receiving hospital by cellular phone of the nature of the patients' injuries

You are on an ambulance responding to a mass-casualty incident at a shopping mall on a warm Saturday afternoon. En route, you listen to the incident commander broadcast information to dispatch and all inbound units about 20 patients complaining of respiratory difficulty and a burning sensation in their eyes. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of: a) the location of the call b) on-scene warning signs c) the type of event d) the timing of the event.

You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED does not advise shock. What is your next intervention? a) Insert a Combitube b) Replace the malfunctioning AED c) Continue CPR d) Stop CPR and place the patient in the recovery position

You are on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage officer, you have encountered a 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal stimuli, and he has an open airway, shallow rapid breathing, and a weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority ________ for treatment and transport a) 3 b) 4 c) 1 d) 2

You are on the scene of a pediatric patient who is on a specialized home monitoring system. This situation was not specifically addressed in your EMT class and your EMT partner has not encountered this situation, either. What is an advisable course of action? a) Contact medical control and ask to speak to a specialist for advice. b) Load the patient and rapidly transport the patient to the closest hospital for evaluation c) Ask the parent or caregiver what has been done in the past to correct the situation d) Request an advanced life support ambulance crew to respond for assistance

You are palpating the abdomen of a motor vehicle collision patient when you feel a pulsating mass. You should: a) apply cold packs to the abdomen b) ask your partner to verify your findings c) defer further abdominal palpation. d) bind the abdomen with an elastic bandage.

You are responding to a suspected terrorist incident, and first reports indicate this is a biologic incident. Which PPE will you need? a) Lead shielding b) Fire-protection clothing c) HEPA mask d) Self-contained breathing apparatus

You are stabilizing a patient who has just been stabbed in the chest to the right of the mediastinum. After placing the patient on supplemental oxygen, his shortness of breath resolves. You also cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. The patient is asymptomatic at the time you're making the decision to transport. Which of the following best encapsulates the correct strategy for transport? a) Transport the patient non-emergently because he's complaint free. b) The patient does not necessarily need transport, so allow him to refuse if he wants. c) Transport the patient emergently because of the high index of suspicion for a serious injury d) Begin transport non-emergently and upgrade if the patient's condition deteriorates

You are treating a 28-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant. She has a history of bee sting anaphylaxis and was stung by a bee while in the garden. She is having severe respiratory distress and her blood pressure is 72/50 mmHg. Which of the following is the best option for the EMT? a) Transport rapidly, bypassing the emergency department and taking the patient directly to the obstetrics unit of the hospital b) Immediately administer the patient's EpiPen . ® c) Administer the EpiPen only on the advice of medical control. d) Do not administer the EpiPen under any circumstances.

You are treating the amputation of three fingers on a 40-year-old male. The fingers were torn off while he was cleaning his snow blower. You have stopped the bleeding. What should you do with the amputated fingers? a) Because it is cold out, you merely need to wrap them in a 5 9 dressing and give them to the staff at the ED. b) Place the fingers directly on ice or use cold packs, as they must be kept very cold. c) Wrap them in a sterile dressing, put them in a plastic bag, and keep them cool d) Fingers cannot be reattached so you can discard them in a biohazard bag.

You arrive on the scene to find a scuba diver on board a boat slumped over in the captain's chair with frothy blood in his mouth. The captain states that the diver was down no more than 15 feet when he ascended rapidly and called for help. Which of the following is most likely? a) The bends b) Pnemothorax c) Air embolism d) Decompression sickness

You arrive on the scene to find an approximately 60-year-old male patient writhing on the floor. He is complaining of a tearing pain radiating to his lower back. He has absent femoral pulses and has a pulsatile mass just superior to his umbilicus. You suspect which of the following conditions? a) myocardial infarction b) Ruptured appendix c) abdominal aortic aneurysm d) acute pancreatitis

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #3 is a 38-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 0, pulse 0, and nonresponsive. a) Priority 3, green tag b) Priority 2, yellow tag c) Priority 4, black tag d) Priority 1, red tag

You encounter an accident on a busy intercity street while on duty. Calling into dispatch, you make note that the occupants of both vehicles are outside, and you request additional units to proceed non-emergently. You approach an elderly male who is rubbing his back and left shoulder. During secondary assessment of past medical history, you make note of several important details: the patient is on high blood pressure medications and has had a heart attack in the past. He is complaining of midline thoracic pain on palpation of his spine and left shoulder pain, which may have been from the seat belt, but is refusing care and transport. The patient did not lose consciousness. Based on this information, which transport decision would be most appropriate for this patient? a) Level I Trauma Center b) The nearest community facility c) Level II Trauma Center d) Nowhere, because the patient is an adult and refusing care

You have covered an open chest wound with your gloved hand, and the patient's breathing has improved. In order to free your hand to provide further care, you should: a) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing b) cover the wound with a sterile dressing c) remove your hand to see if the wound has closed. d) apply a bulky dressing over the wound.

You have just arrived on the scene of an agricultural business and see three men coming out of a building, choking and holding their heads. One of the men tells you there are two workers still inside. What should you do next? a) Get the assistance of the men who made it out of the building to prevent delay in finding the workers inside. b) Cover your nose and mouth with a wet towel and check on the status of the two workers inside the building c) Call for properly trained assistance and stay a safe distance away from the scene. d) Evaluate the three men and administer high-concentration oxygen, then help them get a safe distance away from the scene

You have just delivered a full-term baby girl and she is doing well. You have dried her off and wrapped her in a warm blanket. You are preparing to cut the umbilical cord. Which of the following is normally true regarding cutting the umbilical cord? a) You should hold the baby above the level of the mother when cutting the cord b) You must try to cut the cord before it stops pulsating. c) The infant must be breathing on his or her own before you cut the cord. d) The cord should be cut immediately following delivery.

You respond to a 22-year-old male patient who fell while exiting the local bar. Bystanders state he drank at least 10 beers and could not keep his balance. Physical exam reveals that the patient is alert to verbal stimuli only. He has Glasgow Coma Scale scores of 3, 4, and 6; slurred speech; and an obvious scalp laceration to the back of his head. He is refusing treatment and transport and wants his friends to drive him home. The nearest hospital is 5 minutes away, a Level II Trauma Center is 10 minutes away, and a Level I Full Service Trauma Center is 30 minutes away. Which of these is the most appropriate facility for the patient? a) Level I Trauma Center b) The nearest community facility c) Level II Trauma Center d) Nowhere, because the patient is an adult and refusing care

You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 22-year-old female patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient is breathing 28 times a minute. The patient's friends state they were diving when she unexpectedly came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. The nearest hospital is 25 minutes away and the nearest specialty resource center with a hyperbaric chamber is 30 minutes away. What is the best decision when determining transport? a) Transport the patient by air medical to the nearest facility. b) Transport the patient to the nearest facility c) Transport the patient by ground to the specialty center d) Transport the patient by air medical to the specialty center

You respond to a farm for a possible snake bite. You find a 36-year-old male patient seated against a tree. Bystanders state the patient was bitten on the arm by a rattlesnake and is "really sick." As you approach, you notice that the patient appears to be in obvious distress and is diaphoretic and holding his right wrist. Which of the following is your highest priority? a) Immediately apply a constricting band to minimize the spread of the venom. b) Confirm the type of snake and contact medical control for specific instructions. c) Confirm the location and status of the snake. d) Perform a primary assessment and identify any potential life threats.

You respond to a professional volleyball tournament for a potential heat stroke. Upon arrival you find a 28-year-old male patient seated inside the air-conditioned first aid trailer. He is alert and in obvious distress. He is complaining of severe cramping of his arms and legs. His vital signs are stable. What is the most likely cause of the cramping? a) Cooling off too quickly b) Drinking too many sports drinks c) Sweating too much d) Heat exhaustion

You respond to the county jail for a 48-year-old inmate arrested two days ago for public intoxication. Guards state the patient is a known alcoholic and "frequent flier." The guards state that for several hours the patient was "acting crazy" and seeing "bugs on the walls." The patient then began seizing and they called for an ambulance. You notice the patient is no longer seizing, diaphoretic, or confused. What condition do you suspect? a) alcohol poisoning b) acute episode of paranoid schizophrenia c) delirium tremens d) LSD abuse

You respond, along with fire department Emergency Medical Responders, to a 48-year-old female having a syncope episode in the bathroom. You find the patient sitting on the commode vomiting into the trash can. The vomitus appears to look like coffee grounds and has a foul smell. The patient is pale and has been weak for the past few days. She has: a) peritonitis b) abdominal aortic aneurysm c) GI bleeding d) hernia

Your 38-year-old male patient has been injured in an assault. He has several facial lacerations and a large knot on his head. Bystanders say that he was thrown over a large table and landed on his head and shoulder. As part of your scene size-up and primary assessment, you should: a) wait for ALS to treat the patient b) complete an initial set of vital signs c) immobilize his cervical spine d) splint any other bone or joint injuries

Your patient has eaten a casserole that may have contained seafood. The patient is worried because he has a seafood allergy. Upon assessment, you find no signs or symptoms of anaphylaxis. The patient's vital signs are stable and he has an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed to him. Which of the following actions is most appropriate? a) Transport the patient rapidly before the onset of anaphylaxis. b) Assist him with the administration of his epinephrine auto-injector c) Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood. d) Advise the patient that he does not require treatment and transport at this time.

Your patient is a 19-year-old female who is 7 months pregnant. She just experienced a seizure. Although she has no previous history of seizures or any other medical condition, she was just diagnosed with pregnancy-induced hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the seizure? a) hypoglycemia b) trauma c) eclampsia d) any of the above

Your patient is a 24-year-old male who is severely depressed. He tells you that he can't "handle the pressure" anymore and that he wants to die. He is refusing transport. Which of the following is the most appropriate decision regarding this patient's care? a) Leave the scene and allow law enforcement to handle the situation b) Contact the patient's family to find out what their wishes are c) Transport the patient against his will with the assistance of law enforcement d) Respect the patient's wishes; he is alert, oriented, and capable of giving consent

Your patient is a 33-year-old man who has a gunshot wound to his right leg and has active, steady, dark red bleeding. He is awake, pale, and diaphoretic. He has a strong radial pulse of 112 per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 122/82 mmHg. He has no other injuries or complaints. Which of the following is the best sequence of steps in the management of this patient? a) High-concentration oxygen, elevation of the extremity, and application of ice b) High-concentration oxygen, tourniquet, PASG, and elevation of the extremity c) Direct pressure, high-concentration oxygen, and splinting the leg d) Cervical spine immobilization, high-concentration oxygen, direct pressure, and pressure point compression

Your patient is a 34-year-old male complaining of pain "in his right side." He is pale and diaphoretic with a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 132/80 mmHg. The patient is very agitated and anxious. Which approach is most appropriate? a) Insert an oropharyngeal airway b) Try to determine the cause of his pain c) Reassure him that you will make him as comfortable as possible and get him to the hospital for additional care. d) Tell the patient that you cannot transport him

Your patient is a 38-year-old male driver of a vehicle that left the roadway and struck a bus stop shelter and a tree. He is sitting in the driver's seat and conscious and alert, he has some abrasions on his forehead, his skin is warm and dry, and he has a strong radial pulse and no difficulty breathing. After applying a cervical collar, which of the following actions represents the most appropriate way for removing the patient from the vehicle? a) Have the patient stand up and then do a standing takedown onto a long backboard b) Perform rapid extrication onto a long spine board. c) Place a long spine board under the patient's buttocks and then carefully lower the patient to the board in a supine position d) Place the backboard on the stretcher and have the patient stand, turn, and lie down on the backboard while you maintain manual inline stabilization of the cervical spine

Your patient is a 40-year-old female who has been experiencing abdominal pain and vomiting for 2 days. She is now responsive to verbal stimulus; has cool, dry skin; a heart rate of 116; respirations of 24; and a blood pressure of 100/70. Which of the following is the best position for transporting this patient? a) Supine with the knees bent b) Sitting up at a 90-degree angle c) Left lateral recumbent with the legs bent d) Sitting up at a 45-degree angle

Your patient is a 48-year-old male who has been exposed to a toxic powder that can be absorbed through the skin. Which of the following measures should be taken by the EMT? a) Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with a solution of baking soda and water. b) Flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water c) Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water d) Wipe the powder away with a damp cloth

Your patient is a 59-year-old female with a sudden onset of slurred speech and weakness on her right side. Which of the following measures is appropriate? a) Keep the patient in a supine position b) Administer oral glucose and then assess the patient's blood sugar c) Immediately transport the patient to a hospital with specialized treatment for stroke patients. d) Test the patient's sensation with a series of pinpricks, beginning at the feet and working upward.

Your patient is a 60-year-old woman who stepped off a curb and injured her ankle. Your exam shows that her left ankle is swollen and painful. Which of the following should you do? a) Explain to the patient that her ankle is fractured, and you must splint her ankle to prevent further injury and reduce pain. b) Explain to the patient that her ankle is sprained and transport her with her ankle elevated on a pillow and a cold pack applied to the injury. c) Explain to the patient that you cannot tell if her ankle is sprained or fractured until she is X-rayed at the emergency department, then splint the ankle. d) Transport the patient immediately to a trauma center, applying high-concentration oxygen en route.

Your patient is a 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done next? a) Apply a nonrebreather mask with high-concentration oxygen and keep reassessing the pulse. b) Remove the AED, assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen, and keep reassessing the pulse. c) Ventilate the patient with high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately d) Deliver a fourth shock to improve the patient's respiratory status

Your patient is a conscious 4-year-old female who has ingested a medication prescribed for her grandfather. To determine appropriate treatment, which of the following information is not necessary to provide to medical control? a) Patient's weight and the amount of medication taken b) Any home remedies attempted by the patient's family c) Grandfather's name and the name of the physician who prescribed the medication d) Patient's vital signs and the time the medication was taken

Your patient is an 18-year-old male who fell into a neighbor's swimming pool but was pulled out by bystanders. The neighbors report that the patient wandered into their yard and that he said he had a "funny numb feeling" in his head and his chest hurt before stumbling into the pool. As you are performing CPR, you notice that the mucous membranes in his mouth and nose are swollen. Which of the following would account for the patient's behavior and current condition? a) Methamphetamine b) GHB c) Volatile chemicals d) Carbon monoxide poisoning

Your patient is pregnant at 30 weeks' gestation and has been thrown from a horse. She is complaining of back pain. Which of the following is the correct procedure for immobilizing her spine? a) Place the patient supine on the backboard b) Use a short immobilization device and transport the patient in a sitting position c) Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard d) Place the patient on her left side on the backboard.

Your patient was ejected from his motorcycle when he struck a deer late at night on a deserted highway. He is drowsy and unable to communicate clearly. As you immobilize him on the long spine board, you find that you are unable to obtain neutral alignment of his spine due to the large helmet he has on. You should: a) pad under his shoulders to straighten his neck. b) tip his head back to gain neutral alignment c) remove the helmet to better manage proper alignment. d) place towels on either side of the helmet to stabilize it.

A 36-year-old male was accidentally shot with a nail gun into the chest. You see the nail, which protrudes about 2 to 3 centimeters from the thorax, when you visualize the injury site. Under which of the following circumstances should you remove the nail from the injury site? a) The patient begins to complain of shortness of breath b) Bleeding from the patient's wound is minimal c) The patient develops a tension pneumothorax. d) None of the above

A 36-year-old male was accidentally shot with a nail gun into the head. You see the nail, which protrudes about 2 to 3 centimeters from the skull, when you visualize the injury site. Under which of the following circumstances should you remove the nail from the injury site? a) Bleeding from the patient's wound is minimal. b) The patient develops excessive intracranial pressure (ICP) c) The patient begins to complain of shortness of breath. d) None of the above.

A 36-year-old man has accidentally shot a nail into his thigh while using a nail gun. Under which of the following circumstances should the EMT remove the nail from the injury site? a) The patient's distal pulse, motor function, and sensation are intact. b) Bleeding from the wound is minima c) The nail is less than 2 inches in length. d) None of the above

A 44-year-old male involved in a collision at 50 mph struck the windshield of his vehicle with his face. Which of the following injuries should you prepare to treat? a) Brain injury b) Cervical spine trauma c) Airway obstruction d) All of the above

A condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living is referred to a) special need b) developmental disability c) physical handicap d) disability

A new EMT who is treating a suspected femur injury asks his partner, "How much traction should I pull?" The partner's best reply is which of the following? a) The amount of traction applied should be 15 pounds. b) Pull enough traction to give the patient some relief from the pain c) No traction splint applied in the field pulls true traction; they must pull 20 pounds of countertraction. d) The amount of traction applied should be roughly 10% of the patient's body weight and not exceed 15 pounds.

A terrorist incident may have features in common with which of the following types of incidents? a) Infectious disease b) Hazardous materials c) Mass casualty d) All of the above

A young female was injured in an automobile wreck, striking her head on the windshield. She is unconscious and her breathing is irregular. She is bleeding from a scalp wound, but your assessment shows that her cranium is intact. Her vital signs are pulse 68 and blood pressure 148/90, and her pupils are unequal. You should suspect a(n): a) concussion b) contusion c) open head injury d) closed head injury

According to the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, many ground ambulance collisions occur: a) during inclement weather b) at intersections c) on wet roads d) at night.

After responding to the scene of a patient complaining of difficulty breathing, you and your partner determine that the patient's condition is not life threatening based on a thorough assessment. You should transport the patient to an appropriate medical facility with: a) the emergency lights on, but without activating the siren. b) the emergency lights off, but activating the siren when traffic builds c) both lights and siren activated. d) neither lights nor siren activated.

Although many of the signs and symptoms of shock are the same no matter what the cause, the symptoms follow a logical progression as shock develops and worsens. Arrange the following signs and symptoms in the order that they will most likely appear. 1. Altered mental status 2. Dropping blood pressure 3. Nausea and vomiting 4. Pale, cool, and clammy skin 5. Increased pulse 6. Increased respirations a) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2 b) 2, 5, 6, 3, 4, 1 c) 5, 3, 4, 2, 6, 1 d) 1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 2

An adult fall meets trauma triage criteria set forth by the CDC if it is greater than: a) 15 feet. b) 10 feet. c) 25 feet. d) 20 feet.

An injury in which the epidermis remains intact, but blood vessels and cells in the dermis are injured, is called a(n): a) hematoma b) abrasion c) avulsion d) contusion

An oxygen level of ________ is required for normal breathing. a) 16.5 percent b) 10.5 percent c) 25.5 percent d) 19.5 percent

Anthrax can infect an individual through which of the following routes of exposure? a) skin b) inhalation c) ingestion d) all of the above

Applying an external source of heat to the patient's body to rewarm him is called ________ rewarming. a) central b) peripheral c) passive d) active

As an EMT, your best clue indicating the possibility of internal bleeding may be the presence of: a) a tender, rigid, or distended abdomen. b) painful, swollen, or deformed extremities. c) bruising, swelling, or pain over vital organs. d) the mechanism of injury.

As you prepare to enter a patient's room in a nursing home, you see a sign posted on the door indicating that the patient has a latex allergy. Which of the following is the best way to care for the patient? a) Ask the nursing staff if the patient has an epinephrine auto-injector available in case of a reaction to your gloves b) Put on latex gloves anyway; you must protect yourself with BSI c) Only perform a history on this patient, not a physical exam, so you can avoid contacting him with your gloves d) Ask the nursing facility staff to find synthetic exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient

At which of the following locations is an EMT likely to encounter a patient using an advanced medical device? a) nursing home b) private residence c) specialty care facilites d) all of the above

At which of the following sites should the EMT administer an epinephrine auto-injector? a) upper arm b) buttocks c) abdomen d) thigh

Based on the following presentations of patient injuries, which one would be considered most severe according to the anatomic criteria of the CDC trauma triage guidelines, justifying immediate transportation to a trauma center? a) Open (compound) midshaft femur fracture b) Midline cervical spine pain c) Closed head injury d) Flail chest

Because of the extra equipment now placed on ambulances for specialty rescue, advanced life support, and hazardous materials operations, their gross vehicle weight has been easily exceeded in some communities. This has necessitated introduction of a ________ truck chassis built for rugged durability and large storage and work areas. a) lightweight b) heavy-duty c) specialty weight d) medium-duty

Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs by which of the following routes? a) radiation b) absorption c) aspiration d) inhalation

Carbon monoxide poisoning should be suspected when a patient has been in an enclosed area and has which of the following signs and/or symptoms? a) Breathing difficulty and altered mental status b) Headache, dizziness, and nausea c) Flu-like symptoms d) All of the above

Cleaning fluid, glue, and model cement are common examples of which of the following? a) roofies b) narcotics c) hallucinogens d) volatile chemicals

Compared to hypoglycemia, which of the following is TRUE of hyperglycemia? a) Its onset is more sudden b) It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia. c) Its onset is preceded by an aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors d) Its onset is more gradual.

Dangerous organisms that can grow in a variety of environments and are capable of producing toxic substances are known as a) biologics b) viruses c) toxins d) bacteria

During which stage of labor is the baby born? a) first b) third c) primary d) second

EMTs arrive at the scene of a cardiac arrest to see a police officer beginning to defibrillate the patient. At what point should the EMTs take over? a) Only if the EMTs feel the police office is incompetent to administer the AED correctly b) After a "no shock indicated" message is received but otherwise not until the patient is resuscitated c) Immediately, even if interrupting the police office in the middle of shocking the patient d) After the shock is delivered or a "no shock indicated" message is received

Heat cramps occur due to loss of which of the following substances? a) Water and potassium b) Magnesium c) Water d) Salt

How many cervical vertebrae are there? a) 5 b) 12 c) 4 d) 7

ICS recognizes that the manageable span of control is: a) 18 people b) 12 people c) 24 people d) 7 people

If assisting in a prehospital delivery while off-duty, which of the following would be the best choice for tying or clamping the umbilical cord? a) Pair of shoelaces b) White cotton thread c) Clothespin d) Section of wire coat hanger

In a hypothermic patient the coldest blood is found in what part of the patient's body? a) intestines b) head c) heart and lungs d) extremities

In a patient with extreme hypothermia who appears to be in cardiac arrest, you should assess the pulse for how long? a) 15 to 20 seconds b) 20 to 30 seconds c) at least 10 seconds d) at least 60 seconds

In which of the following settings should the EMT be alert to the possibility of hazardous materials emergencies? a) Manufacturing industries b) Farm service agencies c) Shipping ports d) All of the above

In which of the following vessels does the vital exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and wastes take place? a) venules b) veins c) arterioles d) capillaries

In which of the following ways does the body produce heat in response to being cold? a) Excreting more urine b) Increasing the respiratory rate c) Burning fewer calories d) Shivering

It can sometimes be difficult to determine whether someone who is showing unusual behavior is having a psychological emergency or is showing an altered mental status due to a physical issue. Which of the following statements are true? 1. Consider patients who are exhibiting crisis or unusual behavior to be having an altered mental status from a nonpsychiatric cause until proven otherwise. 2. Many medical and traumatic conditions are likely to alter a patient's behavior. 3. Lack of oxygen may cause restlessness and confusion, cyanosis (blue or gray skin), and altered mental status. 4. Stroke or inadequate blood to the brain may cause confusion or dizziness and what appears to be erratic behavior a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 4 c) 1, 2 d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Jarl is a male who is 5 foot 7 inches tall and weighs 250 pounds. What is Jarl's body mass index (rounded to the nearest tenth)? a) 36.5 b) 38,4 c) 35.2 d) 39.1

Neurotransmitters are chemicals within the body that transmit the message from the distal end of one neuron (presynaptic neuron) to the proximal end of the next neuron (postsynaptic neuron). While it sounds like a complicated process, it takes only milliseconds. Which one of the following sentences is false? a) This is the mechanism by which the impulse is moved along the nervous system. b) The receptors on the postsynaptic neuron receive the neurotransmitter c) Neurotransmitters are released from a neuron, then travel across the synapse to the next neuron d) After the impulse is transmitted, the neurotransmitter goes through a process called reuptake, in which the neurotransmitter is returned to the postsynaptic neuron.

Normal consciousness is regulated by a series of neurologic circuits in the brain that compose the reticular activating system (RAS). The RAS has simple requirements to function properly. Which one of the following items is NOT one of those requirements? a) water b) glucose c) oxygen d) sodium

Obesity increases the risk for which of the following health problems? a) Type 2 diabetes b) Respiratory problems c) Liver disease d) All of the above

On assessment of the midsection of a 32-year-old male who was struck by a car, you find an abdominal evisceration with several loops of his large intestine exposed. The abdomen appears to have a clean-cut laceration, and the bleeding is controlled. Which of the following is the best approach toward managing the exposed intestines? a) Leave the abdominal contents in the place in which they were found and transport immediately. b) Gently replace the intestines after moistening with sterile saline solution. c) Cover the abdomen with an occlusive dressing of aluminum foil. d) Moisten a sterile dressing with saline solution and cover the abdominal contents.

Once an EMT has begun resuscitative efforts, when may the EMT cease those efforts? a) The patient has no pulse after 1 minute b) No other rescuer is available to relieve the EMT c) The EMT's partner gives the order to cease d) Spontaneous circulation and breathing occur

Organs of the right upper quadrant include: a) most of the liver, gallbladder, and part of the large intestine b) small intestine, stomach, and spleen c) pancreas, spleen, and part of the liver. d) most of the liver, spleen, and gallbladder.

Seizures due to complications of pregnancy generally occur during which of the following time periods? a) Before the mother even knows she is pregnant b) In the second trimester c) In the first trimester d) Late in pregnancy

Shock is the circulatory system's failure to provide sufficient blood and oxygen to all the body's tissues. Which of the following is not a major type of shock? a) hypovolemic b) cardiogenic c) hemorrhagic d) hypervolemic

Someone who has more hair than average on his body is at a higher risk than someone with less hair to be exposed to a toxin by which of the following routes? a) ingestion b) injection c) inhalation d) absorption

Soraya is an EMT who volunteers for a local fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she helps prevent the incident from becoming larger and ensures bystanders remain safe. Soraya's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. a) First Responder Awareness b) Hazardous Materials Technician c) Hazardous Materials Specialist d) First Responder Operations

The death of brain tissue due to deprivation of oxygen because of a blocked or ruptured artery in the brain is known as which of the following? a) aphasia b) stroke c) transient ischemic attack d) seizure

The detection of a bulging mass through the belly button that is not pulsating should make the EMT suspicious that the patient may be suffering from which of the following? a) Abdominal aortic aneurysm - Triple A b) Ulcer c) Gastroenteritis d) Hernia

The extent of radiation depends on which of the following factors? a) Distance from the source b) Shielding from the source c) Duration of exposure d) All of the above

The formula dose multiplied by time represents which of the following? a) Lethal dose b) Critical level c) Concentration d) Exposure

The maxillae form which of the following structures? a) cheek bones b) lower jaw c) forehead d) upper jaw

The patient complaining of parietal abdominal pain who would concern you the most is the one who: a) is rolling about on the floor complaining of pain. b) walks out to the ambulance informing you he has the worst "belly ache." c) is sitting upright in a chair, moaning in pain, and drinking antacid. d) is lying on the floor very still and quiet with his knees drawn up to his chest

The term gangrene means localized tissue: a) swelling b) infection c) discoloration d) death

The term poison is best described as any substance that can do which of the following? a) Deactivate nerve transmission b) Increase cellular activity c) Depress the body's respirations d) Harm the body

There are general rules for dealing with psychiatric emergencies. Which of the following is not one of those rules and would not be considered appropriate? a) Speak slowly and clearly, using a calm and reassuring tone. b) Identify yourself and your role. c) Listen to the patient. You can show you are listening by repeating part of what the patient says back to him d) Never make eye contact with the patient, as it will just increase his nervousness

Three methods for minimizing exposure to harmful incidents are: a) time, decontamination, and serum b) time, decontamination, and shielding c) technique, distance, and serum d) time, distance, and shielding

To which of the following sections of the spine are the ribs attached? a) lumbar b) sacral c) cervical d) thoracic

Treatment of someone with a seizure disorder includes all of the following EXCEPT a) loosening restrictive clothing. b) removing objects that might harm the patient. c) placing the patient on the floor or ground d) placing a bite block in the patient's mouth so that he does not bite his tongue.

Two elements that differentiate a hazardous materials incident from a terrorist incident are: a) targeting responders and weapons of mass destruction (WMD). b) weapons of mass destruction and a political agenda c) targeting responders and a political agenda. d) crime scene considerations and targeting responders.

Under which of the following conditions are safety vests with reflective trim effective in increasing the visibility of the EMT a) On sunny days b) On cloudy days c) At night d) All of the above

WWhich of the following signs is least likely to indicate a traumatic brain injury? a) Irrational behavior b) Irregular breathing pattern c) Vomiting d) Low blood pressure

What are three elements of successful trauma care that field practitioners can use that will ultimately translate into greater rates of survival? a) Lights, sirens, and diesel b) Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury c) Ground ambulances, air helicopters, and trauma centers d) Teamwork, timing, and transport

What is the purpose of a tracheostomy in an ill patient? a) To assist the patient with feedings b) To assist the patient with sleeping c) To assist the patient with waste removal d) To assist the patient with breathing

What role do health care workers play in handling public crises related to newly recognized infectious diseases? a) They work closely with local health departments to determine the microbes responsible for the disease and how to treat them b) They report information about the outbreaks to the public and share information about the prevalence and spread of the conditions c) They disseminate information about diseases and their treatment to health care providers and institutions d) They implement the steps outlined by the CDC and other agencies to reduce the number of people who become infected.

What term is used to describe delivery of the fetus and placenta before the 20th week of pregnancy? a) eclampsia b) induced abortion c) stillbirth d) spontaneous abortion

What trauma triage guidelines did the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) release in order to guide the most injured patients into trauma centers? a) Lights, sirens, and diesel b) Patient priority, amount of time on scene, and transport destination c) Teamwork, timing, and transport d) Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury

When a substance enters the body through unbroken skin, it has entered the body by which of the following routes? a) consumption b) ingestion c) injection d) absorption

When assisting with a delivery in the field, which of the following should be done as the baby's head begins to emerge from the vagina? a) Check for crowning. b) Pull on the baby c) Advise the mother not to push or strain d) Apply gentle pressure to the head with your gloved hand.

When dealing with a psychiatric emergency, which one of the following would generally be inappropriate behavior on your part? a) Let the patient know that you are listening to what he is saying, and explain things to the patient honestly. b) Act in a calm manner, giving the patient time to gain control of his emotions. c) Stay alert for sudden changes in behavior. d) Be as hurried as you can. It is extremely important to resolve the call and get the patient to the hospital as soon as possible.

When documenting the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector, which of the following should be included? a) Time the medication was administered b) Site of medication administration c) Patient's response to the medication d) All of the above

When heading back to quarters, on what should you place your emphasis? a) Documenting the cal b) Refueling the ambulance for the next call c) Reorganizing the ambulance d) Returning safely

When performing chest compressions on a pregnant patient who has gone into cardiac arrest, what change do you need to make in the placement of your hands? a) 0.5 to 1 inch lower on the sternum b) 0.5 to 1 inch higher on the sternum c) 1 to 2 inches lower on the sternum d) 1 to 2 inches higher on the sternum

When preparing to move a patient who is using a specialty medical device from his house to the ambulance, which of the following questions would be appropriate to ask the family? a) What worked best for moving the patient the last time he was transported by ambulance? b) How do you normally move the patient? c) Can you carry the patient to the ambulance since you know the best way to move the patient? d) Both A and B are correct.

When providing emergency care to an aggressive or hostile patient, what is the highest priority? a) Finding out if the patient is oriented to person, time, and place b) Calming the patient down c) Checking the patient for possible physical causes of the behavior d) Performing a scene size-up

When responding to an attempted suicide, which of the following is the EMT's primary concern? a) Managing the patient's airway b) Determining whether the patient suffers from clinical depression c) Contacting law enforcement because suicide is illegal d) Personal safety

When responding to an emergency located on an interstate highway in a medium-duty ambulance, the vehicle should be positioned: a) in a safe location in the emergency lane of the interstate. b) across as many lanes as possible to block oncoming traffic c) to one side of the damaged vehicles for easy egress d) in the same direction as other response vehicles in a single line.

When using a short spine immobilization device, which part of the body is secured last? a) legs b) torso c) arms d) head

When working at a nighttime emergency on a roadway, which of the following safety considerations should the prudent EMS provider do to increase safety? a) Keep all available response lights on to warn oncoming traffic. b) Keep only the fog lights on to keep the light out of drivers' vision. c) Switch the headlights to the "high beam" position for maximum lighting. d) Operate amber warning lights only, if the option is available.

Which abdominal quadrant contains the appendix? a) left upper b) left lower c) right upper d) right lower

Which is NOT one of the steps in managing a patient experiencing dizziness and syncope? a) Lay the patient flat b) . Loosen any tight clothing around the neck c) Administer oxygen d) Apply cold packs to the patient's head

Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in ventricular tachycardia? a) Shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check b) Shock, shock, shock, pulse check, 2 minutes of CPR, shock, shock, shock c) Shock, shock, shock, shock d) Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, reanalyze, shock again if indicated

Which of the following are desirable characteristics of the "safe or cold zone" in a hazardous materials incident a) Downwind, downhill from the spill b) Downwind, uphill from the spill c) Upwind, uphill from the spill d) Upwind, on the same level as the spill

Which of the following best describes a localized cold injury with a clear line of demarcation of its limits? a) Late frostbite b) Hypothermia c) Deep frostnip d) Early frostnip

Which of the following best describes a partial thickness burn? a) The skin is red, but dry and painful b) The skin is white and dry with no sensation of pain. c) The skin is charred or blackened and lacks sensation d) The skin is red and moist with blister formation.

Which of the following best describes an avulsion? a) An injury caused by a sharp, pointed object b) Accumulation of blood beneath the skin, resulting in swelling c) Epidermis that is scraped away by a rough surface d) Flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue

Which of the following can cause a wound with a characteristic lesion with a bite that is often painless? a) Hornet b) Scorpion c) Black widow spider d) Brown recluse spider

Which of the following changes commonly occurs in the cardiovascular system during anaphylaxis? a) High blood pressure due to tachycardia b) High blood pressure due to vasoconstriction c) Low blood pressure due to bradycardia d) Low blood pressure due to vasodilation

Which of the following circumstances may result in hypoperfusion? a) The heart is damaged. b) There is external bleeding. c) Blood vessels are dilated. d) All of the above.

Which of the following communication strategies should be used when dealing with a patient with a behavioral emergency? a) Interrupt the patient if he appears to be going off on a tangent about something not concerning the immediate situation. b) Play along with any visual or auditory hallucinations the patient is experiencing c) Stay 2 to 3 inches from the patient at all times to make him feel secure. d) Acknowledge the patient's feelings.

Which of the following conditions can mimic the signs of alcohol intoxication? a) diabetes b) epilepsy c) head injuries d) all of the above

Which of the following conditions should be present before the umbilical cord is cut? a) Which of the following conditions should be present before the umbilical cord is cut? b) The cord is no longer pulsating. c) The cord is clamped in two places d) all of the above

Which of the following considerations should be determined when conducting a scene size-up at night of a single vehicle collision involving a rollover? a) How many EMS supervisors are needed for command b) Which patient is the least injured c) Make and model of the vehicle involved d) Mechanism of injury

Which of the following describes a breech presentation? a) The infant presents buttocks first. b) The infant presents with both feet first c) The infant presents face first. d) Both A and B

Which of the following does a physician not take into consideration when writing a prescription for a patient to obtain an epinephrine auto-injector? a) Severity of previous allergic reactions b) Patient's medical history c) Patient's known allergies d) How far the patient lives from medical attention

Which of the following effects may occur due to chronic abuse of alcohol? a) poor nutrition b) abnormal for gastrointestinal bleeding c) potential for gastrointestinal bleeding d) all of the above

Which of the following factors suggest that a patient is at risk for suicide? a) Sudden improvement in depression b) Alcohol and drug abuse c) Recent emotional trauma d) All of the above

Which of the following injuries may produce distended neck veins? a) Traumatic asphyxia b) Tension pneumothorax c) Cardiac tamponade d) All of the above

Which of the following injuries requires the use of an occlusive dressing? a) open would to the neck b) open would to the chest c) open wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding d) all of the above

Which of the following is LEAST important for the patient who has stopped seizing before the EMT's arrival at the scene? a) checking for mechanism of injury b) administering oxygen c) suctioning d) requesting advanced life support

Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED may indicate that there is "no shock advised"? a) The patient's heart has no electrical activity; he is "flat line," or in asystole b) The patient's heart rhythm is normal c) The patient has organized electrical activity in the heart but no pulse d) The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia

Which of the following is NOT a sign of a hypoglycemic diabetic emergency? a) combativeness b) cold, clammy skin c) anxiety d) slow heart rate

Which of the following is a cause of gynecological emergencies? a) Sexual assault b) Soft-tissue trauma to the external genitalia c) Disorders of the female reproductive organs d) All of the above

Which of the following is a characteristic of arterial bleeding? a) dark red color b) spurting under pressure c) both b and c d) steady flow

Which of the following is a characteristic of referred pain? a) It is caused by psychological stress b) It is usually described as "crampy" or "colicky." c) It is only felt in hollow organs d) It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it

Which of the following is a complication of bone fractures? a) swelling b) nerve damage c) hemorrhage d) all of the above

Which of the following is a concern when caring for the patient with abdominal pain? a) patient comfort b) airway management c) shock d) all of the above

Which of the following is a consideration in determining a burn's severity? a) Other illnesses or injuries the patient may have b) Body surface area (BSA) involved in the burn c) The type of agent that caused the burn d) All of the above

Which of the following is a feature of a good disaster plan? a) It has been practiced in mock disasters b) It is specific to the geographical location c) It is based on the availability of resources in a particular area d) All of the above

Which of the following is a function of the autonomic nervous system? a) Solving complex math problems b) Running or walking c) Speaking d) Constriction of blood vessels

Which of the following is a function of the rehabilitation area in a hazardous materials incident? a) Performing medical assessment of rescue crews b) Taking baseline vital signs before rescuers enter the operations area c) Providing for hydration of rescue crews d) All of the above

Which of the following is a good choice for preventing further injury to a patient during auto extrication? a) sheet b) disposable blanket c) placing your body over the top of patient d) aluminized blanket

Which of the following is a hallmark of irreversible shock? a) Delayed capillary refill time b) Pale, cool skin c) Altered mental status d) Cell damage and death in the vital organs

Which of the following is a sign of possible brain injury? a) Projectile vomiting b) Irregular breathing patterns c) Deep laceration of the scalp d) All of the above

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of withdrawal from alcohol? a) seizures b) sweating c) hallucinations d) all of the above

Which of the following is a trade name for an epinephrine auto-injector? a) Anajector® b) Autodrenalin® c) AllerPen® d) EpiPen®

Which of the following is an advantage of removing the roof of a vehicle that has sustained major damage in a collision? a) It creates a large exit through which to remove the patient. b) The EMT can better access the patients. c) It makes the entire interior of the vehicle accessible d) All of the above

Which of the following is an appropriate question to ask while evaluating a woman in labor? a) Do you know who the father is and his medical history? b) Is this your first pregnancy? c) When was the last time you were sexually active? d) None of the above

Which of the following is an important early indicator of hypoperfusion? a) Dilation of the pupils b) Delayed capillary refill c) Increased heart rate d) Altered mental status

Which of the following is an important reason for controlling spectators at the scene of an extrication incident? a) Spectators may get injured b) Spectators may create problems for passing motorists. c) Spectators may interfere with rescue efforts d) All of the above

Which of the following is appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury (MOI)? a) Treat for shock if you think there are internal injuries even if the patient's vital signs are normal b) Splint any swollen, deformed extremities c) Anticipate vomiting d) All of the above

Which of the following is appropriate in the examination of a painful, swollen extremity of a conscious patient? a) Gently attempting to flex the mid-portion of the bone to check for angulation b) Comparing the injured side to the uninjured side c) Seeing if you can elicit crepitus on palpation d) Asking the patient to see if he can bear weight on the extremity

Which of the following is included in the primary assessment of a conscious patient suffering from anaphylactic shock? a) Looking for hives and swelling b) Determining whether the patient's systolic blood pressure is over 100 mmHg c) Finding out how the patient was exposed to the substance to which she is allergic d) Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty

Which of the following is least often seen in carbon monoxide poisoning? a) headache b) nausea c) altered mental status d) cherry red lips

Which of the following is most likely to be a complaint of a patient suffering from anaphylaxis? a) "My legs are numb and I can't move them." b) "I am having severe muscle pains." c) "I can't remember what happened." d) "My throat feels like it is closing."

Which of the following is not a cause of parietal pain? a) inflammation b) bleeding into the abdominal cavity c) infection d) muscle pain

Which of the following is not a consequence of hypoperfusion? a) Cells are not supplied with nutrients. b) Cells are not supplied with oxygen. c) Cellular waste products are not removed. d) Acid buildup decreases and body pH increases

Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation area of a hazardous materials incident? a) It allows for rapid reentry to the emergency operation. b) It is protected from weather elements. c) It is large enough to accommodate multiple rescue crews. d) It is located in the warm zone.

Which of the following is not a major function of the skin? a) Protection from the environment b) Temperature regulation c) Excretion of wastes d) Regulates the pH balance of the body

Which of the following is not a mechanism of musculoskeletal injury? a) indirect force b) direct force c) twisting or rotational forces d) extensive force

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Emergency Medical Dispatcher? a) Prioritizing calls that come in b) Providing emergency instructions to the caller c) Coordinating with other public safety agencies d) Providing medical direction to the responding units

Which of the following is not a side effect of epinephrine? a) chest pain b) vomiting c) pallor d) bradycardia

Which of the following is not advisable following complete birth of the infant? a) Dry the infant and wrap him in a blanket b) Place the infant on his side with his head slightly lower than his body c) Keep the infant at the level of the mother's vagina until the cord is clamped and cut. d) Hold the infant by the ankles to allow the airway to drain.

Which of the following is not generally recognized as a form of terrorist incident a) Biologic weapons b) Explosion c) Industrial sabotage d) Harassment

Which of the following is not indicated in the management of a patient in shock? a) Managing the patient's airway and preventing hypoxia b) Considering proper positioning of the patient c) Preventing loss of body heat by covering the patient with a blanket d) Engaging in high-speed ambulance transportation

Which of the following is not part of a basic obstetrics kit? a) Baby blanket b) Surgical scissors c) Umbilical cord clamps or hemostats d) Packet of suture material

Which of the following is not true concerning abdominal pain in geriatric patients? a) Medications may mask signs of shock associated with an abdominal complaint b) The older person may not be able to give a specific description of the pain. c) Older adults have a decreased ability to perceive pain d) The causes of abdominal pain in geriatric patients are rarely serious

Which of the following is not used to calculate a patient's GCS? a) Verbal response b) Eye movement c) Motor response d) Work of breathing

Which of the following is of concern in a patient who received burns to his hand when he grabbed a live electrical wire? a) Which of the following is of concern in a patient who received burns to his hand when he grabbed a live electrical wire? b) Toxic gases were inhaled. c) The patient remains an electrocution hazard to rescuers for several minutes after being removed from the source of electricity d) The extent of tissue damage may be much greater than it appears on the surface

Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound? a) Strong possibility of contamination b) An object that remains impaled in the body c) Hidden internal bleeding with minimal external bleeding d) All of the above

Which of the following is often associated with water-related emergencies? a) Cardiac arrest b) Hypothermia c) Alcohol use d) All of the above

Which of the following is one of the most common inhaled poisons associated with fire suppression? a) Carbon dioxide b) Hydrogen sulfide c) Chlorine gas d) Carbon monoxide

Which of the following is recommended in situations in which a tourniquet must be used? a) Apply a bulky dressing and bandage over the tourniquet b) Remove the tourniquet as soon as bleeding is controlled to minimize further damage to the limb. c) Apply the tourniquet over the elbow or knee. d) Use a material that is wide and thick

Which of the following is recommended when caring for an amputated part? a) Care for the amputated part before worrying about the patient bleeding. b) Rinse away debris with saline solution and place the part in a container of ice c) Wrap the part in aluminum foil to preserve body temperature. d) Seal the part in a plastic bag and keep it cool.

Which of the following is responsible for most of the early signs and symptoms of shock? a) Dilation of the peripheral blood vessels b) Increased respirations of the patient c) Constriction of the peripheral blood vessels d) The body's attempts at compensation for blood loss

Which of the following is the best course of action for the EMT to take when caring for a patient with an AICD who goes into cardiac arrest? a) The AED should be applied and used, but CPR should not be started while on-scene or transporting the patient. b) No action beyond transport is required because the patient already has an implanted defibrillator c) CPR should be started, but the AED should not be used while on-scene or transporting the patient. d) CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while on-scene and transporting the patient.

Which of the following is the easiest way for an EMT to communicate with a patient with drastic hearing loss? a) Use a TDD/TYY telephone b) Speak loudly and directly into the patient's ear c) Slow down your speech so that the patient can read your lips d) Write your questions using paper and pen

Which of the following is the first concern when you are caring for a patient who has been in a vehicle collision? a) Helping law enforcement get the driver's name and insurance information b) Preserving evidence, such as alcohol beverage bottles and vehicle positioning c) Treating life-threatening injuries d) Your own safety

Which of the following is the main focus of the EMT's assessment and history taking of the patient with abdominal pain? a) Determining if the patient meets criteria to refuse treatment and transport b) Determining the cause of the pain c) Determining the presence of shock d) Determining the possible need for immediate surgery

Which of the following is the most common type of rescue across the United States? a) Water rescue b) Hazardous materials response c) Farm rescue d) Vehicle rescue

Which of the following is the most effective way of controlling external bleeding in superficial wounds? a) Elevating the affected part b) Running cold water over the wound c) Using an ice pack d) Using direct pressure with a dressing

Which of the following is the outermost layer of the skin? a) dermis b) adipose tissue c) fascia d) epidermis

Which of the following is the result of histamine and other chemicals in the body during anaphylaxis? a) Bronchodilation occurs, blood vessels dilate, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords b) Blood vessels constrict, capillaries become leaky, and bronchoconstriction occurs. c) Urticaria occurs due to fluid being shunted from the skin, causing dehydration of tissue. d) Capillaries become leaky, bronchoconstriction occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords.

Which of the following is true concerning lacerations? a) They may be caused by blunt trauma. b) They may be caused by penetrating trauma. c) They may indicate deeper underlying tissue damage. d) All of the above

Which of the following is true of premature infants? a) They are more susceptible to infection. b) They can easily develop hypothermia c) They are at risk for respiratory difficulty. d) all of the above

Which of the following layers of the skin is the most important in insulating the body against heat loss? a) epidermis b) subdural layer c) parietal layer d) subcutaneous layer

Which of the following may be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist violence? a) Function of the target b) Number of people present c) Occurrence on the anniversary of a significant or symbolic historical event d) All of the above

Which of the following may be a hazard of an improperly fitting cervical collar? a) Allows flexion of the neck b) Prevents the patient from opening his mouth c) Allows hyperextension of the neck d) All of the above

Which of the following may result from a woman in her third trimester of pregnancy lying in a supine position? a) Maternal hypotension b) Maternal compensation for a decrease in blood pressure c) Fetal compromise d) All of the above

Which of the following medical conditions could be the underlying cause of an apparent behavioral emergency? a) mental illness b) stroke c) hypoglycemia d) all of the above

Which of the following methods should the EMT use first to attempt to access a patient in a vehicle while awaiting arrival of a rescue crew? a) Use a pry-bar to release the Nader pin in the door latch. b) Use a spring-loaded punch to break the rear window. c) Use a heavy tool to break the window closest to the patient d) Try all of the vehicle's doors to see if they will open

Which of the following occurs when gases leave a damaged lung in a diving accident and enter the bloodstream? a) Arterial thrombosis b) Arterial blood gases c) Hyperbaric arterial injury d) Arterial gas embolism

Which of the following patients has the greatest likelihood of being cared for in a burn center? a) 12-year-old male with a partial thickness burn involving his forearm as a result of making a torch by lighting aerosol from a can of hairspray b) 45-year-old man who has a partial thickness burn about 3 inches long by 1/2 inch wide on his posterior arm from backing into a barbecue grill c) 16-year-old female who came into contact with a motorcycle exhaust pipe and has a superficial burn on her leg about 2 inches in diameter d) 30-year-old woman who has full thickness burns on her hand and arm as a result of spilling hot cooking oil on herself

Which of the following people is allowed to continue providing patient care when the patient is to be "cleared" for delivery of a shock via the defibrillator? a) The EMT performing bag-valve mask ventilations b) The provider who is ventilating the patient, so long as the patient has been intubated by a paramedic so that the provider does not directly touch the patient c) Anyone in contact with the patient below the level of the patient's knees d) None of the above

Which of the following provides the best protection for the EMT's hands during a vehicle rescue operation? a) Fabric work gloves with non-slip palms b) Elbow-length chemical-proof gloves c) Double-thickness latex gloves d) Leather gloves

Which of the following questions may help the EMT assess a patient with abdominal pain? a) Do you have any allergies to foods or medicines? b) What medications are you taking? c) Do you have any medical problems, such as diabetes or heart problems? d) All of the above

Which of the following represents best practice when responding to a highway incident? a) Using emergency lighting rather than cones or flares to warn traffic of the incident b) Parking immediately behind the first unit on scene when you are a secondary unit c) Using the crossover on a limited-access highway during peak traffic hours d) Keeping the ambulance on the same side of the road as the incident

Which of the following should NOT be done during defibrillation? a) Pressing the defibrillation pads firmly to the chest to ensure good contact b) Shaving the chest before placing the defibrillation pads to improve contact c) Performing CPR while the AED is being attached d) Continued ventilation during the analysis phase to prevent hypoxia

Which of the following should be checked with the vehicle engine turned off? a) Warning lights b) Dash-mounted gauges c) Windshield wiper operation d) Battery

Which of the following should be considered during the scene size-up of a hazardous materials emergency? a) Identification of the substance b) The properties and potential dangers of the substance c) Potential for spread of the substance d) All of the above

Which of the following should be done when the infant's head has been delivered? a) Check to see if the umbilical cord is around the neck b) Suction the mouth. c) Suction the nose. d) All of the above

Which of the following should increase the EMT's suspicion of internal bleeding? a) Fall from a height two or more times the patient's height b) Penetrating trauma to the chest or abdomen c) High-speed motor vehicle collision d) All of the above

Which of the following should the EMT consider when protecting a patient during extrication? a) noise b) weather c) debris d) all of the above

Which of the following should the EMT do to control maternal bleeding after delivery of the baby? a) Allow the infant to nurse, if possible. b) Apply direct pressure with a sanitary napkin over the vaginal opening. c) Massage the uterus until it is firm d) All of the above

Which of the following statements is not true? a) A greenstick break is an incomplete break in a bone b) A fracture is any break in a bone c) An angulated break is when the broken bone segments are at an angle to one another. d) A comminuted break is when a bone is broken in only one place

Which of the following steps of extrication comes before the other three steps? a) Recognizing and managing hazards b) Gaining access to the patient c) Sizing up the situation d) Preparing for the rescue

Which of the following structures is (are) not located in the abdominal cavity? a) spleen b) stomach c) liver d) kidneys

Which of the following terms describes the temperature of the surrounding air? a) shell temperature b) core temperature c) wind chill d) ambient temperature

Which of the following types of drugs may induce sleep or stupor? a) Hallucinogens b) Tranquilizers c) Narcotics d) Both A and B

Which of the following would you expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a patient having an anaphylactic reaction? a) fine, wet crackles or rales b) clear, adequate air movement c) coarse-sounding rhonchi d) wheezing

Which one of the following definitions is not true? a) Which one of the following definitions is not true? b) Joints are places where bones articulate. c) Another name for manual traction is tension d) Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.

Which one of the following statements is not true concerning a knee injury? a) Fractures can occur to the proximal tibia and fibula b) Fractures can occur to the patella. c) There could be pain and tenderness. d) Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.

Which one of the following statements is not true? a) Ligaments are connective tissues that connect bone to bone b) Muscles are the tissues or fibers that cause movement of body parts or organs. c) Cartilage is connective tissue that covers the outside of the bone end and acts as a surface for articulation d) Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.

Which phase of an ambulance call is characterized by receiving a report from the off-going shift and checking the functionality of equipment? a) Receiving and responding to a call b) Terminating the call c) Transferring the patient to the ambulance d) Preparing for the ambulance call

While on the scene of an emergency call involving a patient who is dependent upon a medical device for survival, the EMT can ask which of the following individuals about the specifics of the device? a) patient b) patient's home health aide or nurse c) patient's family d) all of the above

While transporting a patient who has an indwelling Foley catheter, it is important to keep the collection bag: a) level with the patient. b) with the patient's caregiver. c) higher than the level of the patient d) lower than the level of the patient

While treating a patient of sexual assault, which of the following sequences should your treatment follow? a) Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, allow the patient to shower if the patient is capable to help treat psychological needs, and transport. b) Treat immediate life threats, treat psychological needs, and protect criminal evidence c) Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, and treat only the secondary injuries that may become life threats in order to protect criminal evidence. d) Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, treat medical and psychological needs, and protect criminal evidence

While treating a pregnant patient in cardiac arrest, which of the following is the best way to keep the fetus alive a) Do an emergency cesarean section of the fetus b) Transport the patient to the closest pediatric center c) Do not use an AED to defibrillate the patient d) Attempt to resuscitate the patient as you would any other cardiac arrest patient

Why is it important to gather a detailed medical history when dealing with a psychiatric emergency? a) It will help you to determine whether you need to restrain the patient. b) It is not. You want to get the call resolved as quickly as possible and this will just delay it c) It will help you to determine whether the police are needed d) It will alert you to past issues as well as medication

With the exception of the ________, most abdominal organs are not able to sense tearing sensations a) colon b) ovaries c) liver d) aorta

You are assessing a newborn patient 1 minute after delivery. You notice the patient has blue extremities with a pink trunk, a pulse of 120, and strong crying with good movement of all extremities. What is the newborn's APGAR score? a) 10 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

You are assessing a patient in labor. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart, lasting 30 seconds with increasing pain. She states that she does not yet feel the urge to push. These signs indicate she has reached which stage of delivery? a) Fourth stage b) second stage c) third stage d) first stage

You are called for a woman with severe abdominal pain. During your assessment and interview, she tells you that she is sexually active and there is a chance she could be pregnant. Her vital signs are pulse 122, respirations 22, blood pressure 96/62, and skin cool and pale. You should immediately suspect: a) internal bleeding b) placenta previa c) appendicitis d) ectopic pregnancy

You are called to a local hardware store for a male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. As you pull into the parking lot, you notice several people in front of the building coughing and in obvious distress. What would be an appropriate course of action at this point? a) Locate the patient for whom you were requested and begin treatment while another ambulance is en route for the other patients. b) Move the people with respiratory difficulties to a distant corner of the parking lot and set up a treatment sector c) Request a hazardous materials incident response and begin treating all patients displaying respiratory difficulties. d) Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response.

You are dispatched to a local fast-food restaurant for a "nature unknown" call. You arrive on-scene and find a 47-year-old male in front of the counter repeatedly singing "Happy Birthday" to himself. Police are on-scene and the scene is safe. Which of the following would be considered appropriate care? a) Have the police take charge, restrain the patient, and have him brought into your ambulance b) Quickly approach the patient and take charge. Tell him he has to come with you to be evaluated. c) Have your partner join you in approaching the patient and explain to him that he has to stop singing or you will have him arrested. d) Quietly and carefully evaluate the situation and keep your emotions under control. Be as unhurried as you can.

You are dispatched to a local industrial plant for an "electrical injury." You arrive on-scene and find a 46-year-old male lying supine in front of an electrical panel. You are told he was attempting to make a repair and somehow received an electrical shock and was thrown to the ground. The scene is safe and the electricity is off. Your initial exam reveals a conscious person, breathing adequately. Vital signs are normal and there are no obvious signs of burns. Coworkers state that he was unconscious until your arrival. What is the next step? a) Put the patient on oxygen and help him into your ambulance. b) Load and go conduct any other care in the ambulance en route due to the potential seriousness of the burns. c) Stay with the patient awhile, and if he does not appear to be in distress, encourage him to refuse care. d) While on the scene, rapidly do a complete assessment, provide oxygen, provide care for potential spine injuries, and transport as soon as possible after the exam

You are dispatched to an industrial plant for a burn. You arrive and find a 60-year-old male who came in contact with a broken steam line and appears to have partial thickness burns on both hands and arms. He is lying on the ground and coworkers are gently spraying him with water from a nearby hose. What should you do? a) Because of his age, immediately put him in your ambulance and transport him to a burn center. b) Before doing treatment, call the local burn center for instruction. c) Call for air transport and continue to pour water on the burns until transport arrives. d) Care for the burn and do a complete patient assessment, including cervical spine precautions.

You are examining a 48-year-old patient who has been burned. You decide to use the rule of palm to measure the extent of the burn. What does this mean? a) The palm of the patient's hand equals 9% of the body's surface area b) The palm of your hand represents 1% of the body's surface area c) You can only use the rule of palm for children, so you would use the rule of nines instead d) The palm of the patient's hand equals about 1% of the body's surface area.

You are on a stand-by at a local high school football game. One of the football players comes over to the ambulance and complains that his face feels numb and he has a burning sensation in his fingers. You notice that the patient's cheeks and fingers are bright red. How should you treat the patient? a) Tell the patient that his condition is superficial and allow him to return to the game b) Warm the affected areas with gentle rubbing. c) Place the patient inside the ambulance and begin active rewarming measures d) Allow the patient to warm up inside the ambulance by passive rewarming measures.

You are on the scene of a blast from an incendiary device. You notice that several patients are walking around with minor injuries, but they do not respond when you ask the "walking wounded" to follow you to a specific location for treatment. What should you do? a) Speak louder. b) Start checking vital signs and tagging each patient c) Ignore them and start treating other patients. d) Use signs to give directions

You are on the scene of a home ventilator patient whose ventilator has experienced a mechanical failure. The patient is conscious and you have taken over the function of the ventilator with a bag-valve mask. As an EMT, you should verify the patient's comfort level for which of the following? a) ventilation rate b) ventilation volume c) ventilation pressure d) all of the above

You are on the scene of a possible overdose. You find a 30-year-old man pacing around his living room. There is evidence of illicit drug use and the apartment is in disarray. The patient seems agitated and nervous. Attempts at calming the patient should include which of the following? a) Speak quickly to give the patient all of the important information without delay. b) Sit close to him with your arm around his shoulders to show that you are truly concerned. c) Stand still with your arms crossed to instill a sense of control and authority d) Repeat part of what the patient is saying to show that you are listening to him.

You are on the scene where a 23-year-old female has attempted suicide by cutting her forearms with a razor. She is sitting in the front yard and has lost a large amount of blood. She is conscious and holding a small razor blade, and she tells you to get away from her. Which of the following should not be done? a) Use Standard Precautions b) Call law enforcement for assistance c) Keep bystanders away from the patient. d) Take the razor blade away from her by force

You are treating a 5-year-old for extensive burns. You know that burns pose a greater risk to infants and children. The reason for this is: a) the parents' interference with your assessment and treatment can delay your response b) child abuse is usually the reason for the burns. c) the child will likely be upset and crying and therefore hard to evaluate. d) their body surface area is greater in relation to their total body size.

You are treating a 54-year-old female patient who was involved in a domestic dispute; you notice an abrasion to the side of her head. The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 200/110, a pulse of 60 beats per minute, and slightly irregular breathing. The patient's presentation is most likely caused by which of the following a) Coup-contrecoup injury b) Closed head injury c) Increased arterial pressure d) Increased intracranial pressure

You are treating a patient with paradoxical motion on the left side of the chest. He is breathing is shallow at a rate of 4 breaths per minute. You should: a) administer 15 lpm oxygen via mask b) roll the patient onto his left side c) tape the chest to restrict movement. d) begin positive pressure ventilation.

You are treating an unresponsive homeless patient found in an alley. During your assessment you notice the Battle sign, which is bruising a) on the back of the head. b) on the back of the neck. c) between the eyes d) behind the ear

You are unsure whether a patient's condition requires the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most appropriate? a) Administer the epinephrine, just in case. b) B. Ask a family member if this is the type of situation when the patient usually takes his auto-injector. c) Consult with a paramedic on your service for advice d) None of the above

You arrive on the scene and find an unresponsive homeless man lying in the alleyway clutching a wine bottle. He is wearing a long-sleeved shirt but does not have pants on. His skin feels cold to the touch. The week's temperatures have not been above 50 F. Which of the following should you do immediately after ensuring the patient has an adequate airway? a) Provide manual stabilization of the cervical spine. b) Apply the AED c) Begin passive rewarming. d) Check the carotid pulse.

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #2 is an 8-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 22, pulse 102, and alert mental status with warm dry skin a) Priority 2, yellow tag b) Priority 4, black tag c) Priority 1, red tag d) Priority 3, green tag

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #4 is a 13-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 8, pulse 124, and nonresponsive with blood from the ears and nose. a) Priority 4, black tag b) Priority 2, yellow tag c) Priority 3, green tag d) Priority 1, red tag

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #5 is a 17-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 18, pulse 104, alert, crying, and wanting his mother; he is ambulatory. a) Priority 4, black tag b) Priority 1, red tag c) Priority 2, yellow tag d) Priority 3, green tag

You find a middle-aged male sitting against a wall in obvious distress. The patient appears to be extremely short of breath and has an open wound to his chest that is making a sucking sound. You should: a) place a trauma dressing over the wound b) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. c) place the patient on high-concentration oxygen. d) place your gloved hand over the wound.

You have arrived at the scene of a motor vehicle collision to find that there are several critically injured patients. Which of the following should you do first? a) Begin to care for the patient closest to your vehicle b) Begin triage of all patients before deciding on additional resources c) Begin extrication of the most critically injured patient. d) Call for additional rescue units and transporting ambulances

You have arrived at the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are utility wires down around the vehicle. The three occupants appear dazed and other responding units have not yet arrived. Which of the following is the best course of action? a) Push the wires out of the way with a long pry-bar in order to access the patients. b) Cool the wires with large amounts of water to prevent a fire from starting. c) Encourage the occupants to exit the vehicle by jumping free of the vehicle before touching the ground d) Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle.

You have assisted in the delivery of a full-term infant by suctioning the mouth and nose as the head was delivered and again following complete delivery. The infant is not yet breathing. Which of the following is the correct sequence of interventions? a) Begin bag-valve-mask ventilations, suction the airway with a rigid tonsil tip, and begin CPR b) Perform a series of back blows and chest thrusts interposed with mouth-to-mouth ventilation. c) Transport without further intervention d) Rub the infant's back, tap the bottom of his foot, begin bag-valve-mask ventilations, and check the pulse.

You have been called to the scene of a 19-year-old college student who is at his parents' house for the weekend. The patient complains of sensitivity to light and nausea. He also has a headache and is covered in what appears to be a red rash that does not blanch when pressed. Your partner asks the patient to sit up straight and then bring his chin down to his chest. For which of the following diseases is your partner assessing this patient? a) Hepatitis C b) Tuberculosis c) Shingles d) Meningitis

You have delivered a newborn and wrapped the baby in a dry blanket. During your reassessment of the mother, you note continued moderate vaginal bleeding. Care for this bleeding may involve all of the following except: a) massaging the uterus to control bleeding b) elevating the mother's feet. c) applying firm pressure with a sanitary napkin over the vaginal opening d) having the mother squeeze her legs together to provide direct pressure

You respond for an imminent delivery of a baby in the breech position. As you examine the mother, you see that the umbilical cord is protruding from the opening of the cervix. You realize that the most important care you can provide for this baby is to: a) gently push the cord back into the vaginal space. b) wrap the cord to prevent heat loss c) provide oxygen to the mother d) keep the baby off of the cord.

You respond to a 75-year-old female who is complaining of epigastric pain that feels like heartburn. The pain radiates to the right shoulder. Her vital signs are stable and she has a previous history of a myocardial infarction. She has prescription nitroglycerin tablets. She is most likely suffering from: a) ectopic pregnancy b) abdominal aortic aneurysm c) renal colic d) cholecystitis

You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient's friends state they were diving when he came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What condition do you suspect? a) Near drowning b) Decompression sickness c) Myocardial infarction d) Air embolism

You respond to a landing zone to pick up a skier who was lost in the woods for 36 hours and found by the search-and-rescue helicopter. Your patient is a 19-year-old male patient. He is alert and oriented to time, person, place, and event. He is covered in blankets and shivering. He complains of not being able to feel his fingers. Physical exam reveals that the fingers of both extremities have a waxy appearance and feel "frozen" on the surface. After treating the patient for potential hypothermia and rapid transport, your next action is to: a) keep the digits frozen on ice until they can be properly rewarmed at the hospital. b) . actively rewarm the digits c) gently warm the digits by slowly massaging them d) gently bandage the digits.

You respond to a major automobile collision involving multiple patients. Which of the following patients would receive Priority 1 transport? a) 68-year-old with mild respiratory distress and seat belt burns b) 6-year-old with lower leg fracture and normal vital signs c) 45-year-old with no vital signs d) 25-year-old with abdominal bruising and signs of shock

You respond to an abdominal pain call. Your partner suspects that the patient is having an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). What type of pain is the patient most likely experiencing? a) visceral b) parietal c) referred d) tearing

You respond to the scene of a local campground. Your patient is a 15-year-old female patient who was stung in the arm by a bee. The patient is anxious and hyperventilating at 28 times a minute. The patient is alert and oriented to time, place, person, and event. Lung sounds are clear bilaterally. The left arm is swollen and the stinger is not present. Blood pressure is 118/72 and pulse is 110. The patient's mother states the patient is allergic to bee stings and has an epinephrine auto-injector. She called 911 because she was afraid the patient would stop breathing. Which of the following is the best treatment plan? a) Place a constricting band around the arm to minimize the spread of the venom b) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position c) Assist the patient in administering her epinephrine auto-injector. d) Treat the patient for shock and transport

Your patient has come in contact with a strong acid substance. Using an alkaline solution to treat the patient may result in which of the following? a) Neutralization of the acid substance b) Production of heat when the acid and alkali interact c) Further damage to the patient's tissues d) All of the above

Your patient has had his throat slashed during a robbery attempt. You are concerned because it is apparent that the vessels in his neck have been lacerated. A breach in which of the following vessels would be most likely to lead to an air embolism? a) capillaries b) arteries c) arterioles d) veins

Your patient is a 12-year-old boy who ran his arm through a glass window and has an 8-inch laceration on his anterior forearm. You have applied a pressure dressing and bandage, but these have become saturated due to continued bleeding. Which of the following should you do now? a) Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply an ice pack to the wound, and bandage it in place with an elastic bandage b) . Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply direct pressure with your gloved hand, and elevate the arm c) Apply additional dressing material, bandage it in place, and apply pressure to the brachial artery d) Elevate the arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider administering a hemostatic agent.

Your patient is a 12-year-old female who fell onto her outstretched hands while rollerblading. She has a deformity of her forearm, about 2 inches proximal to her wrist. This injury is a result of which of the following mechanisms? a) direct force b) twisting motion c) sudden acceleration d) indirect force

Your patient is a 14-year-old male who crashed his bicycle, landing prone and sliding along a gravel trail. He has deep abrasions to his hands, arms, chest, and knees. The patient has small pieces of gravel, twigs, and dirt embedded in the abrasions. Which of the following is the best way to manage this situation after taking cervical spine immobilization? a) Use a tongue depressor to scrape large pieces of debris out of the wounds, place the patient on high-concentration oxygen, and transport. b) Use your fingers to pick embedded debris from the wound, bandage with moist saline dressings in place, and transport. c) Do not attempt to remove any debris, apply pressure dressings over the embedded material if necessary, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport d) Assess for additional injuries, flush away large pieces of debris with a sterile dressing, place dressings on the abrasions, bandage them in place, and transport.

Your patient is a 17-year-old male baseball player found pulseless and apneic after being struck in the chest by a baseball 6 minutes ago. He is surrounded by other players and staff but no one is providing care. You should: a) elevate the patient's legs. b) place him on a backboard. c) attach the AED and analyze. d) begin chest compressions

Your patient is a 20-year-old college student who has fallen from a third-level balcony onto a wooden deck below. The patient responds to verbal stimuli, is pale in color with moist skin, and has a very obvious deformity with protruding bone ends of his right forearm. Which of the following is the best sequence of intervention for this patient? a) Provide immediate manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine; apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask; perform a focused history and assessment; apply the cervical collar; apply a padded board splint, sling, and swathe to the forearm injury; and transport. b) Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; and check with medical control about the need to splint the forearm injury prior to transport c) Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; transport; and splint the extremity en route if time and resources allow. d) Open the airway; assess breathing; check the carotid pulse; splint the forearm injury; immobilize the patient to a long backboard; apply high-concentration oxygen; and transport.

Your patient is a 21-year-old female with a history of epilepsy. She is having a convulsion upon your arrival. Which of the following should you do? a) Restrain the patient's extremities to prevent injury from flailing of the arms and legs b) Insert a bite block, cloth, wallet, or similar item between the patient's teeth to prevent her from biting her tongue c) Place a tongue depressor or spoon in the back of the mouth to prevent the patient from swallowing her tongue. d) Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury.

Your patient is a 24-year-old man who smoked a cigarette dipped in formaldehyde and then went outside with no shoes on and walked in the snow for about an hour. He has deep local cold injuries to both feet. Which of the following should be included in your management of this patient? a) Keep the patient cool to avoid rewarming the feet too quickly b) Break blisters before wrapping both feet in sterile dressings c) Massage the feet briskly d) Gradually rewarm both feet

Your patient is a 27-year-old male who has been involved in a motorcycle collision in which he was not wearing a helmet. He does not respond when you speak to him, but he makes incomprehensible sounds when you press your knuckles on his sternum. Which of the following best describes his level of consciousness? a) alert b) verbal c) unresponsive d) painful

Your patient is a 28-year-old male who cut his thigh with a chain saw. It appears that he has lost about 600 cc of blood. Which of the following is not part of the proper management of this patient? a) Using direct pressure to control the bleeding b) Using a tourniquet c) Administering oxygen d) Replacing fluid level by giving the patient adequate amounts of water

Your patient is a 3-year-old girl who is unable to move her elbow after her mother picked her up by the forearm. Proper splinting of this injury would be to immobilize from the ________ to the ________. a) wrist; shoulder b) wrist; elbow c) fingertips; shoulder d) forearm; humerus

Your patient is a 30-year-old female involved in a motorcycle crash. She was not wearing a helmet and struck her head on the pavement. She is unresponsive and has a blood pressure of 152/110 mmHg. Her pulse is 60 beats per minute and respirations are 8 breaths per minute and shallow. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention? a) Hyperventilate at a rate of 24 breaths per minute using supplemental oxygen b) Log-roll the patient onto a short spine board c) Carefully rotate the patient's head to check for trauma. d) Provide cervical spine immobilization.

Your patient is a 35-year-old female with abdominal pain. Which of the following findings cannot be attributed to the patient experiencing pain? a) shallow respirations b) increased respiratory rate c) increased heart rate d) decreased level of consciousness

Your patient is a 37-year-old male sitting on the kitchen floor. His wife is attempting to talk with him, but he does not look at her or answer. He is fidgeting and has apparently thrown some dishes against the wall. What should be your first consideration? a) Ask the wife to step outside with you so you can get information from her. b) Ask the wife to step into the other room so you can speak with the patient alone c) Quickly check the patient's carotid pulse d) Stay a safe distance away.

Your patient is a 37-year-old man who tripped while walking down a hill and now has a painful, deformed right leg. Your assessment reveals that the foot is cold and mottled in appearance. You cannot detect a pulse in the foot or ankle. Which of the following is the best course of action? a) Splint the leg in the position in which it was found and transport without delay b) Transport rapidly to the nearest trauma center. c) Explain to the patient that, because you cannot detect circulation in his foot, his leg will most likely have to be amputated above the site of the injury d) Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting

Your patient is a 50-year-old female with a history of alcoholism. She is found unresponsive in bed by her son. Which of the following possibilities should you keep in mind during your assessment? a) head injury b) low blood sugar c) heart attack d) all of the above

Your patient is a 60-year-old male who is complaining of severe epigastric abdominal pain and difficulty breathing. He is pale, sweaty, and pleads with you, "Don't let me die, I think I'm going to die." Which of the following measures is not part of your initial treatment of this patient? a) Placing the patient in a position of comfort b) Determining whether you should assist the patient in taking nitroglycerin c) Giving 15 lpm of oxygen by nonrebreather mask d) Applying the defibrillator pads to his chest

Your patient is a 70-year-old male whose tractor rolled over onto him. Your assessment makes you suspicious that the patient has a fractured pelvis. Which of the following signs and symptoms should you anticipate? a) Patient feels the need to empty his bladder b) Patient cannot lift legs when lying supine c) Patient demonstrates signs of shock. d) All of the above.

Your patient was diagnosed with cholecystitis (gallbladder inflammation) three days ago. The patient now presents with nausea, vomiting, and pain in the right shoulder. The pain in the shoulder can be classified as: a) pancreatic pain b) visceral pain c) somatic pain d) referred pain

Your patient was working on a car when it fell off the jack and trapped him between the tire and ground. His face is very blue and his eyes are bloodshot. Which of the following has the patient most likely suffered? a) Flail chest b) Pneumothorax c) Hemothorax d) Traumatic asphyxia

________ is the response agency, established in Washington, DC, as a service of the Chemical Manufacturers Association that can provide either you or your dispatcher with information about the hazardous material and contact the shipper to provide you with information about the material. a) OSHA b) ERG c) EPA d) CHEMTREC

what is the most important thing you can do for a stable septic patient? a) Attempt to lower the patient's temperature b) Assess the patient using capnography. c) Open and maintain the patient's airway d) Notify the emergency department that the patient is septic.

Dangerous organisms that grow inside of living cells and reproduce are known as: a) biologics b) toxins c) bacteria d) viruses

emt quizzes till 33

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