Environmental Auditing Final
1.5 lbs / moisture See 10 CSR 10-6.330 and subsections (3)(A)2.A. - 1.5 pounds per hour of particulate matter, and (5)(A)4. - Method 4 - Determination of Moisture in Gases
10 CSR 10-6.330 Restriction of Emissions From Batch-Type Charcoal Kilns applies to all batch-type charcoal kilns throughout the entire state of Missouri. There are two blanks to complete for this question - The hourly limit on particulate matter for a charcoal kiln in Missouri is ______________ and for performance testing of the charcoal kilns to determine if they are in compliance with emission limits, the owner/operator of the kiln must utilize Method 4 to determine the amount of ________________ in the gases. -1.75 lbs / carbon dioxide -0.10 lbs / halon -1.5 lbs / moisture -1.7 lbs / organic compounds
threshold planning quantity
A facility must engage in emergency planning based on the presence of an extremely hazardous substance only if that substance exists in an amount exceeding its ____________________ which can be found at 40 CFR Part 355, Appendix A. -reportable quantity -threshold planning quantity -release threshold -toxic threshold
False A "release" is defined as any spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, discharging, injecting, escaping, leaching, dumping, or disposing of something to the environment. If a release is fully contained and only persons within the site or sites belonging to the facility are exposed, a notification is not required.
A facility owner/operator is not required to notify federal, state or local authorities upon the "release" of a "reportable quantity" of a specified substance from a facility at which hazardous chemicals are produced, used or stored. True False
dredged or fill material in the nation's waters
A separate type of permit is required to dispose of ___________________, including wetlands. Authorized by Section 404 of the act, this permit program is administered by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, subject to and using EPA's environmental guidance. -municipal refuse in the nation's waters -sewage sludge in the nation's waters -dredged or fill material in the nation's waters -waste plastic in the nation's waters
30
A stack test, also referred to in EPA regulations as a performance or source test, measures the amount of a specific regulated pollutant, pollutants, or surrogates being emitted; demonstrates the capture efficiency of a capture system; or determines the destruction or removal efficiency of a control device used to reduce emissions at facilities subject to the requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act). These stack tests are very expensive and companies with highly specialized equipment are engaged to perform these stack tests. Stack testing is an important tool used to determine a facility's compliance with emission limits, or capture or control efficiencies established pursuant to the CAA. For purposes of the New Source Performance Standards, the owner or operator of an affected facility has to provide the Administrator at least ____________ days prior notice of any performance test, except as specified under other subparts, to afford the Administrator the opportunity to have an observer present. In other words, how many days advance notice does a company have to give EPA, or the designated state agency, i.e., the MDNR or KDHE, before it can perform a valid stack test? Hint - Look to 40 CFR 60.8. -45 -15 -30 -60
local emergency response commissions (LEPCs)
A state emergency response commission (SERC) is responsible for supervising and coordinating _______________, processing requests from the general public for EPCRA information, and reviewing local emergency response plans. -FEMA operations -local emergency response commissions (LEPCs) -disaster funding -national chemical oversight committees
True
A state implementation plan must include enforceable emission limitations and other control measures, including economic incentives and timetables, as necessary to comply with the Clean Air Act. True False
25/60
A water system that comprises at least 15 service connections or that provides water intended for human consumption to an average of at least _________ individuals daily at least ______ days a year (noncontinuous) qualifies as a "public water system" potentially subject to the requirements of EPA's drinking water regulations. 90 / 30 25 / 90 60 / 25 25 / 60
Gaussian Plume Model
AIR DISPERSION MODEL Air quality models are used to predict ground level concentrations down point of sources. The object of a model is to relate mathematically the effects of source emissions on ground level concentrations, and to establish that permissible levels are, or are not, being exceeded. The dispersion models are used to estimate the downwind ambient concentration of air pollutants or toxins emitted from sources such as industrial plants, vehicular traffic or accidental chemical releases. ... They are most useful for pollutants that are dispersed over large distances and that may react in the atmosphere. The ____________________ is the most common air pollution model. It is based on a simple formula that describes the three-dimensional concentration field generated by a point source under stationary meteorological and emission conditions. -Constellation Inversion Model -Gaussian Plume Model -Castigliano Morphing Model -Air Sparging Stokes Model
50 https://climate.nasa.gov/vital-signs/carbon-https://climate.nasa.gov/vital-signs/carbon-dioxide/#:~:text=Since%20the%20beginning%20of%20industrial,ice%20age%2020%2C000%20years%20ago
Atmospheric concentrations of CO2 have increased by over ______% compared to preindustrial levels. 50 10 93 27
$18,000
Based upon US EPA's Clean Air Act Stationary Source Civil Penalty Policy - dated October 25, 1991, if a source is located in an ozone nonattainment area with a nonattainment status of "extreme" and the violation is related to non-compliance with a new source performance standard (NSPS) what amount is added to the assessed penalty's gravity component? https://www.epa.gov/sites/production/files/documents/penpol.pdfLinks to an external site. -$22,000 -$18,000 -$43,000 -$76,000
$200,000
Based upon US EPA's Clean Air Act Stationary Source Civil Penalty Policy - dated October 25, 1991, what is the dollar amount below which the US EPA can issue a penalty order for violations of the Clean Air Act? This is in lieu of seeking a civil/judicial remedy by using the US Department of Justice as legal counsel to pursue the penalty amount. See https://www.epa.gov/sites/production/files/documents/penpol.pdfLinks to an external site. for penalty policy. -$37,500 -$200,000 -$1,00,000 -$50,000
False The statement is FALSE - Best Available Control Technology (BACT) is defined, by federal regulation at 40 CFR 52.21(b)(12), as the maximum degree of [emission] reduction . . . achievable," taking into account economic, energy, and environmental factors.
Best Available Control Technology (BACT) is defined, by federal regulation at 40 CFR 52.21(b)(12), as the minimum degree of [emission] reduction . . . achievable," taking into account economic, energy, and environmental factors. True False
40
Both high energy costs, and the growing impacts of climate change, pose a significant burden to every American. The historic investments included in the Inflation Reduction Act of 2022 will bring down consumer energy costs, increase American energy security, while substantially reducing greenhouse gas emissions. The combined investments in the FY2022 Budget Reconciliation bill would put the U.S. on a path to roughly _____ emissions reduction by 2030, and would represent the single biggest climate investment in U.S. history, by far. 40 35 25 60
Environmental and Climate Justice Block Grants
Building on regular engagement with Environmental Justice (EJ) leaders from across the country, the Inflation Reduction Act package includes over $60 billion in environmental justice priorities to drive investments into disadvantaged communities. Some of the highlights include: The _______________________, funded at $3 billion, invest in community led projects in disadvantaged communities and community capacity building centers to address disproportionate environmental and public health harms related to pollution and climate change. -No More Bad Gas Grants -Clean Busses for Kids Grants -Environmental and Climate Justice Block Grants -Environmental Improvement Grants
20 through 39
EPCRA requires reporting by manufacturers, which the law defines as facilities in Standard Industrial Classification codes _______________. -109 through 435 -20 through 39 -6 through 21 -35 through 55
True
EPCRA requires that facilities immediately report a release of any "extremely hazardous substance" or any "hazardous substance" (a much broader category of chemicals defined under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) Section 102(a)) that exceeds the reportable quantity to appropriate state, local, and federal officials. True False
extremely hazardous substances
EPCRA's subchapter I (section 302) requirements apply to only those substances designated as __________________. -extremely hazardous wastes -extremely hazardous substances -hazardous waste -hazardous substances
True
EPCRA, Section 312, requires regulated employers to submit annually an emergency and hazardous chemical inventory form to the LEPC, SERC, and local fire department. True False
10,000
EPCRA, Section 313, generally requires a report to EPA and the state from each manufacturer with 10 or more employees and who either uses _________ pounds or manufactures or processes 25,000 pounds of any "toxic chemical" during the reporting year. 100,000 10,000 100 1,000
True The order created a new position of the Special Presidential Envoy for Climate. To coordinate across agencies, E.O. 14008 established a White House Office of Domestic Climate Policy (Climate Policy Office) within the Executive Office of the President led by an Assistant to the President and National Climate Advisor.
Executive Order 14008 of January 27, 2021, ordered a whole-of-government approach to addressing climate change and set forth a number of directives with a view toward decisions that support meeting the Administration's GHG reduction targets. True False
True
Federal environmental statutes empower private citizens to sue the government for violating or failing to enforce statutory requirements. True False
0.12 ppm
For a RCRA Subtitle D non-hazardous waste landfill what is the maximum daily concentration attainable by the application of the best practicable control technology currently available (BPT) for the regulated parameter Benzoic acid? [This question is worth 5 points] -0.20 mg/L -0.12 ppm -0.033 ppm -0.025 mg/L
circulating fluidized bed boiler / 392.6 tons per year
For the Roquette construction permit, the Best Available Control Technology (BACT) emission limit for sulfur dioxide for the ________________________ emission unit is ________________. -selective non-catalytic reduction / 0.09 lb/MMBTU -rock crusher / 671.8 tons per week -circulating fluidized bed boiler / 392.6 tons per year -circulating fluidized bed boiler / 392.6 tons per day
0.084 pounds per 1,000 barrels of feedstock
For the cracking subcategory of a petroleum refining point source category what is the one day NSPS effluent limitation for the parameter total chromium? [This question is worth 5 points] -0.084 kg/1,000 cubic meters of feedstock -0.084 pounds per 1,000 barrels of feedstock -0.049 kg/1,000 cubic meters of feedstock -0.049 pounds/1,000 barrels of feedstock
25,000
For the previous question, what is the emission threshold in tons (of the specified pollutant) that triggers reporting under the above referenced rule? 100,000 1 million 25,000 10
21 Entities will have at least 21 days after acquisition to disclose violations discovered at newly acquired facilities.
How many days does an entity have to disclose a violation to EPA after discovery? 10 21 35 25
Our Children's Trust
In 2015, a group organized under the name ____________________ sued the United States government in federal court in Oregon over the government's perceived failure to act on climate change, seeking to force the government to engage stricter greenhouse gas emissions rules. -Kids versus the Government -Our Children's Trust -We Deserve Better -Our Future Matters
29 / 25 / 23
In 2019, the transportation sector accounted for _______ % of total U.S. greenhouse gas emissions, and the electricity and industrial sectors accounted for _____% and _____ % respectively. 23 / 25/ 29 25 / 24 / 82 29 / 25 / 23 23 / 17 / 43
construction
In areas that have not attained the national ambient air quality standards for a given pollutant (i.e., nonattainment areas), new major stationary sources, or major modifications of existing major sources, must receive a nonattainment permit before _____________can begin. -operation of the facility -negotiation of facility ownership -emissions from emission sources -construction
greenhouse gas reporting program (GHGRP)
In late 2007, Congress directed EPA to establish a greenhouse gas reporting program. Specifically, the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2008 (P.L. 110-161), provided $3.5 million for EPA to develop and publish a rule that would "require mandatory reporting of greenhouse gas emissions above appropriate thresholds in all sectors of the economy of the United States." In response to the congressional directive, EPA established the _________________. It requires reporting from facilities in nearly all categories of direct emitters and from suppliers of certain fuels and manufactured greenhouse gases (e.g., fluorinated GHGs) in the United States. -zero emission rule program (ZERP) -stop emissions now program (SENP) -greenhouse gas reporting program (GHGRP) -reduce emissions for climate change (REFCC)
duty of care
Negligence is the breach of ______________ that causes an injury to a plaintiff. Therefore, the underlying prerequisite for any negligence lawsuit is that the defendant owed a ____________ to the plaintiff. covenant behavior duty of care contract
80
Of the six GHGs discussed in EPA's endangerment finding, CO2 is the most prevalent, accounting for about _____% of U.S. GHG emissions, on a CO2-equivalent basis, from human activities in 2019. 98 45 73 80
1989 Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR)
One of the most important regulations EPA has developed to counter the acute health risks posed by pathogens in drinking water is the ___________________________ -1973 Clean Water Act (CWA) -1961 Clean Water for Drinking Regulation (CWDR) -2007 Treatment Guidelines for Community Water Protection (TGCWP) -1989 Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR)
definition of an underground storage tank (UST)
Only those tanks that meet the _________________________ system are covered by the UST regulations. Aboveground storage tanks (ASTs) are subject to other federal, state, or local regulations. -satisfy the definition of passive injection parameter -definition of regenerative monitoring -definition of an underground storage tank (UST) -dense non-aqueous phase
Perform a site check and corrective action in response to leaks, spills and overfills
Owners and operators of underground storage tanks must: -have periodic checks performed on plasticizer integrity and injection response -optionally maintain records -meet fiscal irresponsibility requirements -Perform a site check and corrective action in response to leaks, spills and overfills
True
Point source is defined in the Clean Water Act to mean "any discernible, confined and discrete conveyance . . . from which pollutants are or may be discharged." Under this definition, if a pollutant is discharged from a conveyance only in extreme conditions, such as during an unusual storm event, then the conveyance falls within the definition of a point source. True False
True
Pollutant is defined in the Clean Water Act as "dredged spoil, solid waste, incinerator residue, sewage, garbage, sewage sludge, munitions, chemical wastes, biological materials, radioactive materials, heat, wrecked or discarded equipment , rock, sand, cellar dirt and industrial, municipal, and agricultural waste discharged into water" True False
they can restrict the spread of innovative environmental ideas from one facility to another they can SPREAD innovative environmental ideas from one facility to another
The benefits of auditing are enormous. Audits serve all of the following except -- -they stimulate environmental awareness and stewardship a the facility level -they propound and inculcate corporate environmental policies -they prepare a historical record for use in avoiding or defending legal proceedings -they can restrict the spread of innovative environmental ideas from one facility to another -they document regulatory status in a manner consistent across a company , thereby allowing comparisons to be drawn and systemic issues grasped
20% / 567 IAC 23.1(2)ccc
The Roquette construction permit provides that the opacity emission standard shall not exceed ____________ pursuant to ___________________. -20% / 567 IAC 23.1(2)ccc -0.02 lbs/MMBTU / 567 IAC 23.1(4)dd -0.69 lb/hour / 40 CFR 64 Subpart 129 -153.38 tons / year / 40 CFR 73.8
emission point 121 / nitrogen oxides
The Roquette construction permit requires the permittee to install, calibrate, maintain and operate a continuous emission monitor on ______________ and record the output of the system measuring ____________ emissions discharged into the atmosphere. -the baghouse / lead particulates -emission point 121 / nitrogen oxides -the main stack / volatile organic compounds -the bed of the furnace / coal dust
True
The Safe Drinking Water Act generally contemplates that microbial contaminants may be controlled using approved treatment techniques (e.g., filtration and disinfection), while potentially harmful organic and inorganic chemical contaminants will be controlled through quantitative enforceable standards that limit the concentration of such contaminants in drinking water. True False
states and municipalities
The Safe Drinking Water Act is unique among federal regulatory schemes in several respects. Unlike other federal regulatory programs, fundamental aspects of drinking water treatment and management were developed and widely implemented by ______________________ long before a national drinking water program emerged. states and municipalities natural accretion individual entrepreneurs private partnerships
True
The Safe Drinking Water Act provides that EPA is authorized to list treatment techniques to achieve compliance with the maximum allowable contaminant levels and, in certain circumstances, to require particular treatment techniques to satisfy a maximum contaminant level (MCL). True False
True
The Safe Drinking Water Act regulatory scheme has at its foundation a cooperative federal/state relationship that contemplates enforcement by the states in the first instance under the supervision of the federal government. True False
The Interim Clean Water Act Settlement Penalty Policy
The U.S. EPA utilizes what resource to provide national uniformity to their penalty assessments for violation(s) of the Clean Water Act? -U.S. EPA relies solely upon case law to assess penalties in order to avoid having the penalty overturned by a court -The defendant is allowed to choose the penalty magnitude -None of these are correct -An inspector from the US EPA uses his best professional judgment based upon his interactions with the alleged violator -The Interim Clean Water Act Settlement Penalty Policy
national ambient air quality standards
The centerpiece of the Clean Air Act is the ______________________ which address pervasive pollution that endangers public health and welfare. The ___________________ have been established for six pollutants: sulfur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, particulate matter, carbon monoxide, ozone and lead. -state implementation plan -New Source Performance standards -national pollutant discharge elimination system -national ambient air quality standards
True
The federal UST regulations apply only to UST systems storing either petroleum or certain hazardous substances. True False
all of these are correct
The following types of tanks do not have to meet federal UST regulations: -Tanks storing heating oil used on the premises where it is stored -Farm and residential tanks of 1,100 gallons or less capacity holding motor fuel used for noncommercial purposes -all of these are correct -Tanks storing heating oil used on the premises where it is stored -Emergency spill and overfill tanks -Flow-through process tanks -Tanks of 110 gallons or less capacity -Septic tanks and systems for collecting storm water and wastewater
sulfur pentafluoride
The greenhouse gas reporting rule requires industrial greenhouse gas sources, fuel suppliers, manufacturers, electric generating units, certain mobile sources, landfills and even certain animal feeding operations to monitor and report their greenhouse gas emissions on an annual basis. The rule covers six primary greenhouse gases. Which of the following is not one of the identified greenhouse gases? carbon dioxide methane perfluorocarbons nitrous oxide sulfur pentafluoride
interstitial monitoring
The hazardous substance UST must use ___________________ for leak detection. ___________________ can indicate the presence of a leak in the confined space between the first and the second wall. Several devices are available to monitor this confined ________________. The UST regulations describe these various methods and the requirements for their proper use. (the same term is used in each blank) -cathodic protection -optical pyrometery -interstitial monitoring -none of these are correct -monitored natural attenuation
2007 / 7,300 million
The highest level of gross U.S. greenhouse gas emissions were 15.6% above 1990 levels—occurred in ______________ and constituted approximately how many metric tons of carbon dioxide? 2021 / 64 quadrillion 2016 / 400 thousand 2014 / 83 million 2007 / 7,300 million
True
The listing criteria specified in Section 313(d)(2) authorize EPA to add a chemical when it is "known to cause or can reasonably be anticipated to cause" "significant adverse acute human health effects at concentration levels that are reasonably likely to exist beyond facility site boundaries as a result of continuous, or frequently recurring, releases." True False
1
The maximum contaminant level for turbidity that is applicable to both community water systems and non-community water systems using surface water sources in whole or in part as determined by a monthly average is ________________ turbidity unit(s) (TU). HINT - look to 40 CFR Section 141.13(a) 36,000 1 0.003 450
4,500 pascals (450 mm of water) Correct -- see 40 CFR 60.502(i).
The objective of this question is to increase your familiarity with the Clean Air Act's New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) that are found at 40 CFR Part 60, subparts A thru TTTT. What is the minimum opening system pressure for any pressure-vacuum vent in a bulk gasoline terminal's vapor collection system? -4,500 pascals (450 mm of water) -900 pascals (90 mm of water) -9,000 pascals (900 mm of water) -450 pascals (45 mm of water)
True
The owner/operator of a facility must immediately notify the community emergency response coordinator of the local emergency response commission (LEPC) and the state emergency response commission (SERC) of any reportable release. True False
endanger public health or welfare
The plaintiffs in the Supreme Court decision Massachusetts v. Environmental Protection Agency, claimed that the Clean Air Act required the EPA to create standards for motor vehicle emissions that could reasonably ____________________________. -endanger public health or welfare -be measured by a repair shop -be limited to no more than 0.15 mg of CO2 per mile of vehicle travel -be seen with an optical pyrometer
True
The primary goals of EPCRA are to provide the public access to information concerning hazardous chemicals present in the community and to use this information in order to adopt local emergency response plans in the event of a hazardous chemical release. True False
oil and natural gas systems
The primary sources of U.S. methane emissions include ______________________ agriculture, and landfills, and the primary source of nitrous oxide emissions is agricultural soil management -automobile manufacturing -aluminum production -oil and natural gas systems -cement production
methane / nitrous oxide
The second-most-prevalent greenhouse gas in the United States in terms of emissions is _________ (10% of U.S. GHG emissions in 2019), followed by ____________ (7% in 2019). -volatile organic compounds / sulfur -silica / ammonia -methane / nitrous oxide -nitrogen dioxide / carbon monoxide
350 feet
The stack height emission point from the ground for the unit permitted by the Roquette construction permit is ____________. -185 feet -350 feet -350 meters -185 meters
electrical industry
The transportation sector's carbon footprint, second only to the _________________, is a major environmental issue that was all but ignored by federal regulators until 2007. cement industry steel industry electrical industry petroleum industry
True
Thirty states, three U.S. territories, and the District of Columbia have mandatory electricity portfolio standards (clean energy standards or renewable portfoliostandards), which require a minimum amount of electricity be generated by eligible sources such as renewables. Of these, 11 jurisdictions are to ultimatelyrequire 100% of electricity to come from eligible clean sources. True False
her facility is out of compliance and she needs to reduce the emission level Correct - see Table 1 to Subpart TTTT of Part 63. The limit is 2.6 lbs of HAP per 1,000 square feet of leather processed.
This and the next question are intended to improve your familiarity with the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs), also known as maximum achievable control technology (MACT) standards that are found at 40 CFR Part 63. Your client for the past 10 years has owned a leather finishing operation that includes a group of processes used to adjust and improve the physical and aesthetic characteristics of a leather surface through multistage application of a coating comprised of dyes, pigments, film-forming materials, and performance modifiers dissolved or suspended in liquid carriers. While at a trade show recently your client was talking with some competitors and has become concerned that she may not be in compliance with some federal regulations that have set emission limits for determining the allowable loss of hazardous air pollutants. She knows that during production her upholstery leather process utilizes more than 4 grams add-on/square foot has a hazardous air pollutant loss of 3.1 pounds per 1,000 square feet of leather processed. NOTE: Finish add-on means the amount of solid material deposited on the leather substrate due to finishing operations. Typically, the solid deposition is a dye or other chemical used to enhance the color and performance of the leather. Finish add-on is quantified as mass per surface area of substrate, such as grams of finish add-on per square foot of leather substrate. -her facility is out of compliance and she needs to reduce the emission level -Her facility is fully compliant as the limit is more than double 3.1 pounds -her facility is out of compliance as it is exceeding the limit of 0.5 pounds -her facility is right at the required emission limit
9/17/93 CFR: 40 C.F.R. 52.1320(c)(88)(i)(A) FRM: 60 FR 49340 (9/25/95) PRM: 60 FR 49357 (9/25/95) State Submission: 3/31/94 State Proposal: 18 MR 1685 (9/17/93) State Final: 10 C.S.R. 10-6 (7/29/94) APDB File: MO-110 Description: The EPA approved a new rule which establishes a mechanism for creating Federally enforceable limitations that would reduce sources' potential to emit such that sources could avoid major source permitting requirements. This action approves the rule satisfying the rule for Federally enforceable state operating permit programs. In addition, this action addresses Missouri's program covering criteria pollutants (regulated under section 110 of the Clean Air Act) and hazardous air pollutants (regulated under section 112).
This question and the next are to test your understanding of the "state implementation plan." On what date did Missouri initially publish their proposal in the Code of State Regulations seeking EPA approval of a new rule [10 CSR 10-6.065] which establishes a mechanism for creating Federally enforceable limitations that would reduce sources' potential to emit such that sources could avoid major source permitting requirements. This action approved the rule satisfying the rule for Federally enforceable state operating permit programs. In addition, this action addresses Missouri's program covering criteria pollutants (regulated under section 110 of the Clean Air Act) and hazardous air pollutants (regulated under section 112). HINT: Go to - https://www.epa.gov/sips-mo/missouri-sip-chapter-6-air-quality-standards-definitions-sampling-and-reference-methods-and#DocumentsLinks to an external site. -9/17/93 -7/29/94 -9/25/95 -5/5/92
True You can repair a leaking tank if the person who does the repair carefully follows industry codes and standards that establish the correct way to conduct repairs.
Underground storage tank systems may be repaired: True False
63 Correct answer is 63 ppb at Watkins Mill in 2019. Ozone levels exceeding 70 ppb (for the 2015 standard) are considered unhealthy based upon the fourth highest eight hour ozone average.
We breath what EPA defines as "ambient" air. In the past, Kansas City has had problems with ambient air quality due to high levels of ozone. By reviewing the table at https://dnr.mo.gov/env/apcp/docs/ozonemonitordata.pdfLinks to an external site. what is the fourth highest eight-hour ozone average, in parts per billion, for the year 2019 at the ozone monitor located at Watkins Mill in the Kansas City area? -63 -78 -69 -62
40 CFR 411.14
What federal regulation provides pretreatment standards for an existing cement manufacturing point source (nonleaching) that introduces process wastewater pollutants into a publicly owned treatment works. This particular standard establishes the quantity or quality of pollutant properties which may be discharged. -40 CFR 411.24 -40 CFR 411.12 -40 CFR 411.14 -40 CFR 411.34
Chief Judge James E. Gritzner
What individual has total oversight authority of this consent decree? -David Dain, Senior Trial Attorney -Ignacia S. Moreno, Assistant US Attorney -Chief Judge James E. Gritzner -The Easter Bunny
iron and steel production
What industrial category does the mandatory greenhouse gas reporting rule at Subpart Q regulate? [Hint look to 40 CFR Part 98] -iron and steel production -underground coal mines -cement production -ammonia manufacturing
0.006 mg/L
What is the maximum contaminant level (MCL) for antimony? 1.3 ppm 0.006 lbs/gallon 0.01 kg/liter 0.006 mg/L
Highlight the interconnectedness of the various sections of the Clean Air Act and the difficulties in regulating greenhouse gases under the statute.
What was the purpose of the Advanced Notice of Proposed Rulemaking that was issued by the US EPA following the Supreme Court decision Massachusetts v. EPA? -To detail the simplistic methodology that EPA proposed to address greenhouse gas emissions -Highlight the interconnectedness of the various sections of the Clean Air Act and the difficulties in regulating greenhouse gases under the statute. -To detail the methodology for using international treaties to reduce global emissons -To detail the intersection of technology issues between the Clean Air Act and the Clean Water Act
comments, input
When a permit involves complicated or unusual features, EPA or the state typically will initiate early informal discussions with the permit applicant about the permit terms and conditions. Often the permitting agency will issue a pre-draft permit, sometimes accompanied by what is called a 14-day letter, upon which the permit applicant can submit ______________, so that the draft permit, when it is issued for public comment, reflects the ______________________of the permit applicant. {fill in the blanks} -comments, input -cost data, financial status -additional letters of support, character -enforcement history, compliance status
filtration / chlorine
While _____________ is an effective treatment method for reducing turbidity, it was disinfectants like _____________ that played the largest role in reducing the number of waterborne disease outbreaks in the early 1900s. gas injection / ozone bummel extraction / permanganate filtration / chlorine whale skirting / radon
False
With respect to the establishment of the drinking water standards for the contaminant that will be addressed by the new NPDWR, the Act provides for a process that has two essential elements - establishment of an aspirational Maximum Contaminant Level (MCL) for the contaminant, and adoption of a corresponding enforceable standard designated as a Maximum Contaminant Level goal, or MCLG. True False
all of these are correct Metal pipe sections and fittings that have released product as a result of corrosion or other damage must be replaced. Loose fittings can be tightened, and in some cases that may solve the problem. Piping made of fiberglass-reinforced plastic can be repaired, but only in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions or national codes of practice. Within 30 days of the repair, piping must be tested in the same ways noted above for testing tank repairs (except for internal inspection). Within 6 months of repair, USTs with cathodic protection must be tested to show that the cathodic protection is working properly.
Within 30 days of the repair of the UST, you must prove that the tank repair has worked by doing one of the following: -all of these are correct -Use one of the monthly leak detection monitoring methods -Have the tank inspected internally or tightness tested following standard industry codes -Use other methods approved by the regulatory authority -None of these are correct
grab
You will need to look to the Roquette NPDES permit that is included in the Clean Water Act module to answer this question. For outfall 012 and wastewater parameter methyl chloride, what type of sample must be taken once every six months at the wastewater treatment plant? -24 hour composite -3 day composite -grab -measurement
shall be enclosed or covered to prevent exposure to precipitation, except for exposure resulting from adding or removing materials from the pile.
You will need to look to the Roquette NPDES permit that is included in the Clean Water Act module to answer this question. Storage piles of salt used for deicing or other commercial or industrial purposes and that generate a storm water discharge to waters of the United States -shall be enclosed or covered to prevent exposure to precipitation, except for exposure resulting from adding or removing materials from the pile. -shall be placed in proximity to the Mississippi River as a backup levee in the event of flooding -are illegal under state law -shall not be enclosed or covered to facilitate ready access by snow removal crews
4.8900 Million gallons per day
You will need to look to the Roquette NPDES permit that is included in the Clean Water Act module to answer this question. The design capacity for the treatment works is specified in Construction Permit Number 2017-0225S, issued Wednesday, December 28, 2016. The treatment plant is designed to treat an average dry weather (ADW) flow of __________________ gallons/day? -4.8900 Million gallons per day -616,000 gallons per day -28,000 gallons per day -73.700 million gallons per day
1.28 lbs/day
You will need to look to the Roquette NPDES permit that is included in the Clean Water Act module to answer this question. The maximum daily limit for BIS (2-Ethylhexyl) Phthalate from outfall 012 is -16.3 kg/day -64.2 tons per hour -1.28 lbs/day -there is no maximum
False
You will need to look to the Roquette NPDES permit that is included in the Clean Water Act module to answer this question. The term "Bypass" means the diversion of clean water streams from any portion of a treatment facility or collection system. True False
2.57 lbs/hour
You will need to refer to the Roquette Title V permit to answer this question (see Clean Air Act module for file containing Roquette Title V permit). What is the PM10 emission limit on the #2 P&M starch dryer with emission unit # ST-17? -25.7 lbs / hour -2.57 lbs/hour -257 lbs / hour -0.257 lbs/hour
500 ppmv
You will need to refer to the Roquette Title V permit to answer this question (see Clean Air Act module for file containing Roquette Title V permit). What is the sulfur dioxide concentration limit on the emergency generator with emission unit # EG-1? -6 lbs/hour -500 ppmv -80 ppb -70 tons per year
scrubber
You will need to refer to the Roquette Title V permit to answer this question (see Clean Air Act module for file containing Roquette Title V permit). What type of control device is utilized on carbon regeneration furnace #1 with emission unit # RC-2? -scrubber -nodule kerner -film ejection -electrostatic precipitator
$4.1 million
You will need to review the Roquette consent decree in the Clean Water Act module to answer this and the next two questions. What is the magnitude of the civil penalty as ordered under this consent decree? -$3.6 million -$4.1 million -$83 million -$975,000
Atmospheric dispersion modeling
___________________________ is the mathematical simulation of how air pollutants disperse in the ambient atmosphere. It is performed with computer programs that include algorithms to solve the mathematical equations that govern the pollutant dispersion. The ___________________________ is used to estimate the downwind ambient concentration of air pollutants or toxins emitted from sources such as industrial plants, vehicular traffic or accidental chemical releases. (same phrase is used in both blanks) -Correlation Symmetry Modeling -Atmospheric dispersion modeling -Quantitative Easing Modeling -Mixing Zone modeling
62 ppb and 75 ppb and high temperatures during the summer months convert the volatile organic compounds from vehicle refueling and industrial activities and nitrogen dioxides from high temperature combustion to produce increased levels of ozone Correct answer is -- 62 ppb and 75 ppb and high temperatures during the summer months convert the volatile organic compounds from cars and industrial operations and nitrogen dioxides from high temperature combustion to produce increased levels of ozone
https://www.marc.org/Environment/Air-Quality/pdf/Ozone-Summaries/2020-O3-annual-summary-final.aspxLinks to an external site. Using the document found at the link above (hint see Appendix A)- What is the daily maximum ozone concentration (in ppb) at the JFK monitor on April 25, 2020 and at the same monitor on July 7, 2020? What is the likely basis for the difference? -1.65 ppb and 3.47 ppb and cooler temperatures during the summer months convert the volatile organic compounds in and nitrogen dioxides from high temperature combustion to produce increased levels of ozone -62 ppb and 75 ppb and high temperatures during the summer months convert the volatile organic compounds from vehicle refueling and industrial activities and nitrogen dioxides from high temperature combustion to produce increased levels of ozone -56 ppb and 65 ppb and high temperatures during the summer months convert the volatile organic compounds in and nitrogen dioxides from high temperature combustion to produce increased levels of ozone -70 ppb and 41 ppb and high temperatures during the summer months convert the volatile organic compounds in and nitrogen dioxides from high temperature combustion to produce increased levels of ozone
all of these are correct
AIR DISPERSION MODELS Dispersion modeling uses mathematical formulations to characterize the atmospheric processes that disperse a pollutant emitted by a source. Based on emissions and meteorological inputsLinks to an external site., a dispersion model can be used to predict concentrations at selected downwind receptor locations. These air quality models are used to determine compliance with National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), and other regulatory requirements such as New Source Review (NSR) and Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) regulations. These models are addressed in Appendix A of EPA's Guideline on Air Quality Models (also published as Appendix W (PDF)Links to an external site.(54 pp, 761 K, 01-17-2017) of 40 CFR Part 51), which was originally published in April 1978 to provide consistency and equity in the use of modeling within the U.S. air quality management system. These guidelines are periodically revised to ensure that new model developments or expanded regulatory requirements are incorporated. What is/are the EPA's preferred air quality dispersion models? Hint - look to EPA's Support Center for Regulatory Atmospheric Modeling (SCRAM) -AERMOD Modeling System - A steady-state plume model that incorporates air dispersion based on planetary boundary layer turbulence structure and scaling concepts, including treatment of both surface and elevated sources, and both simple and complex terrain. -none of these are correct -CTDMPLUS - A refined point source gaussian air quality model for use in all stability conditions for complex terrain. -CAL3QHC/CAL3QHCR - CALINE3 based CO model with queuing and hot spot calculations and with a traffic model to calculate delays and queues that occur at signalized intersections. -all of these are correct -OCD - A straight line Gaussian model developed to determine the impact of offshore emissions from point, area or line sources on the air quality of coastal regions.
a systematic, documented, and objective review of an audited entity to evaluate its compliance status relative to audit criteria
ASTM Practice E2107 titled Standard Practice for Environmental Regulatory Compliance Audits is directed to -a systematic, undocumented, and objective review of an audited entity to evaluate its tax compliance status relative to audit criteria -a systematic, documented, and objective review of an audited entity to evaluate its compliance status relative to audit criteria -a systematic, documented, and subjective review of an audited entity to evaluate its compliance status relative to unknown criteria -a systematic, documented, and objective review of an audited entity to evaluate its non-compliance status relative to company criteria
65 degrees Fahrenheit
According to the federal standard for airport deicing the term "heating degree day" means the number of degrees per day the daily average temperature is below ________________. The daily average temperature is the mean of the maximum and minimum temperature for a 24-hour period. The annual heating degree day value is derived by summing the daily heating degree days over a calendar year period. -freezing -283 degrees Kelvin -0 degrees celsius -65 degrees Fahrenheit
Client is far above the legal concentration and likely needs to install pollution control equipment Correct -- see 40 CFR 60.302(b)(1) - concentration limit is 0.023 g/dscm.
Again, this question is to improve your familiarity with the NSPS. You have been asked to provide guidance to the owner of a new grain elevator who handles alfalfa. The grain elevator has a grain capacity in excess of 2.5 million bushels and performance testing of the elevator reveals that during production the elevator is discharging particulate matter in excess of 0.087 g/dscm. What is your advise to the grain elevator operator? -Client is slightly below the established limit so be careful about increasing production -Client is right at the limit so in an abundance of caution do not increase capacity -Client need do nothing, she is not exceeding any NSPS limit -Client is far above the legal concentration and likely needs to install pollution control equipment
all of these are correct
All federally regulated USTs must: -meet leak detection requirements -be registered with the appropriate regulatory authority -Meet spill, overfill, and corrosion protection requirements -none of these are correct -all of these are correct
False
An NPDES permit is not required for any discharge of a pollutant from a point source to waters of the United States. True False
BPT or BAT
An NPDES permit requires the discharger (source) to attain technology-based effluent limits (____________ for industry, secondary treatment for municipalities, or more stringent where needed for water quality protection). -BPT or BAT -TBP or TAB -BMP or NSPS -BACT or BTP
ten percent
An underground storage tank (UST) system is a tank (or a combination of tanks) and connected underground piping having at least _____ percent of their combined volume underground. -fifteen percent -fifty percent -five percent -ten percent
True
Any facility that "produces, uses or stores" any of the listed chemicals in a quantity greater than the threshold planning quantity must meet all emergency planning requirements. True False
355
At the present time there are 356 "extremely hazardous substances" and they are listed at 40 CFR Part ______, Appendix A -70 -262 -355 -302
they are implemented by untrained auditors, often outside interns paired with students from institutions who are training the students Correct answer -- is they are implemented by trained auditors, often outside experts paired with in-house personnel from facilities other than the facility being audited.
Company audit programs vary widely in their scope, sophistication, and evolution, but they tend to share these attributes, except one. What is the one attribute that is not correct? -they are comprehensive as to subject matter (tackling air, water, waste, permitting, recordkeeping, and many other compliance topics) -they are periodic (e.g., all facilities are auditing on a multiyear cycle) -they are implemented by untrained auditors, often outside interns paired with students from institutions who are training the students -they result in a written report that is used as the basis for subsequent checkups on the status of issues identified in the report
three
Condition D(7) of the EPA's audit policy bars repeat offenders from receiving Audit Policy credit. Under the repeat violations exclusion, the same or a closely-related violation must not have occurred at the same facility within the past _____ years. The _____ year period begins to run when the government or a third party has given the violator notice of a specific violation, without regard to when the original violation cited in the notice actually occurred. five two three ten
I pledge that I have read all of the above as I recognize some of it may appear on the final exam
Congress established the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, also known as the Clean Water Act (CWA), to restore and protect the quality of the nation's surface waters. The CWA protects "navigable waters," defined in the statute as "waters of the United States, including the territorial seas." The CWA does not further define the term waters of the United States (WOTUS), which determines which waters are federally regulated. Thus, in implementing the CWA, the Army Corps of Engineers (Corps) and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)—the two agencies that administer the statute—have defined the term in regulations. However, Congress's intent as to the meaning of WOTUS has been debated and litigated for more than four decades. Successive presidential administrations have engaged in efforts to define WOTUS in regulation. Both the Obama Administration's 2015 Clean Water Rule and the Trump Administration's 2020 Navigable Waters Protection Rule prompted strong reactions from a variety of stakeholders, with numerous groups filing lawsuits challenging the rules. On January 18, 2023, the Corps and EPA, under the Biden Administration, issued a new rule (the 2023 WOTUS Rule) redefining WOTUS in the agencies' regulations. The Corps and EPA have asserted that their intent in promulgating the 2023 WOTUS Rule was to redefine WOTUS in a durable regulation, updating the pre-2015 rules to reflect consideration of Supreme Court decisions, science, and the agencies' experience and technical expertise. In general, the rule defines WOTUS more narrowly than the Clean Water Rule and more broadly than the Navigable Waters Protection Rule. While some stakeholders have expressed support for the 2023 WOTUS Rule, others believe that it defines WOTUS too broadly, does not provide regulatory clarity, and should not have been issued prior to the resolution of a pending Supreme Court case addressing aspects of the scope of WOTUS. The new rule is the subject of stakeholder commentary, congressional action, and litigation. Some stakeholders have urged Congress to take actions regarding regulation of WOTUS. In the 118th Congress, Members have introduced a joint resolution to revoke the 2023 WOTUS Rule through the Congressional Review Act. Members may take action to specifically define the term through amendments to the CWA, introducing legislation, for example, to narrow the term's scope, as was done in the 117th Congress. Committees in the 117th Congress and the 116th Congress held multiple oversight hearings to assess the impacts of rules at that time, and the 118th Congress may conduct similar oversight. The Corps and EPA have asserted that their intent in promulgating the 2023 WOTUS Rule was to redefine WOTUS in a durable regulation, updating the pre-2015 rules to reflect consideration of Supreme Court decisions, science, and the agencies' experience and technical expertise. Overall, the definition of WOTUS in the 2023 WOTUS Rule is narrower in scope than the Clean Water Rule and broader than the Navigable Waters Protection Rule. The 2023 WOTUS Rule is divided into three parts: jurisdictional waters (WOTUS), exclusions, and definitions. At least five federal lawsuits challenging the EPA's new waters of the US rule are expected to continue even if the US Supreme Court undermines the basis for the rule in an opinion coming this term. The ruling could fuel states' legal challenges to the Environmental Protection Agency's WOTUS definition. Twenty-six states and a slate of agricultural and industry groups have joined the lawsuits seeking to vacate the EPA's latest WOTUS rule defining the scope of waters protected under the Clean Water Act. The lawsuits claim the EPA is exceeding its authority and that the rule is overly vague and premature because it was finalized in January ahead of the high court's future ruling in Sackett v. EPA, expected by June 2023. Sackett grapples with a legal test that the EPA is using to determine if waters and wetlands are protected under the law. The 2023 WOTUS rule takes effect March 20 and applies to some local lakes, streams, and wetlands that flow into navigable waters such as the Mississippi River. Farmers believe that the new WOTUS rule will allow the EPA and the Army Corps of Engineers to claim that any sometimes-wet water feature on farms would be protected—an expansion of long-standing federal wetlands jurisdiction. The American Petroleum Institute, National Association of Home Builders, National Association of Realtors and 13 other trade groups joined the Farm Bureau in its lawsuit challenging the rule, American Farm Bureau Association v. EPA, filed Jan. 18 in the US District Court for the Southern District of Texas. Farmers' concerns are echoed by 24 Republican-controlled states led by West Virginia, which sued Feb. 16 in the US District Court for the District of North Dakota, claiming the EPA rushed out an unlawful rule. Texas and Kentucky have each sued separately, and the Kentucky Chamber of Commerce filed its own lawsuit. The 2023 WOTUS rule mostly reverts CWA wetlands jurisdiction to its status before the Obama administration expanded it in 2015. After a court tossed out the Obama administration's definition, the Trump administration vastly shrank the scope of the rule. Two federal judges vacated the Trump rule, and in 2021, the Biden administration re-implemented the pre-2015 definition before tweaking and codifying it with the 2023 rule. The Sackett ruling could force the Biden administration to revisit the rule. Based on a 2006 Supreme Court opinion, the 2023 rule uses the "significant nexus" test to determine whether streams and wetlands fall under federal jurisdiction. The "significant nexus" test determines whether smaller water bodies or wetlands substantially affect the chemical, physical, or biological integrity of larger navigable waters. The new rule adds criteria to clarify the meaning of "significant nexus," including a water body's distance to a navigable water, frequency and duration of water flow, and a smaller body's contribution of flow and sediment to a navigable water body. The new rule says that a smaller water body must have a "material influence" on a larger one for the smaller waterway or wetland to be considered protected under the Clean Water Act. -I pledge that I have read all of the above as I recognize some of it may appear on the final exam -This rule is an absolute mess and it does me no good to read any of the above -This is all fake news -I have not read the above and have no intention of reading it because it contains way to much legal jargon and I don't care if it is on the final exam
True
Constitutional, statutory and common law theories can all be appropriated to imply responsibilities of the government to protect its citizens from climate dangers. True False
False Constitutional, statutory and common law theories can all be appropriated to imply responsibilities of the government to protect its citizens from climate dangers. Claims for failing to adapt to climate change can be brought under traditional negligence principles. However, the causation requirement for negligence actions requires that courts accept "probabilistic" attribution of specific events to general phenomena. Considering the recent meteorological events that are affecting more and more Americans, pressure for courts to adopt this line of reasoning is likely to build. In the meantime, supporters of environmental policies to limit greenhouse gas emissions will continue to explore this avenue to force the government's hands in these matters
Constitutional, statutory and common law theories cannot be appropriated to imply responsibilities of the government to protect its citizens from climate dangers. True False
Prevention of significant deterioration (PSD)
Construction of a new source of air pollution or the modification of an existing source, may trigger preconstruction review and permitting. The nature of the preconstruction permitting requirements depends upon whether the source is to be located in an area that attains or failed to attain the National Ambient Air Quality Standards for the pollutant in question. Sources located in attainment areas are subject to the _____________ permit program; sources in non attainment areas are subject to the nonattainment permit program. -High Quality Air Sampling (HQAS) -Nonattainment New Source Review (NANSR) -Air Enhancement (AE) -Prevention of significant deterioration (PSD)
1910.1200(c)
EPA has authority to establish categories of health and physical hazards and to require facilities to list hazardous chemicals grouped by such categories in their reports. An MSDS (now called a safety data sheet SDS) need only be submitted once, unless there is a significant change in the information it contains. A SDS must be provided in response to a request by an LEPC or a member of the public. "Hazardous chemicals" are defined by the Code of Federal Regulations, Title 29, at Section ________________. 1912.1200(c) 73.14(f) 1910.1200(c) 2922.1300(a)(4)
25E Correct answer is Method 25E - https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/40/appendix-A-7_to_part_60Links to an external site.
EPA test method ________ is used to determine the vapor phase organic concentration in waste sample? HINT - Look online to 40 CFR Appendix A-7 to Part 60 - Test Methods 10 through 25E -19 -23 -24A -25E
3301
EPA's drinking water regulations generally classify five categories of public water systems by size, according to the number that they serve. A "medium water system" is defined as serving between ___________ -- 10,000 people. 3,301 5,000 4,901 7,501
state and local
EPCRA compels the establishment of _______________ emergency planning bodies as well as the development and implementation of local emergency plans. -in-state investigator -state and local -chemical preparedness -international
capacity for destruction by thermal methods
EPCRA enumerates the following data reporting requirements for each covered chemical present at each covered facility except - -treatment or disposal methods used -capacity for destruction by thermal methods -whether it is manufactured, processed, or otherwise used, and the general category of use; -the amount released to the environment or transferred off-site for treatment or disposal -the maximum amount present at each location during the previous year;
True
EPCRA establishes civil, administrative, and criminal penalties for noncompliance with mandatory provisions of the act. True False
True
EPCRA requires certain facilities to provide detailed reports concerning the presence and health effects of specified chemicals and releases. True False
all of these are correct
In order to receive a prevention of significant deterioration (PSD) permit, the owner or operator of the proposed major new source or major modification must show that the major source or modification -- -will avoid adverse impacts on federal class I areas (including national wilderness areas and parks in existence on August 7, 1977, and greater than 5000 or 6000 acres in size respectively) -will employ best available control technology (BACT) for each pollutant regulated under the Act that it will emit in significant amounts -none of these are correct -will comply with ambient air quality levels designed to prevent deterioration of air quality (the PSD increments) -all of these are correct
maintain satisfactory compliance with this consent decree for a period of one year
In order to terminate the consent decree what must Roquette be able to show the US EPA and the US Department of Justice? -maintain satisfactory compliance with this consent decree for a period of one year -maintained satisfactory compliance with this consent decree for a period of one month -maintained satisfactory compliance with this consent decree for a period of one decade -maintain satisfactory compliance with this consent decree for a period of two years
TMDL / TMDL
In waters where industrial and municipal sources have achieved technology-based effluent limitations, yet water quality standards have not been met, dischargers may be required to meet additional pollution control requirements. For each of these waters, the act requires states to set a _______________ of pollutants at a level that ensures that applicable water quality standards can be attained and maintained. A ____________ is both a planning process for attaining water quality standards and a quantitative assessment of pollution problems, sources, and pollutant reductions needed to restore and protect a river, stream, or lake. -low level / NPDES permit -TMDL / TMDL -high level / BAT -MTDL / MTDL
Flint, Michigan
Issues related to lead-contaminated drinking water have risen to national prominence recently as a result of events in ________________________. Columbia, MO Flint, Michigan Marco Island, FL Sacramento, CA
often simple house keeping measures
NPDES permits may require the permittee to perform best management practices. What are best management practices? -procedures designed to maximize the release of toxic pollutants -none of these are correct -often simple house keeping measures -include, for example, to store drums in areas subject to flooding -are especially appropriate for NSPS permits such as fugitive dust restrictions -all of these are correct
all of these are correct
Navigable waters are defined by the CWA as "the waters of the United States including the territorial seas." This definition has proved difficult to apply in the myriad of different types of water bodies in the United States, resulting in numerous judicial and administrative efforts to determine the scope of the Clean Water Act. A joint rule promulgated by the EPA and the Army Corps of Engineers in June of 2015 defined the term "waters of the United States to include: -all impoundments of waters otherwise identified as waters of the United States -the territorial seas -all interstate waters, including interstate wetlands -none of these are correct -all of these are correct -all waters which are currently used, were used in the past, or may susceptible to use in interstate or foreign commerce, including all waters which are subject to the ebb and flow of the tide
September 9, 2015 Correct - see 40 CFR 63.1351(c)
Portland Cement is the principal ingredient in concrete, which is used worldwide as the main building block of infrastructure construction as well as for commercial and residential structures. Air toxics, also referred to as hazardous air pollutants (HAPs), are those pollutants that are known or suspected to cause cancer or other serious health effects. Portland cement manufacturing is an energy intensive process in which cement is made by grinding and heating a mixture of raw materials such as limestone, clay, sand, and iron ore in a rotary kiln. The kiln is a large furnace that is fueled by coal, oil, gas, coke and/or various waste materials. The product (called clinker) from the kiln is cooled, ground, and then mixed with a small amount of gypsum to produce portland cement. The main source of air toxics emissions from a portland cement plant is the kiln. Emissions originate from the burning of fuels and heating of feed materials. Air toxics are also emitted from the grinding, cooling, and materials handling steps in the manufacturing process. Pollutants regulated under this rule are particulate matter, organic HAP, metals through the control of particulate matter, mercury, acid gases, and dioxin/furan. What is the compliance date for an "open clinker pile" at a portland cement plant that is subject to the NESHAP requirements that became effective on February 12, 2013? -February 12, 2013 -May 5, 2014 -September 9, 2015 -July 24, 2009
True
Public water systems that sell water to residential populations are the most comprehensively regulated public water systems and fall under the regulatory rubric of community water systems. They also serve most members of the public, with 54,000 community water systems serving more than 290 million people in the United States. They are required to meet requirements of all national primary drinking water regulations (NPDWRs). This includes both contaminants that present chronic health threats from long-term exposure and the contaminants that present acute health threats that may arise from short-term exposure. True False
False Correct answer is "National Response Center."
Releases of a reportable quantity of a "hazardous substance" also must be reported to the National Relocation Center under CERCLA Section 103(a). True False
headspace vapor; headspace analyzer go to -- https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/40/appendix-A-7_to_part_60Links to an external site. and scroll down to Method 25E and to section 2.0.2.0 Summary of Method 2.1 The headspace vapor of the sample is analyzed for carbon content by a headspace analyzer, which uses an FID.
Returning to the test method referenced in the previous question - the "summary" of this test method suggests that the _____________ of the sample is analyzed for carbon content by a __________________, which uses a flame ionization detector (FID). -headspace vapor; headspace analyzer -radioactivity, geiger counter -viscosity, viscosity analyzer -fluidity, fluidity analyzer
pollutant
Section 301 of the CWA establishes a broad prohibition against "the discharge of any __________ by any person except in compliance with the act's permit requirements, effluent limitations, and other enumerated provisions." pollutant chemical waste hazardous substance
a permit program governing the discharge or placement of dredged or fill material into the nation's waters
The Clean Water Act contains a broad range of regulatory tools to attain its statutory objectives and goals and to implement its underlying policies. These tools include which of the following? -a sweeping permit program that fully eliminates all discharges to waters of the U.S. -a system for encouraging the release of toxic materials into waters of the U.S. -none of these is correct -Deficient enforcement mechanisms -a permit program governing the discharge or placement of dredged or fill material into the nation's waters -a system for determining the limitations to be imposed on all unauthorized and unregulated discharges
Where they may endanger critical areas such as breeding and spawning grounds, habitat for threatened or endangered species, areas with sensitive biota, shellfish beds, fisheries, drinking water intakes and sources, and recreational areas.
States and tribes should conclude that mixing zones are not appropriate in which of the following situations? -Where they may endanger critical areas such as breeding and spawning grounds, habitat for threatened or endangered species, areas with sensitive biota, shellfish beds, fisheries, drinking water intakes and sources, and recreational areas. -Where they do not result in impairment of the designated use of the waterbody as a whole. -Where they do not contain pollutant concentrations that may cause significant human health risks considering likely pathways of exposure. -Where they do not contain pollutant concentrations that may be lethal to passing organisms.
True
The "tank system" includes the tank, underground connected piping, underground ancillary equipment, and any containment system. True False
all of these are correct
The 1989 Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR) had as its key requirements which of the following? -all of these are correct -filtration, unless avoidance criteria are met -maintenance of appropriate disinfection residuals in the distribution system -protecting against Giardia lamblia, viruses, and legionella -turbidity limits of 0.5 NTUs in 95 percent of monthly samples and no more than 5 NTUs in any given monthly sample -none of these are correct -achieving inactivation of 99.9 percent of giardia and 99.99 percent of viruses
100 EPA's general commitment to recapture economic benefit assures more widespread compliance with the law by reducing the incentive to avoid or postpone compliance. A violator generally derives economic benefit by investing the money that should have been spent on compliance. Assessment of economic benefit serves to level the playing field among law abiding entities and those that have obtained an economic benefit from their noncompliance.
The Audit Policy provides incentives for regulated entities to detect, promptly disclose, and expeditiously correct violations of Federal environmental requirements. The Policy contains nine conditions, and entities that meet all of them are eligible for _______% mitigation of any gravity-based penalties that otherwise could be assessed. 100 75 90 10
drinking water
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention has identified ____________________ treatment as among the most significant public health advancements of the twentieth century. effluent water hazardous material toxic air pollutant drinking water
state implementation plans
The Clean Air Act Amendments give states primary responsibility for ensuring that emissions from sources within their borders are maintained at a level consistent with the NAAQS. This is achieved through the establishment of source specific emission limits and other measures in _________________ assuring attainment of the primary and secondary air quality standards. The _________________ is a constantly evolving regulatory document that must be updated as federal requirements and local conditions change. -state implementation plans -state performance standards -federal delegation agreements -non-attainment designations
new source performance standards
The Clean Air Act requires the EPA administrator to identify categories of new and modified sources that contribute significantly to air pollution that endangers public health and welfare. To date, EPA has identified well over fifty such source categories, including most large industrial categories For these source categories, EPA sets emission standards that reflect the "degree of emission limitation achievable" through the best technology that Agency determines has been "adequately demonstrated," taking into consideration "nonair quality health and environmental impact[s] and energy requirements. ____________________ may be promulgated as design, equipment, work practice, or operational standards where numerical emission limitations are not feasible - i.e., 40 CFR Part 60. -national emission standards for criteria pollutants -new source performance standards -air toxic assessment limitations -state developmental emission standards
75
The EPA Audit Policy is designed to encourage greater compliance with Federal laws and regulations that protect human health and the environment. It promotes a higher standard of self-policing by waiving gravity-based penalties for violations that are promptly disclosed and corrected, and which were discovered systematically—that is, through voluntary audits or compliance management systems. To provide an incentive for entities to disclose and correct violations regardless of how they were detected, the Policy reduces gravity-based penalties by ________% for violations that are voluntarily discovered and promptly disclosed and corrected, even if not discovered systematically. 100 75 50 10
60
The Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA; P.L. 94-163) authorized a federal program to establish minimum energy conservation standards for consumer products and industrial equipment set efficiency standards for approximately _____ product categories. 60 3734 931 122
Public Trust Doctrine
The Federal Tort Claims Act specifically anticipates federal government liability for omissions based on the principles of tort law. Common law principles such as the "__________________" (requiring the government to protect submerged land under navigable waters) have long acknowledged the government's responsibility to protect and maintain public resources. -Vitiated Claim Doctrine -Public Trust Doctrine -Public Compensation Doctrine -Moral Hazard Doctrine
False Inflation reduction act provides a tax credit as opposed to a tax deduction.
The Inflation Reduction Act provides a $4,000 consumer tax deduction for lower/middle income individuals to buy used clean vehicles, and up to a $7,500 tax deduction to buy new clean vehicles. NOTE: Tax credits directly reduce the amount of tax you owe, giving you a dollar-for-dollar reduction of your tax liability. A tax credit valued at $1,000, for instance, lowers your tax bill by the corresponding $1,000. Tax deductions, on the other hand, reduce how much of your income is subject to taxes. True False
$10 billion
The Inflation Reduction Act will provide a ___________ investment credit to build clean technology manufacturing facilities to make electric vehicles, wind turbines and solar panels. -no recourse -$500 million -stratified -$10 billion
$9 billion
The Inflation Reduction Act will provide a range of incentives to consumers to relieve the high costs of energy and decrease utility bills. What dollar amount does the legislation provide for to support consumer home energy rebate programs that are focused on low income consumers, to electrify home appliances and for energy efficient retrofits. $12 million $9 billion $300 million $187 billion
$30 billion
The Inflation Reduction Act will provide tax credits for clean sources of electricity and energy storage and roughly ____________ in targeted grant and loan programs for states and electric utilities to accelerate the transition to clean electricity. -$30 trillion -$30 quadrillion -$30 billion -$30 million
False $5 billion - not $50 billion
The Inflation Reduction At will make historic investments to ensure that rural communities are at the forefront of climate solutions. The investments affirm the central role of agricultural producers and forest landowners in our climate solutions by investing in climate smart agriculture, forest restoration and land conservation. It also makes significant investments in clean energy development in rural communities. The Act provides $50 billion in grants to support healthy, fire resilient forests, forest conservation and urban tree planting. True False
nonattainment
The National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) are set at levels designed to protect public health with an adequate margin of safety (referred to the primary NAAQS) and to protect public welfare against known or anticipated adverse effects (the secondary NAAQS). Areas that do not meet one or more of the NAAQS are known as _________________________ areas and must comply with a number of special requirements. -submarginal -death zone -non-compliant -nonattainment
False The correct number is 800-424-8802
The National Response Center can be reached at (800) 424-8800 and is staffed 24 hours a day by the U.S. Coast Guard. True False
potential to emit
The New Source Review programs apply to "major" stationary sources. For the prevention of significant deterioration (PSD) program, a "major" source is one that has the potential to emit at least 250 tons per year of a regulated air pollutant or at least 100 tons per year of a regulated pollutant if the source falls within one of twenty-eight listed categories. Whether a source has the _______________ at these levels is determined based on the maximum capacity of the source to emit under its physical and operational design, taking into account any enforceable regulatory limits on source operations (e.g., operation limits included in a state implementation plan or source permit.) -smokestack openings -capacity to eject -potential to emit -effluent mass
9.0 lbs per hour
The Roquette construction permit has an emission limit on volatile organic compounds. What is that limit? -9.0 lbs per hour -149.4 lbs per 24 hours -200,318 total lifetime tons -153.38 tons per year
excess emissions
The Roquette construction permit provides that _______________________ during a period of startup, shutdown, or cleaning of control equipment are not a violation of the emission standard if it was accomplished expeditiously and in a manner consistent with good practice for minimizing emissions except when another regulation application to the unit or process provides otherwise. -excess emissions -an anticipated malfunction -explosive releases -a unit breakdown
credible evidence
The Roquette construction permit provides that any ______________ may be used for the purpose of establishing whether a person has violated or is in violation of any provisions specified in this permit or any provisions of 567 Iowa Administrative Code Chapters 20 through 34. -third party witness testimony -credible evidence -supplemental permits -applicable documentation
$10,000 / 2 / 455B.146A
The Roquette construction permit provides that knowingly committing a violation of this permit may carry a criminal penalty of up to ____________ per day and ____ years jail according to Iowa Code section ______________. -$42,000 / 50 / 10 CSR 50.598 -$10,000 / 2 / 455B.146A -$500 / 1 / 12 RSMo 643.055 -$1,000 / 10 / 18 USC 1278
JJ Manure Management
This question is intended to give you a sense of the interaction of legislation, regulation and lobbying. Your mission is to find the subpart in the federal Mandatory Greenhouse Gas Reporting regulation that has been restricted from implementation by continuing Appropriation Bills (since 2010). Congress passed the legislation to have companies report their greenhouse gas emissions, EPA developed regulations for a number of industries requiring them to report their greenhouse gas emissions and then lobbyists were able to convince Congress to restrict funding to implement just one specific regulation impacting a single industry. In other words, lobbyists were able to convince Congress to include a provision in appropriations bills that restricted any funds from being used (by EPA) in the implementation of this specific regulation. EPA cannot, for example, respond to mail associated with this regulation, they cannot develop computer based reporting tools or compile any data associated with this source category - just for this one specific regulation that impacts just one industry. This is an example of the role that lobbying has in legislation development. This specific industry did not want data regarding greenhouse gases from their client's facilities made available to the public.
all of these are correct
This question is worth 3 points. MIXING ZONES: A mixing zone is an area of a lake or river where pollutants from a point source discharge are mixed, usually by natural means, with cleaner water. In the mixing zone, the level of toxic pollutants is allowed to be higher than the acceptable concentration for the general water body. The mixing zone is an area where the higher concentration is diluted to legal limits for water quality. Outside the mixing zone, the pollutant levels must meet water quality standards. A typical mixing zone consists of two parts: the zone of initial dilution (ZID), near the outfall, and the chronic mixing zone from the ZID out to where water quality criteria are met. The discharge into the mixing zone may be effluent from water treatment plants, chemicals, or hot water from cooling towers. By authorizing a mixing zone, states and tribes allow some portion of the waterbody to mix with and dilute particular wastewater discharges before evaluating whether the waterbody as a whole is meeting its criteria. In addition to the WQS regulation at 40 CFR 131.13 described above, the use of dilution is supported by the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permitting regulation at 40 CFR 122.44(d)(1)(ii), which requires the permitting authority to consider, where appropriate, "the dilution of the effluent in the receiving water" when determining whether a discharge causes, has the reasonable potential to cause, or contributes to an instream excursion above a criterion. Depending on the state or tribal WQS and implementation policies, a consideration of dilution could be expressed in the form of a dilution allowance or a mixing zone. Look to https://www.epa.gov/sites/production/files/2014-09/documents/handbook-chapter5.pdfLinks to an external site. Which of the following are considered by this document as important to outfall design? -all of these are correct -The height of the outfall with respect to the surface and bottom of the waterbody -The angle of the discharge -The distance of the end of the pipe to the nearest bank (i.e., whether the outfall is in the middle of the waterbody or close to one side). -The type of diffuser that is used (i.e., single-port or multi-port diffuser). -none of these are correct
1.8 lb/1,000 lbs of seafood
This question is worth 5 points - A client is operating a facility in Kodiak, Alaska that has discharges resulting from the processing, of dungeness, tanner, and king crab meat. She has asked you to help her determine the federal Clean Water Act effluent limitation for oil and grease at her facility. After extensive research you advise her that the effluent limit for this facility is - -1.8 liters/1,000 tons of water -1.8 lb/1,000 lbs of seafood -1.8 ppb -18 kg/1,000 liters discharged
60
To meet Condition 5 of EPA's Audit Policy, an entity must correct and remediate a violation within _____ days of date of discovery. 90 30 20 60
biological
To restore and maintain the chemical, physical , and ______________ integrity of the nation's waters. To achieve this objective the act declares an interim goal of attaining a level of water quality that provides for the protection and propagation of fish, shellfish and wildlife and provides for recreation in an don the water. The Act further declares an ultimate goal of eliminating the discharge of pollutants into the nation's [navigable waters]. proximal seasonal chemical distal seasonal aquatic nautical biological
No, repeat violations will not disqualify newly acquired facilities for Audit Policy credit if the violations existed prior to acquisition.
Under the EPA's audit policy will repeat violations disqualify newly acquired facilities if the violations existed prior to acquisition? -No, repeat violations will not disqualify newly acquired facilities for Audit Policy credit if the violations existed prior to acquisition. -Yes, repeat violations will disqualify newly acquired facilities for Audit Policy credit if the violations existed prior to acquisition.
objectively reasonable basis
Under the EPA's audit policy, the disclosure period begins when the entity discovers that a violation has, or may have, occurred. The trigger for discovery is when any officer, director, employee or agent of the facility has a(n) ________________ for believing that a violation has, or may have, occurred. The ''objectively reasonable basis'' standard is measured against what a prudent person, having the same information as was available to the individual in question, would have believed. It is not measured against what the individual in question thought was reasonable at the time the situation was encountered. If an entity has some doubt as to the existence of a violation, the recommended course is for the entity to proceed with the disclosure and allow the regulatory authorities to make a definitive determination. -objectively reasonable basis -subjectively reasonable basis -none of these are correct -wild idea -hunch
