EPPP Exam Questions #2

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Test-retest reliability produces the coefficient of: a) stability b) equivalence c) internal consistency

stability

The behavior described in this question is referred to as the _____ At about ____ months of age, children first provide evidence that they know that objects exist when they are out of view. However, they commit the A-not-B error, which continues to about ____ months of age.

"A-not-B error."eight, 12

Formula for the Zscore

(X - M)/SD; X=raw score; M=mean

The mean of Z scores is always

A test with a mean of 50 and SD of 10 that Johnnie scores a 60 on...what is his Zscore? a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 1.5 d) 2

In which stage of sleep are alpha waves replaced by theta waves? 1 2 3 4 5

The SD of Zscores is always

By what age can an infant distinguish his mother's face from that of a stranger? a) 1-2months b) 2-3months c) 3-4 months d) 4-5 months

1-2 months

The SD of Tscores is always

By what age has the brain developed to its full size? a) 10 b) 13 c) 15 d) 17

Separation anxiety peaks in intensity at ____ months of age a) 6-8 b) 9-12 c) 14-18 d) 20-21

14-18

Stranger anxiety peaks at what age? a) 12months b) 18 months c) 24 months d) 36 months

18months and then declines over the next year

In which stage of sleep, theta waves predominate but are interrupted by bursts of sleep spindles 1 2 3 4 5

Which stage of sleep is characterised by sleep spindles? a) stage 1 b) stage 2 c) stage 3 d) stage 4

REM sleep accounts for _________% of adults sleep period 10% 15% 20% 25%

20%

At birth, the brain is ___% of its adult weight? a) 10 b) 25 c) 50 d) 75

In which stage of sleep are theta waves replaced by delta waves? a) stage 1 b) stage 2 c) stage 3 d) stage 4

In which stage of sleep do large, slow delta waves appear 1 2 3 4 5

Postconcussional Disorder is diagnosed in people with symptoms that have lasted for at least how long? 2months 3months 4months 5months

3months

Postconcussional disorder is diagnosed when 3/more symptoms last for at least _____ months a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

3months

Which stage of sleep is characterised by delta waves? a) stage 1 b) stage 2 c) stage 3 d) stage 4

With a SD=15 and a reliability coefficient of .91, what is the standard error of measurement? a) 13.5 b) 4.5 c) 1.35

4.5

What % of stroke victims develop some kind of depression? a) 30 b) 40 c) 50 d) 60

40%

Menopause occurs in most women at what age? 40-50 45-55 50-60 55-65

45-55

In which stage of sleep does REM sleep occur? 1 2 3 4 5

In this stage of sleep, the EEG pattern is similar to that found in stages 1 & 2 and the physiological responses resemble those of awake people 1 2 3 4 5

5 REM

Headache, tremor, and confusion, are characteristic of _____. a) tricyclic overdose b)Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) c)5-HT toxicity syndrome d)lithium toxicity

5-HT toxicity syndrome

The mean of Tscores is always

What is the typical age of onset for Parkinson's? a) 30 b) 40 c) 50 d) 60

The four stages of NREM sleep become distinguishable at how many months of age? 3 5 6 7

By what age do infants have the visual acuity of adults? a) 3 months b) 6 months c) 9 months d) 12months

6 months

With a SD = 10 and a Rxy=0.6, calculate the SEE: a) 80 b) 8 c) .8 d) .08

This rule is used to determine if an employment procedure is having an adverse impact a) 70% rule b) 80% rule c) 90% rule d) 100% rule

80% rule (multiply hiring rate of the majority group by .80 to obtain minimum hiring rate for minority group; ie. 0.7*0.8=0.56 (so the min acceptable hiring rate =56%)

If a tests reliability coefficient is Rxx=0.85. this means that ___% of the variability in test scores is true score variability: a) 85% b) 15% c) 50% d) 65%

85%

By what age can children be taught to use memory strategies? a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 11

9-10-and children begin to use them regularly

Frequent conflicts, especially those involving open expressions of hostility, between husbands and wives. a. is more likely to lead to increases in under controlled behaviors in male children than in female children. b. is more likely to lead to increases in under controlled behaviors in female children than in male children. c. has similar negative behavioral consequences for male and female children. d. has not been linked to particular behavioral problems in either male or female children.

8. Which of the following is not characteristic of Nicotine Withdrawal? A. hypersomnia B. weight gain/increased appetite C. decreased heart rate D. depressed or dysphoric mood

A ( Symptoms of Nicotine Withdrawal have a rapid onset and are characterized by insomnia, decreased heart rate -c.-, increased appetite -b.- and depressed or dysphoric mood -d.-. Studies indicate that a desire to avoid negative affect, as well as the rapid withdrawal symptoms, are primary reasons nicotine dependent individuals relapse.)

54. The assumption that prejudice and discrimination are outgrowths of the drive to enhance one's own self-esteem is most consistent with the perspective of which theory? A. social identity theory B. social comparison C. self-perception theory D. self-verification theory

A ( According to Tajfel -1982-, people strive to maintain and enhance their self-esteem, and this is associated with two components: personal and social identity. Social identity theory states that social identity, the aspect of self-esteem based on group membership, is enhanced by believing one's own group -the ingroup- is attractive and belittling the members of the other groups -the outgroups-. Social comparison theory -b.- proposes people self-evaluate by comparing themselves with similar others when objective information is not available. Self-perception theory -c.- proposes when clear internal cues are absent, individuals infer feelings and beliefs by observed behavior or external cues. Self-verification theory -d.- proposes individuals need and seek confirmation of their self-concept, whether the confirmation is positive or negative.)

76. Chronic pain treatment with tricyclic antidepressants is most effective for: A. neuropathic pain and headaches B. neuropathic and musculoskeletal pain C. headaches and musculoskeletal pain D. neuropathic pain, headaches and musculoskeletal pain

A ( Chronic pain research estimates 50-90% of patients can be expected to achieve at least 50% pain relief with antidepressants, with others achieving less pain relief. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline -Elavil-, have been found to be most effective particularly if the pain is neuropathic -pain in a numb area, burning or shooting pain- or one of the headache syndromes. SSRI antidepressants have also been found to be effective at preventing headaches, including migraines, but are considered less effective. It is theorized these medications may reduce migraines by affecting the level of serotonin and other brain chemicals. Individuals do not have to have depression to take and benefit from these drugs. A therapeutic trial of antidepressants may follow the failure of conventional analgesics or be used in addition to conventional analgesics. This can be particularly effective in cancer patients who have pain at multiple pain sites, some nociceptive and some neuropathic. -See: McQuay, H. J., Tramer, M., Nye, B.A., Carroll, D., Wiffen, P. J., Moore, R. A. -2000-. A systematic review of antidepressants in neuropathic pain. Pain. 1996, 68-2-3-, 217-227. and Barkin, R.L., Fawcett, J. -2000-. The management challenges of chronic pain: the role of antidepressants. American Journal of Therapy, 7-1-,31-47.)

138. Which of the following best describes a DSM-IV-TR diagnostic criterion for delirium? A. clouding of consciousness B. impaired memory C. executive functioning deficits D. emotional lability

A ( Clouding of consciousness is often used to describe a disturbance in consciousness which is a diagnostic criterion for delirium. The diagnosis of delirium requires a disturbance in consciousness that cannot be better accounted for by dementia along with a change in cognition or the presence of perceptual abnormalities -e.g., illusions or hallucinations-. Memory disturbances -b.-, especially an inability to form new memories, are common in delirium but are not required for the diagnosis. Impaired executive functioning -c.- is more characteristic of dementia than of delirium and not required for the diagnosis of delirium. Emotional lability -d.- or rapid and unpredictable shifts in emotions is not required for the diagnosis although is an associated feature of delirium. )

63. Cohen's d is a method for calculating an effect size. Which of the following is required to use this method? A. the means of the experimental and control groups B. the median scores for the pre- and post-tests C. the actual and predicted scores for the outcome measure D. the standard error of estimate of the criterion

A ( Cohen's d is calculated by subtracting the mean of the control group from the mean of the experimental group and dividing the result by the control group standard deviation or by a pooled standard deviation. It indicates the magnitude of the effect of a treatment in terms of the difference between the means of the experimental -treatment- and control -no treatment- groups. )

28. A within-subjects design that involves changing the order in which each treatment is administered to different groups of participants is referred to as: A. counterbalancing B. changing criterion C. Latin square D. Solomon four-group

A ( Counterbalancing is a within-subjects design that involves changing the order in which each treatment is administered to different groups of individuals. The goal is to use every possible treatment sequence with equal numbers of participants for each sequence. If the number of participants is too small to permit the use of a completely counterbalanced research design, then researchers may use a type of partial counterbalancing like the Latin square design -c.-. This design is useful for determining what exact sequences of treatment will be administered to the different participant groups. The changing criterion design -b.- is a single case design consisting of a series of phases with differing behavioral criterion set for each. The treatment is considered effective if the behavior reaches the criterion level for each phase. The Solomon four-group design -d.- is used to evaluate the effects of pretesting on internal and external validity.)

39. Symptoms of Bipolar Disorder are typically treated with lithium and/or any of the following medications EXCEPT: A. phenelzine B. carbamazepine C. divalproex D. valproic

A ( Currently, lithium and/or an anti-seizure medication is the drug treatment-of-choice for Bipolar Disorder. Unlike the others, phenelzine is not used for the treatment of Bipolar Disorder as it is an MAOI antidepressant. Carbamazepine -Tegretol-, divalproex -Depakote- and valproic acid -Depakene- are anti-seizure drugs that have been found to be useful for treating patients with Bipolar Disorder who have not responded well, or cannot tolerate, other treatments.)

130. An individual is most likely to show theta waves on an EEG recording during which of the following? A. lightly sleeping B. lying in bed awake with eyes closed C. conversing with someone D. taking a test

A ( Electroencephalogram -EEG- or neurofeedback provides information on brainwave activity and patterns. It is often used in the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, depression, and epilepsy to improve attention, reduce impulsivity and promote recovery from head injuries and strokes. An individual is most likely to show theta waves on an EEG recording while sleeping lightly. A person lying in bed awake with eyes closed -b.- would most likely to show alpha waves. Beta waves characterize alertness in EEG patterns and would most likely be seen while conversing with someone -c.- or taking a test -d.-. )

95. Explicit memory is associated with each of the following except: A. priming B. recall or recognition tests C. an active or conscious role in processing information D. a sense of remembering a specific prior experience

A ( Evidence for implicit memory arises in priming, a process from which individuals show improved performance on tasks for which they have been subconsciously prepared. Priming effects, or prior exposure increases retrieval accuracy, helps implicit memory. Explicit memories are created by "doing" something with your experiences such as thinking, talking, writing or studying about them. The more you do, the better you will remember and the internal cues used in processing the information, can be used to initiate spontaneous recall. For example: the words that you used when you've talked about a certain experience will help you a year later when trying to remember this experience. Declarative memory is another term for "explicit memory" because one can clearly or explicitly declare the recalled memory. Declarative or explicit memories are long-term memories that one can consciously recall. They include semantic -factual information- and episodic -personally experienced- memories. The hippocampus, medial thalamus, and prefrontal cortex are associated with explicit or declarative memory and damage to these area would most likely result in deficits in conscious recall of facts and events. Explicit memory deficits due to head trauma or disease usually affect recent long-term memory before affecting remote long-term memory.)

165. The terms "circumscription" and "compromise" are associated with: A. Gottfredson B. Super C. Krumboltz D. Meichenbaum

A ( Gottfredson's -1981; 1996; 2002- theory of circumscription and compromise addresses about how gender and prestige influence and limit career choice. The theory proposes four stages of cognitive development including: orientation to size and power; orientation to sex roles; influence of social class; introspection and perceptiveness and that the expression of occupational aspirations emerges as a process of elimination or is the outcome of the competing processes of circumscription and compromise. Circumscription refers to the progressive elimination of least preferred options or alternatives that occurs as children become increasingly aware of occupational differences in gender or sex-type, prestige, and then field of work. Compromise refers to the expansion of preferences in recognition of and accommodation to external constraints -e.g., level of effort required, accessibility, cost- encountered in implementing preferences. -See: Gottfredson, L. S. -1981-. Circumscription and compromise: a developmental theory of occupational aspirations. Journal of Counseling Psychology Monograph, 28-No. 6, November-, 545-579.- Gottfredson, L. S. -2002-. Gottfredson's theory of circumscription, compromise, and self creation. In D. Brown -Ed.-, Career Choice and Development -4th ed., pp. 85-148-. San Francisco: Jossey-Bass.- Super's -b.- theory proposed a five stage model of career development wherein people achieve job satisfaction when they are able to express themselves and develop their self-concept through their work roles. Krumboltz's -c.- Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making -SLTCDM- includes four types of influences on making career decisions: genetic characteristics and special abilities; environmental conditions and events; learning experiences; performance standards and values. Social learning influences can be positive or negative factors. Meichenbaum -d.- is associated with cognitive-behavioral therapy.)

4. A factorial design, unlike a two group design: A. allows more independent variables to be studied B. requires a larger sample C. shows the effect of an independent variable on the dependent variable D. cannot detect a curvilinear relationship between variables

A ( In a two group design, one group is exposed to a treatment and another, control group, is not exposed or gets a different treatment. The results of both groups are tested in order to compare the effects of treatment. A factorial design is a design with more than one independent variable. In this design, the independent variables are simultaneously investigated to determine the independent and interactive influence they have on the dependent variable. The effect of each independent variable on the dependent variable -c.- is called a main effect and in a factorial design there are as many main effects as there are independent variables. An interaction effect between two or more independent variables occurs when the effect that one independent variable has on the dependent variable depends on the level of the other independent variable. At least three levels must be used to predict a curvilinear relationship.)

152. Which of the following concepts was introduced by a National Institute of Mental Health -NIMH- work group as a diagnostic entity for changes in memory that come with age? A. Age-Associated Memory Impairment -AAMI- B. Mild Cognitive Impairment -MCI- C. Cognitive Impairment, Not Dementia -CIND- D. Benign Senescent Forgetfulness -BSF-

A ( In most people, the hippocampus shrinks with age and causes mild memory decline. The first attempt to differentiate between normal memory function, pathological memory processes and a mild form of memory loss was introduced by Kral's concept of benign senescent forgetfulness -BSF- - choice d. -See: Kral, V.A. -1962-. Senescent forgetfulness: Benign and malignant. Canadian Medical Association Journal, 86, 257-260.- In 1986, a NIMH work group proposed diagnostic criteria of age-associated memory impairment -AAMI-. This was the first attempt to operationally define mild cognitive impairment. In identifying individuals with subjectively and objectively evidenced memory loss, without the cognitive decline or impairment to warrant the diagnosis of dementia, the AAMI criteria include: the presence of subjective memory decline; objective evidence of memory loss -in a well-standardized memory test, a score at least one standard deviation below the mean of younger adults-; adequate intellectual function; and the absence of dementia or other memory-affecting disease -e.g., stroke- in a person aged 50 years or older. -See: Crook, T.H., Bartus, R.T., Ferris, S.H., Whitehouse, P., Cohen, G.D., & Gershon, S. -1986-. Age-associated memory impairment: Proposed diagnostic criteria and measures of clinical change-Report of a National Institute of Mental Health workgroup. Developmental Neuropsychology, 2, 261-276.- Other terms for the condition of subjective memory problems are Cognitive Impairment, Not Dementia -CIND- and Mild Cognitive Impairment -MCI-. CIND -c.- classifies all cases of cognitive impairment which do not meet the criteria for dementia, usually due to medical or psychiatric conditions. The specific pre-dementia syndrome of Mild Cognitive Impairment -MCI- - choice B - is treated as a subcategory among these cases. MCI is described as a transition stage between the cognitive changes of normal aging and the more serious problems caused by Alzheimer's disease. Individuals with MCI are able to function reasonably well in everyday activities, and are able to manage without assistance. The disorder can be divided into subtypes: amnestic MCI, which significantly affects memory, and nonamnestic MCI, which does not. In either type, functions such as language, attention and visuospatial skills, may be impaired. With MCI, the hippocampus shrinks at a faster rate and causes more severe memory problems than normal aging, although the decline is less rapid than in mild Alzheimer's disease -See: Bischkopf, J., Busse, A., Angermeyer, M.C. -2002-. Mild cognitive impairment: A review of prevalence, incidence and outcome according to current approaches. Acta Psychiatrica Scandaniva, 106, 403-414.)

47. A psychologist meets with a patient who smiles and giggles when talking about a painful experience. The patient is most likely exhibiting: A. inappropriate affect. B. restricted affect. C. labile affect. D. mania.

A ( Inappropriate affect represents a lack of congruence between an individual's feelings and expression of those feelings. Restricted affect -b.- is a mild reduction in range or intensity of emotional expression and isn't as marked as flat affect, which is an absence of emotional expression. Labile affect -c.- is rapid and abrupt shifts in expression. Mania -d.- is an episode of very elevated, expansive mood, and an associated feature of bipolar disorder. )

114. Which of the following is not an iatrogenic stressor for elderly clients? A. loss of support and companionship B. trouble reading directions on medicine labels C. illness due to medication being over prescribed D. drug interactions from multiple prescriptions from more than one physician

A ( Loss of support and companionship is a stressor, but not an iatrogenic stressor. An iatrogenic condition is one that is produced by the treatment. Some conditions are obviously iatrogenic in nature, such as a practitioner who inadvertently uses a medical remedy to which the patient is allergic or administers an erroneous medication dose. Others forms of iatrogenesis are less obvious, like symptoms arising in response to therapists' suggestions, e.g., recovered memory syndrome, Dissociative Identity Disorder -DID- or unproven medical/psychological treatments.)

1. The technique which allows a researcher to identify the underlying -latent- factors that relate to a set of measured variables and the nature of the causal relationships between those factors is: A. structural equation modeling -SEM- B. cluster analysis C. Q-technique factor analysis D. survival analysis

A ( Structural equation modeling is a multivariate technique used to evaluate the causal -predictive- influences or test causal hypotheses about the relationships among a set of factors. Cluster analysis -b.- is used to identify homogeneous subgroups in a heterogeneous collection of observations. Q-technique factor analysis -c.- determines how many types of people a sample of people represents. Survival analysis -d.- is used to assess the length of time to the occurrence of a critical event. )

Which NS consists of sensory nerves that control involuntary activities? a) Sensory NS b) Peripheral NS c) Autonomic NS d) Central NS

Autonomic NS

173. Which of the following sections of the 2002 Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct "discusses the intent, organization, procedural considerations, and scope of application of the Ethics Code." A. Introduction only B. Introduction and Preamble C. Preamble only D. General Principles and Ethical Standards

A ( The 2002 Ethics Code is divided into four sections: Introduction, Preamble, General Principles, and Ethical Standards. The Introduction "discusses the intent, organization, procedural considerations, and scope of application of the Ethics Code." The purpose of both the Preamble and General Principles is to provide "aspirational goals to guide psychologists toward the highest ideals of psychology." The Ethical Standards "set forth enforceable rules." )

63. Of the following, which is most frequently used to detect brain damage in the early stages of emergency room -ER- treatment? A. CT B. EEG C. PET D. MRI

A ( The CAT -Computerized Axial Tomography- or CT scan, and the Magnetic Resonance Imaging -MRI- take a series of images at different levels of the brain giving information and a direct visualization of structures and features. The MRI does this with magnetic fields; the CAT scan uses x-rays. The CAT scan is superior to the MRI in detecting fresh blood in and around the brain and often is repeated to ensure that a brain injury is not becoming more extensive, usually in the early stages of ER treatment. Another difference is CT scans cost substantially less than MRIs. In general, the MRI -d.- provides more detail than the CAT scan and can be used in examining the central nervous system, as well as, used to identify tumors, strokes, degenerative diseases, inflammation, infection, and other abnormalities in organs and other soft tissue of the body. A procedure that uses electrodes on the scalp to record electrical activity of the brain is an Electroencephalogram -EEG- -b.-. It is used for detection of epilepsy, coma, and brain death. A PET -Positron Emission Tomography- scan measures metabolic processes, thus allowing an appraisal of how the brain is functioning. It tracks natural compounds, such as glucose, as the brain metabolizes them. By showing the areas of different metabolic activity, it then becomes easier to make diagnoses, such as determining the areas responsible for epileptic seizures. )

174. After almost two months, Dr. Roberts realizes the woman he's been dating is the cousin of a client he has been seeing in therapy for six months. The best course of action for Dr. Robert's would be to: A. discuss the matter with the client as soon as possible B. immediately refer the client to another therapist C. continue seeing both unless it is evident that the situation is creating a conflict D. immediately stop seeing the woman

A ( The Ethics Code does not directly address this particular situation however it warns against becoming involved in multiple relationships. Standard 1.179-c- of the Ethics Code states, "If a psychologist finds that, due to unforeseen factors, a potentially harmful multiple relationship has arisen, the psychologist attempts to resolve it with due regard for the best interests of the affected person and maximal compliance with the Ethics Code." Consistent with the intent of the Code, the best option would probably be to discuss the matter with the client immediately -a.-. While eventually it may be appropriate to refer the client to another therapist -b.- or end the relationship with the woman he is dating -d-, neither would be Dr. Robert's the best course of action initially. )

113. The term "best practices" refers to: A. empirical evidence to support effectiveness of counseling approaches B. counselor characteristics that contribute to increased effectiveness. C. matching certain client problems with specific counseling models D. clinical decision making accountability and concerns for service costs

A ( The term "best practices" is defined as approaches to counseling practice that have empirical evidence to support their effectiveness. It is one way managed care companies and practitioners strive to maintain accountability for costs of services and clinical decision making, as well as ascertain the most effective practices available to individuals.)

125. According to the Ethics Code, under what condition is it acceptable to provide therapy to a former sex partner? A. under no condition B. when the sexual relationship ended at least two years ago C. when the sexual relationship ended at least two years ago and the therapist has determined that the previous relationship will not affect the ability to provide effective therapy D. when the therapist determines that the therapeutic relationship will be not be exploitative and is not clinically contraindicated

A ( This is covered by Standard 10.07 of the Ethics Code, which states that "Psychologists do not accept as therapy patients or clients persons with whom they have engaged in sexual intimacies." )

92. During the course of a research experiment, subjects witness someone who is apparently hurt, needing immediate help, and are unable to help or know if the person is assisted. The subjects become immediately distressed. In this situation: A. debriefing occurs at the conclusion of participation B. group debriefing occurs at the conclusion of collection of data C. debriefing occurs when subjects become distressed D. debriefing occurs at the conclusion of research

A ( This question involves deception in research, distress and debriefing. Due to the use of deception and the resultant participant distress, debriefing immediately following participation is the best option as described by Standard 8.07-c- Deception in Research: "Psychologists explain any deception that is an integral feature of the design and conduct of an experiment to participants as early as is feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their participation, but no later than at the conclusion of the data collection." The Ethics Code on Debriefing, Standard 8.08-a-, notes, "Psychologists provide a prompt opportunity for participants to obtain appropriate information about the nature, results, and conclusions of the research, and they take reasonable steps to correct any misconceptions that participants may have of which the psychologists are aware," and in Standard 8.08-c- "When psychologists become aware that research procedures have harmed a participant, they take reasonable steps to minimize the harm.")

169. Limited "floor" would be the biggest problem when a test will be used to A. distinguish between mildly and moderately retarded children. B. distinguish between above-average and gifted students. C. distinguish between successful and unsuccessful trainees. D. distinguish between satisfied and dissatisfied customers.

A ("Floor" refers to a test's ability to distinguish between examinees at the low end of the distribution, which would be an issue when distinguishing between those with mild versus moderate retardation. Limited floor occurs when the test does not contain enough easy items. Note that "ceiling" would be of concern for tests designed to distinguish between examinees at the high end of the distribution -answer B-.)

_________ , a type of damage to the parietal lobe, involves right-left confusion, agraphia and acalculia apraxia anosognosia somatosensory agnosia Gerstmann's syndrome

Gertsmann syndrome

142. Illnesses, such as Chronic Fatigue Syndrome, which have an unknown cause are said to be: A. idiopathic B. allopathic C. autoplastic D. homeopathic

A ("IdiopathiC simply means of unknown cause. Allopathic -"B- refers to the typical biomedical treatments which are practiced by most physicians in North America and Europe today. Homeopathic -"D- refers to a more natural approach to healing in which the patient is given small doses of substances, which in larger doses, cause the same symptoms that they are suffering from. Autoplastic -"C- refers to adaptation through altering one's own behavior.)

195. The "terminal drop" phenomenon refers to: A. declines in intellectual functioning B. declines in sensory functioning C. declines in REM sleep D. declines in non-REM sleep

A ("Terminal drop" refers to findings indicating in the months before death, a substantial drop in all facets of intelligence occurs.)

90. Behavioral assessments are useful for determining behavioral: A. contingencies B. consequences C. constraints D. interventions

A (A behavioral assessment identifies "contingencies," which is a term for the antecedents of and consequences that maintain the behavior one is planning to alter. While a behavioral assessment may be undertaken to determine the best behavioral treatment, it may also be done for research purposes with no goal of offering treatment, or to see if a previous treatment was effective. Behavioral contingencies is more inclusive than consequences -response "B- or interventions -response "D-, and therefore the correct answer.)

192. Psychoanalytic theory and ethology both emphasize A. critical periods. B. psychic determinism. C. the oedipal complex. D. imprinting.

A (A critical period is a discrete time period during which an organism is particularly sensitive to environmental events that could influence its development one way or the other. Both ethology -the study of animals in their natural habitat- and psychoanalytic developmental theory emphasize critical periods. For example, Lorenz's research found that the critical period for imprinting in geese is 2-3 days after they are born. And in Freud's theory of development, the different stages -e.g., oral, anal- represent critical periods for successful or unsuccessful resolution of specific psychosexual conflicts.)

179. For which population would it be least appropriate to give the performance subtests only of the WISC-III as a measure of general intelligence? A. suburban middle-class children B. reading-disabled children C. immigrant, non English-speaking children D. poor, rural Appalachian children

A (A number of factors that are not related to general intelligence can suppress one's verbal IQ score on the Wechsler tests, including a lack of formal education, a learning disability, and a lack of proficiency in English. Therefore, for the children mentioned in choices "B," "C," and "D," it may be that their WISC-III verbal IQ scores would not be reflective of their overall intelligence level, but their performance IQ scores would be less affected. By contrast, in suburban middle-class children, the performance IQ scores have been found to underestimate general intelligence.)

141. A phoneme is A. the smallest unit of language B. the smallest unit of language which carries meaning C. a whole word, which, when combined with gestures and intonation can express an entire thought. D. another way of saying "call me"

A (A phoneme is the smallest unit of language. Phonemes can be single letters or two letters combined which distinguish one word from another. For example, the letters "m" and "B distinguish "met" from "bet." Thus, a phoneme can distinguish the meaning of different words, but by itself, does not carry meaning. A morpheme -Choice B-, on the other hand, is the smallest unit of language which carries meaning. For example, the word "reading" consists of two morphemes: "reaD and "ing" -the "ing" indicates an active process-. Choice "C is a description of a holophrase. Choice "D is just plain silly.)

7. One reason to give job applicants a realistic job description at the time they apply for a job is to: A. reduce turnover. B. attract talented job applicants. C. retain current employees. D. reduce the need for selection tests.

A (A realistic job description is known among industrial/organizational psychologists as a "realistic job preview." It involves providing job applicants with accurate information about the job and the company -- both positive information and negative information. Research on realistic job previews has shown that they are beneficial for reducing turnover.)

21. First degree relatives of schizophrenics are more likely is to be diagnosed as: A. Schizotypal B. Schizopheniform C. Schizoaffective D. Borderline Personality disorder

A (According to DSM-IV, Schizotypal Personality Disorder appears to aggregate familially and is more prevalent among the first-degree biological relatives of individuals with Schizophrenia than among the general population.)

31. A man comes in for therapy very upset because he has had problems achieving and maintaining an erection. He has seen advertisements for Viagra in the Men's Journal and feels this would be the solution for him. What type of disorder does he have? A. Male erectile disorder B. Premature ejaculation C. Psychopharmacological consumerism D. Sexual aversion disorder

A (According to DSM-IV, the criteria for a diagnosis of male erectile disorder is: persistent or recurrent inability to attain or maintain an adequate erection, AND the disturbance causes marked distress or interpersonal difficulty. anger have been found to be the primary risk factors.)

154. You are commuting to work early in the morning at 15 mph over the speed limit. You glance in your rearview mirror and notice blue flashing lights. You slow down and pull over. According to French and Raven's ideas about social power, which type of power are you attributing to the policemen? A. legitimate B. reward C. informational D. referent

A (According to French and Raven -1959-, in the case of legitimate authority, the target believes the influencing agent has legitimate authority. With reward power -response B-, the influencing agent has control over valued rewards and resources. And, what you are about to receive from the policeman will not be a reward. With informational power -response C-, the influencing agent possesses specific information needed by the target person, and with referent power -response D-, the target identifies with or likes the influencing agent.)

The most recent edition of the Stanford-Binet represents an extensive revision of this test. Among other things, when using the new fourth edition of the Stanford-Binet. 1. it is no longer necessary to score items as they are administered. 2. performance on the vocabulary sub test is used to help determine "entry level" on all other subtests. 3. fifteen different subtests are administered to each examinee. 4. raw subtest scores for each subtest are converted to standard scores that have a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 8. a. 1 and 4 only. b. 2 and 4 only. c. 1,2, and 3 only. d. 1, 2, 3, and 4.

10. A 16-year old girl is sexually promiscuous and does not practice safe sex. When confronted with information about sexually transmitted diseases and pregnancy, she states "that could never happen to me." The girl's behavior is characteristic of A. adolescent egocentrism. B. concrete operational thought. C. teenagers who have been sexually abused. D. an immature system of defense mechanisms.

A (According to Piaget and researchers who have studied his theories, adolescents are prone to what has been termed "formal operational egocentrism" or "adolescent egocentrism." This is characterized by a number of beliefs and modes of thinking, including the belief that the world can only become a better place through implementation of a grand idealistic system, the belief that others are as concerned with the adolescent's behavior as the adolescent him- or herself is, and -as in this question- a strong faith in one's own invulnerability and uniqueness.)

117. All of the following disorders occur more frequently in children with Tourette's Disorder than in the general population except A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder. B. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. C. Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder. D. Learning Disorders.

A (According to the DSM-IV, Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder and Learning Disorders are all associated more with children with Tourette's Disorder. However, Generalized Anxiety Disorder is not identified as such.)

106. A diagnosis of Mental Retardation is dependent upon cognitive functioning of two standard deviations below the mean and A. deficits in adaptive functioning. B. lack of social skills. C. cognitive deficits in at least two academic areas. D. an inability to inhibit impulses.

A (According to the DSM-IV, the three criteria for a diagnosis of Mental Retardation are -1- significantly subaverage intellectual functioning -an IQ score of 70 or less-, -2- deficits in at least two areas of adaptive functioning, and -3- onset before age 18. The other choices may be part of the clinical picture of Mental Retardation, but they are not diagnostic criteria.)

56. A patient of yours seeks help because he is depressed over his failures to advance in his career. The learned helplessness model of depression would predict that, of the following, the patient is most likely to attribute his lack of advancement to A. a lack of ability. B. difficult work. C. demanding bosses. D. not working hard enough.

A (According to the learned helplessness model, depression is associated with an atttributional style whereby negative events are viewed as stable over time rather than transient, global rather than specific, and internal rather than external. Of the choices, only a lack of ability -"A- meets all three of these criteria.)

12. A sequence of behaviors, in which each behavior serves as reinforcement for the previous behavior, is the outcome of A. chaining. B. shaping. C. positive reinforcement. D. graded exposure.

A (According to the operant conditioning paradigm, chaining is how complex behaviors made up of a sequence of simpler behaviors are developed. In chaining, each response serves as reinforcement for the previous behavior and a discriminant stimulus for the next behavior on the chain.)

112. When an impulsive group decision that reflects an incomplete consideration of alternatives and consequences is the result of high stress, high group cohesiveness, and a directive leader, this is an example of: A. groupthink. B. group polarization. C. the risky shift. D. the Rosenthal effect.

A (Although group polarization and the risky shift also refer to poor decision-making, their antecedents have not been as well-defined as those associated with groupthink -i.e., only groupthink has been linked theoretically and empirically to an incomplete consideration of alternatives and consequences, high group cohesiveness, etc.-.)

88. A student seeks counseling at the university counseling center due to feelings of failure as a student. When asked about his grades, he states that his grade point average is 3.9 but thinks that he should be doing better. He is most likely using which of the following cognitive distortions? A. arbitrary inference B. overgeneralization C. personalization D. dichotomous thinking

A (Arbitrary inference occurs when one draws a specific conclusion without supporting evidence, or even in the face of contradictory evidence. This best applies to the student in this question. Despite having a nearly perfect GPA, the student believes he's a failure and should be doing better. Overgeneralization -B- is the application of a general rule based on a few isolated incidents. Personalization -C- is attributing external events to oneself without evidence of a causal connection. And dichotomous thinking -D- is categorizing experiences into one of two extremes.)

32. In addition to improved interpersonal relationships, a primary goal of interpersonal therapy -ITP- is: A. alleviating or reducing symptoms. B. satisfying needs in responsible ways. C. resolving underlying conflicts. D. living in an authentic, meaningful way.

A (Based on a medical model, interpersonal therapy -ITP- views mental disorders as illnesses and focuses on symptom reduction in addition to improving interpersonal relationships.)

84. Following a stroke involving the MCA -middle cerebral artery-, an elderly man experiences weakness and loss of sensation in his left arm and leg. In addition, he exhibits A. left visual field loss. B. Wernicke's aphasia. C. left-right disorientation. D. finger agnosia.

A (Because this man's symptoms involve the left side of his body, this indicates that the stroke affected the right side of his brain. Depending on the location of the brain damage, the man may also be experiencing left visual field loss, anosognosia -denial of deficits-, and left-sided neglect. The symptoms listed in answers B, C, and D are caused by damage to the left side of the brain.)

202. In brief psychodynamically-oriented therapy: A. positive transferences are encouraged and are viewed as essential to treatment progress. B. positive and negative transferences are encouraged early in treatment to ensure that a transference neurosis develops. C. positive and negative transferences are both discouraged because of the here-and-now focus of the treatment. D. negative transferences are encouraged because they are more likely than positive transferences to produce useful information for interpretation.

A (Brief and long-term psychodynamic psychotherapy share a number of characteristics. A primary difference is that, in brief psychotherapy, a full-scale transference neurosis is discouraged. However, positive transference is seen as an important contributor to therapy progress.)

148. Medical treatment regimens for chronic illness most often results in: A. greater compliance for children as compared to adolescents B. greater compliance for adolescents as compared to children C. equal compliance for children and adolescents D. greater compliance for girls and adolescent females as compared to boys and adolescent males

A (Compliance with medical treatment regimens, such as those designed to manage diabetes, tends to be lower for adolescents as compared to children or adults. There are many reasons for this, including adolescents' greater desire to be similar to their peers and independent from the restrictions of their parents.)

163. Cortisol is frequently used as measure of: A. stress B. anorexia and Bulimia C. steroid abuse D. cortical functioning

A (Cortisol is a steroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex, which is located near the kidneys. It stimulates the liver to convert fat and protein into glucose for energy. Under stress, cortisol level rises to provide the energy needed to cope with the stress. However, chronic stress results in chronically elevated levels of cortisol which is believed to cause several health consequences. If you incorrectly guessed choice "C," note that although cortisol is a steroid, it is not one of the common steroids of abuse.)

155. Which of the following is true regarding Schizophrenia Type I and Schizophrenia Type II? A. Traditional antipsychotic medications are less effective for Type II than for Type I. B. Patients with Type II have more "positive" symptoms compared to patients with Type I. C. Patients with Type II are more distractable compared to patients with Type I. D. Patients with Type II have a better prognosis compared to patients with Type I.

A (Crow -1980- classified Schizophrenia as two distinct syndromes: Type I and Type II. Type I is characterized by positive symptoms -e.g., hallucinations, delusions- and over-responsiveness/distractibility. Type I also responds well to traditional neuroleptics and has a good chance of partial or complete recovery. Type II is characterized by the opposite: negative symptoms -e.g., flat affect, anhedonia- and under-responsiveness/slowness to respond, a poor response to traditional neuroleptics, and poor chance of recovery -T. J. Crow, Molecular pathology of schizophrenia: More than one disease process? British Medical Journal, 1980, 280, 66-68-.)

94. Every time a 6-year-old child uses obscene language his mother reprimands him. Unfortunately, the child's use of obscene language increases. The mother's reprimands can best be described as: A. positive reinforcement B. negative reinforcement C. positive punishment D. intermittent reinforcement

A (Despite the mother's intentions, her reprimands appear to result in an increase in her child's undesirable behavior. The application of a stimulus following a response that increases the frequency of that response is, by definition, positive reinforcement. Punishment, by definition, always decreases the frequency of a behavior - which did not occur in this case. And the mother's behavior is not an example of intermittent reinforcement -D- because she is reprimanding the child every time he uses obscene language.)

133. Prenatal alcohol exposure is most likely to adversely affect the fetus during the: A. first trimester B. second trimester C. third trimester D. the first or third trimester

A (Drinking alcohol anytime during pregnancy can have adverse effects on the fetus. However, alcohol consumption during the first trimester is more likely to cause structural and anatomical defects, characteristic of fetal alcohol syndrome. Consumption during the second and third trimesters is more likely to result in growth restriction and functional impairment. -Health Canada, population and public health branch, Canadian perinatal surveillance system: Alcohol and pregnancy, 1998, retrieved from http://www.hc-sc.gc.ca/hpb/lcdc/brch/factshts/alcprg_e.html-.)

186. The effectiveness of Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing -EMDR- in the treatment of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder is due to: A. exposure to anxiety-provoking stimuli B. changes in the functioning of the brain due to lateral eye movement stimulation C. unconditional positive regard D. placebo effect

A (Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing -EMDR- is a controversial therapeutic technique which combines techniques from cognitive-behavioral and other treatment approaches with lateral eye movements. Clients receiving EMDR are asked to recall anxiety-provoking memories and are then instructed to track the therapists' fingers which are moved from side to side. This process is repeated until the clients' anxiety is extinguished. Although Francine Shapiro, the developer of the technique, originally proposed that the bilateral eye movements accelerate the reprocessing of traumatic memories, a meta-analysis of 34 studies indicated that the eye movement component did not contribute to the effectiveness of EMDR. Rather, it appears that the element of exposure is responsible for its effects. The meta-analysis did find EMDR to be more effective than no-treatment or non-exposure treatments; however, it was no more effective than other exposure techniques. -P. R. Davidson, & K. C. Parker, Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing -EMDR-: A meta-analysis. Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 2001, 69-2-, 305-316-.)

223. All of the following are true regarding the relationship between aging and memory, except A. observed age-related cognitive and memory declines are believed to be due to artifacts of intelligence tests and experience, rather than physiological changes. B. the main locus of observed age-related decline in memory is in long-term memory rather than short-term or sensory memory. C. on tests such as the WAIS-III, the least age-related decline is observed on subtests measuring stored knowledge. D. age-related declines on complex psychomotor tasks are greater than they are on simple psychomotor tasks.

A (Few, if any, experts believe that age-related declines in cognition and especially memory are solely related to artifacts of experience or testing. These declines have been observed again and again across different cultures and different tests. Certainly, experience and test error can account for some degree of observed decline, but the generally accepted conclusion is that these declines are real and reflect true neuropsychological changes. Choices B, C, and D are true statements about age-related decline in cognition and memory.)

165. According to Vygotsky, what has the greatest impact on the development of language? A. social relationships B. internal cognitive structures C. schemas D. scaffoldings

A (For Vygotsky, language is originally and primarily social. Thus a child's language and cognitive processes are greatly influenced by his social relationships and culture. From these experiences the child formulates his language. This is in contrast to Piaget -answer B and C- who believed that universal internal cognitive structures or schema developed first within the child, and then were influenced by his surroundings. Answer D "scaffolding" is Vygotsky's term for the assistance adults give to children to help them learn about the world.)

39. A loss of memory for autobiographical information is referred to as: A. functional amnesia B. anterograde amnesia C. retrograde amnesia D. malingering

A (Functional amnesia is a condition, caused by a psychological trauma, in which individuals are unable to remember significant events in their lives, i.e., autobiographical information. Anterograde amnesia -B- is an impaired ability to form new permanent memories. Retrograde amnesia -C- is an inability to recall previous memories -i.e., for events that occurred prior to a head trauma-, and is not necessarily for, or limited to, autobiographical information. Someone who is malingering -D- could feign memory loss for autobiographical memories; however, most cases of autobiographical memory loss are not due to malingering.)

147. Individuals with Generalized Anxiety Disorder vs. people with normal amounts of worry are characterized by: A. Excessive concerns and inability to control them B. Caffeine consumption C. Excessive concerns in a few areas D. Lack of accompanying physical symptoms

A (Generalized anxiety disorder 300.02 is defined in DSM-IV parlance as having the essential feature of excessive anxiety and worry. In addition, the person finds it difficult to control the worry. Answer "A is a fairly exact rendering of the DSM-IV' definition. This question indicates that you need to have a thorough mastery of the Diagnosis and Psychopathology section.)

24. Habituation would be most likely to occur in which of the following situations. A. An experimenter repeatedly presents the same stimulus. B. An experimenter increases the intensity of a stimulus. C. An examinee focuses his/her attention. D. Background music is played during exposure to the stimulus.

A (Habituation most likely occurs if the experimenter repeatedly presents the same stimulus. Habituation is defined as a decrease in response strength due to repeated stimulation and occurs when one no longer responds to a repeatedly applied stimulus. It is believed to occur because of a decrease in the amount of neurotransmitter released.)

137. Of the following ethnic groups which group is not considered a race? A. Hispanic B. Native American C. African-American D. Asian-American

A (Hispanics are an ethnic group like African-Americans, Asian-Americans, and Native Americans. Unlike these groups, Hispanics are not a specific race. According to the 1998 Census Bureau, the total Hispanic population of the US accounts for 11% of the total population. Sixty-three percent are of Mexican origin, 14.4% are of Central and South American origin, 10.6% of mainland Puerto Rican origin, 4.2% of Cuban origin, and 7.4% other -Alfredo Ardilis, Testing Hispanic Populations, Texas Psychologist, Winter 2000)

109. From an organizational systems approach, positive feedback is most useful as an intervention in order to: A. provide information which helps plan for corrective actions. B. reinforce adaptive responses. C. extinguish maladaptive organizational interactions. D. establish productive work groups.

A (In any system, feedback is useful to make corrections. Even our nervous system makes use of this phenomenon: as your body temperature rises on a cold morning, you stop shivering. Likewise with institutions and organizations. This question asks about positive feedback, which, in systems terminology, refers to information that encourages disruption from the status quo. In organizational consulting and family therapy, positive feedback is used to correct or change a pattern; in response to positive feedback the system deviates from homeostasis, or the status quo. This question is not about reinforcing other patterns or extinguishing maladaptive patterns, as two of the choices indicate. These terms are related to behavioral learning theory, not systems theory.)

48. The clinical scales of the MMPI-2 were developed using empirical criterion keying. This means that A. items which distinguish between specific subgroups of people are retained for the final version of the test. B. items that have high correlations with the previous version of the test are retained for the final version of the test. C. items that have high correlations with other tests designed to measure similar constructs are retained for the final version of the test. D. items which appear to measure what they are designed to measure are retained for the final version of the test.

A (In empirical criterion keying, items are assessed to determine how well they distinguish between prespecified criterion groups -e.g., between depressed and non-depressed individuals-. The items that best distinguish between the groups are maintained for the final version of the scale or the test.)

8. A moderator is A. a variable that affects the direction or strength of the association between two other variables. B. an explanation of how external physical events take on internal psychological significance. C. a variable that identifies the relationship between two variables and serves to magnify the strength of the variables. D. a variable that accounts for the relationship between two variables.

A (In general, a moderator is a qualitative -e.g., race, sex, class- or quantitative -e.g., level of reward- variable that affects the direction and/or strength of the relation between an independent or predictor variable and a dependent or criterion variable. A moderator only influences the strength of the relationship between two other variables, it doesn't fully account for it. In contrast, a variable functions as a mediator to the extent that it accounts for the relation between the predictor and the criterion.)

83. Learning disabilities are defined by discrepancies between A. achievement and aptitude. B. full scale IQ score and overall intelligence. C. verbal and performance IQ scores. D. academic skills and adaptive coping skills.

A (In the words of the DSM-IV, "Learning Disorders are diagnosed when the individual's achievement on individually standardized tests in reading, mathematics, or written expression is substantially below that expected for age, schooling, and level of intelligence." In other words, they involve a discrepancy between what the person has achieved and what would be expected given the person's potential to achieve, or aptitude.)

104. Randomly selecting certain schools from a large school district and then including all teachers in those schools or a random sample of teachers from those schools in your study is referred to as A. cluster sampling. B. stratified sampling. C. systematic sampling. D. nested sampling.

A (In this situation, you are starting out the sampling processing by selecting naturally occurring groups -clusters- of subjects. This is referred to as cluster sampling, and is useful when it's not feasible to directly sample individuals from the population.)

68. The difference between insanity and psychosis is that: A. insanity is a legal term and psychosis is a term used in mental health literature B. insanity is an outdated term and is no longer applied in legal cases, while psychosis is used both in mental health and legal literature C. insanity is legally a broader term, and subsumes the term psychosis D. insanity refers to disturbances in thought and emotion, while a psychotic disturbance, by definition, affects thought only

A (Insanity is strictly a legal term; it usually means that a person is in such a mental state that he or she cannot distinguish between right or wrong. Psychosis, on the other hand, is a psychiatric term.)

2. To reduce their liability risk, managed care organizations are most likely to do which of the following? A. insure their providers are credentialed B. reduce the amount of time between date of claim submission and approval of claim C. utilization review D. pay their providers a reasonable reimbursement rate

A (Managed care organizations typically require all their providers to be credentialed. This helps to insure that their providers are competent and, consequently, reduces their risk of liability. Utilization Review -C- is a cost containment procedure involving an evaluation of patients' use of services to identify any unnecessary or inappropriate use of health care resources.)

193. An employer is concerned about the high voluntary turnover rates in her company. Which of the following would be most useful for ensuring that she identifies job applicants who are at high-risk for quitting their jobs if they are hired? A. a biographical information form B. an interview C. a personality test D. a measure of "g"

A (Meta-analyses of the research on the validity of various selection techniques has looked at the relationship between different predictors and different outcome measures. Of the various commonly-used predictors, biographical information has the highest correlation with turnover.)

38. The initial stage in structural family therapy is to "join" the family system. To do so, which of the following would be most useful? A. mimesis B. enactment C. positioning D. alignment

A (Mimesis is the term used to describe adopting a family's communication and affective style and is one way of joining the family system.)

191. Research on group performance has examined the effects of the heterogeneity of group members in terms of personality, gender, experience, and so on. Overall, these studies have found that heterogeneity is A. positively related to creativity and decision-making effectiveness. B. positively related to creativity but negatively related to decision-making effectiveness. C. negatively related to creativity but positively related to decision-making effectiveness. D. negatively related to creativity and decision-making effectiveness.

A (Most of the research on group heterogeneity has focused on its impact on creativity and problem-solving and has found it to have beneficial effects on both.)

10. The best way to increase the intra-rater reliability of a test that is subjectively scored would be to A. train raters to pay very close attention to the scoring of the test. B. have a second set of raters rescore the test. C. use mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories. D. ensure that the rating instrument is correlated with multiple criterion measures.

A (Note that this question is asking about intra-rater reliability, not inter-rater reliability. The prefix "intrA means the same thing it means in other contexts -e.g., intra-psychic-: inside or internal. Thus, the question is asking you how to increase the internal consistency of a rating instrument. Of the choices listed, the only one which makes sense is to train the raters to pay more attention to what they are doing. If they pay closer attention, they are less likely to score the test inconsistently. Incidentally, mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories -choice C- are useful for increasing the inter-rater reliability of a test.)

45. The WISC-III subtests that are most sensitive to perceptual-motor problems are: A. block design and object assembly. B. object assembly and picture completion. C. digit span and coding. D. picture arrangement and picture completion.

A (Of the choices listed, the block design and object assembly subtests are the most direct measures of perceptual and motor skills.)

52. A member of which of the following groups is most likely to be admitted to an inpatient mental health facility? A. never married men B. divorced/separated men C. married men D. never married women

A (Of the groups listed, never married men have the highest rates of admission to inpatient mental health facilities regardless of the type of facility -state/county versus private-. The other groups listed have similar rates; but, if you have to choose the group with the lowest rate, the best answer is never married women -answer D-.)

15. According to Jerry Patterson and associates the families of highly aggressive boys are characterized by: A. coercive interactions and poor parental monitoring B. Coercive interactions and high parental monitoring C. Low interaction and low parental monitoring D. Excessive television viewing

A (Patterson, Chamberlin and Reid 1982 "A Comparative evaluation of a parent-training program" Behavior Therapy, 13-5- 638-650 proposed a coercive family interaction model. It hypothesized that children first learn aggressive behaviors from their parents. These parents also use harsh discipline and reward their children's aggressiveness with attention and approval. As a result, the aggressiveness of the parent-child interaction continues to escalate.)

132. A company wants its clerical employees to be very efficient, accurate and fast. Examinees are given a perceptual speed test on which they indicate whether two names are exactly identical or slightly different. The reliability of the test would be best assessed by: A. test-retest B. Cronbach's coefficient alpha C. split-half D. Kuder-Richardson Formula 20

A (Perceptual speed tests are highly speeded and are comprised of very easy items that every examinee, it is assumed, could answer correctly with unlimited time. The best way to estimate the reliability of speed tests is to administer separately timed forms and correlate these, therefore using a test-retest or alternate forms coefficient would be the best way to assess the reliability of the test in this question. The other response choices are all methods for assessing internal consistency reliability. These are useful when a test is designed to measure a single characteristic, when the characteristic measured by the test fluctuates over time, or when scores are likely to be affected by repeated exposure to the test. However, they are not appropriate for assessing the reliability of speed tests because they tend to produce spuriously high coefficients. )

164. In principal components analysis, an eigenvalue would indicate A. the amount of variability in a group of variables accounted for by an independent statistical component. B. the amount of variability in a group of variables accounted for by a statistical component that shares variability with other statistical components in the analysis. C. the amount of variability in one measured variable accounted for by all the independent statistical components in the analysis. D. the amount of variability in all measured variables accounted for by all the statistical components in the analysis.

A (Principal components analysis and factor analysis are two complex statistical techniques designed to determine the degree to which a large set of variables can be accounted for by fewer, underlying constructs -referred to as "factors" or "principal components"-. In principal components analysis and factor analysis, an eigenvalue is a statistic that indicates the degree to which a particular factor is accounting for variability in the variables studied. In other words, a factor's eigenvalue indicates its strength or explanatory power. The reason choice "A rather than "B is correct is that in principal components analysis, the factors or components are always independent, or uncorrelated.)

161. An adolescent's behavior is motivated primarily by her needs for power and attention. Her problems would probably be best addressed by a therapist adopting the approach of: A. Adler. B. Ellis. C. Perls. D. Freud.

A (Probably the best way to approach this question is to see if the notions of power and attention are linked to any of the people listed in the responses. For Adlerians, a desire to belong is a primary motivator of behavior, but this desire may be channeled into the mistaken goals of power, attention, inadequacy, or revenge.)

66. A week before a controversial episode of a television sitcom is to be shown, a prominent Christian fundamentalist group calls for a sponsor boycott of the show and urges people not to watch it. The group's actions are highly publicized and the group's leader appears on a different talk show every day for the week before the show debuts to discuss the reasons why people shouldn't watch the show. The show's episode turns out to be the most watched episode in its history. This situation illustrates the phenomenon of A. psychological reactance. B. cognitive dissonance. C. overjustification. D. overcompensation.

A (Psychological reactance refers to the phenomenon whereby pressure to behave in a particular way causes individuals to behave in the opposite manner. Reactance occurs when a person perceives that his or her freedom of choice or sense of control is being threatened by attempted influence. In this question, it's possible that many people watch the show due to psychological reactance. They feel that their freedom of choice is threatened by the fundamentalist group, and they react by doing the opposite of what the group wants them to do.)

93. Which of the following descriptive words for tests are most opposite in nature? A. speed and power B. subjective and aptitude C. norm-referenced and standardized D. maximal and ipsative

A (Pure speed tests and pure power tests are opposite ends of a continuum. A speed test is one with a strict time limit and easy items that most or all examinees are expected to answer correctly. Speed tests measure examinees' response speed. A power test is one with no or a generous time limit but with items ranging from easy to very difficult -usually ordered from least to most difficult-. Power tests measure level of content mastered.)

218. A therapist using Beck's cognitive approach to therapy would rely primarily on which of the following to induce desirable changes in a depressed client? A. Socratic questioning B. interpretation C. reflecting D. clarification and explanation

A (Questioning is a very important strategy in Beck's cognitive therapy and, in fact, the majority of communications by the therapist take the form of questions designed to help the client consider particular issues, options, and so on.)

124. A primary tenet of rational-emotive therapy is that: A. a belief determines behavior. B. self-attributions determine behavior. C. conditioning determines behavior. D. internalized role constructs determine behavior.

A (RET is basically a cognitively-based theory even though in practice therapists use many modalities. The idea is that beliefs -- irrational beliefs -- determine our maladaptive behaviors. The belief that you mustn't make anyone mad at you is an example.)

107. Severing the corpus callosum will have the greatest impact on which of the following? A. sensory systems B. motor systems C. memory D. mood

A (Recalling the studies on split-brain patients would have helped you answer this question. Remember that these patients had trouble verbally identifying stimuli received by sensory systems on the left side because those signals were received by the right hemisphere and not "shared with" the left hemisphere.)

21. Of the following, the best predictor of job success would likely be a A. general cognitive ability test. B. personality test. C. structured interview. D. vocational interest inventory.

A (Research on the validity of selection measures generally finds the cognitive ability tests and biodata are 1-2 in terms of predictive validity. Although validity coefficients will vary from study to study, the most widely accepted conclusion is that general ability tests are the best overall predictors.)

82. Premature termination would be most likely to occur when A. an African-American client has a Caucasian therapist. B. an African-American client has an African-American therapist. C. a Caucasian client has an African-American therapist. D. a Caucasian client has a Caucasian therapist.

A (Research with African-American clients on the relationship between therapist-client racial similarity and therapy effectiveness has yielded contradictory results and suggests that this relationship is mitigated by a variety of factors. A clearer relationship exists between similarity and premature termination, with the probability of premature dropout increasing when an African-American client works with a racially dissimilar therapist.)

46. According to Self Verification Theory, a person who believes that he dances poorly would prefer to be told by friends: A. "You are a pretty bad dancer" B. "You are not a bad dancer" C. "You should become a professional dancer" D. nothing about dancing

A (Self Verification theory proposes that people need and seek confirmation of their self-concept, regardless of whether their self-concept is positive or negative. Thus, people prefer to be right rather than happy. According to this theory, a person who dances poorly would prefer to be told so -assuming the other's evaluation matches the person's self evaluation-.)

Level of severity of a TBI is determined in part by considering a person's initial score on the _____________

Glasgow Coma Scale

116. Marital therapy based on the principles of social learning theory most often emphasizes A. behavioral therapy combined with communication and problem-solving skills training. B. individual exploratory therapy for each spouse combined with communication and problem-solving skills training. C. group therapy combined with communication and problem-solving skills training. D. group therapy combined with individual behavior-oriented therapy for each spouse.

A (Social learning theory has been applied to family therapy in the area of marital therapy as well as child management. In both cases, the emphasis is on behavioral methodology as well as on communication and problem-solving skills. For example, in marital therapy based on the principles of behavioral and social learning theory, typical methods include functional analysis of the spouses' behaviors, contracts stipulating specific behavioral changes, communication skills training, and directive advice regarding solutions to problems. Consistent with the principles of social learning theory, the therapist will often model healthy communication and interpersonal behavior for the couple.)

93. Latane called this a social disease. It occurred when high-level employees were assessed on a combined effort. It turned out they produced less than when they were working individually. It's called: A. Social loafing B. Group think C. Social polarization D. Social facilitation

A (Social loafing or Latane's "social disease" is the discovery that in regard to work, individual output declines when people are working together as a group. However, social loafing does not occur under all conditions. It is reduced or eliminated when participants believe that their individual contributions are identifiable or uniquely necessary for the group to succeed. -B- "groupthink" is the tendency for a group to make an irrational or impulsive decision in order to reach consensus. -C- "Group polarization" refers to the tendency of individuals who start with a similar view to end with a more extreme position after group discussion.)

44. A college psychology instructor gives a battery of psychological tests to some of his students who volunteered to be participants. Based on these tests, he finds that one of the participants is at risk for emotional disturbance. He talks to this student and suggests counseling. At the same time, he informs the director of the college counseling office who is a friend of his. According to APA ethical principles, the professor acted A. unethically, because he revealed this information to a third party. B. ethically, because he acted in accord with the student's welfare. C. ethically, because he had responsibilities to the college as well as to the student. D. unethically, because he isn't a clinician.

A (Suggesting counseling to the student is ethical and appropriate. However, barring an emergency situation characterized by imminent danger, informing a third party is unethical.)

58. Which of the following would represent a tertiary prevention program? A. a program that provides counseling to convicts after they have been released from jail B. a walk-in psychiatric emergency room C. a suicide hotline D. a program to educate high school students about the risks of drug use

A (Tertiary prevention takes place after an illness or problem has been treated and is designed to prevent recurrence of the problem. Secondary prevention refers to early detection and treatment of problems before they develop into full-blown illnesses with long-term consequences and is exemplified by responses "B and "C." Response "D describes an example of primary prevention, which aims to prevent problems before they occur in the first place.)

149. The "slippery slope" argument suggests therapist-patient sexual relationships result from: A. nonsexual boundary crossings and violations B. confusion about the definition of dual relationships and how to address them C. personal characteristics or life circumstances of the therapist D. previous sexual relation with therapist, supervisor or educator

A (The "slippery slope" analogy refers to the relationship between sexual and non-sexual boundary-crossing and claims that crossing one boundary makes it easier to cross the next boundary. Research has implicated three factors as influences on the occurrence and continuation of exploitative sexual and nonsexual relationships with clients, supervisees, and students: the connection between sexual and nonsexual professional boundary crossings or violations; the confusion about the definition of dual relationships and how to address them; and personal or contextual characteristics that put psychologists at risk for engaging in such behavior. Research has not found a significant connection between reported sexual boundary violations as a former client, supervisee, or student and as a practicing professional -d.-. -See: Lamb, D., Catanzaro, S., & Moorman, A. -2003-. Psychologists reflect on their sexual relationships with clients, supervisees, and students: Occurrence, impact, rationales, and collegial intervention. Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 34, 102-107; Williams, M. -1997-. Boundary violations: Do some contended standards of care fail to encompass commonplace procedures of humanistic, behavioral, and eclectic psychotherapies? Psychotherapy, 34, 238-249; and Pope, K. -1990-. Therapist-patient sexual involvement: A review of the research. Clinical Psychology Review, 10, 477-490.)

22. A psychologist is undertaking a research program in an elementary school on the effect of a new counseling program on enhancing children's self-esteem. The psychologist has received permission from the school's principal, the teachers, and from the parents of each student. However, when she explained the program to the children, some of them objected to being part of the study. The psychologist should A. not use these children in her study. B. call the parents of these children and ask them to try to convince the children to participate. C. use the children in her study because she has all necessary legal consents. D. re-design the study to eliminate the objection the children have to participating.

A (The best idea is to just leave out these children. Participants have the right to decline to participate in research, even if they are children. It wouldn't be practical or prudent to ask her to re-design the whole experiment because a handful of children object to being participants. Thus, the best answer is to just do the study without using the children who object to participating.)

126. Negative reinforcement is essential to: A. escape conditioning. B. punishment. C. aversion conditioning. D. phobias.

A (The concept of negative reinforcement involves increasing the likelihood of a behavior through the elimination of an aversive stimulus -the negative part-. As you might recall, this is exactly what the dog does by learning to escape the electric shock by jumping to the other side of the cage. This is the classic example of escape conditioning. Jumping to the other side is reinforced by the elimination of the aversive stimulus. You may have chosen punishment, but this is the common error of confusing negative reinforcement with punishment. To avoid this error, keep in mind that reinforcement -whether negative or not- and punishment are antithetical.)

2. The findings of the National Institute of Mental Health -NIMH- research project regarding the relative effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral therapy and antidepressant medication in the treatment of depression indicate that A. both treatments are about equally effective. B. cognitive/behavioral therapy is more effective in the short-term, while medication is more effective in the long-term. C. cognitive-behavioral therapy has an immediate effect, while medication has a delayed effect. D. cognitive-behavioral therapy is more effective.

A (The findings of the NIMH research project were that, on an overall level, cognitive-behavioral therapy -CBT- and antidepressant medication are about equally effective in the treatment of depression. There was some evidence that the treatments differed in the types of depression for which they are most effective. Specifically, some evidence suggested that CBT is more effective for milder forms of depression, while medication is more effective for relatively severe forms. But in terms of overall effectiveness, both treatments were found to be about equal.)

198. Which of the following represents a good reason to use interval recording in the process of behavioral observation? A. the behavior being measured has no clear beginning or end B. the behavior has a sudden and discrete onset C. the behavior does not occur very often D. the behavior is poorly defined and it is therefore difficult to obtain agreement as to whether or not it is occurring

A (The interval recording method involves observing a behavior for a single block of time, such as 30-60 minutes per day. The block of time is divided into smaller intervals -e.g., 30 seconds-, and the behavior is recorded as having occurred or not occurred during each interval. This is a good method of recording behaviors with no fixed beginning or end, since the observer does not have to identify at what point the behavior began or ended -- he or she simply has to note whether it is occurring at all during a particular time interval.)

206. Among white males, the highest suicide rates are among those aged 75 and older. Among African-American males, the rates are highest for those: A. 25 to 44. B. 45 to 64. C. 65 to 74. D. 75 and above.

A (The suicide rates for whites and African-Americans have both increased in recent years. However, the highest rates for white males are among the elderly; for African-Americans, the highest rates are among those aged 25 to 44.)

217. Goal setting as a motivational technique is most effective when: A. performance goals are difficult and specific feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal B. performance goals are difficult and general feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal C. performance goals are easy and specific feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal D. performance goals are easy and general feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal

A (The technique of goal setting involves allowing workers to set their own performance goals, or setting performance goals for them that they accept. Research on goal-setting theory indicates that the technique is most effective when goals are at least moderately difficult and specific feedback regarding progress toward the goal is provided.)

139. The effects of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome A. are irreversible and long-term. B. remit within the first six months in about 25% of cases. C. are reversible if proper nutrition is provided to the child. D. remit by the age of six except for lingering learning difficulties.

A (The term Fetal Alcohol Syndrome -FAS- refers to a set of severe and complex deficits in children produced by prolonged and heavy maternal alcohol use during pregnancy. Symptoms vary depending on the amount of alcohol consumed; typical features included growth retardation, microcephaly, irritability, and a variety of physical illnesses. In most cases, the symptoms are irreversible.)

139. Which of these studies would be considered most unethical today? A. Milgram's B. Bandura C. Zimbardo D. BF Skinner's study of his own child

A (This is a different twist on a previous question but the answer is still Milgram's study. You may feel a different study is more unethical, but the Ethical Standards are specifically pertinent to Milgram's study. This study involved deception and no debriefing about that deception. Ethical Standard 8.07 -Deception in Research- addresses this, indicating that: "-a- Psychologists do not conduct a study involving deception unless they have determined that the use of deceptive techniques is justified by the study's significant prospective scientific, educational, or applied value and that effective nondeceptive alternative procedures are not feasible. -b- Psychologists do not deceive prospective participants about research that is reasonably expected to cause physical pain or severe emotional distress. -c- Psychologists explain any deception that is an integral feature of the design and conduct of an experiment to participants as early as is feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their participation, but no later than at the conclusion of the data collection, and permit participants to withdraw their data.")

194. The difference between the General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services and the Ethical Principles of Psychologists is that the former: A. deals with delivery of services to consumers, and the latter with ethics in general. B. deals with clinical practice, and the latter with ethics in general. C. deals with consumers, and the latter with providers of psychological services. D. is a case analysis of the latter.

A (This is a fundamental distinction. The Ethical Principles and Code of Conduct covers the actions and responsibilities of all APA members in teaching, research, clinical work, testing, private practice, administration, government, industry, etc. It's the basic standard of ethics for all of us. The General Guidelines, and the spin off known as Specialty Guidelines, apply only to those psychologists who work in clinical, counseling, school, and industrial psychology. Note that these guidelines apply to the work, not to the person. Hence a research social psychologist who finds herself working as the director of a mental health center now finds her work falling under the province of the General Guidelines. Now if you go back to the question you'll see why A is a better answer than B or C. The General Guidelines refer to all the work of applied psychology and this is subsumed best under alternative A. Choice B mentions only clinical practice, which is only part of what is covered by the Guidelines. And C mentions only consumers, which again isn't quite right: the General Guidelines deal also with agencies, private concerns in industrial areas, third-party payers such as insurance companies, etc.)

137. Briquet's syndrome is also known as a: A. Conversion Disorder B. Somatization Disorder C. Body Dysmorphic Disorder D. Hypochondriasis

B ( Termed after the physican who described the condition in the 1850s, Briquet's syndrome, or Somatization Disorder, is a chronic Somatoform Disorder with multiple physical symptoms that cannot be explained entirely by a general medical condition or the effects of a substance. The other three response choices are also Somatoform Disorders.)

186. In children with chronic illness, all of the following have been found to be correlated with the child's level of adjustment, except A. the child' age. B. parental support. C. parental marital distress. D. brain involvement in the child's illness.

A (This is one of those "research results" questions in which you can find support for any answer, depending on whose research you read. However, of the choices listed, there is less overall support for the notion that age is significantly correlated with level of adjustment in chronically ill children. It has been found that, in some cases, chronically ill adolescents -in particular adolescent boys with diabetes- are more likely to display behavioral problems than younger children. However, age is not correlated with overall adjustment problems -- chronic illness, especially severe chronic illness, is likely to cause some kind of adjustment problem, whether it be behavioral acting-out or psychological distress. Choices B, C, and D have all been shown to be correlated with adjustment in chronically ill children -- adjustment is better the higher the level of parental support, the lower the level of parental marital distress, and the lower the level of brain involvement in the child's illness.)

208. You are starting a stop-smoking group and tell a newspaper reporter who smokes that he can participate in the group for free if he'll write an article about it for the local newspaper. This arrangement is A. unethical. B. ethical as long as you don't tell the reporter what to write about. C. ethical as long as you check to make sure that information about the group is accurate. D. ethical as long as the confidentiality of the group participants is not violated.

A (This issue is addressed in Standard 5.02-b- of the Ethics Code, which states that "Psychologists do not compensate employees of press, radio, television, or other communication media in return for publicity in a news item." )

211. Which of the following is the best description of flooding? A. Exposure to a previously conditioned stimulus in the absence of a real aversive stimulus. B. Gradual in-vivo exposure to the feared stimulus while increasing negative responses. C. Imaginal exposure to a previously conditioned stimulus while conducting guided imagery. D. Exposure to an aversive stimulus at its maximum intensity while the person is engaging in an undesirable act.

A (This question exemplifies how the exam can sometimes take a relatively easy concept and describe it in convoluted language, thereby making the question more difficult than it needs to be. In flooding, a person is exposed to a feared stimulus in order to extinguish the fear. The theory underlying the technique is that the feared stimulus was previously a conditioned stimulus paired with an unconditioned aversive stimulus that naturally produces fear. In other words, choice "A is one way to describe the technique.)

167. In a normal distribution of scores, the range of raw scores represented by the percentile rank range of 50 to 55 is _______ the range of raw scores represented by the percentile rank range of 90 to 95. A. less than B. greater than C. the same as D. depending on the standard deviation, either less than, greater than, or the same as

A (This question is a bit tricky and requires careful reading and a good grasp of the concepts of percentile rank and normal distribution. The easiest way to understand it is in terms of an example. Say that you have a test, with a mean of 70 and a range of possible raw scores from 0-100. The raw score mean is 70; in a normal distribution, the mean is equivalent to a percentile rank of 50 and is in the exact middle of the distribution -if you don't know why this is, go back and review the Statistics section before attempting to understand this question-. In a normal distribution, most of the raw scores are near or at the middle of the distribution; thus, most of the raw scores will be near or at 70. Similarly, the PR score range of 50 to 55 is in the middle part of the distribution, which is to say that most of the raw scores in this part of the distribution will be at or near 70. So the raw score range set by PR 50 to PR 55 will not be wide. Now if you look at a normal curve, you will see that in the high end of the raw score distribution, there is a long tail spread across the bottom. This reflects the fact that there are relatively few high scorers, and the scores of these individuals are spread out -over the length of this tail-. Since the 90 to 95 PR range is in the high end of the distribution, the range of raw scores here will be relatively higher than the range of raw scores in the middle of the distribution. If you chose C, you probably did so based on the fact that the percentile rank distribution is flat. This means that the same amount of people will score between 50 and 55 and 90 and 95. However, the question is not about how many people will score within this PR range. Instead, it's asking about the raw score ranges these PR ranges correspond to. If you didn't understand the above explanation, it might be useful to read it again with the normal curve in front of you. As you're looking at the curve, remember that it is a raw score distribution, and try to approximate where the percentile ranks in the question would be placed on this distribution. If you still don't understand, don't worry too much. As you review this concept and practice with more questions, these things will be come clearer and clearer. Remember that difficult technical content requires repeated review, so you should keep track of those particular concepts you need to review on a regular basis.)

102. Bob, who came from a poor family, was encouraged throughout high school to take vocational classes due to his "low aptitude" scores. Bob ignored this advice and focused on college preparatory courses. After graduating Magna Cum Laude from Harvard Business School, he wrote his old alma mater and asked for a complete copy of his records. Bob's grandmother said, "While you are at it--tell them to burn mine". According to the Buckley Amendment, A. Overall, the school must comply with both requests B. They need to honor Bob's wishes but not his grandmother's C. They need to honor Bob's grandmother's request, but not Bob's D. Then can disregard both requests

A (This question is a little tricky. While they don't literally have to "burn" the records of Bob's grandmother, overall both requests should be honored. According to the Buckely Amendment or the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act, eligible students after age eighteen and their parents have the right of access to their children's educational records and can challenge any content thereof. Also records that are no longer useful or relevant for the students or the educational institution are to be destroyed. Although Bob would not have any legal rights regarding the disposition of his grandmother's records, once the school is made aware of the obsolete records they should destroy them.)

192. The misinformation effect -hindsight bias- may be a form of: A. retroactive interference. B. motivated forgetting. C. repression. D. proactive interference.

A (To answer this question, you need to understand what retroactive and proactive interference are. Retroactive interference occurs when your ability to recall X is difficult because of interference by something you learned after X. The longer the period of time between learning X and being tested on it, the greater the opportunity for retroactive interference. Proactive interference occurs when the ability to recall X is impaired by previously learned material. Proactive interference can occur regardless of how long the interval is between learning X and recalling it. Finally, retroactive and proactive interference are most likely to be a problem for information that is not inherently meaningful, which would be the case for a set of unrelated words. )

171. According to current research, the most predictive variable for adult IQ scores among infant responses would be A. scores on the Bayley Scale of Infant Development. B. scores on the Gesell Development Schedule. C. attention to a visual recognition task. D. auditory orientation.

C (While standard developmental scales don't predict later IQ score, a baby's responses to a visual attention task do. How much time it takes the baby to assimilate a novel stimulus is moderately predictive of later IQ score since, it is hypothesized, the mental functioning involved is similar.)

70. When undertaking token economies with seriously disturbed individuals in mental institutions, one of the major problems with the program's efficacy has to do with A. generalization of behaviors. B. choice of reinforcers. C. exchange ratio. D. reinforcement value.

A (Use of a token economy involves administering secondary reinforcers such as a token each time the person engages in a desired behavior, or taking away a reinforcer when a person engages in an undesired behavior. The tokens can then be exchanged for primary reinforcers such as food or desired activities. Token economies are commonly used in institutional settings. A problem with them is that behaviors learned often fail to generalize to the real world, since tokens are not available in the real world every time we do something right.)

43. Research on psychotherapy outcomes suggest that, overall, culturally diverse groups do about as well as Anglo clients. However, as a specific group, less favorable outcomes are shown by A. African-Americans. B. Asian-Americans. C. Hispanics. D. Anglo-Americans.

A (Using a Global Assessment Scale, Sue -1991- found that patients from all groups show improvement in scores following therapy, but as a group, African-Americans have less favorable outcomes than Asian, Hispanic, or Anglo Americans.)

209. When several individuals are to be compared by a supervisor in a work setting, paired comparisons, as compared to order of merit comparisons, are A. more precise but more difficult. B. less precise but easier. C. more precise and easier. D. less precise and more difficult.

A (When using the paired comparison technique, a rater compares each person with every other person. It's specific but time-consuming, as you can see. The order of merit comparisons has the rater rank order the people in terms of some criterion, such as overall job performance. You can see that it wouldn't take as long as paired comparisons, but wouldn't be as precise either.)

71. If you want to measure whether a weight training program resulted in significant changes in weight and strength for a sample of body builders, the best test to use is: A. MANOVA. B. paired t-tests. C. repeated measures ANOVA. D. chi-square.

A (When you have two dependent variables -weight and strength-, you would need a test that can handle two Dvs. Among the four choices here, only the MANOVA can do that. Some people get stuck because they think the MANOVA requires more than one IV, but that's not the case. The requirement is that there is at least one IV and more than one DV.)

Which NT regulates voluntary movement, sleep-wake cycles and memory? It is involved in Alzheimers a) Dopamine b) Acetylcholine (ACh) c) Norepinephrine d) Serotonin

ACh

Dopamine is implicated in all of these EXCEPT a) Alzheimer's b) Tourettes c) schizophrenia d) Parkinson's

Alzheimer's

Elevated serotonin contributes to all EXCEPT a) schizophrenia b) Anxiety c) Autism d) AN

Anxiety

Low levels of GABA have been linked to

Anxiety

161. Doug comes to see you because he is having problems with his supervisors at work, feeling undervalued and finding it difficult to maintain the new friendships he has made since moving to the area a year ago. You decide a "client-centereD approach with Doug would be most effective. The primary goal of such therapy is: A. development of "awareness" B. congruence between self and experience C. giving up irrational beliefs and ideas D. understanding of underlying intrapsychic conflicts

B ( A primary goal of the client-centered approach to therapy is achieving congruence between self and experience. Eliminating incongruence allows clients to reclaim their "self-actualizing" urges, or tendency to act, develop, and experience life in a manner that is consistent with their self-concept. Key to Rogers's theory is his concept of self, which includes the individual's perceptions of who he or she is, can do, etc. and of his or her relationships with other people, things, and so forth. Individuals are also thought to possess an image of the ideal self, or of the person they want to be. Response A. is associated with Gestalt therapy; C. is associated with Rational Emotive therapy; and D. is associated with psychoanalysis.)

158. The phenomenon in which responses are slow at the beginning of a time period and then faster just before reinforcement happens occurs as a result of: A. variable interval B. fixed interval C. variable ratio D. fixed ratio

B ( A scalloped response pattern, in which responses are slow in the beginning of the interval and faster just before reinforcement happens, is typical of a fixed-interval schedule, in which reinforcement occurs after a set amount of time. In a variable-interval schedule -a.- reinforcement happens after a particular average amount of time. In a variable-ratio schedule -c.- reinforcement happens after a particular average number of responses. In a fixed-ratio -d.- schedule reinforcement happens after a set number of responses. )

180. Individuals with Tourette's Disorder frequently suffer from a learning disorder in school. The most likely cause is: A. expressive language disorder B. attentional and hyperactivity problems C. social problems D. environmental stressors

B ( Although learning problems are associated with the disorder, children with Tourette's Syndrome -TS- as a group have the same range of IQ as the population at large. The etiology of learning disabilities -LD-, as well as the most accurate conceptualization of them as either comorbid disorders or as prevalent, variable components of the broader TS phenotype, has yet to be determined. In a recent study of more than 3100 children with Tourette's, ADHD was the most prevalent comorbid disorder occurring in 58% of subjects. Of those with TS plus learning disabilities, 80% also had a diagnosis of ADHD. The increased rates of ADHD in those diagnosed with TS + LD and the finding that only 11 % of the TS children without ADHD had a diagnosis of LD demonstrates the potential impact of ADHD on LD as a causal factor or as a confounder for the diagnosis of LD. -L. Burd, L., Freeman, R.D., Klug, M.G. and Kerbeshian, J. -2005-. Tourette syndrome and learning disabilities, BioMed Central Pediatrics, 5)

145. A therapist typically conceptualizes cases from a psychodynamic theoretical framework and uses related techniques however uses an empty chair technique in a therapy session. The therapist's use of this technique is consistent with: A. theoretical integration. B. assimilative integration. C. technical eclecticism. D. common factors.

B ( An openness to various ways of integrating diverse theories and techniques characterizes psychotherapy integration. What differentiates psychotherapy integration from an eclectic approach is that in an eclectic approach, a therapist chooses interventions based on what works without considering a theoretical basis for using the technique, while psychotherapy integration attends to the relationship between technique and theory. Assimilative Integration is an approach to psychotherapy integration in which the therapist has a commitment to one theoretical approach but also is willing to use techniques from other therapeutic approaches.)

159. Adapting attitudes and behaviors to fit the expectations of what girls or boys are "supposed to do" within a sociocultural environment is reflective of which gender-role identity development theory? A. Kagan's social learning theory B. Bem's gender schema theory C. Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory D. Freud's psychodynamic theory

B ( Bem's gender schema theory states children develop schema about what is expected of them as girls or boys and then apply those schemas to their own behavior. Because it emphasizes both social, notably sociocultural factors, and cognitive processes, it is classified as a social-cognitive approach. Kagan's social learning theory -a.- focuses on social factors role on the development of gender-role identity, yet focuses primarily on the impact of modeling and reinforcement. Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory -c.- emphasizes the cognitive processes that underlie gender-role identity development. Resolution of the psychosexual crisis of the phallic stage of development is the emphasis of Freud's theory of gender-role identity -d.-.)

64. A serious complication of binging and purging involves a low level of serum potassium that can lead to kidney failure and cardiac arrest. This condition is called: A. hyponatremia. B. hypokalemia. C. hypoglycemia. D. hypercapnia.

B ( Certain behaviors associated with bulimia, namely frequent vomiting and laxative use, can lead to serious medical complications, including electrolyte disturbances. Hypokalemia is the name given to the condition that involves low levels of serum potassium. Hyponatremia -a.- involves less than normal concentration of sodium in the blood; hypoglycemia -c.- is characterized by less than normal amounts of glucose in the blood; and hypercapnia -d.- involves greater than normal amounts of carbon dioxide in the blood. )

51. Programs designed to prevent the development of a physical or mental disorder are described as: A. crisis intervention. B. primary prevention. C. secondary prevention. D. tertiary prevention.

B ( Depending on the goals, prevention programs are frequently described as either primary, secondary, or tertiary. Primary preventions -b.- focus on the prevention of developing a physical or mental disorder. Secondary preventions -c.- have the goal of reducing the prevalence of mental disorders through early identification and intervention. Tertiary preventions -d.- strive to reduce the prevalence of mental disorders by reducing their duration or preventing their recurrence. Crisis interventions -a.- are utilized to reduce the negative consequences of crises.)

140. Perseverating is an indication of damage in the: A. Temporal lobe B. frontal lobe C. parietal lobe D. occipital lobe

B ( Difficulty in interpreting feedback from the environment is one of the most common characteristics of frontal lobe damage. Perseverating or uncontrollable repetition of a particular response, risk taking, lack of social consciousness and non-compliance with rules are examples of this type of deficit. )

127. Which of the following is a non-stimulant medication that alleviates inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms in AD/HD? A. methylphenidate B. atomoxetine C. pemoline D. dextroamphetamine

B ( In November 2002, the Food and Drug Administration -FDA- approved a new medication called atomoxetine -Strattera- specifically for AD/HD. This medication is neither a stimulant nor an antidepressant. It alleviates inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms of AD/HD by affecting specific aspects of the norepinephrine system. This medication is a reuptake inhibitor that acts on the neurotransmitter norepinephrine -which affects blood pressure and blood flow- in the same way that antidepressants act on the neurotransmitter seratonin, allowing the natural chemical to remain longer in the brain before being drawn back up. Because it is a non-stimulant, it may be less objectionable to some families. Nevertheless, it has similar side effects as other medications used for AD/HD. It is a prescription medication, but it is not a controlled substance like a stimulant. This allows medical professionals to give samples and to place refills on the prescriptions. It does not start working as quickly as the stimulants do. Reports suggest that the full effects are often not seen until the person has been taking atomoxetine regularly for 3 or 4 weeks. Methylphenidate -a.-, i.e., Ritalin, Concerta, Metadate, pemoline -c.-, i.e., Cylert -less commonly prescribed because it can cause liver damage-, and dextroamphetamine -d.-, i.e., Dexedrine, Dextrostat, along with amphetamines, i.e., Adderall are four main types of stimulants used for the treatment of AD/HD.)

83. A primary determinant of whether an individual would be more appropriately diagnosed with Borderline Intellectual Functioning -BIF- instead of Mental Retardation is: A. IQ of 71 to 75 with significant deficits in adaptive functioning B. IQ of 71 to 75 without significant deficits in adaptive functioning C. IQ of 71 to 84 with significant deficits in adaptive functioning D. IQ of 71 to 84 without significant deficits in adaptive functioning

B ( Included in "Other Conditions that may be a Focus of Clinical Attention," a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of Borderline Intellectual Functioning is defined as "an IQ in the 71-84 range." Given the somewhat vague definition, BIF may be difficult to distinguish from Mental Retardation. To determine the differential diagnosis, the DSM states that a diagnosis of Mental Retardation may be appropriate when IQ is between 71 and 75 and there are significant deficits in adaptive functioning. Therefore, level of adaptive functioning for people with IQs between 71 and 75 is a primary determinant of whether the appropriate diagnosis is BIF or Mental Retardation. )

36. Lashley's ____________________ predicts that, if certain parts of the cortex are damaged, other parts may assume the functions of the damaged parts. A. principle of mass action B. principle of equipotentiality C. law of effect D. all-or-none principle

B ( Karl Lashley's research on the function of the brain in relation to behavior developed two main principles as a result of his research. The principle of equipotentiality states that certain small areas of the brain can take on the function of larger, related areas that have been destroyed and the principle of mass action -a.-, which states that in many types of learning the cerebral cortex acts as a whole. Thorndike's law of effect -c.- states that feedback either reward or punishment will automatically strengthen or weaken responses. The all-or-none principle -d.- states that the strength of response to a stimulus is not dependent on the strength of the stimulus. For example, if the stimulus is any strength above threshold, the nerve or muscle fiber will either give a complete response or no response at all. -See: Lashley, K.S. Coalescence of Neurology and Psychology. Proceedings of the American Philosophical Society, Vol. 84, No. 4, Symposium on Recent Advances in Psychology -Jun. 30, 1941-, pp. 461-470.)

131. A client presents as cool, calm, and collected however has an underlying rage and by the end of the session, the therapist feels angry. This is an example of: A. parallel process. B. projective identification. C. introjection. D. diagnostic overshadowing.

B ( Projective identification is a defense mechanism in which one or more parts of the self are falsely attributed to another, which are then unconsciously accepted by the recipient, and the projector then identifies with the projected part in the other. Recreating the supervisee-client relationship in the supervisee-supervisor relationship through a combination of transference, countertransference, and projection is referred to as parallel process -a.-. Introjection -c.- involves absorbing the values or behaviors of others, including the larger society, without really understanding or assimilating those values or behaviors. Introjection represents a disturbance in the boundary between self and others — the person does or believes things that are not reflective of a self that is clearly distinct from others in the environment. Diagnostic overshadowing -d.- refers to the tendency to attribute all of a client's emotional, behavioral, and social problems to one salient characteristic instead of considering other, alternative $$$s.)

41. Research on gender differences in judgments of sexual harassment indicate: A. men and women are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment regardless of the severity of the behaviors. B. men and women are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment but only in severe cases. C. men are more likely than women to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment but only in severe cases. D. women are more likely than men to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment regardless of the severity of the behaviors.

B ( Sexual harassment research has consistently found that males and females are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment in severe cases; however, there are significant gender differences in judgments in mild to moderate cases of harassment. Studies have continually found females are more likely than males to rate mild to moderately severe or sexually-ambiguous behaviors as constituting sexual harassment. -See: C. W. Williams et al., An attributional -causal dimensional- analysis of perceptions of sexual harassment, Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 1995, 25, 1169-1183.)

220. An effective behavioral treatment to reduce the symptoms of depression is Structured Learning Therapy -SLT-. SLT contains all of the following except: A. social skills training B. overcorrection C. modeling D. role-playing

B ( Structured Learning Therapy incorporates social skills training, an early approach to the treatment of depression, along with modeling -a.-, role-playing -b.-, skill instruction, and performance appraisal. -See: A. P. Goldstein, Psychological Skills Training: The Structured Learning Technique, New York, Pergamon Press, 1980.)

____________ aphasia is caused by widespread brain injury

Global aphasia

197. A 38 year-old woman is dependent on the prescription pain medications oxycodone and hydrocodone. She is referred to a physician's office for medication-assisted treatment of her opioid addiction. Which of the following is most likely to be administered in the induction phase of treatment? A. methadone B. buprenorphine C. naltrexone D. LAAM -l-alpha-acetyl-methadol-

B ( The Drug Treatment Act of 2000 allows doctors to treat opioid dependence in their practices with FDA-approved opioid medication. In 2002, the FDA approved two medications for use in opioid addiction treatment: buprenorphine monotherapy -Subutex- and a buprenorphine/naloxone combination -Suboxone-. Buprenorphine, an opioid partial agonist, activates receptors to a lesser degree than full agonists -i.e., morphine and heroin- and its effects reach a ceiling effect at moderate doses - not increasing, even with increases in dosage. At low doses, it has enough agonist effect to enable opioid-addicted individuals to discontinue misuse of opioids without experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Under certain circumstances and in high doses, it can block the effects of full opioid agonists and precipitate opioid withdrawal syndrome like an opioid antagonist. Buprenorphine carries a lower risk of abuse, addiction, and side effects than full agonists. Subutex -buprenorphine- is more often used at the beginning of treatment and withdrawal syndrome can be precipitated in individuals maintained on it. Suboxone, containing the opioid antagonist naloxone, -c.- was designed to decrease the potential for abuse by injection and is more often used in maintenance treatment of opiate addiction. Both methadone -a.- and LAAM -l-alpha-acetyl-methadol- -d.- are effectively used to treat opioid addiction however they are not available in practice settings other than Opioid Treatment Programs -OTPs- -i.e., methadone clinics-. -See: Kissin, W., McLeod, C., Sonnefeld, J., & Stanton, A. -in press-. Experiences of a national sample of qualified addictions specialists who have and have not prescribed buprenorphine for opioid dependence. Journal of Addictive Diseases. http://buprenorphine.samhsa.gov/index.html)

110. A score of 85 on the Lie -L- Scale of the MMPI-2 may indicate: A. most Lie -L- Scale items were answered as "true" B. a lack of insight or denial C. similar or identical items were answered in an inconsistent way D. acute psychological distress was experienced while taking the test

B ( The Lie Scale is one of the original MMPI validity scales, which were designed to evaluate test-taking attitudes. A high Lie Scale score may indicate a lack of insight into one's own behavior, denial, an attempt to create a favorable impression, or the tendency to answer items "false." A low Lie Scale score may be the result of answering items as "true" -a.-. Inconsistent responding -c.- is suggested by a high score on the VRIN scale. Acute psychological distress -d.- is associated with an extremely low score on the K -Correction- Scale.)

70. The kappa statistic is used to evaluate reliability when data are: A. interval or ratio -continuous- B. nominal or ordinal -discontinuous- C. metric D. nonlinear

B ( The kappa statistic is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability, or the consistency of ratings assigned by two raters, when data are nominal or ordinal. Interval and ratio data is sometimes referred to by the term metric. )

3. Several demographic characteristics are associated with the risk of divorce. According to the National Survey of Family Growth -2002-, divorce rates are highest for women who: A. have a higher level of education and marry at a younger age B. have a lower level of education and marry at a younger age C. have a higher level of education and marry at an older age D. have a lower level of education and marry at an older age

B ( The likelihood of a marriage ending in divorce varies based on age at marriage, income, education, length of marriage, race and other factors distinguished in the National Survey of Family Growth. The survey data indicates that rates of divorce are highest for women who marry at a younger age, have a lower level of education, had a child when she got married, have a lower income or live in a community with low family income, or have no religious affiliation. -See: Bramlett, M.D. & Mosher, W.D. -2002- Cohabitation, Marriage, Divorce, and Remarriage in the United States. National Center for Health Statistics. Vital Health Statistics, 23-22-.)

43. Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to cause: A. impaired motor coordination B. impaired memory and attention C. alterations in the sleep/wake cycle D. "psychic blindness"

B ( The prefrontal cortex is associated with a variety of cognitive functions, including attention and certain aspects of memory. An individual with damage to the prefrontal cortex may exhibit distractibility, impaired working memory, a reduced attention span, and impaired prospective memory. "Psychic blindness" -d.- is associated with Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is caused by damage to certain areas of the temporal lobes. )

28. Repetitive exercise and hypnosis are therapeutic techniques used to establish the "relaxation response" which involves ____________________________ activity. A. decreased parasympathetic nervous system B. decreased sympathetic nervous system C. increased somatic nervous system D. increased autonomic nervous system

B ( The relaxation response is, in effect, the opposite of the "fight or flight" response to stressful or threatening situations which over time may produce hypertension, cardiac and other problems that may seriously affect health. Herbert Benson and his colleagues -1971- studied the affects of meditation on people with high blood pressure brought on by the everyday stress of living and described a physiological response that decreased sympathetic nervous system activity resulting in decreased metabolism, decreased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased rate of breathing, as well as slower brain waves. This reaction was coined the "relaxation response." Further findings indicate relaxing just 20 minutes each day can be beneficial to both physical and mental health. -See: Benson, H. -2000-. The relaxation response - updated and expanded -25th anniversary edition-. New York: Avon.)

9. A split-brain patient is shown a picture of an object to his left visual field then told to pick the object out from behind a screen. Which of the following will the patient will be able to do? A. pick the object with either hand B. pick the object with only his left hand C. pick the object with only his right hand D. able to say what the object was however unable to pick it with either hand

B ( The visual information about the object crosses in the patient's optic chiasm and ends up in the right hemisphere so when the person is asked to pick out the object he will be able to correctly pick out the object because touch information from the left hand crosses over to the right hemisphere. )

49. The tendency for children to use words to describe a smaller class of objects than adults do is referred to as: A. under-usage B. underextension C. overextension D. misattribution

B ( Underextension is the tendency to use a general word to mean one very specific thing -e.g., "babA meaning one's own bottle or "cat" to describe a pet but not other cats-. In contrast, overextension -c.- refers to children's tendency to use words to describe a broader class of objects than adults do -e.g., calling all animals "cat"-. Source misattributions occur when individuals misremember the time, place, person, or circumstances involved with a memory. Misattribution -d.-, in this context, means ascribing words to a person who did not use them. )

204. Studies examining the predictions of goal-setting theory for work groups suggests that A. having employees work as a team with team goals results in lower productivity than having employees work as individuals with individual goals. B. having employees work as a team with team goals results in higher productivity than having employees work as individuals with individual goals. C. having employees work as a team with team goals results in similar levels of productivity as having employees work as individuals with individual goals, as long as the goals have been consciously accepted by the employees. D. having employees work as a team with team goals results in similar levels of productivity as having employees work as individuals with individual goals, as long as the goals have been determined by the employees.

B (A current emphasis in the I/O literature is on team work, and the increased reliance on teams in organizations is supported by research showing that teams are more productive than individuals. Note that, in some situations, group performance is not as good as individual performance -e.g., in certain types of decision-making-. However, this question is asking specifically about research related to goal-setting theory, so this is the best response. See A. J. DuBrin, Fundamentals of Organizational Behavior: An Applied Approach, Cincinnati, OH, South-Western College Publishing, 1997.)

213. Which of the following is not a factor related to outcome for individuals with autism? A. language ability B. age of onset C. level of intelligence D. severity of disorder

B (A diagnosis of Autism typically occurs between three to five years of age and symptoms of autism generally persist throughout life. In general, good outcomes have been characterized as the achievement of independence and a normal social life. The long-term outcome for individuals with autism is variable with only a small percentage living and working independently as adults. Prognosis findings have been consistent across a broad range of studies, with about 2% attaining normal functioning and approximately 40% high functioning. According to DSM-IV-TR, the best prognostic indicators have been found to be early language skills -presence or absence of speech-, and overall intellectual level. Another factor consistently related to outcome is severity of disorder. IQ alone best predicts only those with worst outcome. The prognosis is strongly influenced by how much usable language the child has acquired by age 7. Other correlated factors include: developmental milestones, social maturity and behavior, time in school and comorbid neuropsychiatric disorders. Factors unrelated to outcome include: birthweight, perinatal complications, age of onset, normal development before onset, SES, late development of seizures, type of treatment, family mental illness. )

66. Complex Partial Seizure Disorder, formerly known as Temporal Lobe Epilepsy, is known to originate in the temporal lobe. However, absence seizures, formerly known as petit mal seizures, are believed to originate in the: A. cerebelum B. thalamus C. occipital lobe D. parietal lobe

B (Absence or Petit Mal Seizures are very brief -30 seconds or less- and are characterized by minimal motor activity and a lack of awareness. Absence seizures usually begin in childhood and most outgrow the condition by adulthood. Researchers believe that absence seizures originate in the thalamus -the central relay station for sensory information going to the cortex-.)

50. Records of psychological services should minimally include all of the following except: A. fees B. process notes C. types of services provided D. plans for treatment interventions

B (According to APA's Record Keeping Guidelines -1993, 48 -9-, 984-986- records should minimally include: identifying data, dates and types of service, fees, any release of information obtained, any assessment, plan for intervention, consultation, summary reports, and/or testing reports. Process notes, which contain intimate details of psychotherapy sessions, including the psychotherapist's personal notes, are generally considered inappropriate for the medical record and are not recommended for minimal inclusion in the Guidelines.)

190. From the perspective of Beck's cognitive-behavioral model, automatic thoughts are A. basic irrational beliefs that underlie depression and other maladaptive behaviors. B. interpretations of a situation that determine one's behavioral and emotional responses. C. central, firmly-held beliefs about the self. D. misinterpretations of situations that reflect some type of cognitive distortion.

B (According to Beck, everyone has automatic thoughts - they're not necessarily associated with cognitive distortions or psychological distress. However, when automatic thoughts provide an unrealistic interpretation of the situation -"This is awful!"-, they may lead to maladaptive behavioral or emotional responses.)

40. Which of the following is true regarding Sleep Terror Disorder in children? A. It usually begins between 4 and 12 years and follows a chronic course B. It usually begins between 4 and 12 years and resolves spontaneously during adolescence C. The frequency of episodes remains constant throughout the course of the disorder D. It occurs three times more often in females than males

B (According to DSM-IV-TR, Sleep Terror Disorder is characterized by "the repeated occurrence of sleep terrors, that is, abrupt awakenings from sleep usually beginning with a panicky scream or cry." It usually begins between 4 and 12 years and resolves spontaneously during adolescence. The frequency of episodes varies over time. Among children it is somewhat more common in males than in females.)

136. Hypnosis involves three factors A. Absorption, regression, dissociation B. Dissociation, absorption, suggestibility C. Suggestibility, dissociation, regression D. Regression, distortion, suggestibility

B (According to Hales, Yudofsky and Talbott, -1944-, hypnosis involves three factors, 1- absorption, whereby the individual is completely engrossed in a central experience, 2- dissociation, whereby the ordinary functioning of consciousness and memory are altered in some way and 3- suggestibility, whereby individuals have a tendency to be less inhibited and restricted while in the trance-like state.)

202. Which of the following is related to minority influence? A. Ambiguity B. Idiosyncracy credits C. Conformity D. Psychological reactance

B (According to Hollander -1985- in order to successfully challenge the majority opinions of a group, a person must first conform to the group in order to establish credibility as a competent insider. By becoming accepted members of the group, we accumulate idiosyncracy credits which are like brownie points.)

221. Relying on the work of Heinz Kohut, a therapist would stress the use of which of the following when working with a narcissistic client? A. coaching B. empathy C. congruence D. interpretation of drives

B (According to Kohut, a consistent lack of parental empathy is what leads to narcissism in a child in the first place. Therefore, to help the narcissistic client develop a healthier, cohesive sense of self, the therapist must provide empathy.)

214. Two women golfers are competing in a golf tournament. Woman A is told by the coach to do her best. Woman B is told by her coach to try to shoot one under par on Holes 1, 4, and 7 and 11, and make par on all the rest. Which golfer is likely to do the best according to Locke? A. Golfer A B. Golfer B C. They'll do the same D. Golfer C, who will not be distracted from the game by verbal directions from a coach

B (According to Locke's 1970 goal-setting theory, goals serve two purposes-they are a basis for motivation and they direct behavior. Goal attainment is maximized when goals are specific and moderately difficult and when frequent feedback about progress toward goal achievement is provided. Locke is associated with Industrial Organizational Psychology, even though this question seems like it could be from the Social Psychology domain. Questions on the EPPP are often "disguiseD in this way.)

24. According to McClelland's Need for Achievement theory, individuals high in Need for Achievement will prefer: A. difficult tasks which bring very high acclaim when achieved. B. moderately difficult tasks which are both attainable and difficult enough to satisfy the person's need to feel a sense of accomplishment. C. easy tasks which are very easy to achieve and therefore provide immediate gratification of the person's needs. D. any task which gives the person the opportunity for recognition and control over others.

B (According to McClelland's theory, three needs underlie motivation: need for achievement, need for power, and need for affiliation. Individuals high in need for achievement tend to seek autonomy, personal responsibility, and recognition for their efforts. Since the need for achievement is balanced against a need to avoid failure, these individuals tend to prefer moderately difficult goals and tasks.)

41. Relapse by smokers who have stopped smoking is most likely to be triggered by the presence of smoking cues in one's surroundings or A. positive affect. B. negative affect. C. inactivity. D. coffee consumption.

B (According to S. Shiffman et al., the most common precipitants of relapse are the presence of smoking cues and negative affect -First lapses to smoking: Within-subjects analysis of real-time reports, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 64-2-, 366-389-.)

114. Which of the following groups has the highest rate of completed suicide? A. Caucasian females B. Caucasian males C. African-American females D. African-American males

B (Across all age groups, Caucasian males have a higher rate of completed suicide that the other groups listed by the choices. However, the rate of suicide in African-American males is rising the fastest.)

101. According to Rutter, the risk patterns that are accurate predictors for child psychopathology are: A. Small family size, parental criminality, marital discord B. Severe marital discord, low socioeconomic status C. Large family size, high socioeconomic status, parental psychopathology D. Low socioeconomic status, small family size

B (Again, getting this question correct involves a willingness to read carefully through the answer choices. As you learned if you took Test 3, Rutter listed low socioeconomic status, severe marital discord, large family size, parental criminality, and placement of children outside the home as predictors of child psychopathology.)

19. Symptoms of separation anxiety usually begin to appear at approximately: A. 5 months B. 9 months C. 12 months D. 18 months

B (Although separation anxiety sometimes begins as early as 5 or 6 months, it typically has its onset at 8 or 9 months of age, rises dramatically until the age of 18 months, and then gradually falls off until it becomes negligible between the ages of 24-36 months. Prior to the onset of separation anxiety, babies do not typically protest when separated from their primary caretakers, even though a number of attachment behaviors develop during this time.)

36. During the 10th psychotherapy session with a client, you realize that your client has recently started dating your best friend. You should: A. refer the client to another therapist B. discuss this with your client immediately C. discontinue your relationship with your friend D. wait and address the problem with your client if a conflict becomes imminent

B (Although the Ethics Code does not specify exactly how to resolve this type of ethical dilemma, it does state, "If a psychologist finds that, due to unforeseen factors, a potentially harmful multiple relationship has arisen, the psychologist takes reasonable steps to resolve it with due regard for the best interests of the affected person and maximal compliance with the Ethics Code" -Ethical Standard 3.05b-. Consistent with the intent of the Code, the best option would probably be to discuss the matter with your client immediately. After discussing it with your client, additional steps, such as referring the client, may be appropriate. )

158. A research study using an ABAB design involves the following elements in sequence: A. treatment, baseline, treatment, baseline B. baseline, treatment, baseline, treatment C. baseline, intervention in setting A, baseline, intervention in setting B D. baseline for group A, treatment for group A, baseline for group B, treatment for group B

B (An ABAB design is a type of single-subject design. It is also an example of a reversal design - a baseline measure of a behavior is obtained -the "A phase-, the behavior is again measured after a treatment is administered -the "B phase-, the treatment is removed or reversed and the behavior is again measured -the second "A-, and the behavior is again measured after the treatment is re-applied -the second "B-. Choices C and D are examples of multiple baseline designs. Multiple baseline designs do not involve withdrawal of treatment, but rather, apply the treatment to multiple settings -multiple baseline across settings- or to the same behavior of different subjects -multiple baseline across subjects-.)

87. According to Piaget, when a child accommodates new information by forming a new schema or modifying an existing one, this results in A. decentration. B. equilibration. C. assimilation. D. symbolic representation.

B (As defined by Piaget, equilibration is a state of cognitive balance. The need for balance is what motivates the individual to assimilate and accommodate new information.)

181. Dementia due to Head Trauma A. is usually progressive in cases of moderate to severe trauma. B. is usually progressive only in cases of repeated head trauma. C. unlike other forms of Dementia, does not usually involve disturbances in executive functions. D. unlike other forms of Dementia, is associated more with deficits in executive functions than with memory impairment.

B (As described in DSM-IV, Dementia due to Head Trauma is usually nonprogressive when it is the result of a single head trauma. If it is progressive, this usually indicates a superimposed condition -e.g., hydrocephalus-.)

Which NT mediates learning and memory? Excessive levels are associated with Huntington's and Alzheimers a) Glutamate b) GABA c) Norepinephrine d) Serotonin

Glutamate

100. A child has been assigned a new legal guardian. His biological parents had a psychological evaluation completed and had received the results. The new legal guardian is requesting a copy of the report. What is the most correct thing to do? A. Get a signed release from the biological parents B. Provide the legal guardian with a copy of the report C. Send the report to the court mediator D. Keep the evaluation on file until the child is emancipated; then forward to him

B (As legal guardian he or she has the right to a copy of the report. The key term is "legal". A court has determined legal access in this case so you as the psychologist only need to be guided by the law.)

151. According to Kohlberg's theory, which of the following would be the best example of conventional morality? A. maximizing individual gains B. support of social standards C. behaving solely in line with one's own conscience D. behaving in such a way as to avoid risk and cost to the individual

B (Conventional morality is the second level of Kohlberg's three levels of moral reasoning. It is between pre-conventional morality, where the behaviors we view as moral are those that result in a reward or avoidance of punishment; and post-conventional morality, where we function according to our own conscience, no matter what the conventional wisdom is. The person at the conventional level supports the social order. He or she believes in that which is approved of by others or by societal standards is moral.)

212. Cross's -1991- Black Racial -Nigresence- Identity Development Model includes the stage called Pre-Encounter. At this stage an African-American prefers a therapist A. of their own race. B. of the Caucasian race. C. of a minority group; but not African-American. D. that is African, but not American.

B (Cross's Identity Development Model includes four stages. The first stage is Pre-encounter in which whites are seen as the ideal, while African Americans are denigrated. The second stage or Encounter stage leads to an interest in developing an African-American identity and a preference for a therapist of one's own race. The third stage -Immersion/Emersion- involves a struggle between old and emerging ideas about race. There is an initial idealization of African-Americans and a denigrating of whites. Toward the end of this stage the person becomes less emotionally immersed and moves toward internalization of a new identity. In the fourth and final stage -Internalization/Commitment-, the individual adopts an African-American world view.)

216. Crystallized functions are considered to be: A. dependent on cultural factors B. dependent on learning and education C. culture-free D. independent of learning

B (Crystallized Intelligence -Gc- is the breadth and depth of a person's acquired knowledge of a culture and the effective application of this knowledge. According to the APA Dictionary of Psychology, crystallized abilities are those abilities "such as vocabulary and cultural knowledge, that are a function of learning and experience in a given culture. Crystallized abilities are believed to depend on physiological condition somewhat less than do fluid abilities; thus they may be better sustained in old age. They are also believed by some to derive from fluid abilities." )

50. Typically, the onset of the SSRIs antidepressant effect begins within a few: A. months B. weeks C. days D. hours

B (Current clinical practice indicates that at least 2 to 3 weeks of continuous SSRI use are necessary for the antidepressant effects to manifest in patients. The results of a meta-analysis conducted by Posternak & Zimmerman -2005-, of 47 double-blind, placebo-controlled trials conducted between 1981 and 2000, found most of the antidepressant effects occurred during the first 2 weeks. Review of the studies, found only 13 cohorts -19.7%- from 8 studies showed a pattern where there was an increased antidepressant effect from weeks 3 to 6 compared with weeks 1 to 3. -See: Posternak, M.A. & Zimmerman, M. -2005-. Is there a delay in the antidepressant effect? A meta-analysis. Journal of Clinical Psychiatry. 66-2-; 148-158.- Additionally, research on the time course of improvement for seven different types of antidepressants, compared to placebo, indicates almost no differences between treatment modalities and found mean values around day 12-14 for improvement and day 18-20 for response. -See: Stassen, H., Angst, J., & Szegedi, A. -2003- How to assess the onset of antidepressant effect: Empirical data on 2788 patients. Pharmacopsychiatry 36:265)

179. Cultural differences and factors have an influence on the manifestation of client symptoms. If a psychologist assumes an Asian client's somatic complaints are really reflective of a mental disorder it is an example of: A. demand characteristics B. diagnostic overshadowing C. the fundamental attribution bias D. self-perception bias

B (Diagnostic overshadowing is a term to describe when a therapist's ability to recognize or consider other symptoms or conditions is "overshadoweD by one aspect of a client's symptoms or condition. Demand characteristics -a.- are unintentional cues in the experimental environment or manipulation that allow participants to guess the hypothesis and, as a result, participants may behave differently than they would under normal conditions. The fundamental attribution bias -c.- refers to the tendency to overestimate dispositional -personality- factors and underestimate situational factors in explaining the behavior of others. Self-perception bias -d.- refers to an individual inferring what their internal state is by perceiving how they are acting in a given situation.)

73. Linehan's dialectical behavior therapy shows promise in the treatment of borderline patients. It involves a combination of treatment modalities that include A. inpatient therapy. B. social skills training. C. family therapy. D. psychotropic medication.

B (Dialectical behavior therapy or DBT consists of outpatient individual therapy, social skills training and follow-up telephone consultations. It also discourages the expression of overt inappropriate affect. Its combination of social skills training -usually done in group therapy settings- and outpatient individual psychotherapy has been found to decrease hospitalization and suicide attempt rates -M. Linehan and C.A. Kehrer, Borderline Personality Disorder, in D.H. Barlow, Clinical Handbook of Psychological Disorders: A Step-by-Step Treatment Manual, New York, Guilford, 1993-.)

130. In late childhood and adolescence, sibling relationships tend to become egalitarian; however, during middle childhood they can best be described as: A. distant and distrustful B. conflicted and close C. abusive and uncaring D. dominant and submissive

B (During middle childhood sibling relationships are characterized by a combination of conflict and closeness. During this period siblings typically fight and experience friction, yet also report having greater warmth and companionship with each other.)

59. The ratio of Major Depressive Disorder in females to males is approximately A. 1:1. B. 2.5:1. C. 5:1. D. 1:2.

B (Estimates of the female to male Major Depression rate range from 2:1 to 3:1. Thus, 2.5:1 is the best answer to this question.)

188. A father brings his 10-year-old son to a psychologist for therapy due to symptoms of depression. The father states that the boy's symptoms began shortly after the parents separated several months ago. The boy is currently living with his father. The father further states that he only wants help for his son and does not want any report or testimony from the psychologist for the divorce proceedings. The psychologist should: A. have both parents sign an agreement that neither will require the psychologist to provide a report or testimony about the child's therapy B. contact the parents' attorneys to clarify the psychologist's role C. refuse to treat the child unless you can evaluate both parents D. provide therapy for the child but do not maintain any records that could be subpoenaed

B (Ethical Standard 10.02-b- states, "If it becomes apparent that psychologists may be called on to perform potentially conflicting roles -such as family therapist and then witness for one party in divorce proceedings-, psychologists take reasonable steps to clarify and modify, or withdraw from, roles appropriately." Although the patient's father has indicated that he does not want a report or testimony from the psychologist, it would be more prudent to clarify the psychologist's role with the attorneys of each of the parents. Having the parents sign an agreement as suggested in "A does imply a clarification of the psychologist's role, but it may not be legally binding or in the child's best interests and is not as good a choice as "B." Choice "C is incorrect because although it is necessary to evaluate all members of a family before making recommendations regarding child custody, in this case, it is therapy that is requested, not a custody evaluation. Finally, "D is incorrect because psychologists must maintain adequate records.)

19. Experimenters find conformity is lowest when the: A. group size is reduced from 15 to 6. B. subject has a "partner" in the group who shares his or her opinion. C. subject is "deserteD by a partner. D. stimuli to be judged are highly ambiguous.

B (Experimenters have found that just having a "partner" in a group liberates an individual to latch on to the partner and defy the wrong majority. Reducing the size isn't correct, since, if anything, reducing the size is likely to increase group cohesiveness and thereby increase conformity. The remaining choices also are incorrect because they would increase the pressure to conform.)

11. Communication-interaction therapy espouses that communication has both a "report" function and a A. Principle of equifinality B. Command function C. Circular model of causality D. Paradoxical strategy

B (Family therapists from the Mental Research Institute in Palo Alto such as Gregory Bateson, Virginia Satir, and Jay Haley described communication as having a "report function" that contains the content or informational aspect of the communication, and the "command function", that is often conveyed nonverbally and exemplifies the relationship between the communicators. The other choices are other concepts from the Mental Research Institute. "Principles of equifinality" refers to the idea that no matter where the system change occurs, the end result is the same. "Circular model of causality" is a concept in their approach that describes a symptom as both a cause and an effect of dysfunctional communication patterns. "Paradoxical strategies" include prescribing the symptom and relabeling, or changing the label a family attaches to a problem in order to change the meaning.)

30. Which of the following aspects of the Type A behavior pattern, is, according to research, most strongly connected to increased risk for coronary heart disease? A. job involvement B. anger and hostility C. need for achievement D. impatience

B (Friedman and Rosenman -1974- described the Type A personality as someone who is competitive, achievement oriented, highly involved in his work, active, aggressive, and urgent about time and meeting deadlines. Originally, it was hypothesized that the Type A behavior pattern -TABP- increases the risk of coronary heart disease -CHD-. However, recent research suggests that some but not all aspects of the TABP increase the risk of CHD. Specifically, hostility, aggression, and )

126. According to Herbert Simon's administrative model, decision-makers in organizational settings typically chose the: A. least expensive choice B. most "satisficing" choice C. best choice after weighing all the alternatives D. worst choice after weighing all the alternatives

B (Herbert Simon earned a Nobel Prize in economics, but was also known for his theories in psychology, computer science -artificial intelligence-, and administration. The one thread through all of his work was his interest in decision-making and problem solving. His "administrative" model maintains that decision-makers cannot always afford to be rational, instead, they must choose the first solution that is minimally acceptable or "satisficing." This is in contrast to another decision making theory, the "rational-economic model" in which decision-makers attempt to find the optimal solution to a problem.)

22. If someone presents with complaints and symptoms including anxiety, irritability, and hypomania, and the diagnosed disorder is not exclusively psychogenic, the most likely non-psychiatric cause would be A. Addison's Disease. B. hyperthyroidism. C. Sleep Apnea. D. Alcohol Amnestic Disorder.

B (Hyperthyroidism, or over secretion of thyroxine by the thyroid gland, is a possible physiological cause of symptoms that resemble generalized anxiety or hypomania.)

205. You have been treating a 14-year-old female for the past year and during her final termination session she reports suicidal intent with a plan. You should: A. attempt to make a no-suicide contract B. immediately contact the parent-s- C. call the police D. not allow the client to leave your office until the risk has passed

B (If a client poses an imminent danger to self, a breach of confidentiality, which could prevent the danger, is ethically and legally justified. This holds true for all clients, regardless of age. When the client is a minor, the most appropriate action would usually be to notify the client's parent-s-. If they are not immediately available, you should then consider calling the police or PET. Attempting to make a no-suicide contract -A- would not be the most prudent option when there is suicidal intent with a plan, especially during a termination session. Not allowing the client to leave your office until the risk has passed -D- is not a realistic option.)

59. In most patients, the earliest signs of Huntington's disease are A. apathy and disorientation to time and place. B. depression and forgetfulness. C. athetosis and chorea. D. slowed movements and resting tremor.

B (In Huntington's disease, personality and cognitive changes often precede motor symptoms. Athetosis and chorea -answer C- are characteristic of this disorder but are late-appearing. Slowed movements and resting tremor -answer D- are characteristic of Parkinson's disease.)

225. The results of the Robber's Cave experiment -Sherif et al., 1961- indicated that: A. emotional reactions are based upon cognitive interpretations of arousal B. superordinate goals reduce hostility between groups C. we prefer to be right rather than happy D. we tend to seek, interpret, and create information that verifies our existing beliefs

B (In Sherif's Robber's Cave Study, children in a summer camp were divided into two groups on an arbitrary basis and made to engage in competition with each other. This engendered intergroup hostility and dislike, which was found to be greatly reduced when a task requiring the two groups to cooperate -on superordinate goals- was introduced. Choice A represents Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion. Choice C is a conclusion of Self Verification Theory. And Choice D exemplifies the confirmatory bias.)

30. Cluster sampling involves A. randomly selecting individual subjects from a larger target population. B. randomly selecting a naturally-occurring group of subjects from a larger target population. C. randomly selecting several naturally occurring groups from a larger population, and then randomly selecting individuals from each group. D. randomly selecting individuals from a larger target population and dividing subjects into groups on the basis of their status on a demographic variable.

B (In cluster sampling, naturally occurring groups of subjects, rather than individual subjects, are randomly selected for participation in research. For instance, if a researcher wants to use elementary school students in an educational study, he or she could randomly choose a school from the schools in his state, and use all the students in that school as participants in the study. That's cluster sampling. A variation of cluster sampling, known as multistage cluster sampling, involves selecting a large cluster -group- and then selecting selectively smaller clusters. For example, the researcher studying elementary school students could randomly select a school district, then randomly select a school from the chosen school district, and then randomly select a classroom from the chosen school. In this case, both forms of cluster sampling would be more practical than the alternative of simple random sampling. That would involve randomly selecting individual elementary school students from across the state.)

157. A test has a reliability coefficient of .90. What percentage of variability among examinees on this test is due to true score differences? A. 100% B. 90% C. 81% D. 50%

B (In most cases, you would square the correlation coefficient to obtain the answer to this question. However, the reliability coefficient is an exception to this rule: it is never squared. Instead, it is interpreted directly. This means that the value of the reliability coefficient itself indicates the proportion of variance in a test that reflects true variance.)

224. A distinguishing characteristic of the Montessori teaching method is A. children are grouped by developmental level rather than by age. B. children are free to select their own learning activities. C. it emphasizes emotional development and academic achievement. D. its focus on group activities and learning experiences.

B (In the Montessori classroom, children are encouraged to select their own activities; the teacher observes the children and assists them when they truly need help. There is very little didactic group teaching. The method is based on the assumption that the child is an active learner whose drive for self-development is aided by an orderly but stimulating environment. Regarding the other choices, "A is incorrect because the Montessori classroom is heterogeneous in regard to both age and developmental level -- older children are viewed as good role models for younger children. Choice "C is not an incorrect statement about the Montessori method, but it is not something that distinguishes it from other educational methods. And contrary to choice "D, critics of the Montessori method have cited its lack of opportunity for group learning experiences as one of its weaknesses.)

123. The mother of a 3-year old has been told her daughter is very gifted. She wants to encourage the child's abilities and asks you, a school psychologist, to assess the girl's IQ score level and suggest a plan for her future education. You should: A. comply with the request. B. comply with the request, but inform the mother that test results at this age are not very valid as predictors of future performance. C. suggest that the test not be given, but agree to help the mother in deciding on the future educational plans for her child. D. inform the mother that there are no standardized valid tests available for children of such a young age.

B (In this case there is nothing wrong with you testing the child and tests are available. But you should also use your knowledge and judgment to counsel the mother about the use of tests for such a young child. While it's true that there is some predictive validity for intelligence tests starting at about 18 months to 2 years of age, you should still tell the mother that many things will determine her daughter's future school performance and that we can't be so sure she will continue as she presently is.)

140. After losing several hundred dollars gambling at the casino, Jack decides to increase the amount he places on each subsequent bet in hopes of making his money back. This decision is best explained by: A. satisficing. B. loss aversion. C. bounded rationality. D. cognitive dissonance.

B (Kahneman and Tversky's -1979- Prospect Theory contains the notion of loss aversion which refers to the tendency to be influenced more by potential losses than potential gains or to base decisions more heavily on the fear of loss than the hope of gain. In contrast to commonly held beliefs that people are adverse to risk and make decisions based on logic, Kahneman and Tversky found that people are adverse to loss, not risk. This explains why gamblers will take riskier and riskier decisions after suffering a loss in hopes of making their money back, that is, to avoid realizing an actual loss. Satisficing -a.- refers to the decision-making style of using the minimal amount of information to reach a "good enough" solution. Bounded rationality -c.- is part of Herbert Simon's -administrative- model of decision making, which proposes that decision makers are not always completely rational in making choices. Instead, time and resources limit their consideration of alternatives, so they tend to consider alternatives only until a satisfactory one is identified. Cognitive dissonance -d.- theory predicts that, when we have two conflicting cognitions -e.g., I like the club but they don't want me"-, we'll be motivated to reduce the tension that this causes by changing one of our cognitions. )

37. According to Beck, a depressed man is most likely to believe that: A. the world is unfair, his future is hopeless, but he is a good person B. he is worthless, his future is hopeless, but the world is just C. he is worthless, his future is hopeless, and the world is unfair D. he is worthless, the world is unfair, but his future is hopeful

C (Depressed people tend to distort their perceptions and interpret events from a negative perspective. Beck referred to the "cognitive triaD which consists of negative thoughts about the self, future, and the world. Choice C best represents the cognitive triad.)

7. Memory for the rules of logic and inference is part of A. procedural memory. B. semantic memory. C. episodic memory. D. read-only memory

B (Long-term memory has been divided into three components: semantic memory, procedural memory, and episodic memory. Semantic memory includes memory for the rules of logic and inference, as well as knowledge about language -e.g., what words mean and how they are used-. Procedural memory includes information about how to do things, such as how to drive a car. Episodic memory contains information about events that have been personally experienced. Read-only memory -ROM- is not part of long-term memory -- it is a computer term.)

150. A man is able to achieve erections during sleep, but, has difficulty achieving or maintaining erections during sexual activities. The most appropriate diagnosis would be: A. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder B. Male Erectile Disorder C. Sexual Aversion Disorder D. Sexual Dysfunction Not Otherwise Specified

B (Male Erectile Disorder is characterized by a persistent or recurrent inability to attain or maintain an erection until completion of sexual activity. This best fits the description in this question. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder -A- is diagnosed when a person has persistently deficient or absent sexual fantasies and desire for sexual activity. Since the question did not indicate that the man in this question lacked sexual desire, we should not assume that to be the case. Although, if a lack of desire was also present, both diagnoses would be given. There also is no evidence of extreme aversion to, or avoidance of, all genital contact with a sexual partner - which eliminates Sexual Aversion Disorder -C-. And Sexual Dysfunction NOS -D- is reserved for sexual dysfunctions that do not meet the criteria for any specific sexual dysfunction.)

78. According to Marlatt's theory of substance dependence: A. a relapse of dependence is likely if the person makes non-dispositional attributions for use following a "slip" -use of a drug after a period of abstinence-. B. substance use is "over-learneD in that it is maintained by itself as well as by multiple cognitive mediators and external reinforcers. C. addictions can be easily extinguished. D. excessive substance use is related to an unresolved need for power.

B (Marlatt's model of substance dependence holds that addicts learn to associate substance use with relief of self-criticism and guilt through a variety of cues and reinforcers, such as advertisements depicting people feeling cheerful when drinking and social occasions in which a carefree attitude is reinforced. In other words, there are a variety of cues and mediators that serve to encourage and reinforce use. Contrary to the person's expectations, however, excessive substance use only exacerbates problems, such as interpersonal or work-related problems. This leads to more self-criticism and guilt, which the person again attempts to relieve by using. In other words, substance use is self-reinforcing -- it is the cause of and the expected solution to the same problems. And it is "over-learneD in that, due to the multiplicity of its antecedents, it becomes a strongly ingrained behavior. You might have gone for choice A, since you probably knew that Marlatt is associated with a theory of relapse prevention that has to do with attributions regarding the reasons for "slips." However, according to Marlatt, a slip is likely to lead to a full-blown relapse when the person makes dispositional attributions for it, such as when the person blames him or herself. Relapse prevention involves teaching the person to make non-dispositional attributions, such as blaming the situation or the nature of the disease. So this question illustrates the importance of reading carefully and processing what you read, rather than relying on the recognition of "buzzwords.")

210. According to Maslow, there are five levels of human needs that are represented in a hierarchical order. The stage that follows physiological needs is: A. order B. safety C. acceptance D. self-actualization

B (Maslow's five basic needs, arranged in hierarchical order of importance, are physiological, safety, social, esteem and self-actualization.)

72. Narcolepsy is associated with A. rigid muscle tone. B. loss of muscle tone. C. decreased REM sleep. D. insomnia.

B (Narcolepsy is characterized by irresistible sleep attacks occurring on a daily basis for at least three months. It also may involve cataplexy, which is a sudden loss of muscle tone, usually in association with intense emotion.)

205. A supervisee begins to unconsciously act toward her supervisor in similar ways as her own client acts towards her. This is an example of: A. Projective identification B. Parallel process C. Transference D. Identification.

B (Parallel process is a phenomenon in clinical supervision where the therapist in training behaves toward the supervising therapist in ways that mirror how the client is behaving toward the therapist in training.)

204. A person, in anticipation of failure, develops explanations and behavioral reactions to minimize ability deficits as possible attributions for the failure. This process is referred to as: A. Self-fulfilling prophecy B. Self-handicapping C. Self-perception theory D. Self-serving bias

B (People engage in self-handicapping strategies in order to avoid an internal attribution for failure. When a person anticipates failure, explanations and behavioral reactions are developed that minimize ability deficits as possible attributions for the failure. Self-fulfilling prophecy -a.- refers to a prediction made about some future behavior or event that modifies interactions so as to produce what is expected. Self-perception theory -c.- is the idea that people observe themselves in order to figure out the reasons they act as they do; people infer what their internal states are by perceiving how they are acting in a given situation. Self-serving bias -d.- refers to a class of attributional biases in which people tend to take credit for their successes and deny responsibility for their failures. )

221. According to Piaget, which of the following underlies cognitive development? A. biological maturation B. biological maturation and environmental stimulation C. social interactions D. changes in the ability to process, store, and retrieve information

B (Piaget proposed that cognitive development is the result of a combination of biological maturation and exposure to appropriate environmental stimuli. An implication of this assumption is that, even when a child is biologically ready for cognitive growth, it will not occur unless the child is also exposed to necessary environmental stimulation.)

14. Reactive Attachment Disorder, Inhibited Type involves A. indiscriminate attachments. B. hypervigilance. C. over-attachment to a primary caretaker and fear of others. D. symptoms of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder in children.

B (Reactive Attachment Disorder occurs in children below the age of 5 and is characterized by disturbed social relatedness. There are two subtypes: inhibited and disinhibited type. This question is about the former, which involves inhibition, hypervigilance, and ambivalent responses in social situations. The other subtype, disinhibited type, involves indiscriminate attachments and sociability -e.g., familiarity with strangers, lack of selectivity in choice of attachment figures-. In both subtypes, evidence of pathogenic care -e.g., disregard for the child's basic physical or emotional needs- must be present before the diagnosis can be made.)

87. Research shows that, of the following, the most accurate predictor of future violence on the part of a patient is A. therapists' judgment. B. past violent behavior. C. psychological test results. D. none of the above; no predictor has been found to yield an above chance level of accuracy.

B (Recent meta-analyses have confirmed that past behavior alone is a better predictor of future violence than clinical judgments. Past behavior is also a better predictor than test results, including multiple predictor batteries developed on the basis of discriminant analysis. Nonetheless, violence predictions that are made by mental health professionals are significantly more accurate than chance.)

160. Brain imaging techniques have identified abnormalities in which areas among people with Tourette Syndrome, Autistic Disorder, and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder? A. frontal lobes and thalamus B. frontal lobes and basal ganglia C. parietal lobes and amygdala D. parietal lobes and thalamus

B (Research has consistently implicated pathology in the basal ganglia and frontal lobes in all three disorders.)

77. Which of the following antidepressants is associated with the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder -ADHD-, enuresis, and decreasing the desire to binge and purge? A. sertraline B. imipramine C. paroxetine D. fluvoxamine

B (Research has shown tricyclic antidepressants -TCA- to be effective in the treatment of anxiety disorders, refractory pain syndromes, reducing binging and purging episodes in bulimia nervosa, and as alternatives to the stimulants in the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Furthermore, the TCA, imipramine, is the drug of choice in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis and for the treatment of cataleptic episodes associated with narcolepsy, along with the TCA clomipramine. Sertraline, paroxetine and fluvoxamine are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors -SSRI-. SSRIs are also effective in the treatment of anxiety disorders, reducing binging and purging episodes, and some types of chronic pain.)

113. Employee creativity is impacted by personal and contextual characteristics. Creativity is diminished by: A. reduced density of work environment B. expecting a critical evaluation of work C. scoring high on a measure of openness to experience D. supportive supervision

B (Research investigating the impact of personal and contextual characteristics on the creativity of employees indicates increasing the physical distance between workers -a.-, providing supportive supervision -d.-, and being informed evaluations will be developmental rather than judgmental has a positive effect on employee creativity. The expectation that one's work will be critically evaluated tends to diminish creativity. Of the five personality factors, openness to experience -c.- has been most strongly related to creativity. See: Shalley, C., Zhou, J., & Oldham, G. -2004-. The effects of personal and contextual effects on creativity: Where should we go from here?, Journal of Management, 30-6-, 933-958.)

154. The best initial strategy for teaching complex motor skills that require speed and accuracy to be successfully performed is to: A. emphasize accuracy over speed B. emphasize speed over accuracy C. emphasize accuracy and speed equally D. emphasize an alternation between speed and accuracy

B (Research on speed and accuracy in learning complex motor skills suggests the best approach is to emphasize speed of performance initially although, to a certain degree, the optimal approach depends on the specific skill. -See: Engelhorn, R. -1997-. Speed and accuracy in the learning of a complex motor skills, Perceptual and Motor Skills, 85, 1011-1017.)

97. Research about job experience with the four day workweek suggests that it is correlated with: A. Satisfaction and productivity B. Absenteeism and satisfaction C. Productivity only D. Satisfaction, but not absenteeism or productivity

B (Research on the effects of the CWW is mixed. Overall however, productivity is usually unaffected, absenteeism usually declines, and job satisfaction tends to increase, especially among younger and lower-level employees.)

129. Michael Rutter, a key figure in the field of developmental psychopathology, notes that parental divorce does not have the same effects on all children. According to Rutter, such differences are related to: A. the child's cognitive understanding of the causes of the divorce. B. the child's early social interactions, especially interactions with his or her parents. C. the nature of the parents' relationship following the divorce. D. the custodial parent's social support and financial status.

B (Rutter and others interested in developmental psychopathology have attempted to identify the factors that account for the continuities and discontinuities in child psychopathology. Rutter has focused primarily on variations in social relationships that act as high risk or protective factors.)

193. A therapist working from the perspective of Minuchin's school of thought would examine a family system in terms of A. multigenerational transmission processes. B. subsystems and boundaries. C. fusion and differentiation. D. communication style.

B (Salvador Minuchin's Structural Family Therapy is based on and extends general family systems theory. The goal is to restructure maladaptive family structures, including family subsystems and boundaries.)

17. The best example of a secondary prevention program is A. a rehabilitation program. B. crisis intervention. C. a community education program. D. Head Start.

B (Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention for a problem in order to reduce its duration and keep it from getting worse. Crisis intervention, suicide hotlines, and screening tests are all examples of secondary prevention.)

128. There is some evidence that hearing impairment in infancy -e.g., due to ear infections- may lead to some degree of persisting impairment in verbal skills and academic achievement even when the hearing deficit has been alleviated. This finding supports the notion of: A. canalization. B. sensitive periods. C. developmental delays. D. preordination.

B (Sensitive periods are times in development when a particular type of experience is necessary for development to occur. In the situation described in this question, a temporary loss of hearing during a sensitive period has had long-term repercussions. See M. Rutter, Continuities and discontinuities from infancy, in J. D. Osofsky -ed.-, Handbook of Infant Development, New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1987.)

166. In applied industrial settings, Maslow's theory has been shown to be: A. applicable for lower-level employees only. B. appropriate for supervisors but not managers. C. applicable across the board. D. not applicable.

D (Maslow's theory, as it applies to workplace settings, has not been supported by research. For instance, the notion that lower level needs, such as pay and job security, cease to be important once they are satisfied has not been shown to be true.)

27. Which of the following is either a symptom of or a requirement for the DSM-IV diagnosis of Separation Anxiety Disorder? A. onset before the age of 2 1/2 B. fear that the attachment figure will die C. symptoms do not persist after the age of 18 D. need for constant attention from the primary attachment figure

B (Separation Anxiety Disorder involves developmentally inappropriate and excessive anxiety concerning separation from home or from those to whom the individual is attached. For a diagnosis to be made, three signs or symptoms must be present, one of which is excessive worry that harm will befall a major attachment figure. Thus, B is the best answer. Contrary to choice A, the onset of the disorder need not be before the age of 2 1/2; in fact, separation anxiety in infancy is considered to be developmentally appropriate. Choice C may have been more difficult to eliminate: Although a diagnosis of Separation Anxiety Disorder requires an onset before the age of 18, symptoms may persist after the person turns 18. An excessive need for attention -choice D- is a commonly associated feature of this disorder, but it is not a core symptom.)

9. Which of the following illustrates the concept of shrinkage? A. extremely depressed individuals obtain a high score on a depression inventory the first time they take it, but obtain a slightly lower score the second time they take it B. items that have collectively been shown to be a valid way to diagnose a sample of individuals as depressed prove to be less valid when used for a different sample C. the self-esteem of depressed individuals shrinks when they are faced with very difficult tasks D. abilities such as short-term memory and response speed diminish as we get older

B (Shrinkage can be an issue when a predictor test is developed by testing out a pool of items on a validation -"try-out"- sample and then choosing the items that have the highest correlation with the criterion. When the chosen items are administered to a second sample, they usually don't work quite as well -- in other words, the validity coefficient shrinks. This occurs because of chance factors operating in the original validation sample that are not present in the second sample.)

99. Jerome and Jamal have significant problems with their peers. However, while Jerome is rejected by his classmates, Jamal is neglected. If Jerome and Jamal change schools, which of the following is most likely to happen? A. Jerome may be better accepted by his new classmates but Jamal will continue to be neglected. B. Jamal may be better accepted by his new classmates but Jerome will continue to be rejected. C. Jerome and Jamal will both be better accepted by their new classmates. D. Jerome and Jamal will both continue to have the same peer problems they had in their old school.

B (Studies looking at the outcomes for rejected and neglected children have found that rejection is more stable than neglect. For example, when rejected and neglected change schools, neglected children may experience improvements in their peer status, while rejected children continue to be rejected by the new peer group.)

72. The California Tarasoff Statute: A. Changed the Ethics Code in Canada and the United States B. Extended the duty to warn clause C. Was necessary as issues implicated by the Tarasoff case account for a majority of forensic cases D. Applies to everyone working in a public setting

B (The California Tarasoff statute gives clinicians explicit guidance about when a duty to act arises and tells clinicians what actions fulfill their duty. The first Tarasoff decision established a "duty to warn," however, the case was reheard several years later and the Tarasoff II decision modified the duty to warn to a "duty to protect." Choice C contradicts the conclusion by Behnke, Preis and Bates in "The Essentials of California Mental Health Law" Norton and Company, 1998, pg. 9 in which they state, "issues implicated by the Tarasoff case and its legal progeny account for a small percentage of forensic cases.")

172. Which of the following appear on Axis V of the DSM IV-TR? A. Personality Disorders B. Global Assessment of Functioning C. Psychosocial and Environmental Problems D. General Medical Conditions

B (The Global Assessment of Functioning -GAF- score ranges from 1-100 -zero indicates inadequate information to use the scale- and indicates the client's overall level of functioning, on a hypothetical continuum of mental health and illness. A score of 100 is superior functioning, and 1 indicates dangerously poor functioning. Personality Disorders -a.- appear on Axis II, Psychosocial and Environmental Problems -c.- appear on Axis IV and General medical conditions -d.- appear on Axis III. )

23. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery? A. It provides information on a range of cognitive strengths and weaknesses. B. It can usually be completed within 45 to 60 minutes. C. It must be administered by a highly trained examiner. D. The results are reflected in a combined score known as the Impairment Index.

B (The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery is a set of tests designed to assess attention, language, memory, abstract thinking, motor speed, and spatial reasoning -A-. The purpose of the test is to provide an overall assessment of brain function. The battery must be administered by a highly trained examiner -C-. The results of each subtest are combined into an Impairment Index -D-. However, contrary to choice B, the battery usually requires 4 to 5 hours to administer.)

143. Psychodiagnostic tests such as the WAIS-III are commonly utilized to assist in the diagnosis of traumatic brain injury -TBI-. Which of the following WAIS-III factor indices is most likely to be impacted by traumatic brain injury? A. Perceptual Organization B. Processing Speed C. Verbal Comprehension D. Working Memory

B (The Processing Speed score is most negatively impacted by traumatic brain injury, especially for individuals with moderate to severe TBI. The Working Memory -d.- score tends to be less adversely affected than the Processing Speed score and Perceptual Organization is less affected than Processing Speed or Working Memory. -See, e.g., D. Fisher et al., WAIS-III and WMS-III profiles of mildly to severely brain-injured patients, Applied Neuropsychology, 2000, 7-3-, 126-132; and P. van der Heijden and J. Donders, WAIS-III factor index score patterns after traumatic brain injury, Assessment, 2003, 10-2-, 115-122.)

80. The best way to make an accurate and reliable diagnosis of Alzheimer's Disease is by way of A. neuroimaging techniques -e.g., CT scan, MRI-. B. a brain autopsy. C. ongoing observation of the patient. D. mental status exam.

B (The key words in this question are "accurate and reliable." There is no laboratory test available which confirms definitively Alzheimer's Disease. Diagnosis of the disorder involves confirming that the diagnostic criteria are met and ruling out other possible causes of the Dementia. Diagnosis is aided by the use of neuroimaging techniques, such as computerized tomography -CT-, magnetic resonance imaging -MRI-, and positive-emission tomography -PET-. Indeed, properly applied diagnostic techniques result in an 85% accuracy rate in diagnosing the disorder. However, at this time, the only way to absolutely confirm the diagnosis is via brain autopsy or biopsy.)

180. Which of the following is not a proposed axis for further study according to the DSM-IV-TR? A. Social and Occupational Functioning Assessment Scale B. Sickness Impact Profile C. Defensive Functioning Scale D. Global Assessment of Relational Functioning Scale

B (The Sickness Impact Profile -SIP- is a quality of life measure used to assess the impact of disease on both physical and emotional functioning. The self, or interviewer, administered items address activities of daily living with the score indicating the level of dysfunction. The higher the score, the greater the level of dysfunction. The Social and Occupational Functioning Assessment Scale, or SOFAS, focuses exclusively on an individual's level of social and occupational functioning, typically the functioning for the current time period. The Defensive Functioning Scale, or DFS, reflects the defenses or coping styles exhibited by an individual at the time of evaluation. The Global Assessment of Relational Functioning Scale, or GARFS, uses a hypothetical continuum, ranging from optimal to dysfunctional, to rate the overall functioning of a family or relationship. It is similar to the DSM-IV Axis V - Global Assessment of Functioning Scale.)

44. Which of the following medications is least likely to cause anticholinergic symptoms? A. Imipramine B. Fluoxetine C. Amitriptyline D. Venlafaxine

B (The anticholinergic effects, which include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention and tachycardia, are much more likely to result from the tricylics or heterocyclics than the SSRI's. Of the choices listed only Fluoxetine -Prozac- is an SSRI. Imipramine -Tofranil- and Amitriptyline -Elavil- are tricyclics and Venlafaxine -Effexor- is a heterocyclic.)

213. Which of the following structures develops last? A. cerebellum B. frontal lobe C. occipital lobe D. temporal lobe

B (The brain develops in a predictable sequence from the least complex functions to the most complex. Although many areas of the brain are nearly fully developed at birth, the frontal lobe, which is responsible for higher-level thinking, motor behavior, and expressive language does not fully develop until young adulthood. The prefrontal cortex, located at the most anterior part of the frontal lobe, is responsible for most executive functions, and is the very last area of the brain to develop.)

223. The cingulate cortex is most associated with: A. spatial memory B. emotions and motivation C. somatosensory processing D. balance and posture

B (The cingulate cortex is part of the limbic system and is believed to play an excitatory role in emotions and in motivating behaviors. It's also known as the satisfaction center - mediating feelings of satisfaction following eating and sex.)

174. The ability to unconsciously monitor the contents of one conversation while consciously focusing on another is referred to as: A. change blindness B. the cocktail-party phenomenon C. exogenous attention D. endogenous attention

B (The cocktail-party phenomenon is a characteristic of selective attention which indicates that even when you are intently focusing on one conversation and unaware of another, the mention of your name will immediately get your attention. Change blindness -a.- refers to difficulty perceiving major changes to unattended-to parts of a visual image when the changes are introduced during brief interruptions in the presentation of the image -See: Rensink, R.A. -2005-. Change Blindness. In L. Itti, G. Rees, and J.K. Tsotsos -eds-. Neurobiology of Attention. -pp. 76-81-. San Diego, CA: Elsevier.- Exogenous attention -c.- refers to the automatic attraction of attention, due to, among others, the sudden appearance of a stimulus. This is a typical bottom-up process, controlled by external stimulus presentation, and not under subjects' control. Endogenous attention -d.- refers to a typical top-down, attentional effort under control of the individual, for example, when attention is being focused on the basis of instructions.)

49. For children of divorce, frequent visitation with the noncustodial father usually results in: A. fewer behavioral problems among boys but not girls and higher academic achievement among girls but not boys B. fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement if the noncustodial father is supportive and authoritative C. fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement regardless of the characteristics of the noncustodial father D. fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement regardless of the parent's level of conflict

B (The effects of visitation on children's adjustment following divorce are dependent upon several factors, including the quality of the relationship between the divorced parents and certain attributes and behaviors of the noncustodial parent. Specifically, frequent visitation with the noncustodial father has been found to result in fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement, especially in boys, when the father was supportive, authoritative, and lacked any significant problems in adjustment, and when the child was not exposed to high levels of conflict between the parents See: E. M. Hetherington, An overview of the Virginia Longitudinal Study of Divorce and Remarriage with a focus on early adolescence, Journal of Family Psychology,7-1-, 1993, 39-56)

214. Someone advocating an emic rather than an etic approach to cross-cultural psychology would argue that the study of a culture A. should be undertaken from a detached and objective position. B. should be undertaken from within the culture itself. C. should involve a comparison across different cultures. D. should use the history of the culture being studied as a reference point.

B (The emic/etic distinction was first made by an anthropologist named Pike in 1954 and has since been applied to cross-cultural psychology. The etic approach to the study of a culture involves studying it from the outside, using universally accepted means of investigation. The emic approach, by contrast, involves studying the culture from the inside and trying see it as its own members do.)

18. Standardized ratings of adaptive behavior, such as the Adaptive Behavior Scale and the Vineland, are completed by caretakers, teachers, trained observers, etc., and measure: A. abilities and competencies. B. competencies, but not necessarily abilities. C. abilities, but not necessarily competencies. D. neither abilities nor competencies.

B (The idea behind these rating instruments is that we are determining what the person actually does in an average, expectable environment. That is, what his or her competencies are: can he get dressed by himself, can she eat appropriately, does he engage in conversation when addressed, etc.?)

12. Recent meta-analyses of the research on work-family conflict suggest that it is: A. only a problem for married employees. B. related more to job satisfaction for men than for women. C. related to job satisfaction but not life satisfaction. D. related more to life satisfaction for women than for men.

D (Meta-analyses indicate that work-family conflict has an impact on job satisfaction and life satisfaction for both men and women. However, there is some evidence that it's effects for women may be greater, especially in terms of life satisfaction.)

131. Which of the following forebrain structures are located around the brain stem and are important for motivated and emotional behavior? A. basal ganglia B. limbic system C. tegmentum D. reticular formation

B (The limbic system is a set of structures controlling motivated and emotional behaviors such as eating, drinking, sexual behavior and aggression. Main structures of the limbic system include the olfactory bulb, the hypothalamus which regulates motivational behaviors, the pituitary gland which controls the timing and amount of hormone release, and the hippocampus which is associated with learning and memory. The basal ganglia -a.- codes and relays information associated with the control of voluntary movement. The tegmentum -c.- is one of two regions of the "midbrain" and contains the substantia nigra which is part of the brain's sensorimotor system. The reticular formation -d.- is a group of nerve fibers located inside the brainstem which controls sleep, arousal, and attention. )

156. The best prognostic indicator for individuals with Autistic Disorder is: A. severity of stereotyped behaviors B. early language ability C. level of impairment in social interaction D. presence of symptoms prior to 3 years of age

B (The long-term outcome for autism is variable, however, only a small percentage of individuals with the disorder go on as adults to live and work independently. According to DSM-IV-TR, the best prognostic indicators have been found to be early language skills and overall intellectual level. Choice D can be eliminated because a diagnosis requires symptoms to be present prior to 3 years of age.)

85. Approximately what percent of women experience full-blown postpartum -clinical- depression? A. 1 to 5%. B. 10 to 20%. C. 20 to 30%. D. 30 to 40%.

B (The majority of women experience some depression following childbirth but, for most, these symptoms are mild. For about 10 to 20% of women, symptoms are sufficiently severe to qualify for a diagnosis of Major Depression.)

199. Differences in communication style can act as a barrier in cross-cultural counseling. For example, some cultures have a high-context style, while others are more low-context. Which of the following is true about high-context communication and culture? A. The communication found in high-context cultures reflects an emphasis on rules of law and procedures. B. People belonging to high-context cultures rely heavily on nonverbal cues when communicating with others. C. People in high-context cultures make extensive use of elaborative codes in their speech. D. High-context communication changes rapidly and easily.

B (The notions of high- and low-context communication were introduced by Edward T. Hall, the author of The Silent Language -1959- and The Hidden Dimension -1969-. In the United States, the communication style of the Anglo majority is low-context, but many racial/ethnic minorities -e.g., Latino, Asian, African-American- make use of a high-context style. High-context communication is based on nonverbal language. Low-context communication on the other hand is based upon the verbal part of messages.)

42. The appropriate kind of validity for a test depends on the test's purpose. For example, for the psychology licensing exam: A. construct validity is most important because it measures the hypothetical trait of "competence." B. content validity is most important because it measures knowledge of various content domains in the field of psychology. C. criterion-related validity is most important because it predicts which psychologists will and will not do well as professionals. D. no evidence of validity is required.

B (The psychology licensing exam is considered a measure of knowledge of various areas in the field of psychology and, therefore, is essentially an achievement-type test. Measures of content knowledge should have adequate content validity.)

196. When constructing an achievement test, which of the following would be useful for comparing total test scores of a sample of examinees to the proportion of examinees who answer each item correctly? A. classical test theory B. item response theory C. generalizability theory D. item utility theory

B (The question describes the kind of information that is provided in an item response curve, which is constructed for each item to determine its characteristics when using item response theory as the basis for test development. -Note that there is no such thing as "item utility theory.")

61. A reason why the rational-economic model of decision-making usually does not prove viable in an organization is that A. it allows for the consideration of a limited number of options. B. it places too many demands on the individual and the organization. C. it arouses resentment in organization members who are excluded from the decision-making process. D. humans are irrational and emotional by their nature.

B (The rational-economic model assumes that decision-making involves a rational process in which all alternatives are considered and the best possible decision is eventually made. The model requires that decision-makers obtain information about and consider all possible alternatives before making a decision. This requirement places an inordinate demand on the people involved. Thus, in the real world, decisions are usually made based on the information that is available given restraints of resources such as time, money, and personnel.)

75. Job commitment has the highest correlation with A. job satisfaction. B. absenteeism and turnover. C. productivity. D. quality of work.

B (The research on job commitment, or the degree to which a person identifies with an organization and is willing to work to help the organization reach its goals, suggests that it has a moderate to strong negative correlation with absenteeism and turnover. In this respect, it is similar to job satisfaction, which also is more highly correlated with absenteeism and turnover than with other variables -such as productivity- typically studied in the organizational psychology literature.)

219. Which of the following correlation coefficients is used to assess convergent validity: A. heterotrait-monomethod B. monotrait-heteromethod C. heterotrait-heteromethod D. monotrait-monomethod

B (The response choices make up a multitrait-multimethod matrix, a complicated method for assessing convergent and discriminant validity. Convergent validity requires that different ways of measuring the same trait yield the same result. Monotrait-heteromethod coefficients are correlations between two measures that assess the same trait using different methods; therefore if a test has convergent validity, this correlation should be high. Heterotrait-monomethod and heterotrait-heteromethod both confirm discriminatory validity, and monotrait-monomethod coefficients are reliability coefficients.)

79. According to the results of meta-analyses, which of the following statements regarding gender and leadership style is true? A. Men tend to use more of a participatory leadership style, while women tend to use more of an autocratic style. B. Women tend to use more of a participatory leadership style, while men tend to use more of an autocratic style. C. Men tend to use more of an autocratic style of leadership, but no general statements about women's typical leadership style can be made. D. There are no overall differences between the sexes in terms of leadership style.

B (The results of meta-analyses suggest that there are slight but statistically significant overall differences between men and women in leadership style. Specifically, women tend to adopt a more democratic or participatory leadership style, characterized by a greater concern with maintenance of interpersonal relationships and task accomplishments. Men, on the other hand, tend to adopt a more autocratic style.)

58. An individual taking clozapine begins exhibiting symptoms of muscle rigidity, tachycardia, hyperthermia, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysfunction. In this case, the best course of action would be to: A. reduce the dose gradually until the symptoms are alleviated B. stop the drug immediately and administer electrolytes and fluids C. switch to a traditional antipsychotic drug D. check to see what other drugs the patient is taking since clozapine does not produce these symptoms

B (The symptoms listed are characteristic of neuroleptic malignant syndrome -NMS-, which is a rare, but serious and potentially lethal syndrome that can result from the use of any neuroleptic or antipsychotic drugs. The syndrome commonly develops within the first 2 weeks of treatment in most cases however it may develop any time during drug therapy and can also occur in people taking anti-Parkinsonism drugs known as dopaminergics if those drugs are discontinued abruptly. All antipsychotics, typical or atypical, may precipitate the syndrome although potent neuroleptics -e.g., haloperidol, fluphenazine- are more frequently associated with NMS. Other agents associated with NMS include prochlorperazine -Compazine-, promethazine -Phenergan-, clozapine -Clozaril-, and risperidone -Risperdal- as well as non-neuroleptic agents that block central dopamine pathways such as metoclopramide -Reglan-, amoxapine -Ascendin-, and lithium. Generally, intensive care is needed. The neuroleptic or antipsychotic drug is discontinued, and the fever is treated aggressively. A muscle relaxant may be prescribed. Dopaminergic drugs, such as a dopamine agonist, have been reported to be useful.)

162. Narcissistic, Borderline, and Histrionic Personality Disorders share in common which of the following characteristics? A. irresponsibility and impulsivity B. affective instability C. recurrent suicidal threats D. a grandiose sense of self

B (The three Personality Disorders listed are all characterized by dramatic, emotional, and/or erratic behaviors. Affective instability is the characteristic shared by all three disorders. Impulsivity and recurrent suicide threats are characteristics of Borderline Personality Disorder only; and a grandiose sense of self describes Narcissistic Personality Disorder, but not the other two disorders -although both do involve disturbances in the sense of self-.)

26. All of the following are generally considered to be characteristic of brief psychotherapy, except: A. time limited therapy B. lack of theoretical orientation C. effective for acute symptoms D. encourages the development of a positive transference between the client and the therapist.

B (There are many different approaches to brief therapy including psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioral, and eclectic to name a few; however, brief therapy is always based on theory. Brief therapy, as its name implies, is time limited and effective for acute symptoms. A positive transference is also generally considered to be essential to the success of brief therapy.)

173. In terms of interviews as selection techniques, which of the following is most consistent with the research? A. Panel interviews generally have the highest levels of validity, and they are especially valid when an average -versus consensus- rating is derived. B. When interviewers are given biodata information about an interviewee prior to the interview, interviewers give less credence to interview information when the biodata is not supportive of a decision to hire than when the biodata is very supportive of a decision to hire. C. Although the research is inconsistent, the best conclusion about interviews is that future-oriented -situational- interviews are more valid than past-oriented -behavior description- interviews regardless of whether the interview is structured or unstructured. D. One of the difficulties with interviews, even when they are structured, is that they are highly susceptible to gender biases, especially when the interviewee and the interviewer are of different genders.

B (There is some evidence that interviewers place less importance on interview information when biodata is not very favorable and more importance when it is supportive of a hiring decision. Apparently, a good interview cannot make up for a bad history, but a good history can be supported or canceled out by the results of the interview.)

88. An individual who produces normal sounding speech that makes little or no sense and is usually unaware of this deficit is most likely to have damage in the: A. cingulate sulcus B. temporal lobe C. corpus callosum D. frontal lobe

B (This is a description of Wernicke's aphasia, also known as receptive or fluent aphasia, which can be caused by damage to Wernicke's area in the temporal lobe.)

155. According to recent meta-analyses of child psychotherapy outcome studies, which of the following statements is most true? A. There are no differences between the effectiveness of behavioral and non-behavioral interventions in the treatment of children. B. Girls respond better to psychotherapy than boys, with adolescent girls responding best. C. Girls respond better to psychotherapy than boys, with younger girls responding best. D. At all age levels, boys respond better to psychotherapy than girls.

B (This is one of the many areas where the results of research are contradictory and somewhat controversial. However, the most recent meta-analyses of research in this area have found that across treatment approaches, girls respond better than boys, with adolescent girls responding best of all. This is somewhat contradictory to earlier research, which found that younger children respond better than older children. Because the findings of research sometimes contradict each other, it can be frustrating to decide which is the best answer to questions such as these. Of course, you'd want to find an answer that is consistent -or not inconsistent, at least- with the results of all the research. However, if such a response is not available, you should go with the results of more recent research.)

3. You are a small-town psychologist in a rural area and a client comes in and states that she is depressed and is having headaches. She has babysat with your child several times over the last year. She would like you to give her biofeedback sessions. You should first: A. Complete the biofeedback treatment and not ask her to babysit in the future. B. Refer her to her family physician C. Refer her to a psychologist in another town for therapy; it will be OK for you to complete the biofeedback sessions D. Refer her to a biofeedback specialist in another town

B (This question is more about an awareness of your limitations than it is about a dual relationship. The first step, whether you decide to take the case or not, should be to refer her to her family physician to rule out medical concerns.)

104. Herbert Simon's decision-making model suggests that decision makers A. consider all alternatives and then pick the best one. B. consider alternatives only until they find one that seems acceptable. C. consider only those alternatives that have a 50% or better chance of success. D. rely more on their affective than cognitive reactions when choosing an alternative.

B (To answer this question, you have to have the name Herbert Simon linked with the bounded rationality -administrative- model of decision making, which proposes that decision makers are not always completely rational in making choices. Instead, time and resources limit their consideration of alternatives, so they tend to consider alternatives only until a satisfactory one is identified.)

96. The basic requirements of a token economy are: A. stimulus sensitization, choice of tokens, rate of exchange. B. target behaviors, choice of reinforcers, rate of exchange. C. goal setting, staff cooperation, choice of reinforcers. D. target behaviors, choice of tokens, primary reinforcers.

B (To institute a token economy program, you need to know the behaviors you want to change -the target behaviors-. You also need to know what is reinforcing for the client -choice of reinforcer-. For a hospitalized schizophrenic, it might be walking around; for a child, it might be a candy treat. You also need to know the relationship between token and the reinforcer -rate of exchange-; that is, how many tokens will purchase the reinforcer.)

176. If you are interested in determining whether the relationship between arousal and performance assumes a linear or a non-linear shape, the best statistical analysis to use would be A. multiple regression analysis. B. trend analysis. C. logistic regression. D. principal components analysis.

B (Trend analysis is a statistical technique used to determine the trend or shape that best describes the relationship between two variables. The technique basically involves collecting data on two variables and running statistical analyses to determine what trend or trends -e.g., linear, U-shaped- are significant. For example, in studying the relationship between arousal and performance, one could study 100 students and collect data on how aroused they are and how well they perform. Then, one could run a separate analysis for different types of trends and see which receives the strongest support.)

216. Which of the following statements is most consistent with Troiden's -1989- model of gay and lesbian identity development? A. Identity confusion and identity assumption begin somewhat earlier for females than males, but identity commitment begins earlier for males than females. B. Identity confusion, identity assumption, and identity commitment begin somewhat earlier for males than females. C. Identity confusion, identity assumption, and identity commitment begin somewhat earlier for females than males. D. There are no gender differences in the age of onset for homosexual identity development.

B (Troiden's -1989- model of homosexual identity development describes four stages: Sensitization, identity confusion, identity assumption, and identity commitment. Sensitization begins before puberty and consists of homosexual feelings or experiences without an understanding of them in terms of self-identity. Identity confusion, which usually develops in adolescent males around 17 years and in females around 18 when they realize that they may be homosexual. During identity assumption, the individual comes out as a homosexual - typically from 19-21 years for males and 21-23 for females. Identity commitment is characterized by the individual adopting a homosexual lifestyle - which usually occurs from 21-24 years for males and 22-23 for females The formation of homosexual identities, Journal of Homosexuality, 17-1/2-, 43-73.)

116. All of the following are measures of variability except: A. variance B. standard error C. range D. standard deviation

B (Variability represents the amount of difference found in responses from a population or sample on a topic being investigated. Variance -a.-, range -c.-, and standard deviation -d.- all reflect the variability in the data. Standard error -of measurement- is not a measure of variability. It is a statistic indicating the amount of difference in results that is accounted for by flaws or "noise" in the instrument used to measure a variable.)

106. In the last session, your gorgeous new client complimented you on how nice you look in your red outfit. You noticed you were very happy before this session-you even caught yourself singing, "Oh What a Beautiful Morning" while looking in the mirror to do a final 'visual check" before seeing your client in. Ethically, A. You need to cancel this session B. You need to consult with a colleague C. You need to behave more appropriately D. You need to get out more

B (While no Ethical Standards have been violated at this point; there is a strong indication that you are experiencing some type of "extra attraction" toward this client. You need to seek consultation and determine how to process and handle your countertransference. Cancelling the session may not be in the client's best interest.)

150. In the last two decades, the greatest increase in suicide rates has been among those A. under the age of 15. B. aged 15 to 24. C. aged 35 to 44. D. aged 65 to 74.

B (While suicide rates have been increasing for adolescents and young adults and for older adults, the increase is greatest for the younger-aged group. -See S. J. Blumenthal and D. J. Kupfer, Suicide Over the Life Cycle, Washington, DC, American Psychiatric Press, 1990.)

144. A Performance IQ score that is 15 points higher than the Verbal IQ score on the WAIS-III is suggestive of all of the following except A. learning disabilities. B. low socioeconomic status. C. depression. D. antisocial behavior.

C (A Verbal-Performance IQ discrepancy on the Wechsler test is considered significant when it is 12 points or more. There are a number of reasons why the Performance IQ may be higher than the Verbal IQ. The factors listed in answers A, B, and D may account for a higher Performance IQ, while depression -answer C- is a possibility when the Verbal IQ is higher.)

215. Differing locus of control and locus of responsibility combinations yield the four worldviews described by Sue and Sue -2003-. Mainstream American culture would best be characterized by an: A. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility B. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility C. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility D. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility

B (Worldview refers to the manner in which people perceive, evaluate and react to encountered situations. Sue and Sue describe mainstream American culture "as the epitome of the individual-centered approach that emphasizes uniqueness, independence and self-reliance" -p.277-. This is characterized by an internal locus of control and locus of responsibility in Sue, D.W. & Sue, D. -2003-. Counseling the culturally diverse: Theory and practice. 4th edition. New York: John Wiley.)

121. You are a small town psychologist in private practice and a client has written a letter to the Psychology Board complaining that you have a very unprofessional staff. The Board has now written you to inform you of this matter. You should: A. Discipline your staff B. Respond to the Board C. Call the client and let them know that you will make the appropriate changes with your staff D. Refer the client to a psychologist in another town

B (You must respond to the Board. To not do so is itself an ethical violation. While it is possible that this is a clinical issue between yourself and your client it is no longer in the therapeutic realm. Your client has gone to an outside source and that source is concerned enough to begin a preliminary investigation.)

188. R2 is the: A. coefficient of stability B. coefficient of multiple determination C. coefficient of internal consistency D. silver character on "Star Wars"

B (You probably had to take a guess on this one. Nevertheless, you now know that R2 is known as the "coefficient of multiple determination." It is a correlation coefficient like the Pearson r. However, uppercase "R" is a multiple correlation coefficient, which is used when there are multiple predictors. Like the Pearson r, the multiple correlation coefficient can be squared -R2-, which indicates the percent of variance in the criterion explained collectively by all of the predictors. If you chose D, you should know that the correct name for the silver "Star Wars" character was "R2-D2.")

196. As a successfully licensed psychologist, you are supervising your first intern. You need to A. inform your intern that he should use your name as a pseudonoym. B. inform your intern that he needs to let his clients know he is in supervision. C. let his clients know his limitations as a clinician. D. have the intern get informed assent from the clients; you are responsible for informed consent.

B (Your intern needs to let his clients know his professional status, just as you as a licensed psychologist would explain your own status. According to Standard 10.01-c- "When the therapist is a trainee and the legal responsibility for the treatment provided resides with the supervisor, the client/patient, as part of the informed consent procedure, is informed that the therapist is in training and is being supervised and is given the name of the supervisor." Your intern is responsible for getting informed consent, not assent -answer D- from the clients.)

________ is a type of absolute measure which is developed by the supervisors who use them and therefore reduce rater biases a) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale b) Paired comparison c) forced distribution d) criterion measure

BARs

Individuals with ________ aphasia speak slowly with poor articulation and exhibit anomia-can understand what you're saying but expressive problems

Broca's aphasia

This area of the frontal lobe is the major motor speech area

Broca's area

77. The "revolving door" phenomenon of deinstitutionalizing psychiatric patients refers to: A. placing patients into different facilities, such as halfway houses, as symptomology changes B. releasing patients to aftercare clinics for psychiatric services and community programs for rehabilitation services. C. required readmission to psychiatric hospitals. D. patients seeking services and support through community outreach programs only when symptoms increase.

C ( Despite the continued popularity of policies for deinstitutionalization, research indicates that up to 80 percent of those released are readmitted within two years of discharge. Readmission rates have been attributed to lack of support in the community, inadequate coordination between the community programs and the hospitals, poor psychiatric follow-up, and a lack of governmental support and funding. Aggressive community outreach programs have shown to be effective when they are well-staffed and well-financed.)

6. The term "group polarization" refers to the tendency of groups to make decisions that are A. more risky than those that might be made by individual members. B. more conservative than those that might be made by individual members. C. more risky or more conservative than those that might be made by individual members. D. more illogical than those that might be made by individual members.

C (A group's decisions tend to be more extreme -in one direction or the other- than those that would be made by individuals in the group acting alone. This phenomenon is referred to as group polarization. One explanation for group polarization is that group members are more willing to support extreme decisions because, as group members, they won't have to take as much personal responsibility for their decisions as they would if they were acting alone.)

91. A set of past graduate students are divided into two groups by a doctorate admissions committee. One group consists of students who finished the program in five years or less, the other consists of those who did not. Based on undergraduate grade point average and GRE score, which of the following could be used to predict successful completion of the graduate program? A. MANOVA B. Structural equation modeling C. Discriminant function analysis D. Cluster analysis

C ( Discriminant function analysis -DA- is used to determine which continuous variables discriminate between two or more naturally occurring groups, or provide insights into how each predictor -e.g., grades, GRE score- individually and/or in combination predicted completion or non-completion of a graduate program. In DA, the independent variables are the predictors and the dependent variables are the groups. In contrast, in MANOVA, the independent variables are the groups and the dependent variables are the predictors. A multivariate analysis of variance -MANOVA- -a.- is used to analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale. Structural equation modeling -b.- is a technique used to evaluate or confirm the cause-and-effect or hypothesized relationship between both measured and latent variables. Cluster analysis -d.- is a method for grouping objects of similar kind into respective categories. It can be used to discover structures in data without providing an explanation/interpretation. )

34. A child's ability to maintain a mental picture of a toy even after it is removed is called: A. flashbulb memory B. method of loci C. eidetic imagery D. sustained attention

C ( Eidetic imagery, or photographic memory, is associated with improved ability to memorize information and tends to be more common in children. Another strategy for improving recall using visual images, is the method of loci -b.-, which involves associating items to be remembered with mental images of places or specific items. This is useful for recalling information in a specific order. Flashbulb memory -a.- describes vivid, detailed memories of emotionally-charged or surprising events. Sustained attention -d.- is the ability to direct and focus cognitive activity on specific stimuli over an extended period.)

55. Hypoglycemia may be a primary condition, a complication of another disorder or a consequence of certain drugs. Hypoglycemia is the result of: A. dehydration B. excessive salt intake C. low levels of blood glucose D. high levels of blood glucose

C ( Hypoglycemia is an abnormally low level of blood glucose -sugar- that reduces the brain's ability to function properly. Symptoms include headache, dizziness, sweating, impaired concentration, confusion, clumsy or jerky movements, weakness, and, in extreme cases, convulsions or a loss of consciousness. Hypoglycemia may be a complication of diabetes, severe liver disease, insulinoma -a pancreatic tumor that produces insulin-, or other disorder or a consequence of using certain drugs. Dehydration -a.-, or too little water, has symptoms such as thirst, fatigue, irritability, muscle weakness or cramps, headache, dizziness, nausea, forgetfulness, confusion, and, in severe cases, diminished consciousness, lowered blood pressure, and a rapid, feeble pulse. High blood pressure may result from excessive salt intake -b.-.)

85. A psychoanalytic therapist would attribute an anxiety disorder to: A. denial of negative impulses B. primitive fantasies of aggression C. failure of the defensive function of the ego D. a narcissistic injury in early life

C ( If you considered the purpose of the defense mechanisms -to reduce anxiety-, this question was pretty easy. A psychoanalytic therapist would associate response -a.- with a passive-aggressive character; -b.- with psychosis and -d.- with a depressive character.)

181. The purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to facilitate interpretation of the factors. Rotation: A. alters the factor loadings for each variable but not the eigenvalue for each factor B. alters the eigenvalue for each factor but not the factor loadings for the variables C. alters the factor loadings for each variable and the eigenvalue for each factor D. does not alter the eigenvalue for each factor nor the factor loadings for the variables

C ( In factor analysis, rotating the factors changes the factor loadings for the variables and eigenvalue for each factor although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same.)

53. 15 year old Susan was initially diagnosed with Bulimia-Nervosa -Purging Type-. Her self-evaluation is unduly influenced by her body shape and weight. She worries about gaining weight, has been binging and purging on a daily basis for almost a year and her weight has steadily dropped to less than 85% of a minimally normal level. Her therapist reassesses Susan's diagnosis. The salient feature to consider in the differential diagnosis of Anorexia-Nervosa -Binge-Eating/Purge Type- is her: A. fear of gaining weight or getting fat B. cognitive distortions associated with body image C. continuation of binging and purging despite weight loss D. denial of seriousness of current body weight

C ( Individuals with Bulimia-Nervosa, unlike those with Anorexia-Nervosa, Binge-Eating/Purge Type, are able to maintain body weight at or above a minimally normal weight for height and age. Anorexia-Nervosa is characterized by a refusal to maintain a minimal normal body weight, with the threshold of underweight being less than 85% of weight expected. Susan's weight falls below this threshold and her continuation of binging and purging despite weight loss meets the refusal criteria of Anorexia. It is also important to consider her fears of gaining weight -a.- and denial of seriousness of her current weight -d.-, especially with respect to treatment planning. Disturbances in perception of body shape and weight -b.-, and an over influence of weight and shape on self-evaluation are essential features of both disorders. )

80. _________________ is a present-oriented, structured and time-limited treatment that integrates biological and psychosocial approaches. A. Motivational interviewing B. Solution-focused therapy C. Interpersonal psychotherapy D. Reality therapy

C ( Interpersonal psychotherapy -IPT- is a manualized psychotherapy first designed for the treatment of nonbipolar, nonpsychotic major depression with the focus on the problems of depression and interpersonal distress. IPT focuses on interpersonal aspects of depression and uses the biopsychosocial model which frames depression as a medical illness occurring in a social context The goal of IPT is to alleviate symptoms with interpersonal relationships as a point of intervention. IPT has been found to be effective for the treatment of depression patients from adolescence to late life, for women with postpartum depression and for patients with medical comorbidity -See: Weissman, M.M., Markowitz, J.W., Klerman, G.L. -2000-. Comprehensive guide to interpersonal psychotherapy. New York, Basic Books.)

____ variables indicate interaction.

Moderating variables

At 18-24 months, babies begin to display what type of speech? a) babbling b) telegraphic speech c) holophrases d) underextension

Telegraphic-only 2 words

185. A Caucasian comes to a stage where he does not want to have racist views. According to Helms, which stage of identity development is this person in? A. Reintegration B. Pseudo-independence C. Immersion-Emersion D. Autonomy

C ( Janet Helms -1984- originally developed her White and People of Color Racial Identity Model to try and help resolve interracial tension in cross cultural psychotherapy. She developed a white racial identity model that reflects abandonment of racism and the development of a nonracist white identity. At the Immersion-Emersion level of identity development, people embrace their whiteness without rejecting members of minority groups and attempt to determine how they can feel proud of their own race without being racist. In "A Reintegration, people resolve their conflicts by adopting the position that whites are superior. In Pseudo-Independence, "B, people become dissatisfied with reintegration and re-examine their beliefs about racial inequalities. In "D, Autonomy, Whites internalize a nonracist white identity and seek out cross-racial interactions.)

35. Individuals with narcolepsy and individuals with hypersomnia have which of the following in common? A. sleep paralysis B. cataplexy C. daytime sleep attacks D. hypnagogic hallucinations

C ( Narcolepsy is a condition in which people are overcome with irresistible sleepiness and sleep attacks of brief duration that occur unpredictably. Other distinguishing features of the condition is cataplexy, a sudden loss of partial or complete muscle tone during excitement or arousal, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic hallucinations. Hypersomnia may be either idiopathic, secondary, or periodic. Like Narcolepsy, individuals with hypersomnia experience daytime sleepiness and sleep attacks, however the attacks last longer and are more resistible than in narcolepsy and there are no auxiliary symptoms. Typically, nocturnal sleep is disrupted in narcolepsy, is prolonged in idiopathic hypersomnia and variable in secondary hypersomnia. Although the exact causes of narcolepsy and idiopathic hypersomnia are unknown, there is evidence for genetic predisposition. Causative factors in secondary hypersomnia include: neurologic, -e.g., brain tumors, head injuries, and cerebrovascular insufficiency-; general medical, such as metabolic disorders, various intoxications, and conditions leading to brain hypoxia; and psychiatric, most notably depression.)

143. If an examinee correctly guesses the answers to a test, the reliability coefficient: A. is not affected B. stays the same C. decreases D. increases

C ( One of the factors that affect the reliability coefficient is guessing. Guessing correctly decreases the reliability coefficient. Answers A, B, and D are not true in regards to the reliability coefficient.)

89. Factitious Disorder treatment typically involves symptom management rather than curing the disorder. Which of the following is currently considered to be the most effective treatment? A. confrontational therapy in an inpatient setting B. individual and group therapy in an inpatient treatment C. supportive psychotherapy in an outpatient setting D. group or family therapy in an outpatient setting

C ( Studies indicate no specific treatment has been identified as consistently effective for Factitious Disorder; however, many agree that establishing a good therapeutic relationship and providing supportive therapy and consistency of care is the best way to manage its symptoms. -See: J. C. Huffman and T. A. Stern, The diagnosis and treatment of Munchausen's syndrome, General Hospital Psychiatry, 2003, 25-5-, 358-363.- Family and group therapy -d.- have not been identified as the most effective treatments, although family therapy may be useful for helping family members cope with the patient's symptoms. Inpatient treatment -a.- is often contraindicated because of the underlying need of individuals with Factitious Disorder "to adopt the sick role." Confrontational techniques -b.- may elicits denial and result in the individual terminating the therapeutic relationship so they must be used with caution.)

153. An organization is interested in improving employee morale in an off-site office with 150 employees. An organizational psychologist is contracted to identify and train the employees with the lowest morale. The employees scoring in the bottom 10% of a pretest are selected for extensive training. At the conclusion of the training, a posttest is administered and improvement in scores is noted. Test performance improvement would be expected even without training because: A. There has been a lapse of time between the first and second administrations. B. Such tests are notably unreliable, particularly when based on small samples. C. Regression of scores toward the mean is to be expected as a purely chance phenomenon. D. The range for which the test was designed has been restricted by the method of sampling.

C ( The net effect of regression toward the mean is that the lower scores -or measurements- on the pretest tend to be higher on the posttest, and the higher scores -or measures- on the pretest tend to be lower on the posttest. It is important to note that regression is always to the population mean of a group. However, there is essentially no change from the pretest to the posttest due to the dependent variable or treatment. It is important to note when conducting experiments because it affects the internal validity of the experimental design and occurs whenever the sample or subjects are chosen on the basis of extreme pretest scores.)

222. The behavioral technique called thought stopping is exemplified by: A. experimenting with new behaviors in order to dispute irrational beliefs. B. practicing relaxing while thinking of anxiety provoking images related to smoking. C. snapping a rubber band on the wrist whenever getting an urge to smoke. D. recording smoking intake for two weeks.

C ( Thought stopping is designed to interrupt the seemingly automatic chain of cognitions that are cues to acting impulsively or compulsively or lead to unwanted behavior such as through self-applying an aversive technique. )

1. A feminist therapist would likely consider which intervention most essential? A. a lifestyle analysis B. a functional assessment of a specific problem area. C. social action D. maintaining an anonymous role as a therapist

C ( Whereas non-sexist therapy is more concerned with personal responsibility and personal change, feminist therapy places equal or greater emphasis on the sociopolitical contributions to pathology and the need for social change. The feminist approach to psychotherapy rests on the assumption that social roles and socialization are important determinants of behavior and that psychological conflicts are alternative roles and options. A primary goal of feminist therapy is empowerment or helping women become more self-defining and self-determining. One of the main characteristics of feminist therapy is its emphasis on an egalitarian relationship between the client and therapist. Feminist therapists consider self-disclosure with clients as a way of supporting an egalitarian relationship. Therapist self-disclosure may be used to encourage client participation. Feminist therapy discourages client passivity and feminist therapists typically discourage special bonding as it may encourage client dependence on the therapist. )

123. A predictor with a criterion-related validity coefficient of .40 will be most useful when there is a A. high selection ratio and moderate base rate. B. high selection ratio and low base rate. C. low selection ratio and moderate base rate. D. low selection ratio and low base rate.

C (A low selection ratio means that there's lots of applicant to choose from -which is preferable to having only a few to choose from-. A moderate base rate is preferable to a high or low base rate because this means that there's room for improvement in the selection process. When the base rate is high, the company is already doing a good job and doesn't need a new predictor; when the base rate is low, this usually means that something other than selection is the problem -e.g., the company's performance standards are too high or there just aren't enough good applicants to choose from-.)

200. A number of books in the popular press have been written regarding the relationship between psychological factors and cancer. Which of the following statements best reflects the outcome of scientific studies of this issue? A. Psychological factors are related both to the onset of cancer and the success of recovery from it. B. Psychological factors are related to the onset of cancer but not to the success of recovery from it. C. Psychological factors are not related to the onset of cancer but are related to the success of recovery from it. D. Psychological factors are related to neither the onset of cancer nor the success of recovery from it.

C (A number of theories regarding the relationship between psychological factors and the onset of cancer have been proposed. For instance, some authors have proposed that the "Type C personality, typically described as a cooperative, unassertive patient who suppresses anger and complies with external authorities, is at a higher risk for cancer. However, most research shows that psychological factors and stressful events have a small or no effect on cancer incidence. By contrast, psychological factors do appear to be related to recovery from cancer. For instance, psychological treatments combining support and training in self-hypnosis are associated with higher survival rates and improved quality of life in cancer patients.)

33. Which of the following statements is most consistent with Lewin's field theory? A. As a person moves towards one of the goals in an approach-approach conflict, it becomes less attractive and the other goal becomes more attractive. B. Leadership is a function of the relationship between a task and the environment. C. Behavior is a function of the relationship between the person and the environment. D. A person's "life space" is equivalent to Jung's notion of the collective unconscious.

C (According the Lewin's field theory, behavior is a function of the relationship between a person and his or her environment. Lewin used the following formula to express this relationship: B = f-P,E- where B is behavior, P is the person, and E is the environment. Choice "A is the opposite of Lewin's prediction. That is, when faced with an approach-approach conflict, the selected choice becomes more attractive while the other choice becomes less attractive. "Life space" is also a central concept in field theory but refers to everything in a person's psychological environment - not the collective unconscious.)

167. Which of the following statements regarding children with Oppositional Defiant Disorder is most true? A. Symptoms of the disorder are usually present in all settings and with all people. B. Symptoms of the disorder are more likely to be present when the child is with people he or she doesn't know very well than when the child is around familiar people. C. Symptoms of the disorder are more likely to be present when the child is around familiar people than when the child is with people he or she doesn't know that well. D. The disorder is characterized by unexpected and unpredictable symptoms, so, although symptoms of the disorder occur infrequently, they are just as likely to occur with familiar people as with strangers.

C (According to DSM-IV, manifestations of Oppositional Defiant Disorder are almost invariably present in the home setting and in interactions with adults or peers whom the individual knows well. They may not be apparent in school or community settings or in interactions with people the individual does not know that well. For this reason, symptoms of the disorder are often not present during the initial clinical examination.)

184. Children with Generalized Anxiety Disorder most frequently worry about: A. being away from home or close relatives B. being embarrassed in public C. performance in school or sporting events D. having an illness

C (According to DSM-IV-TR, children and adolescents with Generalized Anxiety Disorder frequently worry about their performance or competence at school and in sporting events. They may also worry about catastrophic events like earthquakes or nuclear war. Choice A is more characteristic of Separation Anxiety Disorder. Choice B indicates Social Phobia. And Choice D is characteristic of Hypochondriasis.)

48. Psychoanalytic theory posits that which of the following is the principle influence at around four months of age? A. reality B. dynamic C. pleasure D. genetic

C (According to Freud, the only personality structure that has developed at birth is the id. The id operates according to the pleasure principle because it looks for ways of gratifying its needs immediately to avoid tension. Answer "A is associated with the ego, which doesn't develop until about six months of age. Freud suggested that the ego operates on the basis of the reality principle because it postpones satisfaction of the id's instincts until there is a suitable object available in reality. The dynamic principle -response "B- refers to Freud's interest in understanding people in terms of the dynamic interactions -conflicts- that occur between the id, ego, and superego, and the genetic principle -response "D- refers to his emphasis on the importance of a person's experiences during childhood.)

127. All of the following would be standard aspects in the assessment and diagnosis of Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type, except A. administering a mental status exam. B. administering tests of neuropsychological functioning. C. administering medical tests designed to identify the presence of the Alzheimer's gene. D. using neuroimaging techniques such as magnetic resonance imaging -MRI-.

C (Although some progress has been made recently in identifying genetic markers of Alzheimer's Disease, there is no diagnostic test currently available that can isolate an Alzheimer's gene. Indeed, direct evidence that a person has this disease is hard to come by. Instead, the diagnostic process involves determining that the diagnostic criteria for the disorder are met, the typical features of Alzheimer's are present, and other possible causes of the disturbance have been ruled out. Choices A, B, and D all describe techniques that are typically part of this diagnostic process.)

What are the Big 5 personality traits?

OCEAN ; Openness to experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion/introversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism (emotional stability)

147. Which of the following would most likely be remembered? A. a political advertisement expressing views consistent with the viewer's beliefs B. a political advertisement expressing views opposite to the viewer's beliefs C. an emotionally-charged event D. an emotionally-charged event which was expressively suppressed

C (As you may have guessed, memory is enhanced for emotionally-charged events. Research has also found that this enhancement is not solely due to increased attention -S. Christianson, E. Loftus, H. Hoffman, & G. Loftus. Eye Fixations and Memory for Emotional Events, Journal of Experimental Psychology: Learning, Memory, and Cognition, 1991, 17-4-, 693-701-. Attempts to suppress emotion -D- have been found to decrease one's memory for the event. Examples of emotional suppression include biting one's lip to keep from crying or maintaining a poker face after being dealt a great hand of cards -J. Richards & J. Gross. Emotion regulation and memory, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 2000, 79-3-, 410-424-.)

134. The primary difference between Autistic Disorder and Asperger's Disorder is that: A. social interactions are significantly impaired in Autistic Disorder but not in Asperger's Disorder B. Autistic Disorder is characterized by repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behavior, interests, and activities and Asperger's Disorder is not C. early cognitive and language skills are delayed in Autistic Disorder but not in Asperger's Disorder D. Asperger's Disorder only occurs in females and Autistic Disorder occurs in males and females

C (Asperger's Disorder is primarily differentiated from Autistic Disorder by the absence of significant delays in early cognitive and language skills. Contrary to choices A and B, both disorders involve impaired social interactions and repetitive patterns of behavior. Choice D is incorrect because Asperger's occurs in males and females in both disorders at a rate of about 5 to 1. Rett's Disorder, on the other hand, has only been found to occur in females.)

11. Research by Laurence Steinberg, Sanford Dornbusch and their colleagues on the relationship between parenting style and academic achievement has revealed that A. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to children but not adolescents. B. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to adolescents regardless of gender, socioeconomic status, or race. C. the positive impact of authoritative parenting may apply less to African-American adolescents than to European, Asian, and Hispanic adolescents. D. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to adolescents and seems to be due primarily to parents' encouragement of academic excellence.

C (Authoritative parenting has been linked to many positive outcomes for both children and adolescents including better academic performance. However, the effects of authoritative parenting seem to be moderated by race. Steinberg and his colleagues found that, even though African-American parents often adopt an authoritative style, the academic performance of their adolescents is influenced more by peers and, therefore, has less of an effect. These investigators also found that, overall, parents' involvement in their youngster's schooling is more important than their encouragement of academic excellence. See, for example, L. Steinberg et al., Impact of parenting practices on adolescent achievement: Authoritative parenting, school involvement, and encouragement to succeed, Child Development, 1992, 63, 1266-1281.)

215. The earliest symptoms of Huntington's Disease are usually: A. memory impairments. B. mild motor disturbances -e.g., mild tremor, incoordination-. C. affective changes -e.g., irritability or depression-. D. confusion and disorientation.

C (Because the early signs of Huntington's Disease often involve changes in affect, in the early stages, it may be erroneously diagnosed as a depression or other mental disorder.)

105. Eric Berne feels which of the following reflect a person's characteristic pattern of giving and receiving strokes? A. Life position B. Transaction C. Script D. Ego state

C (Berne called a person's life plan a script, and espoused that it reflected the person's characteristic pattern of giving and receiving strokes. The life position -A- is one of the I'm OK, You're OK Sequence. Transaction -B- was the term for communication between ego states and -D- the ego states are parent, child, adult.)

13. All of the following are true regarding women and depression, except A. marriage reduces the risk of depression to a greater extent for men than it does for women. B. the more children a woman has, the more likely it is that she'll be depressed. C. women who have multiple roles -e.g., a job, children, a marriage- are more vulnerable to depression than women who don't. D. gender differences in coping style apparently are a reason why women are at a greater risk for depression than men.

C (Choice C is not true; women who have multiple roles appear to be at lower risk for depression. This may be because they have many different support sources and outlets for their competence -- i.e., if their life is not going well in one area, they can compensate with success in other areas. The other choices, according to the APA Task Force Report on Women and Depression, are true. Regarding choice D, the report states that men may be at a lower risk than women because, in response to their problems, they are more likely to employ action and mastery -e.g., work, sports, going out with friends- strategies that distract them from their worries and give them a sense of power and control. Women, on the other hand, tend to brood and dwell on their problems.)

122. Among bilinguals, code-switching: A. is associated with low academic achievement. B. is evidence of a critical period in language development. C. is a way for the speaker to better express his or her attitude toward the listener. D. should be encouraged early in language development to ensure greater reliance on the dominant language.

C (Code switching -also known as language switching- occurs when a bilingual speaker changes languages during the course of a conversation. It seems to serve several purposes, including allowing the speaker to better express his/her feelings toward the listener.)

119. ___________________ may result in a job performance measure having low validity, even though it is reliable. A. differential validity B. criterion contamination C. criterion deficiency D. researcher deficiency

C (Criterion deficiency refers to what is missed or deficient in the criterion used. For example, if typing speed is used as the sole criterion for determining successful job performance by a secretary, it would be a deficient criterion, since typing speed is only one of several skills needed to be a successful secretary. Differential validity -"A- refers to a test which has significantly different validity coefficients for different subgroups. Criterion contamination -"B- occurs when a rater's knowledge of an employee's performance on a predictor biases how the employee is rated on a criterion.)

The ______________ area of the brain is essenetial for encoding, storage and retrieval of long-term declarative memory Temporal lobes Parietal lobes Hippocampus Amygdala

Temporal Lobes

4. When applied to substance dependence, the specifier "early full remission" means that the client has been without any symptoms of substance abuse or dependence: A. for at least six months but less than one year B. for at least three months but less than one year C. for at least one month but less than one year D. for at least one year

C (Early full remission, early partial remission, sustained full remission, or sustained partial remission are specifiers used to describe a substance dependence diagnosis. "Early" means that there is more than one month but less than 12 months of remission. "SustaineD means that there is 12 months or longer of remission -response "D-. "Full" means that the person no longer meets any of the criteria for substance dependence or abuse, and "partial" means that one or more of the criteria for substance dependence are still met but the full criteria are no longer met.)

53. When trying to prove causation, a researcher mismatches levels of data and tries to apply statistics at one level to infer to data of another level. This is referred to as: A. tautology B. teleology C. ecological fallacy D. latent coding

C (Ecological fallacy is a logic error that occurs when trying to prove causation, levels of data are mismatched and statistics are applied at one level to infer to data of another level. Tautology -a.- is a logic error based on circular reasoning, meaning that something is true by definition or the dependent variable is simply a restatement of the independent variable. Teleology -b.- is a logic error which explains a phenomenon by saying that it was some spirit or higher power that causes the relationship. Latent coding -d.- occurs when a researcher reads into the meaning of the content he/she is analyzing to get data rather than simply taking it at face value. This is in contrast to manifest coding which occurs in content analysis when coding content is based on the face-value rather than looking into the meaning.)

187. A patient calls for an appointment and tells you that he is already seeing another psychologist but wants to see you. In this situation, you should A. not allow him to make an appointment. B. allow him to come in for an initial session and obtain written permission to contact the other psychologist. C. make an appointment to discuss reasons the patient wants to see another psychologist and explain why doing so might not be in the patient's best interests. D. set up an appointment and establish a treatment plan after ensuring that the patient has the financial resources to pay for two therapists.

C (Ethical standard 10.04 deals with this situation. The relevant language states that "In deciding whether to offer or provide services to those already receiving mental health services elsewhere, psychologists carefully consider the treatment issues and the potential client's/patient's welfare. Psychologists discuss these issues with the client/patient or another legally authorized person on behalf of the client/patient in order to minimize the risk of confusion and conflict, consult with the other service providers when appropriate, and proceed with caution and sensitivity to the therapeutic issues." From the limited information presented, you don't know if it would be appropriate to contact the client's current therapist.)

197. The Treatment of Depression Collaborative Research Program -TDCRP-, conducted by the National Institute of Mental Health, compared Cognitive Therapy, antidepressant medication, pill placebo, and interpersonal psychotherapy treatments in depressed outpatients. The results of this study found: A. cognitive therapy is more effective than the other treatments for mild to moderate depression B. cognitive therapy is more effective than the other treatments for moderate to severe depression C. no difference in observed outcome between cognitive therapy and antidepressant medications -ADMs- for mild to moderate depression. D. no difference in observed outcome between cognitive therapy and antidepressant medications -ADMs- for moderate to severe depression.

C (Findings of the NIMH's TDCRP research project indicate no differences in outcome were observed between CT and ADM among all patients. In other words, overall, cognitive therapy -CT- and antidepressant medication are about equally effective in the treatment of depression. In a secondary analysis of more severely depressed patients, however, ADM outcomes were superior to both cognitive therapy and placebo. Antidepressant medications -ADMs- are the most widely used treatment for major depressive disorder -MDD- in the United States and evidence supports the efficacy of ADMs, particularly among more severely depressed patients. as first-line therapy for patients with moderate to severe MDD. -See: DeRubeis, R.J., Hollon, S.D., Amsterdam, J.D., Shelton, R.C., Young, P.R., Salomon, R.M., O'Reardon, J.P., Lovett, M.L., Gladis, M.M., Brown, L.L., & Gallop,R. -2005- Cognitive Therapy vs Medications in the Treatment of Moderate to Severe Depression. Archives of General Psychiatry.62-4-:409-416.)

152. You see an elderly male in therapy. In the first session, he breaks down sobbing and admits that he has recently "helpeD his wife, who was suffering from incurable cancer, to die. First you need to A. comfort him as best you can and make a call to the police. B. get the number of a trusted family member and alert them. C. assess your client's potential for suicide. D. suggest that your client call the police while still in your office.

C (First of all, this question is not about a Tarasoff situation. You are speaking to the husband after the fact of the wife's death so you do not have a mandated breach of confidentiality, and instead now need to decide what is in the best interest of your client. What you have is a bereaved client who is at a high risk for suicide. With his best interests and welfare in mind, you need to assess his potential for suicide and then decide if you want to get the number of a trusted family member and alert them -choice B-. You would not be able to breach confidentiality as suggested in answer A and D for the purpose of "turning in" your client.)

16. From a legal standpoint, a charge of malpractice against a psychologist would be held valid if it were proven that the therapist: A. had a duty of care to the patient, held malevolent intentions toward the patient, and engaged in activity that resulted in harm to the patient. B. had a duty of care to the patient and held malevolent intentions toward the patient; demonstration of actual harm is not necessary. C. had a duty of care to the patient and engaged in activity that resulted in harm to the patient; malevolent intentions need not be present. D. engages in activity that harms a patient; malevolent intentions and a duty of care are not necessary.

C (For a malpractice claim against a psychologist to be held valid, three elements must be proven: 1- the psychologist must have had a professional relationship with -and, therefore a duty of care to- the client; 2- the psychologist must have been negligent or failed to live up to that duty; and 3- harm to the patient must have resulted. In other words, the psychologist's intentions are not an issue.)

178. Which of the following is associated with the shift in perspective from "time from birth" to "time to death"? A. Levinson B. Erikson C. Neugarten D. Freud

C (From her research on the personality characteristics of adults aged 40-70, Neugarten -1968- found midlife to be characterized by this shift in perspective. This finding followed the Kansas City Study findings that people around age 50 experience a transition from active to passive mastery and outer to inner-world orientation. Levinson's "seasons of a man's life" and Erikson's stages are theories of adult personality development that address developmental conflicts)

76. Decreased amounts of GABA are most associated with: A. depression B. eating disorders C. Huntington's Disease D. Raynaud's Disease

C (Gamma Amino Butyric Acid -GABA- is the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Low levels of GABA have been linked to several disorders, including Huntington's Disease, Parkinson's Disease, and anxiety disorders.)

112. Delirium may occur due to intoxication with all of the following substances except A. cocaine. B. cannabis. C. caffeine. D. LSD.

C (Hallucinogens -e.g., LSD-, cocaine, and cannabis -- as well as alcohol, amphetamines, inhalants, opioids, PCP, and sedatives -- may produce Intoxication Delirium. Caffeine, however, does not cause delirium.)

133. Huntington's Disease is most associated with decreased amounts of: A. dopamine B. epinephrine C. GABA D. norepinephrine

C (Huntington's Disease is believed to begin when cells within the striatum -caudate and putamen- of the basal ganglia begin to be destroyed. The striatum is responsible for producing GABA, which regulates the levels of dopamine in the brain through an inhibitory process. The death of the striatum cells causes decreased amounts of GABA which leads to an overproduction of dopamine and results in chorea -uncontrollable and irregular muscle movements, especially of the arms, legs, and face-.)

172. In an attempt to increase motivation among employees, a company begins to pay employees based on their output. This will most likely result in: A. increased job satisfaction and increased quality of work B. decreased job dissatisfaction and increased quality of work C. decreased job dissatisfaction and increased quantity of work D. increased job satisfaction and no change in quantity of work

C (If a person's pay is based on output, his or her output is likely to increase, but the quality of work will not necessarily increase. This makes sense -- if you are working so fast in order to produce more so that you can get paid more, the quality of your work is likely to suffer. In addition, increased pay is likely to decrease job dissatisfaction, as predicted by Herzberg's two-factor theory.)

182. Which of the following item difficulty levels maximizes discrimination among test-takers? A. .10 B. .25 C. .50 D. .90

C (If a test item has an item difficulty level of .50, this means that 50% of examinees answered the item correctly. Therefore, items with this difficulty level are most useful for discriminating between "high scoring" and "low scoring" groups.)

68. If a left hemisphere language dominant split-brain patient views something in her left visual field she will be: A. able to say what she saw and point to it with her right hand B. able to say what she saw and point to it with her left hand C. unable to say what she saw but able to point to it with her left hand D. unable to say what she saw but able to point to it with her right hand

C (If something is viewed in the right visual field, information about what is seen travels to the left hemisphere and, if asked what was seen, the patient has no problem identifying or naming it. In this question however, something was seen in the left visual field so the information would end up in the right hemisphere. If the patient is asked what she saw she won't be able to say, as the information is received in the right hemisphere, but she will be able to point to or pick out what was seen with her left hand because touch information from the left hand crosses over to the right hemisphere. Note that even after pointing out what was seen and if it is in the person's hand, the person will still not be able to say what it is because the right hemisphere typically cannot verbalize or "talk." )

170. A psychologist gets a call on a Friday night from a current patient who says she's feeling so depressed she is really thinking of suicide. The psychologist believes her and advises her to go to the hospital immediately. The psychologist is concerned and calls the next day and finds out that the patient did commit suicide. The psychologist's intervention was A. unethical, because he should have consulted a psychiatrist before he suggested hospitalization. B. ethical, since he made a referral for appropriate treatment. C. unethical, because he should have been more active in assuring that the patient's needs were met. D. ethical, since he did all that he could on a weekend.

C (If the psychologist believed that the patient was actively suicidal, it was unrealistic to assume that she'd get herself to the hospital. The psychologist should have been more active; for example, he could have called the police, called someone close to the patient, or gone to the patient's location.)

136. Findings from the National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions -NESARC- indicated the highest prevalence of alcohol abuse was among: A. Asians B. Hispanics C. Whites D. Blacks

C (In 2001-2002, the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism -NIAAA- conducted the NESARC study gathering data from over 43,000 individuals, age 18 or older, in non-institutionalized and group housing populations. The survey data provides estimates on alcohol and drug use, alcohol use disorders -AUDs-, utilization of alcohol treatment services, and comorbid DSM-IV disorders. In a trend analysis of AUDs over the past decade, Grant et. al. found the prevalence of alcohol abuse increased while the prevalence of dependence declined between 1991-1992 and 2001-2002. The prevalence of abuse was greater among Whites than among Blacks, Asians, and Hispanics and the prevalence of dependence higher among Whites, Native Americans, and Hispanics than among Asians. Both abuse and dependence were more common among men and younger respondents. -See: Grant, B., Dawson, D.A., Stinson, F.S., Patricia Chou, S. P., Dufour, M.C., & Pickering, R. P. -2004-. The 12-month prevalence and trends in DSM-IV alcohol abuse and dependence: United States, 1991-1992 and 2001-2002. Drug and Alcohol Dependence 74:223-234. and NIAAA. -2006- National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions: Selected Findings. Alcohol Research & Health. 29:2.)

98. A child receives a Performance IQ score that is higher than her Verbal IQ score on the WISC-III. When interpreting this difference, it is important to keep in mind that: A. the difference is not significant unless it is 20 points or more. B. the difference may be significant if it is 12 points or more. C. the difference may be significant if it is 12 points or more and the scatter on the Performance subtests is less than 9 points and the scatter on the Verbal subtests is less than 7 points. D. the difference may be significant if it is 18 points or more and the scatter on the Performance subtests is 9 points or more and the scatter on the Verbal subtests is 7 points or more.

C (In general, a 12 point difference between Verbal IQ and Performance IQ on the WISC-III is considered significant. For example, a Performance IQ that is 12 or more points higher than the Verbal IQ might indicate autism, a learning disability, or delinquency. However, if there is also wide scatter of the Verbal and/or Performance subtest scores, the difference between Verbal and Performance IQ may be meaningless.)

129. At the beginning of group therapy, all members signed a contract to maintain confidentiality. If one of the members breaks confidentiality it is: A. an ethical violation B. a legal violation C. a moral violation D. an ethical, moral and possible legal violation

C (In the context of group therapy, a moral responsibility to respect confidentiality extends beyond the therapist to each group participant. However, while there may be a moral obligation to maintain confidentiality, there isn't an ethically enforceable obligation. The Ethics Code, Standard 4.02, addresses the limitations of confidentiality and Standard 10.01, Informed Consent in Therapy, addresses the need to discuss the limits of confidentiality at the beginning of -group- therapy. In group work agreements, therapists clearly define confidentiality and the parameters for the specific group being entered, explain the importance, and discuss the difficulties related to confidentiality involved in group therapy. Since confidentiality cannot be guaranteed by the therapist, group members have provided "implied consent" to the release of the information by voluntarily agreeing to participate. In most states, group members are not legally obligated to maintain confidences.)

206. A researcher working in an institutionalized setting wishes to do some research with moderately mentally retarded patients. The researcher has obtained the approval of the institution's research review committee. Before beginning the research, she should also A. obtain informed consent from the patients' legal guardians. B. obtain informed consent from the patients' legal guardians and the participants. C. obtain informed consent from the patients' legal guardians and assent from the participants. D. not worry about obtaining consent from the participants or their guardians, since she has already obtained the institution's permission.

C (In the context of research, the term "informed consent" implies agreement to participate from a person who has been informed of all relevant information and is competent enough to understand that information. With few exceptions -e.g., where deception is necessary and permissible-, the Ethical Principles require researchers to obtain informed consent from all participants who are capable of giving it. If the potential participant is not competent to give informed consent, the Ethics require that informed consent be obtained from his or her legal guardian. In addition, when the potential participant is not competent to give informed consent, the research must be explained to the potential participant in language that he or she can understand, and his or her consent must be obtained.)

109. A young man is in a car accident and apparently receives some brain injury. Two days later, the man has a 10 a.m. appointment with a neurologist to evaluate the extent of his injury. Later that same day, the young man encounters the neurologist in a coffee shop but doesn't recall the neurologist, their meeting, or the evaluation. The young man is apparently suffering from A. paraprosopia. B. prosopagnosia. C. anterograde amnesia. D. retrograde amnesia.

C (In this situation, the patient seems to be having trouble forming new memories. This is referred to as anterograde amnesia. Paraprosopia -answer A- involves visual hallucinations of terrifying faces; prosopagnosia -answer B- is the inability to recognize familiar faces.)

84. Indifference and apathy are the likely consequences of lesions in the: A. thalamus, hippocampus, or prefrontal cortex. B. dominant temporal lobe. C. right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. D. medial hypothalamus.

C (Indifference and apathy are the likely consequences of lesions in certain areas in the right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. Lesions or damage to the thalamus, hippocampus or prefrontal cortex -a.- have been linked to memory loss. Damage to the dominant temporal lobe -b.-, including the Wernicke's area, causes receptive aphasia. The hypothalamus is associated with regulating the release of hormones from the pituitary and other endocrine glands, maintaining the body's homeostasis, and mediating aggressive responses. In particular, lesions in the medial hypothalamus -d.- have been associated with outbursts of rage and aggressive behavior -See: Swaab, D.F. -2003-. The human hypothalamus: Basic and human aspects, Elsevier Health Sciences, Amsterdam.)

71. A personnel director devises four measures to be used as selection techniques for police officers. She plans on using multiple regression to combine the scores on the four measures in order to predict an applicant's score on a measure of job performance. You suggest that multiple regression is not the appropriate method in this situation because: A. multiple regression is used only when the criterion includes three or more orthogonal categories. B. multiple regression is used only when there are two or more criteria that are each measured on a continuous scale. C. the characteristics assessed by the four measures are noncompensatory; i.e., a low score on one measure cannot be compensated for by a high score on another measure. D. the characteristics assessed by the four measures are compensatory; i.e., a low score on one measure can be compensated for by a high score on another measure.

C (It isn't clear from the question what would be wrong with multiple regression in this situation. However, by process of elimination, only response C is correct. Responses A and B aren't true about multiple regression, and response D is incorrect because multiple regression is compensatory and would be appropriate if a high score on one measure could compensate for a low score on another measure. Multiple regression isn't the appropriate technique when the characteristics measured by the different predictors are noncompensatory.)

148. Research on the use of mental health services by members of minority groups indicates that: A. utilization rates are lower for members of all minority groups than for whites. B. utilization rates are higher for members of all minority groups than for whites. C. utilization rates are higher for members of some minority groups and lower for members of other minority groups than for whites. D. utilization rates for members of minority groups are about the same as the rates for whites.

C (It's difficult to draw any general conclusions about utilization rates because the research findings are inconsistent. However, a 1991 study by Sue et al. -which is frequently cited in the literature- reports underutilization by Asian-and Latino-Americans and overutilization by African-Americans. The results of other studies also suggest that there are group differences in utilization rates, so response C is the best.)

45. The theory that proposes convergent and divergent thinking as dimensions of intelligence is associated with: A. Galton B. Thurstone C. Guilford D. Cattell

C (J.P. Guilford identified 120 elements using factor analysis that he proposed in sum comprise intelligence. Convergent thinking is the ability to group or analyze divergent ideas usually leading to a unifying concept or single solution. Divergent thinking is the ability to generate creative, new ideas or to elaborate or branch off from traditional approaches, such as in brainstorming or "thinking out of the box." Galton -a.- postulated that intelligence is an inherited trait distributed normally across the population. Thurstone -b.- applied his method of factor analysis to intelligence leading to his proposed theory of Primary Mental Abilities -that individuals possess varying degrees of sub-components of intelligence-. Cattell's -d.- theory distinguished between fluid and crystallized intelligence.)

151. Increasing internal validity is best achieved by: A. random selection B. matching C. random assignment D. blocking

C (Known as the "great equalizer," randomization of subjects to groups is the most powerful way for controlling extraneous variables. Unlike random assignment which occurs after subjects are selected, random selection refers to a method of selecting subjects to participate from the population being studied. Random selection influences external validity. Matching, a procedure to ensure equivalency on a specific extraneous variable, and blocking, studying the effects of the extraneous variable, are also methods of increasing internal v)

67. "Flashbulb memories" are vivid memories of emotionally-arousing events. Flashbulb memories are considered part of A. procedural memory. B. implicit memory. C. episodic memory. D. prospective memory.

C (Like other episodic memories, flashbulb memories are for events that involve specific people, places, or things and that occurred at a specific time.)

65. Meta-cognition has been defined as "knowing about knowing." A more precise definition might be: A. philosophical knowledge about the nature of knowledge, such as about limits of knowledge and the validity of our observations. B. scientific knowledge about human knowledge, such as the parts of the brain involved in long-term memory storage and the stages of cognitive development. C. an individual's knowledge about his or her own cognitive processing, such as strategies that enhance the efficiency of memorization. D. knowledge about what somebody else knows.

C (Metacognition refers specifically to knowledge we have about our own cognitive processes, rather than about the nature of human knowledge in general.)

73. It has been found that abused children often cling to their abusive parents. This can be explained in behavioral terms as the effect of A. extinction. B. delayed conditioning. C. intermittent reinforcement. D. spontaneous recovery.

C (Most abusing parents are abusive only some of the time. Other times they are quite loving and protective. In behavioral terms, this means that the child is on an intermittent reinforcement schedule, and, more specifically, a variable ratio schedule. In other words, any given behavior, including clinging, will be reinforced after a variable and unpredictable number of responses. Intermittent reinforcement schedules, and especially variable ratio schedules, tend to produce behaviors that are difficult to extinguish. This could explain why the clinging behavior continues.)

170. The experience of REM-rebound occurs most often when A. barbiturates are used chronically B. a person begins using sedatives. C. the use of sedatives is discontinued. D. alcohol is substituted for barbiturates.

C (Most drugs suppress REM sleep. When REM sleep is suppressed, a sudden rebound effect occurs soon after the removal of the suppressing agent.©

189. Studies on gender differences in physical development suggest that, until about age _____, girls should be able to compete effectively with boys in baseball and other sports. A. 7 B. 10 C. 12 D. 15

C (Most physical differences between boys and girls do not become prominent until puberty. Before puberty, boys and girls are about equal, for instance, in terms of speed and strength, implying that they should do about equally well in many sports.)

86. Gender concept develops during the first 6 years of life in the following sequence of stages: A. gender stability, gender constancy, gender identity B. gender stability, gender identity, gender constancy C. gender identity, gender stability, gender constancy D. gender confusion, gender solidification, gender identity

C (Most theorists recognize three distinct stages in the development of gender concept. Although the precise timing of the stages varies somewhat, depending on how the constructs are measured, it is believed to develop in the following sequence: gender identity -between 9 mos and 3 years-; gender stability -by 4 years-, and gender constancy -4 to 7 years-. Gender identity is the ability to label one's own sex and the sex of others. Gender stability is the awareness that sex identity is stable over time. Gender constancy is reached when the child realizes that sex identity stays the same despite changes in hairstyles, clothing, activities, or personality traits. e.g. See: J. Szkrybalo, & D.N. Ruble "God Made Me a Girl": Sex-Category Constancy Judgments and $$$s Revisited, Developmental Psychology, 1999, 35 -2-, 392-402.)

185. Which of the following techniques would be most useful for combining test scores when poor performance on one test can be offset by excellent performance on another: A. multiple baseline B. multiple hurdle C. multiple regression D. multiple cutoff

C (Multiple regression is the preferred technique for combining test scores in this situation as it is a compensatory technique since a low score on one test can be offset -compensated for- by high scores on other tests. Multiple baseline -a.- is a research design, not a method for combining test scores. Multiple hurdle -b.- and multiple cutoff -d.- are noncompensatory techniques.)

46. Which of the following ethnic groups has the highest proportion of reported incidents of child abuse? A. Asian B. Hispanic C. Native American D. White

C (Of the reported cases of child abuse, 50% are White; 25% are African American; 15% are Hispanic; 2% are Native American; and 1% are Asian/Pacific Islanders. However, the proportions of child abuse victims who are Native American or African American are two times greater than the proportions of these children in the general population Child Maltreatment 2001: Summary of Key Findings. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Washington, DC: U.S. Government Printing Office.)

108. A researcher studying the relationship between age and job satisfaction collects data for a group of young, middle-aged, and older workers. The researcher can expect to find that A. the young people are most satisfied with their jobs. B. the middle-aged people are most satisfied with their jobs. C. the older people are most satisfied with their jobs. D. there is no difference between the three groups in terms of their job satisfaction.

C (One of the most stable findings in job satisfaction research is that age is positively correlated with satisfaction. The older the employee, the higher the level of satisfaction he or she tends to report.)

51. Which of the following statements regarding the need to obtain informed consent before releasing client information is most true? A. A psychologist should always obtain informed consent from the client before releasing information. B. Before consulting with a colleague about a case, a psychologist must always obtain informed consent from the client. C. A psychologist must obtain informed consent from a client some of the time before releasing information. D. If a psychologist wants to release information about a case, he or she may do so without obtaining informed consent.

C (Ordinarily, you need to obtain informed consent from a client before releasing information you've obtained from him or her. However, this is not always the case; for instance, when you reasonably suspect child abuse, you are legally obligated to file a report with the appropriate state agency -- with or without the client's consent. As for consulting situations -choice B-, informed consent from the client is not necessary as long as you adequately disguise the client's identity.)

201. Organizations that advocate individual responsibility, consensual-decision making, slow promotion, and holistic knowledge of the organization are using which of the following management philosophies: A. Theory J B. Theory A C. Theory Z D. TQM

C (Ouchi's Theory Z is an organizational management philosophy that incorporates aspects from traditional American -Theory A- and Japanese -Theory J- management philosophies. The theory represents a middle ground, for example, emphasizing long-term employment versus short-term or lifelong and a moderately specialized career path instead of specialized or nonspecialized.)

207. According to Piaget, a child in the autonomous stage of development believes that A. rules are absolute B. rules are useless C. rules are arbitrary and alterable D. punishment should be based on the damage caused by a behavior

C (Piaget distinguished two stages of moral development: heteronomous and autonomous. Heteronomous morality is characteristic of children 4-7 years old. The heteronomous child views rules as absolute -Choice "A- and unchangeable and believes that punishment should fit the consequences of the behavior -regardless of the intentions of the actor- -Choice "D-. By age 7 or 8 children begin to exhibit autonomous morality, in which they realize that rules are determined, and agreed to, by individuals and are, therefore, alterable. They also consider the intention of the actor to be most important in determining punishment.)

108. Following a stroke or head trauma, which of the following memory functions is most likely to be affected? A. iconic memory B. long-term store C. memory for newly learned information D. verbal memory

C (Questions like this can be frustrating because it is really impossible to make blanket generalizations. When the brain is compromised by a medical problem -or by substance use-, the nature of impairment always depends on the location in the brain of damage and the extent of damage. However, if memory is impaired, the ability to retain newly learned information is most likely to be affected. Impairment in other types of memory, such as long-term episodic memory or verbal -semantic- memory, usually indicates more severe memory damage in which impairment in learning new information is also present.)

57. When you look up to a person, are influenced by that person, identify with that person and hold them in high regard, that person has: A. Expert power B. Coercive power C. Referent power D. Reward power

C (Referent power is based on a person's attraction to or desire to be like the holder of power. "A Expert power is based on the belief that the power holder has special knowledge or expertise. "B Coercive power results from the holder's ability to punish others. And finally, "D reward power, results from the holder's ability to reward others.)

111. Depth perception in infants develops in which of the following sequences? A. kinetic, pictorial, binocular B. pictorial, binocular, kinetic C. kinetic, binocular, pictorial D. binocular, kinetic, pictorial

C (Research has indicated that infants develop depth perception in a predictable sequence: kinetic, binocular, and pictorial. Kinetic depth cues are based on movements of objects in the environment or the body. Babies as young as 3 weeks begin perceiving kinetic cues. For example, they will blink their eyes defensively when an object approaches their face and looks as if its going to hit them. Binocular depth perception begins between 2 and 3 months. And pictorial depth cues, which are used by artists to make paintings look three-dimensional, begins to develop at about 7 months of age.)

75. According to the current research, the effects on children of observing aggressive models, such as through television violence, are A. short-term but not long-term. B. long-term but not short-term. C. both short-term and long-term. D. neither short-term nor long-term.

C (Research on the effects of television violence on children's behavior demonstrates that viewing aggressive models is associated with increased aggressive behavior. Moreover, these effects can be long-lasting; they have been observed in longitudinal studies lasting up to 22 years.)

124. The Montessori method can best be described as: A. Didactic group teaching B. Emphasis on cooperative activities C. Hands on learning D. Emphasizing a way to motivate children

C (The Montessori method was developed from Maria Montessori's idea that children are active learners and naturally motivated. Within this method there is very little didactic group teaching and the children are directed towards interactive "hands on" learning experience. While the method is highly regarded by many, other educators are concerned that it doesn't allow for enough opportunities for cooperative play and small-group interaction.)

31. The "pseudopatients" who were admitted to mental hospitals in Rosenhan's -1973- study were: A. all discharged from the hospitals within72 hours due to their "remission" B. identified by hospital staff as being "normal" during the second week of their stay C. identified by other patients but not staff members as being "normal" D. identified by staff members as being "normal" only after they stopped feigning symptoms

C (Rosenhan's famous "pseudopatient study" involved 8 confederates who presented themselves to mental hospitals complaining of hearing voices. All were admitted to the hospital and7 of the 8 were given the diagnosis "Schizophrenia." Once admitted, they all stopped feigning any symptoms and behaved normally. Nevertheless, their hospital stays ranged from7 to 52 days with an average stay of 19 days and although nearly one-third of the other patients recognized the pseudopatients as "normal," none of the hospital staff recognized them as such.)

183. The age of onset of schizophrenia is: A. about the same time for men and women. B. usually earlier for women than for men. C. usually earlier for men than for women. D. never after the age of 30.

C (Schizophrenia has been found in about 1 in every 100 people around the world in many studies. Symptoms commonly begin in late adolescence or early adulthood. Schizophrenia with an onset in adolescence -prior to age 18- is less common and childhood onset -before age 13- is exceedingly rare. According to the DSM-IV-TR, the age at onset differs between the sexes with males having an earlier onset of between 18 and 25 years and females between 25 and the mid-30s. Note the age-at-onset distribution is bimodal for women, with a second peak occurring later in life -i.e., 3-10% have onset after age 40-, however unimodal for males. )

102. Which of the following statements best reflects the research findings on suicide risk among adolescents? A. Males from dual-parent families have a higher suicide rate than males from single-parent families B. Females from dual-parent families have a higher suicide rate than females from single-parent families C. Males and females from single-parent families have a higher suicide rate than those from dual-parent families D. There is no significant relationship between adolescent suicide rates and family configuration

C (Several studies have found that the risk for suicide and suicide attempts is higher among both male and female adolescents in single-parent homes as compared to dual-parent homes.)

29. When Total Quality Management -TQM- fails, it is often because A. there are too few managers. B. there is too much attention to customer demands. C. the employees are not given sufficient responsibility. D. the rewards are not distributed fairly.

C (TQM is an organizational philosophy that focuses on maximizing customer service and satisfaction. An important characteristic of TQM is its involvement of employees in all aspects of decision-making, and failures are often due to management's unwillingness to do this.)

103. Form A is administered to a group of employees in Spring and then again in Fall. Using this method, what type of reliability is measured? A. split-half B. equivalence C. stability D. internal consistency

C (Test-retest reliability, or the coefficient of stability, involves administering the same test to the same group on two occasions and then correlating the scores. Alternative forms reliability, or coefficient of equivalence -response "B-, consists of administering two alternate forms of a test to the same group and then correlating the scores. Internal consistency reliability -response "D- utilizes a single test administration and involves obtaining correlations among individual test items. Split-half reliability -response "A- is a method of determining internal consistency reliability.)

222. According to the DSM-IV-TR, Bipolar I Disorder is differentiated from Bipolar II Disorder by: A. at least one Major Depressive Episode and one Mixed Episode without a Manic or Hypomanic Episode B. at least one Major Depressive Episode and one Hypomanic Episode without a Manic or Mixed Episode C. one or more Manic or Mixed Episodes D. one Mixed Episode or Hypomanic Episode

C (The DSM diagnosis for Bipolar II Disorder requires the history or presence of Major Depressive and Hypomanic Episodes -b.- in the absence of Manic or Mixed Episodes -a., d.-. If an individual diagnosed with Bipolar II Disorder develops a Manic or Mixed Episode then the diagnosis is changed to Bipolar I Disorder.)

156. What percent of individuals diagnosed of Panic Disorder also have Agoraphobia in community samples according to the DSM-IV-TR? A. less than 10% B. 15-25% C. 33-50% D. 50-66%

C (The DSM-IV-TR reports prevalence rates for Panic Disorder of 1 to 2% in community samples and states that "approximately one-third to one-half of individuals diagnosed with Panic Disorder in community samples also have AgoraphobiA -p. 436-.)

163. Orientation is most frequently measured by which of the following scales? A. Global Orientation and Amnesia Test B. Gross Orientation and Awareness Test C. Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test D. Gollingberg Orientation and Awareness Test

C (The Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test -GOAT-, which assesses temporal orientation primarily, was developed to serially evaluate cognition during the subacute stage of recovery from closed head injury. The scale measures orientation to person, place, and time, and memory for events preceding and following the injury.)

111. An accident victim has been partially stabilized in a hospital emergency room and is being transferred to an intensive care unit for continued assessment and treatment. At this point, which of the following is commonly used to evaluate for brain injuries? A. Rancho Los Amigo Scale B. AVPU Scale C. Glascow Coma Scale D. Disability Rating Scale

C (The Glasgow Coma Scale is a standardized test that rates three categories of patient responses: eye opening, best motor response, and best verbal response. The eye opening tests indicate the function of the brain's activating center, the best verbal response indicates the condition of the central nervous system within the cerebral cortex, and the best motor response examines the ability to move arms and legs. The levels of responses indicate the degree of nervous system or brain impairment with "1" being the lowest possible score in each category. Using these scores, which range from 3 to 15 to form the Glascow Coma Scale, brain injuries are classified as mild, moderate or severe. The Rancho Los Amigo Scale -response "A- is an evaluation of eight levels of cognitive functioning administered in acute rehabilitative settings following release from intensive care. The AVPU Scale -response "B- is primarily used after injury occurs or as pre-hospital information. It rates if someone is alert, responds to voice, responds to pain or is unresponsive. The Disability Rating Scale or DRS -response "D- is for gauging general level of disability -e.g., self care, dependence on others- from "none" to "extreme vegetative state.")

T/F Boys receive more criticism and praise from both male and female teachers than girls

6. The Working Memory Index of the WAIS-III is based on which of the following subtests? A. vocabulary, similarities, and information B. digit symbol and symbol search C. digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing D. picture completion, block design, and matrix reasoning

C (The WAIS-III measures four factors: verbal comprehension, perceptual organization, working memory, and processing speed. The working memory index is comprised of digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing. Each of the other choices contain the subtests which comprise the other indices. Vocabulary, similarities, and information subtests -A- make up the verbal comprehension index. Digit symbol and symbol search -B- determine the processing speed index. And picture completion, block design, and matrix reasoning -D- comprise the perceptual organization index.)

191. The WAIS-III measures working memory with which of the following subtests? A. matrix reasoning B. block design C. arithmetic D. digit symbol-coding

C (The arithmetic subtest along with the digit span subtest and letter-number sequencing subtest are used as measures of the Working Memory Factor. Matrix reasoning -answer A- and block design -answer B- are part of the Perceptual Organization Factor. Digit-symbol coding -answer D- is included in the Perceptual Speed Factor.)

141. A psychologist is asked by the attorney for the father in a divorce procedure to determine, in his expert opinion, which parent is better able to care for the children. The father is in the same state as the psychologist but the mother is in a distant state. The psychologist should A. agree to evaluate the father and give his opinion as requested as long as the conclusions are not influenced by who pays the fee. B. evaluate the father but not send the report until asked for it by the judge. C. evaluate the children and both parents before giving such an opinion. D. refuse to accept this work since there can be no firm predictions made as to which parent would be better able to care for the children.

C (The basic principle is that you can't give an opinion as to which parent will be better able to care for the children unless you interview both parents and the children. Otherwise, all you can attest to is your findings about the psychological health of whomever you evaluate. You can't, if you only see one of the parents, opine as to which one is better: You'd have no basis to come to such a conclusion.)

69. The main principle behind the harm reduction approach is: A. prevention is more cost effective than treatment. B. inpatient treatment for substance addicted individuals reduces dangerousness. C. helping individuals not ready to give up substances lead safer lives. D. working towards zero use of substances.

C (The basis of the harm reduction approach is the pragmatic recognition that active substance users must be met "where they are" in terms of their needs and personal goals in treatment. Consistent with a strengths perspective and inspired by cognitive-behavioral therapy, personality theory, traditional addiction treatment, motivational interviewing, relapse prevention, and public health, the emphasis is on reducing the harm of substance abuse and progress over pathology. An alternative to the disease approach, harm reduction approaches embrace the full range of harm-reducing goals including, but not limited to, abstinence and small incremental positive changes are viewed as steps in the right direction. Marlatt -1998- called the philosophy of harm reduction "compassionate pragmatism". -See: Marlatt, G.A. and Tapert., S.F. -1998- Harm Reduction: Pragmatic Strategies for Managing High Risk Behaviors. NY: Guilford Press.)

25. The first step a parent takes in teaching a child to feed the family cat is showing her how to put the cat food into the dish. After mastering that task, she is taught to open a can of cat food and then put it into the dish. The child is then taught to open the pantry door, take out a can of cat food, open it, and put it in the dish. This is an example of: A. stimulus control training B. forward chaining C. backward chaining D. sequential training

C (The child has learned a complex behavior by learning the individual responses in the "behavior chain." The procedure in this question is best described as backward chaining: the parent began by teaching the last behavior and then worked backward from there.)

175. Large amounts of information can be kept in short-term memory through the use of: A. the "savings" method. B. eidetic memory. C. chunking. D. mnemonics.

C (The classic finding in the area of research into short-term memory -STM- is the "7 +/- 2" finding; i.e., that STM has the capacity of storing 7 plus or minus 2 pieces of information at one time. Chunking is a technique designed to increase the amount of information that can be kept in STM -- it involves grouping larger amount of information into single chunks. In other words, STM is used to store 7 +/- 2 chunks rather than 7 +/- 2 isolated bits of information. Mnemonics -choice D- are used to increase the efficiency of encoding newly learned information, which increases the ease with which that information is retrieved from long-term memory.)

13. Compared to the Stanford-Binet, the WAIS-III tends to: A. underestimate the IQ scores of higher functioning individuals. B. underestimate the IQ scores of lower functioning individuals. C. overestimate the IQ scores of lower functioning individuals and underestimate the IQ scores of higher functioning individuals. D. underestimate the IQ scores of lower functioning individuals and overestimate the IQ scores of higher functioning individuals.

C (The easiest way to deal with this question and other questions like it is to remember that for the extremes of the IQ continuum, the Stanford-Binet is a better measure to use. It will more accurately reflect the person's functioning at either the very top or very bottom of the range.)

20. According to Atkinson, Sue, and Sue, the ideal outcome of racial/cultural identity development is A. full acceptance of one's own culture. B. giving individual identity priority over cultural identity. C. recognizing that all cultures have acceptable and unacceptable aspects. D. recognizing the impact of racial/cultural oppression on one's mental health.

C (The final stage in Atkinson et al.'s racial/cultural identity development model is referred to as the "integrative awareness stage." Individuals in this stage recognize that all cultures have both positive and negative aspects and decide which aspects they want to accept or reject.)

33. Which of the following infractions accounts for the largest percentage of malpractice costs? A. lack of competence B. breach of confidentiality C. sexual contact with clients D. improper billing practices

C (The infraction that accounts for the greatest proportion of malpractice claims depends on how the infractions are categorized. However, regardless of the way that malpractice claims are grouped, sex with clients is always the infraction that accounts for the greatest insurance costs, with reported figures ranging from 45 to 50%.)

T/F The effects of REM deprivation are minimal

177. In pre-adolescence, Panic Disorder is A. impossible to distinguish from Separation Anxiety Disorder B. not diagnosed since pre-adolescents cannot exhibit any of the cognitive symptoms of Panic Disorder C. most likely manifested as chest pain, tachycardia, shortness of breath, and refusal to go to school D. most likely manifested as chest pain, tachycardia, shortness of breath, and a feeling of "going crazy"

C (The onset for Panic Disorder typically occurs between late adolescence and the mid-30s. However, a small number of cases do begin in childhood. Although not all theorists agree on whether or not children have the cognitive ability to catastrophize, the research indicates that 6 to 12-year-olds are capable of experiencing panic attacks, typically manifested as chest pain, tachycardia, shortness of breath, and refusal to go to school.)

103. Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is most likely to result in: A. impaired depth perception B. impaired motor coordination C. altered emotional behaviors D. left-right confusion

C (The orbitofrontal cortex is part of the prefrontal cortex located just above the eye sockets. Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is most likely to alter emotional behavior. The orbitofrontal cortex is believed to play a role in excitability, behavioral inhibition, personality, and judgment. The famous case of Phineas Gage, the 19th century railroad worker who survived an iron rod shooting through his head, suffered damage to his orbitofrontal cortex which is believed to have caused changes in his emotions and behaviors.)

121. In any organized setting of more than a few people, paired-comparisons is the preferred rating system when the goal is to A. establish a standard performance criterion for the average productivity rate in that organization. B. rank-order the people in the organization in the most cost-effective manner. C. maximally differentiate among the people in the organization. D. set the most attainable and acceptable production goals for each person in that organization

C (The paired comparison technique involves comparing each person to every other person in the organization in reference to one or more variables such as productivity. It is a time-consuming and expensive process but results in highly precise and differentiated evaluations of each person in the group evaluated.)

61. A client has experienced extreme fatigue, loss of appetite, and stomach pains for the past eight months. Despite numerous medical tests, no physical for his symptoms can be found. The most likely diagnosis is A. Somatization Disorder. B. Factitious Disorder. C. Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder. D. Somatoform Disorder NOS.

C (The presence of physical symptoms that cannot be fully explained by a medical condition is indicative of a Somatoform Disorder. Because the man has only three symptoms and the symptoms have persisted for over six months, the appropriate diagnosis is Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder. -Somatoform Disorder NOS would be the correct diagnosis when symptoms have lasted less than six months-.)

107. According to Beck, depression is caused by A. biochemical factors. B. early parental rejection. C. dysfunctional automatic thoughts. D. dysfunctional irrational thoughts.

C (The purpose of Beck's cognitive therapy is to modify dysfunctional automatic thoughts that are seen as the cause of maladaptive emotional responding -e.g., depression and anxiety-. Unlike Ellis, who identifies irrational thoughts as the cause of clients' problems, Beck believes that these thoughts may or may not be irrational.)

194. A self-fulfilling prophecy where subordinates perform better when expected to do so by their superiors is known as: A. the Barnum effect B. Unconscious inference C. Pygmalion effect D. Tend-and-befriend response

C (The question describes the Pygmalion effect. The Barnum effect -a.-, also known as the Forer effect, is defined as the tendency for people to accept very vague or general feedback, such as horoscopes, as accurate. Unconscious inference -b.- is Helmholtz's term for perception that occurs outside of conscious awareness. The tend-and-befriend response is hypothesized to be typical for females; stressors prompt females to protect their offspring and join social groups to reduce vulnerability. )

120. According to meta-analytic studies of psychotherapy, A. so few well-controlled studies have been done that no conclusions can be made concerning treatment outcome. B. behavior therapy is better than psychoanalysis. C. behavior therapy is the treatment of choice for phobias. D. a person participating in therapy would have just as much chance of improving as a control subject.

C (The research on psychotherapy outcome is pretty consistent in its conclusions. Common findings include that therapy is generally effective for children and adults of all backgrounds and that, with the exception of certain specific problem areas, all therapies are about equal. This question is about one of those exceptions. According to outcome research, phobias respond best to behavioral techniques such as exposure treatments.)

166. A lab subject heard a woman in the next lab fall and cry for help. In this "lady in distress" experiment, a person was least likely to help when tested with: A. no others present. B. a stranger. C. a passive confederate. D. a friend.

C (The subject is most likely to rush to aid someone in distress when all alone in the lab; less likely when there is a stranger or a friend in the room; and least likely when there is a passive confederate in the same room who has been instructed to ignore the whole thing. There is no "diffusion of responsibility" or "pluralistic ignorance" when the subject is alone.)

117. An elevated F score on the MMPI-2 -i.e., the F is greater than 70 and the K is very low- indicates that the: A. person is answering in a socially desirable manner. B. score should be considered in relation to the total profile. C. person is likely being careless or deliberately malingering. D. total profile can be considered valid.

C (The validity scales on the MMPI-2, of which the F is one, are checks on response styles. Specifically, the F scale indicates if the person is answering in a deviant way, or is perhaps actually deviant. The higher the F, the more the answers suggest that the person is attempting to appear odd, disturbed, etc.)

91. Which of the following is true of transformational leaders? A. the goals of the organization are redefined to reflect the self-interest of followers B. believe that subordinates are persuaded when the organization's goals are compatible with their self-interests C. motivate by encouraging subordinates to transcend self-interest for the greater good of the organization D. assent to the self-interest of their followers

C (Transformational leaders are change-oriented. They encourage and inspire subordinate acceptance and support for organizational change that is in the best interests of the organization. In contrast, transactional leaders motivate through appealing to the followers' self-interests and focus more on stability than change. )

105. In some plagiarism cases, writers may be using what they perceive to be their original ideas, consequently failing to credit the ideas to the proper source, while they are actually retrieved thoughts from memory. This is an example of a phenomenon known as: A. source amnesia B. source misattribution C. cryptomnesia D. false fame effect

C (There are several reasons for errors in memory. Source misattributions -b.- occur when individuals misremember the time, place, person, or circumstances involved with a memory. Cryptomnesia -c.- is an example which occurs when a person perceives the recovery of information from memory as being an original idea of their own. Another example of source misattribution is the false fame effect -d.- in which subjects remembered the names but could not recall where they had encountered the names so they concluded that the individuals were famous. Source amnesia -a.- is an episodic memory disorder where source or contextual information surrounding facts are severely distorted and/or unable to be recalled. An individual remembers some factual information, yet forgets the contextual information related to the fact such as when, where, and with whom the fact was learned.)

218. You have been retained by the court to make a recommendation concerning custody of a 4 year old girl. You have met with the mother on two occasions and also administered some psychological tests. You have completed a phone interview with the father who lives out of state. In reporting to the court, you should A. explain that you cannot present any data. B. recommend custody go to the parent you have determined is most competent to parent. C. present the results of your evaluation but refrain from making a recommendation. D. make a recommendation, but note that your evaluation of the father was incomplete.

C (This is another question where it is tempting to do more than you are qualified to do. Answer C is correct; Standard 9.01-b- states that "psychologists provide opinions of the psychological characteristics of individuals only after they have conducted an examination of the individuals adequate to support their statements or conclusions. When, despite reasonable efforts, such an examination is not practical, psychologists document the efforts they made and the result of those efforts, clarify the probable impact of their limited information on the reliability and validity of their opinions, and appropriately limit the nature and extent of their conclusions or recommendations." A phone conversation is not a psychological evaluation. You may have chosen response D, but it is pertinent to ask yourself the question that if you could not make a complete evaluation why would you make a recommendation.)

25. Traditional psychoanalytic psychotherapy and brief therapies derived from it share several characteristics but also differ in a number of ways. Which of the following is not true about brief forms of psychodynamic psychotherapy? A. In brief psychotherapy, past experiences are important to the degree that they contribute to the client's current conflicts. B. Brief therapy targets specific therapeutic goals, which are identified during the first few sessions. C. In order to solve a client's problems rapidly, brief therapy makes use of the "transference cure" rather than fostering the client's insight into his or her problems. D. Brief therapy can be described as a problem-solving process in which the therapist helps the client use his or her own resources to resolve current difficulties.

C (This is the opposite of what is true. In brief forms of psychodynamic psychotherapy, client insight is desirable, although it is limited to those areas that are identified as the targets of therapy.)

78. You are working with a couple in marital therapy and are conducting the initial interview. You realize that although the husband doesn't remember you, the two of you once dated. You should A. speak to the husband alone, explain the situation and ask him if he feels comfortable with proceeding. B. see the wife in individual therapy only. C. refer the couple to another therapist. D. let the couple know the situation and then proceed with therapy.

C (This question is fairly easy to answer once you remember you are not obliged to provide services for all your referrals. This is an initial interview and you have a situation that involves a multiple relationship. You need to refer this couple to one of your competent colleagues.)

20. The validity coefficient of a new job selection test is 0.25. This test would most likely be useful when: A. the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very low B. the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very high C. there are many applicants for few job openings D. there are few applicants for many job openings

C (This question is referring to a test's incremental validity. Incremental validity is the increase in decision-making accuracy resulting from the use of a particular predictor. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1- the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2- the test's validity coefficient; and 3- the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants -for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05-. Incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is moderate, the validity coefficient is high, and the selection ratio is low. The Taylor-Russell tables can be used to determine a test's incremental validity, given specific values for the base rate, validity coefficient, and selection ratio. We can eliminate Choices A and B because a moderate base rate maximizes the usefulness of a selection test more than a low or high base rate does. Contrary to Choice D, a low selection ratio -many applicants for few job openings- is better than a high selection ratio.)

92. A psychologist serves as the head of a social service agency. The psychologist likes the job because, in addition to allowing her to work with clients in a clinical setting, it provides her with the opportunity for raises and promotions. On the Strong Interest Inventory, the psychologist would likely receive high scores for which of the following personality types? A. investigative and conventional B. realistic and artistic C. social and enterprising D. investigative and enterprising

C (This questions is about Holland's six personality types -- realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. One's results on the Strong Interest Inventory include a 3-letter personality type that indicates, in order, which three types best describe the individual. Individuals in the mental health professions typically obtain a 3-letter code of social, enterprising, and artistic -SEA-; if you knew this, you knew enough to answer the question. If you didn't, the question helped you out by telling you that the psychologist likes to work hands-on with clients -which would be characteristic of the social type- and that she is interested in promotions and pay raises -which would be characteristic of the enterprising type-.)

144. During the sixth month of group therapy, two co-leaders have a disagreement in session about how to run the group. According to Yalom, they should A. allow the senior therapist to take control of the group. B. divide the group into two sub-groups, each led by one of the co-leaders. C. resolve the conflict in front of the group. D. agree to discuss the conflict later, outside the presence of the group.

C (Yalom believes that co-leaders should not express conflict in front of the group during the early stages of therapy. However, in his book The Theory and Practice of Group Psychotherapy, he notes that mature resolution of conflict in the later stages can serve as a healthy model for the group members.)

74. Which of the following models of leadership provides a "decision tree" to help a leader determine whether an autocratic, consultative, or consensual decision-making approach is best given the nature of the work situation? A. Fiedler's contingency model B. Hersey and Blanchard's situational model C. Vroom and Yetton's normative model D. House's path-goal model

C (You may have been able to answer this one through the process of elimination if you knew that the models described by Fiedler, Hersey and Blanchard, and House don't include a decision-tree, which is provided by the Vroom and Yetton model.)

187. Which of the following methods of establishing a test's reliability is, all other things being equal, likely to be lowest? A. split-half B. Cronbach's alpha C. alternate forms D. test-retest

C (You probably remember that the alternate forms coefficient is considered by many to be the best reliability coefficient to use when practical -if you don't, commit this factoid to memory now-. Everything else being equal, it is also likely to have a lower magnitude than the other types of reliability coefficients. The reason for this is similar to the reason why it is considered the best one to use. To obtain an alternate forms coefficient, one must administer two forms of the same test to a group of examinees, and correlate scores on the two forms. The two forms of the test are administered at different times and -because they are different forms- contain different items or content. In other words, there are two sources of error -or factors that could lower the coefficient- for the alternate forms coefficient: the time interval and different content -in technical terms, these sources of error are referred to respectively as "time sampling" and "content sampling"-. The alternate forms coefficient is considered the best reliability coefficient by many because, for it to be high, the test must demonstrate consistency across both a time interval and different content.)

Name 2 structural neuroimaging techniques-which is better?

CT scan & MRI- MRI is better but more expensive

The ________________ theory of emotion proposes that emotional and bodily reaction to stimuli occur simultaneously James-Lang Canon-Bard Two-factor Cognitive Appraisal

Canon-Bard theory

Field: humanistic; Contributions: founded person-centered therapy, theory that emphasizes the unique quality of humans especially their freedom and potential for personal growth, unconditional positive regard, fully functioning person

Carl Rogers

The mode, median and the mean are the most commonly used measures of ______.

Central Tendency

The ______________ theory proposes that emotions arise from how emotion-arousing events are interpreted James-Lang Canon-Bard Two-factor Cognitive Appraisal

Cognitive Appraisal

___________ aphasia doesn't affect lang comprehension but does result in anomia and impaired repetition

Conduction aphasia

157. Post-traumatic amnesia -PTA- refers to the impaired orientation or amnesia following a traumatic brain injury. The duration of PTA is considered to be: A. related to outcome only for children. B. unrelated to outcome. C. a poor predictor of outcome. D. a good predictor of outcome.

D ( A common symptom resulting from head injury is post traumatic amnesia -PTA-, a pattern of mental disturbance characterized by memory failure for day-to-day events, disorientation, misidentification of family and friends, impaired attention and illusions. Although PTA can vary from hour to hour and day to day, its duration is most commonly used as a guide to the extensiveness of the damage. The duration of PTA appears to be a sensitive and reliable index of severity, with the longer the PTA the stronger the probability of extensive damage. While there is currently no universal agreement that PTA is a better or more sensitive predictor of outcome after traumatic brain injury than depth and duration of unconsciousness, many consider the duration of PTA the best indicator of traumatic brain injury severity and the most dependable marker of outcome prediction, even in mild cases -i.e., duration of less than one hour-. PTA impaired orientation may include retrograde and/or anterograde amnesia and researchers have suggested that PTA would be more accurately called posttraumatic confusional state. With respect to recovery, the duration of retrograde amnesia usually progressively declines while anterograde memory is frequently the last function to return especially after the recovery from loss of consciousness. Most individuals with a mild brain injury recover cognitive and behavioral functions and resolution of other symptoms within 3 to 6 months, though some continue to have symptoms for an extended period and individuals with a moderate or severe injury are likely to experience long-term symptoms and impairments in multiple areas of functioning. An increased risk for long-term impairment include: female gender, previous head trauma, and history of a neurological or psychiatric problem. -See: Ponsford, J. -2000-. Factors influencing outcome following mild traumatic brain injury in adults, Journal of the International Neuropsychological Society, 6-5-, 568-579.)

183. A highly differentiated profile on the Self-Directed Search inventory signifies: A. all six section scores on the instrument are high. B. half of the section scores on the instrument are high and the other half low. C. two of the section scores on the instrument are high and are opposites on the personality hexagon. D. only one of the section scores on the instrument is high.

D ( According to Holland -1997-, differentiation is defined as the level of definition or distinctness of a profile and can be thought of as the difference between an individual's highest and lowest summary scale score on the SDS. A highly differentiated profile would only have a high point code on one of the six types. Profile elevation is the sum of the six section scores on the instrument, so -a.- would be an example of high profile elevation. )

189. Which of the following statements is a major assumption of crisis theory? A. insight must precede change B. overwhelming emotions are the prime motivators for change C. internal conflicts preclude problem solving D. people can learn to cope with stress

D ( According to crisis theory, people in crisis tend to follow a predictable sequence of response and a key goal of crisis intervention is to help individuals in crisis learn more effective coping so that they can respond more adaptively when having similar experiences in the future. Crisis management strategies often include grief work; active listening; encouraging the open expression of feelings; increasing understanding of the crisis; promoting greater acceptance of reality; exploring constructive ways of coping; linkage to a social network; decision counseling; and reinforcement of newly learned coping behaviors. While addressing a client's emotions, including the overwhelming ones -b.-, is a part of crisis intervention, crisis theory and crisis intervention also emphasize the cognitive and behavioral elements of a crisis. Although crisis theorists do predict that crisis intervention will be more successful when a client is able to understand the crisis situation -e.g., how his or her behavior is related to the crisis-, neither insight -a.- nor the resolution of internal conflicts -c.- is considered a prerequisite for change or problem-solving during crisis intervention. )

52. Solomon, Pyszczynski, and Greenberg's terror management theory proposes anxiety or "terror" results from the conscious awareness that human beings have of the inevitability of their death and is best dealt with by: A. religious faith B. consensual validation C. mortality salience D. self-esteem and a cultural worldview

D ( According to terror management theory -TMT-, individuals utilize two things to manage the terror associated with the fear of death: a cultural worldview and self-esteem. Consensual validation -b.-, or others' agreement with one's own worldviews and self-concept, is critical for the effectiveness of cultural worldviews and self-esteem. An outside group, person or differing ideas that clash may threaten the validation system -religion, political ideology- that provides a sense of security. Studies have found increased mortality salience -c.-, encountering or recently thinking about death, results in people strongly connecting to their worldview elements like religious beliefs or national pride and increased emergence of prejudices against an outside group in addition to creating a longing for structure, order, acceptance of quick, easy answers to problems and foregoing careful consideration of all options. -See: Pyszczynski, T., Solomon, S., & Greenberg, J. -2003-. In the Wake of 9/11: The Psychology of Terror. Washington, D.C.: American Psychological Association. and Solomon, S., Greenberg, J. & Pyszczynski, T. -1991-. "A Terror Management Theory of Social Behavior: The Psychological Functions of Self-Esteem and Cultural Worldviews." Advances in Experimental Social Psychology, 24, Zanna, M.P. -Ed)

60. Which of the following statements is true regarding the incidence of Major Depressive Disorder? A. The rate for prepubescent girls is twice that of prepubescent boys B. The rate for adolescent females is half that of adult females C. The rate for adolescent and adult females is half that of adolescent and adult males D. The rate for adolescent and adult females is twice that of adolescent and adult males

D (According to the DSM-IV-TR, Major Depressive Disorder occurs at twice the rate for adolescent and adult females as compared to adolescent and adult males. The rates for prepubertal boys and girls are equal.)

195. A therapist is working with a newly arrived refugee client about her difficulties in acculturation. The therapist does not have firsthand experience as a refugee or immigrant, however, knows what it is like to move from one city to another, transfer employment, lose work, and experience the loss of family or friends. That the therapist is able to understand, accept, and feel the client's situation, while simultaneously maintaining a separate sense of cultural self is an example of: A. cultural encapsulation B. cultural universality C. active empathy D. cultural empathy

D ( Cultural empathy means a therapist understands and appreciates cultural differences in a way that extends the boundaries of traditional empathy, retaining his or her separate cultural identity while simultaneously aware of and accepting the cultural values and beliefs of the client. It is a way of relating interpersonally with the ability to accurately understand the experience of culturally diverse clients and the ability to communicate this understanding effectively with an attitude of concern across cultures. Cultural encapsulation -a.-, according to Gilbert Wrenn -1962-, refers to when a therapist defines reality according to one set of cultural assumptions, becomes insensitive to cultural variations, disregards evidence disproving their assumptions, depends on technique-oriented or quick-fix solutions to problems and judges others from their own self-reference criteria. Cultural universality -b.- refers to the assumption that Western concepts of normality and abnormality can be considered universal and equally applicable across all cultures. Active empathy -c.- refers to when therapists actively communicate appreciation about all aspects of clients' lives.)

81. The belief of adolescents that others are as preoccupied with their appearance and behavior as they are best describes the concept of: A. social norms. B. social referencing. C. a personal fable. D. an imaginary audience.

D ( Elkind identified two aspects of the adolescent's renewed egocentrism. The imaginary audience is the belief that one is always "on stage"; the personal fable is the belief that one is unique and invulnerable. Elkind describes how young adolescents are preoccupied by themselves because they are undergoing major physiological changes and identified two aspects of the adolescent's renewed egocentrism. Their egocentrism, based on the belief that others are as preoccupied with their appearance and behavior as they are, consequently results in their anticipating other's thoughts and responses about them, and then constantly creating or reacting to an imaginary audience. Elkind noted this likely plays a role in the self-consciousness so common in early adolescence. The second aspect Elkind introduced was the idea of the personal fable -c.- wherein adolescents construct a story or view about their personal uniqueness or the uniqueness of their experiences and feelings. An example of this is the common conviction that the adolescent will not die. Elkind believes the egocentrism of early adolescence usually lessens by the age of 15 or 16 as cognitive development proceeds. Social norms -a.- are the rules that a group uses for appropriate and inappropriate values, beliefs, attitudes and behaviors. These rules may be explicit or implicit. Social referencing -b.- is considered a sign of attachment between a child and its caregiver. )

135. The two aspects of interactional justice are: A. environmental and social justice B. interpersonal and environmental justice C. informational and comparative justice D. interpersonal and informational justice

D ( Justice Perceptions are employee judgments about whether their work situation is fair and have been found to be related to: job satisfaction, performance, withdrawal and counterproductive behaviors and organizational commitment. Interactional justice focuses on the interpersonal treatment of individuals when procedures are implemented and consists of two components: interpersonal justice, which refers to the degree to which individuals affected by decisions are treated with dignity, respect and politeness by third parties or authorities involved in executing procedures or determining outcomes, and informational justice, which refers to the $$$s provided to individuals conveying information about why procedures were used in a certain way or why outcomes were distributed in a particular manner.)

79. An elementary school-aged child with symptoms of generalized anxiety participates in a treatment that involves exposure, or practicing approaching and confronting a feared situation or object, and rewards her when she does so. This is called: A. family anxiety management -FAM-. B. exposure. C. systematic desensitization. D. reinforced practice.

D ( Like exposure -b.-, reinforced practice involves practicing approaching and confronting a feared situation or object, to make confronting it easier. However, unlike exposure, reinforced practice rewards the child when he/she does so. Family Anxiety Management -FAM- -a.- teaches parents to reward the child for confronting his/her feared situation or object, and ignore excessive complaining when confronted with his/her feared situation or object. Systematic desensitization -c.- involves encouraging the child to imagine his/her feared object or situation while he/she is engaged in a response that is incompatible with anxiety -e.g. relaxation or play-, instead of physically exposing them to the feared object or situation. )

82. Of the following monoamine neurotransmitters, which is not a catecholamine? A. dopamine B. norepinephrine C. epinephrine D. serotonin

D ( On the basis of their structures, the four monoamine neurotransmitters are subdivided into two groups, catecholamines and indolamines. Dopamine -a.- norepinephrine -b.- and epinephrine -c.- are catecholamines and each is synthesized from the amino acid tyrosine. In contrast, serotonin -also called 5-hydroxytryptamine or 5-HT- is synthesized from the amino acid tryptophan and is classified as an indolamine. )

32. Research utilizing functional brain imaging techniques has shown a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder -ADHD- and has linked it to abnormalities in the following brain structures: A. parietal lobe, hypothalamus, and corpus callosum B. parietal lobe, striatum, and amygdala C. frontal lobe, thalamus, and amygdala D. frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum

D ( Recent research has established a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder -ADHD- with abnormalities in the right frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum most consistently implicated in this disorder. Other areas of the brain, including certain regions of the parietal lobe, have been linked to ADHD to a lesser extent. Using the core symptoms of ADHD and functions of the major brain structures, you may have determined the frontal lobes -mediates higher-order functions-, the striatum -part of the basal ganglia and composed of the caudate nucleus and the putamen- and cerebellum -involved in motor activity- are the areas linked to this disorder. -See: J. Giedd et al., Brain imaging of attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, Annals of New York Academy of Sciences, 2001, 931, 33-49.)

T/F Overall, children living with a biol parent and stepparent have worse outcomes than those living with 2 biol parents

T but the differences are small

132. Structural equation modeling is used to: A. classify participants into criterion groups based on their status or score on two or more predictors. B. to evaluate convergent and divergent validity. C. to identify homogeneous groups from a collection of observations. D. to evaluate predictive relationships between measured variables and latent factors.

D ( Structural equation modeling is a technique used to evaluate or confirm the cause-and-effect or hypothesized relationship between both measured and latent variables. Classifying participants into criterion groups based on their status or score on two or more predictors -a.- is referred to as discriminant function analysis. Convergent and divergent validity is evaluated -b.- using the multitrait-multimethod matrix. Cluster analysis -c.- is a method for grouping objects of similar kind into respective categories. It can be used to discover structures in data without providing an $$$/interpretation.)

149. The memory phenomenon of automaticity is associated with all of the following except: A. reduced the demand on the working memory B. no new learning or little memory modification C. robust and long-term retention of associated skills D. new skills can be acquired quickly

D ( The term automaticity refers to the ability to chunk or to move information between working memory and long-term so rapidly and efficiently that the processes entails virtually no attention on the part of the individual. Automaticity is developed through overlearning which minimizes cognitive load in working memory -a.- and allows for higher order processing of information. Some of the other advantages of automaticity include: long-term retention of associated skills, robust under stress and low effort performance. Some limitations associated with automaticity include: the requirement of extended training or a long time to acquire; little memory modification or new learning; individual components of an automatized task or skill become relatively inaccessible to consciousness and therefore are difficult to control; the separate components are difficult to analyze or explain to others; and automatic behaviors are difficult to suppress or modify. -See: Perry, J. -2003-. Automaticity: A learned advantage. In B. Hoffman -Ed.-, Encyclopedia of Educational Technology.)

16. Research on sex-role determinants suggests the characteristic that is most related to genetics, as opposed to socialization, is: A. anxiety B. dependency C. sociability D. aggression

D ( The vast majority of empirical studies indicate that very few abilities and traits that distinguish males from females are biologically determined. In other words, the things typically viewed as either inherently masculine or feminine are actually defined and developed through socialization. However, there are some characteristics that seem to transcend socialization. Aggression is the only one of the four response choices that appears to be more related to hormones than learning, with boys being naturally more active and having higher aggressive drives than girls. It is important to note though, recent research has found that gender differences in aggression needs to be qualified: Boys are more overtly -physically and verbally- aggressive than girls, but girls display more relational aggression - i.e., they try to harm or exert control over others by withdrawing their acceptance or friendship -Crick & Grotpeter, 1995-. )

38. An individual with apperceptive visual agnosia would have difficulty: A. locating an object in space B. perceiving the placement of their limbs in space C. identifying familiar faces D. identifying an object from an atypical view

D ( Visual agnosia refers to the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight. The type of visual agnosia described in this question is referred to as apperceptive agnosia and involves an inability to recognize familiar objects, especially in low-light conditions, when there are many shadows, when objects overlap, or from an atypical view. )

29. A study is conducted to determine the effectiveness of 3 different reading programs on reading comprehension. The participants are 5th grade students who are divided into 3 levels based on their past reading comprehension -below average, average, and above average-. Results from a factorial ANOVA indicate that there are significant main effects of each variable and a significant interaction effect. Based on these results, one could conclude that: A. each of the reading programs is equally effective for students at every reading level B. only one of the reading programs is effective for students at every reading level C. the reading programs are only effective for students at a particular reading level D. the most effective reading program is dependent on the student's reading level

D (A factorial ANOVA is used when a study has more than one independent variable. Factorial designs also allow for the assessment of both main effects -the effects of each independent variable considered individually- and interaction effects -the effects of each variable at the different levels of the other variable-. The study described in this question has two "significant main effects" for the independent variables: type of reading program and past level of reading comprehension. And a "significant interaction effect" means that the effects of the different reading programs varied significantly for students at different reading levels. For example, "Reading Program A may have been highly effective for above average students, moderately effective for average students, yet ineffective for below average students. On the other hand, "Reading Program B may have been only effective for below average students, while "Reading Program C may not have been effective for any students.)

219. The research suggests that, to control excessive aggression in children, the best approach is: A. time-out and similar behavioral techniques. B. opportunities for catharsis. C. explaining the consequences of aggressive acts. D. social-skills training.

D (A number of techniques have been found useful for reducing aggression in children, but many of them -e.g., catharsis- have only short-term effects. In the long run, the best thing to do is to teach aggressive children alternative, nonaggressive, prosocial behaviors, which is a component of social-skills training.)

128. A percentage score, as opposed to a percentile rank, is based on: A. Total number of items B. An examinee's score in comparison to other examinee's scores C. That there are one hundred test items D. The number of items answered correctly

D (A percentage score indicates the number of items answered correctly. A percentile rank compares one examinee's score with all other examinee's scores.)

178. A primary reinforcer is the same as: A. A conditioned reinforcer B. The first reinforcer used C. Pseudoconditioning D. An unconditioned reinforcer

D (A primary reinforcer is the same as an unconditioned reinforcer. These are items that acquire their reinforcing value without special training. Food and water are examples of primary reinforcers.)

62. You are an organizational process consultant hired by a hospital. Several nurses tell you they feel they're being overworked and underpaid. In this case, your most likely intervention would be to A. explain the nurses' concerns to the hospital administrators. B. conduct a job analysis to determine how much the nurses deserve to be paid and present your results to the hospital administrators. C. act with the best interests of the hospital's patients in mind. D. help the nurses organize regular meetings with the physicians and administrators to discuss their concerns.

D (A process consultant, rather than merely correcting problems for his or her client, focuses on an organization's underlying processes, with the goal of making changes in processes so that individuals within the organization can solve their own problems. Thus, choice D is the best answer, as it is the only one which offers a way in which the nurses and administrators can work together to solve the problem of dissatisfaction with work conditions. By comparison, choices A and B would have the consultant diagnose and "fix" the problem; these interventions would be consistent with the medical rather than the process model of consultation.)

203. During an initial interview with a psychotherapy client, the client tells the psychologist that he wants to pay for his sessions himself without the psychologist releasing any information to his insurance company. He also requests that the psychologist not keep any records of their sessions. Agreeing to this arrangement would be: A. ethical and legal, as long as the psychologist keeps a record of the financial payments and reports those amounts on income tax forms B. ethical, as long as the psychologist determines that the client's reasons for the request are valid C. unethical, because psychologists cannot withhold records from a client's insurance company D. unethical and possibly illegal, because psychologists must maintain records

D (According to APA's Record Keeping Guidelines -1993, 48-9-, 984-986- records should be maintained and should minimally include: identifying data, dates and types of service, fees, any release of information obtained, any assessment, plan for intervention, consultation, summary reports, and/or testing reports. Although these guidelines are aspirational, they have become a standard of care for psychologists and, therefore, not maintaining any records about a client would be considered unethical. Many states also require the maintenance of client records, and therefore, not keeping records may be illegal. In regards to Choice C, clients generally have the right not to permit the release of records to their insurance company if the insurance company will not be responsible for payment. However, if the psychologist is a contracted provider for the insurance company, the contract may include restrictions on providing "out-of-pocket" treatment to its members or it may require the client to sign a waiver releasing the insurance company of its financial responsibility.)

175. According to the theory of psychopathology on which Beck's model of cognitive therapy is based, which of the following is true regarding the role of schema? A. Dysfunctional schemas always cause problems, even if they are not associated with symptomatic behavior. B. Certain types of schema, known as "core schemA are not accessible to the conscious mind. C. Schemas govern cognition but not other psychological phenomena such as memory, affect, or motivation. D. Dysfunctional schema develop over the course of life experience beginning in childhood.

D (According to Beck, schemas are relatively stable cognitive patterns on which attention to and interpretations of external events are based. In a depressed individual, the person's interpretation of external events is distorted to fit the schema. For example, a person who views him- or herself as worthless and deserving rejection will tend to interpret the statements and behaviors of others as rejection. Beck believed that life experiences, beginning in childhood, provide the basis for forming schemas. As an example, the belief that all losses are irreversible is a core schema that may have been formed due in large part to the death of a parent in childhood. Let's briefly go through the other choices. Choice A is incorrect because not all schemas -- even dysfunctional schemas -- cause problems. This is because, according to Beck, some schemas are inactive and remain so unless they are activated by external events. Choice B is wrong because Beck believed that schemas -- including core schemas, or basic assumptions about oneself and the world -- are readily available to the patient's conscious mind; this is one way that he distinguishes the cognitive therapy approach from psychoanalysis. And choice C is wrong because Beck believed that schemas are involved in memory, affect, and motivation, as well as all other functions related to perception and information processing.)

168. Dr. Bean is a newly licensed clinical psychologist who is practicing in a small rural town. She is the only mental health practitioner in a 150-mile radius. Dr. Bean finds that some of her clients have mental health problems that she has little or no experience treating. Her best course of action is to A. refuse to treat the clients who have problems that she is unfamiliar with. B. obtain appropriate training before treating the clients who have problems that she is unfamiliar with. C. inform the clients of her lack of experience and let them decide what to do. D. see the clients but obtain supervision or consultation by telephone.

D (According to Ethics Standard 2.01-d-, "When psychologists are asked to provide services to individuals for whom appropriate mental health services are not available and for which psychologists have not obtained the competence necessary, psychologists with closely related prior training or experience may provide such services in order to ensure that services are not denied if they make a reasonable effort to obtain the competence required by using relevant research, training, consultation, or study." Since Dr. Bean is the only mental health professional in town, this is the best course of action of those given in the responses since there is no indication that the clients have problems that Dr. Bean doesn't want to treat or that she would not be able to treat with consultation or supervision. )

212. A 16-year-old girl tells her therapist that she wants to kill herself and that she's been thinking of using her mother's prescription pain pills to overdose. The therapist then tells her that he will have to tell her parents about her suicide risk. The girl becomes enraged and says that she would not have disclosed the information if she knew that the therapist would tell her parents. The therapist should: A. agree not to tell the parents if the girl agrees to a no-harm contract B. agree not to tell the parents, but tell them without the girl's knowledge C. tell the parents and refer the girl to another therapist because she will probably not be able to trust the therapist again D. tell the parents and apologize to the girl for having to do so

D (According to both ethics and law, a psychologist may disclose confidential information without the client's consent to protect the client from harm. This applies to minors and adults alike. In this case, it would most likely be appropriate to inform the girl's parents about her suicide risk. The reasons for this should be explained to the girl and the therapist should apologize for the breach of confidentiality. Given the apparent level of risk involved, it would probably not be sufficient to rely on a no-harm contract -A-. It would certainly be inappropriate and countertherapeutic to lie to the client -B-. And it may not be necessary to refer the client -C-. If handled empathically, it is likely that the girl will come to understand the therapist's reasons for disclosing to the parents and may come to appreciate that her safety was his overriding concern.)

40. A forensic psychologist is asked to review and make conclusions regarding a defendant's psychological evaluation that was conducted 4 years ago following a similar crime that the defendant is now accused of. The psychologist should: A. refuse the request B. comply with the request but interpret the previous findings with caution C. reevaluate the person and disregard the previous findings D. reevaluate the person and interpret the previous findings with caution

D (According to the Forensic Specialty Guidelines, "Forensic psychologists avoid giving written or oral evidence about the psychological characteristics of particular individuals when they have not had an opportunity to conduct an examination of the individual..." And, according to Ethical Standard 9.08, psychologists also do not base their decisions on outdated results. Thus, the psychologist in this case should make a reasonable effort to reevaluate the person. However, it would probably be inappropriate to completely disregard the previous findings. The best approach would be to reevaluate the person and interpret the previous findings with caution.)

17. According to the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists -APA, 1991-, if a psychological evaluation is ordered by a court and the defendant to be evaluated informs the evaluating psychologist that he does not wish to cooperate, the psychologist should: A. conduct the evaluation B. refuse to conduct the evaluation C. refuse to conduct the evaluation unless the defendant consents D. postpone the evaluation and notify the defendant's attorney

D (Although it is not necessary to obtain informed consent for court-ordered evaluations, the subject of the evaluation should be informed of its purpose. Furthermore, if the subject does not want to be evaluated, the subject's attorney should be contacted before taking further action. If the attorney also objects to the evaluation, the psychologist should then notify the court and respond as directed.)

122. A psychologist is contacted by email by a woman seeking online therapy to become more motivated to make some positive life changes. The psychologist agrees to provide the e-therapy and therefore should do which of the following in terms of charging this client for his services? A. have the client e-mail her credit card information to him before providing services B. charge per e-mail exchange, based on the fee that the client agrees to beforehand C. charge per minute, based on the fee that the client agrees to beforehand D. establish the fee with the client before providing his services

D (Although responses "B and "C are acceptable, only "D describes something that any e-therapist "shoulD do. One practice standard for psychologists offering services online is to state their fee structure clearly - clearly stating the amount of their fee on their Web page and communicating with clients about the fee before providing any services. Many e-therapists do what is described in answer "B - they charge their hourly fee and charge for the time they spend reading and answering each e-mail from a client. An e-therapist can have clients pay by mail, using a check or money order, or accept payment via a credit card. An e-therapist who accepts credit cards, however, must allow payment via a secure server or give the client a phone or fax number to call with his credit card information - he should never ask a client to send her credit card information in an e-mail -a.-, or via in any nonsecure Web form. Note: Additional practice standards for e-therapy include: Describing clearly and fully what services do and do not consist of; fully and accurately disclosing professional credentials, licensure and experience; fully inform clients about how online services work, the skills they need in order to use online services, reach an agreement on the frequency of service and what the possible benefits and risks are, including breaches of confidentiality; deliver services exactly as advertised; make provisions to ensure the confidentiality and privacy of online communications; maintain records of the services provided according to professional and state-mandated standards; and discuss the procedures to follow in an emergency. Legal issues related to e-therapy most often involve those having to do with regulation -i.e., licensure, malpractice coverage-, the therapist-client relationship, quality, and security and privacy. Given the unresolved legal issues associated with e-therapy, it considered by many to be too risky for psychologists to diagnose or treat mental disorders online. -See: Hsiung, R.C. -2002-. Suggested Principles of Professional Ethics for E-Therapy. E-Therapy: Case Studies, Guiding Principles, and the Clinical Potential of the Internet; And: International Society for Mental Health Online -ISMHO- & Psychiatric Society for Informatics -2000-. The Suggested Principles for the Online Provision of Mental Health Services. Accessed May 2007. http://www.ismho.org)

60. The variable most directly associated with a need for personal space is A. education. B. sex. C. income. D. cultural background.

D (Although some studies suggest that cultural differences in the need for personal space are not as great as once believed, this is still the best answer. For instance, research has illustrated that adult Americans generally require more personal space than adults in other cultures.)

115. According to some experts, one potential drawback of concurrent participation in group and individual therapy is that A. group therapy may increase resistance to individual therapy. B. the patient may bring group therapy issues into individual therapy. C. the patient may use group therapy rather than individual therapy as a support system. D. the patient may save his or her disclosures for individual therapy, leaving nothing for the group.

D (Although there are a number of advantages to the combined use of group and individual therapy, there are also some potential drawbacks, including that there may be a draining off of clinical material from the therapy group by the individual sessions. Other potential problems include that the concurrent approach may interfere with the full development of the transference in individual therapy, and that the addition of group therapy may increase the anxiety levels of certain patients. If you didn't know this, you may have been able to use the process of elimination and common sense to choose the best answer. For instance, there is no reason to assume that group therapy would increase resistance to individual therapy; in fact, experts have noted that it can reduce such resistance. Moreover, the patient bringing up group issues in individual therapy does not seem to be a problem; indeed, experts have pointed out that an advantage of the concurrent approach is that group-induced frustrations can be worked through in individual therapy. Finally, relying on group therapy more than individual therapy for support does not seem to be a problem either, since one of the major purposes of group therapy is to provide additional support.)

146. The best predictor of therapy success would be A. symptoms. B. dependency. C. previous treatment. D. misery.

D (Among these four alternatives, it's probably the person who shows the most distress -misery- who would be the most motivated to seek and make use of treatment. Making the symptoms dystonic and difficult to bear will enhance motivation.)

217. In a job selection decision, age can be used as an exclusionary criterion A. never. B. if there is a ruling from the appropriate federal agency allowing it. C. if there is a significant difference in mean ages of incumbents and applicants. D. if age is directly related to job performance.

D (Any limiting criterion is acceptable in a job selection procedure as long as the criterion is shown to be job-related. For instance, you could exclude people with very poor eyesight as air traffic controllers, you could exclude people with very little stamina and strength as firefighters, and so forth. Thus, if an employer can empirically demonstrate that being a certain age is a bona-fide occupational requirement, it could be used as a job criterion. Let's say you were hiring painters to work on the Golden Gate Bridge. You might very well find that people over age 60 couldn't do the job safely and well. If you could prove this finding empirically, you could use age as a criterion. Note, however, that if an employer is challenged on the use of a discriminatory exclusionary criterion, the employer bears the legal burden of demonstrating that it is job relevant.)

171. Early memory and attention deficits in Alzheimer's disease are believed to be caused by decreased activity in A. dopaminergic neurons. B. serotenergic neurons. C. GABAergic neurons. D. cholinergic neurons.

D (As knowledge about Alzheimer's accumulates, more is being learned about the neurotransmitters involved in the disease. Acetylcholine -a cholinergic neurotransmitter- was the first to be implicated and appears to be the neurotransmitter most involved, especially in early memory and attention deficits. However, serotonin, norepinephrine, and glutamate also seem to be involved but may be more important for symptoms that appear in the later stages of the disorder.)

90. A psychologist determines clients' fees based on their current income. This "sliding scale" practice is: A. explicitly prohibited in the Ethics Code B. explicitly recommended in the Ethics Code C. unacceptable but not explicitly mentioned in the Ethics Code. D. acceptable but not explicitly mentioned in the Ethics Code.

D (As long as they are fair and serve the best interests of the client, sliding scale fees are generally considered acceptable. The Ethics Code does not explicitly address sliding scale fees.)

14. Presbyopia, a common result of normal aging, is most likely to increase the near point from four inches at 20 years of age to _________ at 60 years of age. A. 8 inches B. 12 inches C. 24 inches D. 48 inches

D (As we age the ability of our eyes to focus on objects declines due to a loss of elasticity in the lens of the eye. This condition, known as "presbyopia," typically increases the near point -the shortest distance at which we can focus- from four inches at 20 years of age to about four feet at 60 years of age. Although some people have different rates of decline, presbyopia eventually affects everyone.)

159. Children raised by parents who are very demanding but warm are likely to be highly: A. neurotic B. oppositional C. insecure D. resilient

D (Authoritative parents are very demanding but also warm and responsive to their children. Children raised by authoritative parents tend be more mature and have better coping skills, or resilience to life stressors, than children raised with other parenting styles.)

100. A therapist working from the perspective of Beck's cognitive therapy would approach the treatment of Panic Disorder by A. having the client identify maladaptive thoughts that precede panic attacks and then restructuring those thoughts. B. connecting the panic attacks to the client's overall attributional styles. C. teaching the client methods of self-reinforcement to use when he or she is not having a panic attack and methods of self-punishment to use when he or she is having one. D. identifying and modifying the client's interpretation of panic attacks and their associated physical symptoms.

D (Cognitive therapists believe that Panic Disorder is connected to "catastrophic misinterpretations" of bodily sensations, symptoms, and mentation. The client's "overcastrophization" of early signs of the attack such as hyperventilation results in a full-blown attack. Thus, at least initially, therapy focuses on identifying and modifying the client's misinterpretations of symptoms and thoughts immediately before and during the attack.)

5. Thinning refers to the process of: A. switching from a fixed interval to a fixed ratio schedule B. switching from a variable interval to a variable ratio schedule C. switching from an intermittent to a continuous schedule D. switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule

D (Continuous schedules, or reinforcing every response, are associated with quick learning, satiation and extinction. The process of thinning, or switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule, is used to increase the resistance to extinction once a behavior is established.)

162. A 17-year-old male involved in a skateboarding accident suffered a head trauma resulting in deficits to his declarative memory. He would likely have the most difficulty: A. riding a skateboard B. recalling when he rode his first skateboard at 10-years-old C. recalling his own name D. recalling what he ate for lunch yesterday

D (Declarative or explicit memories are long-term memories that one can consciously recall. They include semantic -factual information- and episodic -personally experienced- memories. Riding a skateboard -A- requires procedural memory. All of the other choices require explicit memory; however, memory deficits due to head trauma or disease usually affect recent long-term memory before affecting remote long-term memory.)

86. Individuals with Major Depressive Disorders who experience abnormalities in the sleep cycle may have any of the following sleep disturbances EXCEPT: A. early morning awakening B. sleep continuity decrease C. REM latency decrease D. slow-wave sleep increase

D (Depression is associated with decreased slow-wave or non-REM sleep as well as, early morning waking -a.-, decreased sleep continuity -b.- and earlier onset of REM sleep or decreased REM latency -c.-. )

135. Which of the following is NOT one of the levels of Kirkpatrick's training evaluation model? A. learning B. reaction C. results D. return on investment

D (Donald Kirkpatrick's -1959, 1998- model for evaluating training and learning programs includes four levels: reaction, learning, behavior and result. Each level of evaluation is used to assess the effectiveness of training programs and the effects of the training on the employees. Level 1 -b.- evaluations focus on the individual's response to the training or intervention. Level 2 -a.- measures what has been learned, often using pre/post-tests or end-of-course tests. Level 3 evaluations assess the impact of the intervention on the individual's behavior or performance in the workplace and level 4 -c.- measure the impact of training on the organization's results. -See: Kirkpatrick, D.L. -1998-. Evaluating Training Programs: The Four Levels -3rd ed.-. San Francisco, California: Berrett-Koehler.- Return on investment -ROI-, is a "level 5" evaluation, proposed by Jack Phillips, used to calculate the return on investment of an intervention or training. Phillips' Five Level ROI is an expansion of Kirkpatrick's model and encourages ROI evaluations for each of the first four levels. -See: Phillips, J.J. -2000-. Return on investment in training and performance improvement programs. Woburn, MA: Butterworth-Heinemann.)

15. Erikson's final developmental stage is: A. generativity vs. stagnation. B. contentment vs. despondency. C. intimacy vs. isolation. D. ego integrity vs. despair.

D (Erikson is among those developmental psychologists who postulate qualitatively different stages we pass through from birth to senescence. Erikson's final stage is called integrity versus despair. That is, in the last stage we look at our life and say "I did the best I coulD or, alternatively, "I regret what I did.")

208. An experimental treatment that has been used successfully with animals only has recently been approved for research with human participants. Which of the following statements regarding the need to inform participants of the experimental status of the treatment is true? A. There is no need to inform participants that the treatment is experimental, since the treatment was shown to be safe in animal research. B. There is no need to inform participants that the treatment is experimental, because they would not likely understand the connotations of the word "experimental." C. There is no need to inform participants that the treatment is experimental as long as the study was approved by an institutional review board. D. Participants should be informed that the treatment is experimental.

D (Ethical Standard 8.02-b- states that "Psychologists conducting intervention research involving the use of experimental treatments clarify to participants at the outset of the research -1- the experimental nature of the treatment; -2- the services that will or will not be available to the control group-s- if appropriate; -3- the means by which assignment to treatment and control groups will be made; -4- available treatment alternatives if an individual does not wish to participate in the research or wishes to withdraw once a study has begun; and -5- compensation for or monetary costs of participating, including if appropriate, whether reimbursement from the participant or a third-party payor will be sought.")

153. Bilingual children ______________________ than monolingual children. A. perform no better or no worse academically B. perform worse academically C. have no better or no worse intellectual flexibility D. have increased intellectual flexibility

D (Evidence suggests that bilingual children perform better on tests of cognitive flexibility, divergent thinking, and metalinguistic awareness, than monolingual children. Findings on the academic performance of bilingual children are inconsistent and influenced by many factors such as the age of second language acquisition, community support, and academic services.)

224. Which of the following is a mental health service that HMOs must provide under federal requirements? A. pre- and post-pregnancy counseling. B. psychodynamically oriented psychotherapy. C. inpatient psychiatric care. D. short-term outpatient evaluative crisis intervention.

D (Federal laws regarding qualification for an HMO requires that the company provide "short-term -not to exceed 20 visits-, outpatient evaluative crisis intervention services", and "medical treatment and referral for alcohol and drug addiction." These are the only qualifications related to mental health services. Most HMOs provide certain additional services, because doing so reduces their costs in the long-run.)

99. Recent research on HIV infection has examined the role of psychosocial risk factors on disease progression and prognosis. The results of studies involving infected adults has most consistently found: A. lower intellectual functioning and younger age are related to a more rapid progression B. higher intellectual functioning and older age are related to a more rapid progression C. somatic symptoms of depression and younger age are related to a more rapid progression D. somatic symptoms of depression and older age are related to a more rapid progression

D (Findings of recent studies indicate that the factors of intellectual functioning, age and somatic symptoms of depression are significant predictors of HIV progression and prognosis. Specifically, lower IQ, older age and the presence of somatic symptoms of depression are associated with a more rapid progression from HIV infection to AIDS, HIV-related dementia, and death. -See: Farinpour, R., et al., Psychosocial risk factors of HIV morbidity and mortality: Findings from the Multicenter Aids Cohort Study -MACS-, Journal of Clinical and Experimental Neuropsychology, 2003, 25-5-, 654-670.)

69. Of the following groups, which one would probably have better metacognition skills? A. mentally retarded children B. children of average intelligence C. children who have an IQ score of one standard deviation above the mean D. gifted children

D (Gifted children have better metacognition skills-they are more aware of their cognitive processes and better at evaluating cognitive strategies -Leng, 1993-. In order to be classified as "gifted," most school programs require an IQ that is two standard deviations above the mean or 130 +/- 3 points.)

169. Stimulus A is paired with stimulus B. Stimulus B is then paired with stimulus C until stimulus C elicits the same response that was elicited by stimulus A. This is an example of: A. chaining B. shaping C. secondary reinforcement D. higher-order conditioning

D (Higher-order conditioning is a classical conditioning procedure in which two stimuli -CS and US- are paired until the conditioned stimulus -CS- produces the conditioned response -CR- and then the CS -which is now referred to as a US- is paired with another CS to elicit the same response. All of the other choices in this question are operant conditioning terms. Operant conditioning involves behaviors and the consequences that follow, rather than the pairing of stimuli. Chaining -A- is the operant procedure that enables complex behaviors to develop through reinforcement of a sequence of simple behaviors. That is, Behavior A is followed by a reinforcer, which serves as a discriminative stimulus for Behavior B, which is followed by a reinforcer, and so on. Shaping -B- involves reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior.)

34. A psychologist compliments several of his co-workers on their clothing. One of his female co-workers indicates that she is not comfortable with these type of comments and asks him to stop. He complies with her request. His behavior is: A. Unacceptable B. Unethical C. Sexual harrassment D. Acceptable

D (His behavior is acceptable. According to Standard 3.02 -Sexual Harassment-: "Sexual harassment is sexual solicitation, physical advances, or verbal or nonverbal conduct that is sexual in nature, that occurs in connection with the psychologist's activities or roles as a psychologist, and that either -1- is unwelcome, is offensive, or creates a hostile workplace or educational environment, and the psychologist knows or is told this or -2- is sufficiently severe or intense to be abusive to a reasonable person in the context. Sexual harassment can consist of a single intense or severe act or of multiple persistent or pervasive acts." In this case the co-worker evidently found the psychologist's comments offensive. The psychologist upon learning this stopped his behavior.)

74. In Huntington's Disease, the first brain structure to show signs of damage is the A. superior colliculus. B. medulla oblongata. C. nucleus cuneatus. D. caudate nucleus.

D (Huntington's Disease is due to degeneration of neurons in the basal ganglia, and the degeneration is usually first apparent in the caudate nucleus. -The basal ganglia include the caudate nucleus, the putamen, and the globus pallidus.)

62. Jose scored 75 on his final exam. The test scores were normally distributed, with a mean of 60 and a standard deviation of 15. Jose's score would be in which of the following percentile ranges? A. 35-49 B. 50-64 C. 65-79 D. 80-95

D (In a normal distribution, 1.0 is 34 percentile points above the mean of 50. Jose's standard score is -75-60-/15 or 1.0, putting his score at the 84th percentile. )

96. Computer-adaptive testing will yield A. more accurate results for high scorers on a test. B. more accurate results for low scorers on a test. C. more accurate results for examinees who score in the middle range of a test. D. equally accurate results across all range of scores on a test.

D (In computerized adaptive testing, the examinee's previous responses are used to tailor the test to his or her ability. As a result, inaccuracy of scores is reduced across ability levels.)

64. Right-left confusion is a characteristic of damage to the: A. temporal lobe B. frontal lobe C. occipital lobe D. parietal lobe

D (Left-right disorientation is typically caused by damage in the parietal lobe, specifically the left angular gyrus located between the parietal and temporal lobes. It is also one of the symptoms of Gerstmann's syndrome.)

27. Which of the following statements regarding informed consent procedures in research is least true? A. Psychologists should inform research participants, in language that is reasonably understandable, about the nature of the research. B. Research participants should be informed of significant factors that may affect their willingness to participate in the research. C. Informed consent to research must be appropriately documented. D. Informed consent to research must be obtained in all cases.

D (In most cases, informed consent to research must be obtained from participants. However, there are some exceptions, such as research involving anonymous questionnaires or naturalistic observations. Ethical standard 8.05 discusses the circumstances under which research does not require informed consent.)

120. A babysitter is watching her neighbor's 4-year old. The child wants some candy, but the babysitter was told by his mother not to give him any. After listening to the boy's whining for ten minutes, the babysitter gives in - she gives the boy some candy and he stops whining. In this situation, the babysitter's behavior -giving the child candy- is the result of A. positive punishment. B. negative punishment. C. positive reinforcement. D. negative reinforcement.

D (In this situation, the babysitter's "candy-giving behavior" has increased because it caused a stimulus to be removed -the child's whining-. This is negative reinforcement.)

168. In vivo exposure with response prevention involves: A. alternately presenting the CS and US. B. simultaneously presenting the CS and US. C. repeatedly presenting the US without the CS. D. repeatedly presenting the CS without the US.

D (In vivo exposure with response prevention involves exposing an individual to a feared or anxiety evoking stimulus and then blocking him or her from engaging in the usual avoidance response. The technique is based on the principle of classical extinction, which involves repeatedly presenting a conditioned stimulus -CS- without the unconditioned stimulus -US-. The idea is that the anxiety or fear developed through classical conditioning, or a pairing of a conditioned stimulus -the feared stimulus- and an unconditioned stimulus -a stimulus that naturally causes fear-.)

110. Which of the following is NOT one of Baumgartner's incorporation phases of an HIV/AIDS diagnosis into identity? A. post-immersion turning point B. post-diagnosis turning point C. disclosure D. stabilization

D (Informed by narrative and transformational learning approaches to identity development, Lisa Baumgartner's study -2001- on the incorporation of an HIV/AIDS diagnosis into one's identity identified a six-phase process including: diagnosis, post-diagnosis turning point, immersion, post-immersion turning point, integration and disclosure. The diagnosis phase involved the common reactions of shock, fear, denial, and relief. Post-diagnosis turning point -b.- was associated with social interaction or a "catalyst experience." In the immersion phase, people became immersed in the HIV/AIDS community; the HIV/AIDS identity was central and they educated others. Whereas the post-immersion turning point phase caused a revaluation of priorities. The integration phase was associated with decentralizing -internal experience of the HIV/AIDS identity- and balancing, such as engaging in activities unrelated to HIV/AIDS. Disclosure was woven throughout the process however initially individuals only told significant others, then made public disclosures, and finally made situational disclosures on a need-to-know basis. -See: Baumgartner, L. M. -2002- Living and Learning with HIV/AIDS: Transformational Tales Continued. Adult Education Quarterly, Vol. 53, No. 1, 44-59.)

145. Reduced incidence of substance abuse among Native American adolescents would most likely result from: A. normalizing substance use within tribal communities B. increasing the legal consequences of substance use C. aversive conditioning D. increasing bicultural competence

D (Interventions designed to increase "bicultural competence" have been found effective in preventing substance abuse among Native American adolescents. These interventions help individuals develop coping skills that "blend the adaptive values and roles of both the culture in which they were raised and the culture by which they are surroundeD -LaFromboise, Assertion training with American Indians: Cultural/behavioral issues for trainers. Las Cruces: New Mexico State University, 1982, p. 12-. Normalizing substance use -A- would likely increase the incidence of substance abuse and has been regarded as one of the factors that contributes to the high rate of substance abuse among Native Americans. Increasing legal consequences of substance use has not been found to be a very effective deterrent for adolescents presumambly because adolescents do not always make rational decisions based on consideration of the perceived consequences of committing a crime. -D. M. Kahan, Between economics and sociology: The new path of deterrence. Michigan Law Review, 1997, 95, 2477-2497-. Finally, aversive conditioning -C- is more likely to be used as a treatment, rather than a method of prevention.)

182. Which of the following would be used to determine the probability that examinees of different ability levels are able to answer a particular test item correctly? A. criterion-related validity coefficient B. item discrimination index C. item difficulty index D. item characteristic curve

D (Item characteristic curves -ICCs-, which are associated with item response theory, are graphs that depict individual test items in terms of the percentage of individuals in different ability groups who answered the item correctly. For example, an ICC for an individual test item might show that 80% of people in the highest ability group, 40% of people in the middle ability group, and 5% of people in the lowest ability group answered the item correctly. Although costly to derive, ICCs provide much information about individual test items, including their difficulty, discriminability, and probability that the item will be guessed correctly.)

207. A family therapist who uses anecdotes from her own family to emphasize similarities with the client family is doing which of the following? A. reframing B. triangulating C. diffusing boundaries D. joining

D (Joining, a technique used by structural family therapists, involves taking steps to become a family insider by, among other things, assuming the same type of communication style, sharing personal stories, etc.)

125. Kubler-Ross proposed people go through which of the following stages when faced with their own death: A. denial, anger, depression, acceptance and hope B. denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance and hope C. denial, anger, bargaining, depression and hope D. denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance

D (Kubler-Ross -1969- proposed five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance -DABDA-. Research indicates that these feelings don't necessarily occur in a fixed sequential order. Although the feeling of hope was not identified by Kubler-Ross, it is a common emotion in the terminally ill.)

The probability of making a Type I error is: a) alpha b) beta c) 1-alpha d) 1-beta

alpha

164. Which of the following appears to be related to abnormal regulation of melatonin levels? A. Schizoaffective Disorder B. Bipolar Disorder C. Mood Disorder with Melancholic Features D. Mood Disorder with Seasonal Pattern

D (Mood Disorder With Seasonal Pattern -better known is Seasonal Affective Disorder- is diagnosed when the person displays onset and remission of Major Depressive Episodes at characteristic times of the year. In most cases, onset is in fall or winter and remission is in spring. It is believed that Seasonal Affective Disorder is related to abnormal regulation of melatonin secretions. The fact that Seasonal Affective Disorder often responds to light therapy -exposing the patient to bright light for about two hours either before sunrise or after sundown- lends support to this hypothesis, since melatonin levels are affected by light-dark cycles.)

89. Which of the following factors are considered most important for competent multicultural counseling? A. commitment, sensitivity, and technique B. sensitivity, instillation of hope, and acceptance C. acceptance, awareness, and flexibility D. awareness, knowledge, and skills

D (Multicultural competence is most often attributed to one's level of awareness, knowledge, and skills. "Awareness" refers to awareness of one's own beliefs, values, and stereotypes. "Knowledge" refers to knowledge of the worldviews of clients with different cultural backgrounds. And "skills" refers to the skills that are most appropriate for clients with different cultural backgrounds -D. W. Sue, Multidimensional facets of cultural competence. Counseling Psychologist, 2001, 29-6-, 790-821-.)

56. The cortex is the least developed part of the brain at birth. Subsequent development is due primarily to: A. the growth of new neurons. B. the growth of new neurons and glial cells. C. increases in the size of existing neurons. D. myelination of existing neurons.

D (Nearly all of the neurons are present at birth, and continued development of the brain following birth is due primarily to an increased number of dendrites and myelination of the existing neurons.)

203. The four main stages of neural development are: A. meiosis, mitosis, migration, myelination B. mitosis, meiosis, differentiation, myelination C. differentiation, mitosis, migration, myelination D. proliferation, migration, differentiation, myelination

D (Neural development involves the stages of proliferation, migration, differentiation, and myelination. The proliferation stage includes the production of cells. Migration is the second stage of development during which the cells move or migrate to its ultimate destination in the nervous system. Following migration is differentiation, in which cells develop the unique characteristics of nerve cells. During the fourth stage, myelination, the axons of some cells become surrounded -insulated- by glial cells. Meiosis is the process of cell division that produces cells with one-half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Mitosis is the process of cell division that produces cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.)

97. In comparison studies of younger and older adults, it has been found that depression in older adults is least likely to result in A. difficulties with memory problems. B. anxiety feelings. C. feelings of hopelessness. D. expressed sadness.

D (Older adults are less likely than younger adults to express feelings of depression or sadness. They are more willing to express feelings of hopelessness -answer C- and anxiety -answer B-. They are also more apt to have memory problems -answer A-. -APA Working Group on the Older Adult, What practitioners should know about working with older clients, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 1998, 29-5-, 413-427-.)

138. Studies investigating the relationship between suicide and health status in the elderly suggest that: A. contrary to what is commonly believed, there is no clear relationship between these two variables. B. physical health is a predictor of suicide in the elderly only when it is combined with social isolation. C. physical health is a predictor of suicide in the elderly only for males. D. concern about physical health is one of the most common reasons for suicide in the elderly.

D (Older people have more health problems than younger ones and are often faced with a terminal illness, chronic pain, and/or an inability to take part in normal activities because of the illness. Not surprisingly, physical illness has been found in several studies to be the most common reason for suicide among the elderly.)

37. In Piaget's concrete operational stage the child is able to conserve due to the development of reversibility and decentration. Other achievements of this stage are: A. Deferred imitation B. Object permanence C. Propositional thought D. Transitivity

D (Other achievements of the concrete operational stage are transitivity, or the ability to mentally sort objects; and hierarchical classification--the ability to sort object into classes and subclasses based on similarities and differences among groups. Deferred imitation and object permanence are achievements of the sensorimotor stage. Deferred imitation is the ability to imitate an observed act at a later point in time. Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not there. Finally, propositional thought -C- is developed in the Formal Operational Stage. It is the ability to evaluate the logical validi)

101. The authoritative style of parenting typically results in better school performance among: A. Asians B. Hispanics C. African-Americans D. Whites

D (Overall, the authoritative style of parenting -as compared to the authoritarian, permissive, and uninvolved styles- has the most positive outcomes in children's growth and development - including academic achievement. However, researchers have found that the benefits of authoritative parenting are moderated by ethnicity. Specifically, Hispanics and African-Americans do not appear to benefit as much as Whites from having authoritative parenting. And, although Asian-Americans tend to do well academically, they are least likely to have authoritative parents. See: L. Steinberg, S.M.Dornbusch, & B.B. Brown. Ethnic Differences in Adolescent Achievement: An Ecological Perspective. American Psychologist, 1992, 47 -6-, 723-729.)

201. Most studies on child sexual abuse have not found which of the following to be associated with more severe outcomes? A. abuse by family member B. onset of abuse at an earlier age C. abuse by a much older perpetrator D. male gender

D (Research results on the psychological and behavioral effects of child sexual abuse have been inconsistent however most studies indicate no consistent difference in outcomes for male and female victims of sexual abuse. In studies that found a gender difference, the outcomes for females was worse than for males. Worse outcomes are associated with abuse by a family member -a.-, onset of abuse at an earlier age -b.- and abuse by a much older perpetrator. -See: National Research Council, Understanding Child Abuse and Neglect, Washington, DC, National Academy Press, 1993.)

55. Which of the following techniques will exacerbate of chronic pain rather than reduce it? A. Religious coping B. Cognitive therapy C. Active coping D. Passive coping

D (Passive pain-coping strategies, a category described in Brown and Nicassio's -1987- dichotomy of active versus passive coping strategies, are associated with worse pain and adjustment among chronic pain patients. Passive coping strategies are those that involve giving responsibility for pain management to an outside source or allowing other areas of life to be adversely affected by pain. They may also serve as psychological enforcers of pain. Examples of passive coping strategies are focusing on where the pain is and how much it hurts, restricting or cancelling social activities, or thoughts such as " There's nothing I can do to lessen this pain," or "I wish my doctor would prescribe me better pain medication." In contrast, active coping strategies entail the patient taking responsibility for pain management including attempts to control the pain or to function in spite of it. Examples of active coping strategies include engaging in physical therapy or exercise, staying busy/active, relaxation techniques, clearing distracting thoughts and attention from the pain. Cognitive -b.- and cognitive behavior therapy has been shown to be effective in reducing the experience of pain and improving positive behavior expression, appraisal and coping in individuals with chronic pain. -See: Morley S, Eccleston C, Williams A. -1999- Systematic review and meta-analysis of randomised controlled trials of cognitive behaviour therapy and behaviour therapy for chronic pain in adults, excluding headache. Pain, 80, 1-13.- Evidence supports a relationship between positive health outcomes and the use of religious coping to manage pain. Pargament -1990- identified three possible interactions between religion and coping: religion can influence the parts of the coping process -appraisal, coping activities, results, assistance, and motivation-; contribute to the coping process by influencing perception -attribution of meaning and the feeling of control- and preventing certain events from happening -through a beneficiary life style-; and it can be the resultant of the coping process through religious attributes. -See: Pargament, K.I. -1997- The psychology of religion and coping, Guilford, New York.)

220. Side effects of propranolol -Inderol- are most likely to include: A. tachycardia and mania B. tachycardia and tremor C. bradycardia and hypersomnia D. bradycardia and depression

D (Propranolol -Inderal- is a beta-blocker often used to treat hypertension, migraine, essential tremors and is also useful in reducing the physical symptoms of anxiety. Side effects of Inderal include bradycardia -slow heart rate-, hypotension, fatigue, sexual dysfunction, and depression. )

115. A psychologist in a rural area is referred a 17-year-old male who has been abusing OxyContin. Although the psychologist is trained and experienced in the treatment of substance abuse, she has not received training in, nor experience with, OxyContin abuse. The psychologist should: A. refer the patient to a psychologist outside the area who is experienced in the treatment of OxyContin abuse B. agree to treat the patient after attending a workshop on the treatment of OxyContin abuse C. refer the patient for inpatient detoxification D. provide the patient with treatment and read relevant literature

D (Psychologists have an ethical responsibility to practice within the boundaries of their competence. However, according to APA's Ethics Standard 2.01-d-, "When psychologists are asked to provide services to individuals for whom appropriate mental health services are not available and for which psychologists have not obtained the competence necessary, psychologists with closely related prior training or experience may provide such services in order to ensure that services are not denied if they make a reasonable effort to obtain the competence required by using relevant research, training, consultation, or study." It should not, therefore, be necessary to refer the patient to a provider out of the area. It also would not be in the patient's best interest to postpone treatment until the psychologist can attend a workshop on the subject -B-. And, although OxyContin abuse is serious and potentially fatal, it generally would not require inpatient detoxification -C- unless the abuse progressed to dependence.)

200. Patients with depression typically have: A. more rapid onset of REM sleep B. decreased slow wave sleep C. increased percentage of REM sleep D. all of the above

D (Research has found that depression is most associated with a more rapid onset of REM sleep, decreased percentage of slow wave sleep, and increased percentage of REM sleep. The research also suggests that individuals with no prior history of depression but who have rapid REM onset have an increased risk of developing depression -e.g., D. Giles, D. Kupfer, A. Rush, & H. Roffwarg, Controlled comparison of electrophysiological sleep in families of probands with unipolar depression. American Journal of Psychiatry, 1998, 155-2-, 192-199-.)

211. What is the least helpful suggestion you can give to parents when they are going through a divorce or marital conflict? A. avoid exposing the children to any conflicts B. allow the children to participate in decisions regarding visitation rights C. in the long run, it is better for the children if you divorce than if you remain in an unhappy marriage D. remarry as soon as possible

D (Research has identified a number of factors associated with poorer adjustment in children whose parents divorce. For instance, rapid remarriage of one or both parents is predictive of poorer adjustment. The other suggestions are likely to be helpful -or at worst, benign-: exposure to parental conflict, parental continuance of an unhappy marriage, and failure to allow children to establish a relationship with the noncustodial parent are all factors associated with poorer long-term adjustment in children of divorce.)

65. Research comparing gifted and average children indicates that gifted children tend to be superior in terms of: A. response speed B. parallel processing C. divergent thinking D. metacognition

D (Research on giftedness has focused on the role of metacognition and has consistently shown that gifted children are more aware of their cognitive processes and better at choosing and applying cognitive strategies and evaluating the effectiveness of their choice. Response accuracy is more characteristic of gifted children than response speed -a.-. Parallel processing -b.- is a term that has several meanings. In the context of attention and memory, it refers to the flow of information from the source to the recipient via more than one route. It has not been linked to giftedness. Divergent thinking -c.- is found in both gifted and average children and is associated with creativity.)

134. The most correct statement that can be made about biofeedback as a therapeutic treatment for pain reduction is that A. the significant effects found can be accounted for by the type of instrumentation employed. B. it is effective for certain types of patients only. C. its effectiveness has diminished over the years. D. it is probably no different from relaxation training in its effectiveness.

D (Research on the efficacy of biofeedback for pain reduction indicates that it is as effective as treatments such as relaxation training. This is true for the treatment of most disorders or conditions, however in cases such as the treatment of Raynaud's Disease or migraine headaches, some studies suggest that biofeedback is the treatment of choice.)

Which theory of leadership states that a good leader helps subordinates achieve their goals by adopting either an instrumental, supportive, participative or achievement-oriented style? a) Hersey & Blanchard's Situational Leadership b) House's Path-Goal Theory c) Vroom & Yettom's Normative (Contingency) Model d) Fielder's Contingency Model

House's path-goal theory

18. According to the catecholamine hypothesis, depression is due to a deficiency in: A. dopamine B. gamma-aminobutyric acid C. acetylcholine D. norepinephrine

D (Research with drugs led to the formulation of the "catecholamine hypothesis" about the cause of mood disorders. First presented in 1965, Schildkraut et al.'s theory of depression emphasized the association of depression with a decrease in the levels of brain catecholamines dopamine -DA- and norepinephrine -NE-, especially norepinephrine. This hypothesis in its simplest form, stated that depression was due to a deficiency of norepinephrine, one of the major catecholamine systems in the brain. This early hypothesis is based on evidence from three groups of drugs: reserpine, monoamine oxidase -MAO- inhibitors, and tricyclics. Reserpine depletes the brain of dopamine and norepinephrine and is used primarily to treat hypertension. It is also used for severe agitation. MAO inhibiters and tricyclics, although they work in somewhat different ways, are used to treat depression and tend to increase the amount of norepinephrine available in the central nervous system. A variety of approaches, especially in the United States, tested this hypothesis and the results are inconclusive. Nonetheless, this theory served as the "standarD theory for depression in the United States until the 1980s. -See: McNeal, E. T., and Cimbolic, P. -1986-. Antidepressants and Biochemical Theories of Depression. Psychological Bulletin, 99-3-, 361-374.)

199. According to research on parenting styles, which of the following describes the parents who are most likely to raise very aggressive children? A. attentive parents who are very controlling of their children's behavior B. parents who use frequent and intermittent violence and are very controlling of their children's behavior C. loving parents with a laissez-faire attitude toward their children's behavior D. parents who use frequent and intermittent violence and have a laissez-faire attitude toward their children's behavior

D (Researchers in the 1950s identified two dimensions of parenting styles: permissiveness and affection. Permissiveness is a continuum that ranges from autonomy on one extreme to control at the other; affection is a continuum that ranges from hostility to love. Parents who combine hostility with autonomy -e.g., those who combine violent discipline with a laissez-faire attitude toward their children- are likely to produce disobedient and aggressive children.)

118. Anxiety and depression share which of the following symptoms? A. anhedonia B. somatic arousal C. obsessive thoughts D. negative affect

D (Several researchers have suggested that a general distress factor, sometimes referred to as "negative affect," is a core symptom in both anxiety and depression. Anhedonia -"A- is unique to depression and somatic arousal -"B- is unique to anxiety disorders. Obsessive thoughts -"C- is a characteristic of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, but it is not a universal symptom in all of the anxiety disorders or the depressive disorders. See D. Burns, Why Are Depression and Anxiety Correlated? A Test of the Tripartite Model. Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 1998, 66 -3-, 461-473.)

42. A new therapeutic intervention for heroin addiction is tested in a 6-month study, comparing it to existing treatment programs and a control group. At the end of 3 months the researchers find a dramatic success rate for the experimental treatment with over 75% of the clients maintaining abstinence from heroin, compared to 30% for the other treatment groups and 10% for the control group. What should the researchers do? A. inform the other groups of the results and recommend that they begin the new treatment program. B. inform the other groups of the results and give them the option of receiving the new treatment or continuing with their existing program. C. not inform the other groups of the results D. wait until the conclusion of the study and then offer the other groups the new treatment

D (Since this study was designed for a duration of 6 months, it should continue as planned before any conclusions regarding the effectiveness are made. Informing any of the groups about the relative effectiveness of any of the treatments prior to the conclusion of the study would likely contaminate the validity of the final results. Of course, the researchers have an obligation to inform the participants of the results and conclusions of the research, but this should not be provided until the conclusions have been made.)

94. Research by Sue and his colleagues -1991- suggests that which of the following clients is most likely to return for a second session of psychotherapy? A. an African-American client B. a Latino-American client C. an Anglo-American client D. an Asian-American client

D (Studies on therapy dropout rates have produced inconsistent results. This question is asking about a particular study, however -Sue et al., 1991-, which found that African-Americans have the highest dropout rates, while Asian-Americans have the lowest dropout rates.)

118. An organization is considering different selection techniques and comparing the respective predictive validity of each. The validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance: A. are the most valid across different jobs B. are no more valid than unstructured interviews when used alone C. is increased when the interview includes both structured and unstructured items D. is increased when the interview is used in combination with a measure of general mental ability

D (Summarizing the predictive validity of interviews and other selection techniques in a meta-analysis of the research, Schmidt and Hunter -1998- report measures of general mental ability are the most valid predictors across different jobs -a.-. For structured and unstructured interviews, they note corrected validity coefficients of .51 and .38, respectively -b.-. When an interview is combined with another selection procedure, especially a general mental ability test, the predictive validity of interviews is increased [The validity and utility of selection measures in personnel psychology: Practical and theoretical implications of 85 years of research findings, Psychological Bulletin, 124-2-, 262-274)

177. The probands, in a study comparing characteristics of adult ADHD patients, with characteristics of their first degree and second degree biological relatives and non-patients -controls-, are: A. non-patients B. first degree relatives C. first and second degree relatives D. ADHD patients

D (The ADHD patients are the probands in this study. Probands, or index cases, are the individuals who are first brought to the attention of the researcher - i.e., individuals manifesting the characteristic of interest or disease.)

67. In regard to substance use, the Americans with Disabilities Act A. protects alcoholics and drug addicts as "qualified individuals" with a disability. B. prohibits administering a drug test to an individual who is participating in a drug rehabilitation program. C. prohibits drug testing from being administered to a prospective employee after a job offer is made. D. protects individuals participating in a drug rehabilitation program who are no longer using drugs.

D (The Americans With Disabilities Act -ADA- does not consider individuals who are "currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs" as suffering from a disability on that basis. In other words, it does not protect current drug users. However, it does protect past substance addicts -- as long as the individual is currently participating in or has completed a supervised rehabilitation program, and the person is not currently using drugs. In regard to drug testing, the act does not identify any circumstances in which drug testing is prohibited. In fact, even though it protects former substance addicts, the Act permits employers to use "reasonable means" -- including drug tests -- to verify that such persons are no longer using substances.)

142. You are working as a school psychologist and you meet with a couple who wishes to inspect a copy of their child's complete school records. In this situation, which of the following statements is most applicable? A. You should deny the parents' request, since these records are confidential. B. You should tell the parents that you cannot release the records without the authorization of the school principal. C. You should present a summary of the records, since the parents will not be qualified to interpret the complete records. D. Under federal law, parents have the right to inspect the complete records, and, if they wish, challenge their contents.

D (The Buckley Amendment gives parents the right to inspect their child's school records and to challenge their contents. Of course, in this situation, you should provide a summary if necessary and make yourself available for a discussion of the records' contents. However, if the parents insist on seeing the complete records, they have that right.)

198. The Dopamine Hypothesis was based on research findings indicating that: A. psychomotor stimulants activate dopamine receptors B. brain dopamine is involved in neuroleptic-induced extrapyramidal motor disturbances C. dopamine levels are lower in patients with Schizophrenia D. both a and b

D (The Dopamine Hypothesis was originally based on two important findings: that antipsychotic medications, which can cause motor disturbances, affect dopamine in the brain; and that stimulants activate dopamine receptors. This latter finding is often neglected. However, knowing that stimulants stimulate dopamine helps explain why individuals intoxicated with cocaine or amphetamine often develop psychotic-like symptoms A.A. Baumeister and J.L. Francis, Historical development of the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia, Journal of the History of the Neurosciences, 2002, 11-3-, 265-277.)

160. The nonverbal measure of intelligence developed specifically for deaf and hearing-impaired children is: A. Leiter International Performance Scale B. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale C. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test D. The Hiskey-Nebraska Test of Learning Aptitude

D (The Hiskey-Nebraska Test of Learning Aptitude has 12 subtests and was specifically developed and standardized for deaf and hearing impaired children between the ages of 3 and 16. The other response choices are also non-verbal tests of intelligence. The Leiter International Performance Scale -a.- is appropriate for children with reading or speaking problems between the ages of 2 and 18. The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale -b.- yields IQ scores for children ages 3 years 6 months through 9 years 11 months and is also appropriate for children with speaking or reading difficulties as well as with sensorimotor disorders. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test -c.- can be used with ages 2 years 6 months through adulthood and is appropriate for children with expressive language disorders and a limited expressive vocabulary but not hearing problems)

54. A self-report inventory that assesses general psychiatric symptoms on a Likert-type scale is the: A. MCMI-III B. Rorschach C. MMPI-II D. SCL-90

D (The Symptom Checklist 90 -SCL-90- is a self-report inventory assessing general psychiatric symptoms of anxiety, depression, somatization, obsessive-compulsiveness, and hostility. Clients respond to the stimulus term, such as "feel nervous inside" on a 5-point Likert type scale from "not at all" which gives a score of 0, to "extremely" which gives a score of 4.)

95. You have conducted a study assessing the relationship between salary and job performance, and you find a significant correlation between these two variables. Your assistant tells you that the data fail to take into account a $25.00 cost of living raise which every employee received. You should: A. decide that the raise invalidated the research. B. reanalyze the data after the raises have been added to the current salary. C. not worry about small details; the actual amount is too small to make a significant difference. D. assume the correlation will not be affected.

D (The basic point being tested here is that if you add a constant to each score -- in either or both data sets -- the relationship between the two variables won't be affected. In other words, adding a constant to every score does not affect the correlation coefficient. The same is true of multiplying or dividing all scores by a constant, or subtracting a constant from every score.)

146. Atrophy of the caudate nucleus is found in: A. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder B. Jacob Creutzfeld Disease C. Schizophrenia D. Huntington's Disease

D (The caudate nucleus is part of the basal ganglia which is responsible for initiating movement. Atrophy of the caudate nucleus is found in patients with Huntington's Disease which is a disorder which includes affective, motor, and cognitive symptoms. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder -"A- is believed to be related to an overactive caudate nucleus.)

35. If you hear arguments against your opinion, followed by arguments against the opposing opinion, what is likely to happen? A. You will become very confused. B. You will become more dogmatic in your original opinion. C. You will change your opinion. D. Your resistance to future opposing arguments will be increased.

D (This question is indirectly referencing McGuire's inoculation theory, which proposes that a particular attitude or belief can be strengthened by exposing someone to the opposing belief -- especially when the opposing argument is weak or the person is supplied with counter-arguments against the opposing belief. Note that this is analogous to medical inoculation, which involves injection of a weak form of a germ so the body can build up defenses against that germ.)

184. "According to current research, the Rorschach has very low validity." This statement is A. true. B. true, except for children between ages 5-10. C. true, except for its use with a nonverbal population. D. false.

D (The correct answer is false. The Rorschach, while having a reputation for low validity due to its clinical origins, has increased in validity since the development of John Exner's scoring system. Hiller, Bornstein, Rosenthal, Berry and Brunell-Neuleib report in Psychological Assessment -September, 1999- that since earlier critiques, two recent developments have given the Rorschach a more favorable outlook. First is the development of Exner's Comprehensive System for the Rorschach -Exner, 1974; 1978- which systematized scoring procedures for the Rorschach, and reported findings from a large archive of Rorschach protocols of normal adults, as well as from various psychiatric groups. Second, two meta-analyses were published, both comparing criterion-related validity evidence for the Rorschach to that of its chief rival, the MMPI -Atkinson, 1986; Parker, Hanson, and Hemsley, 1989-. These studies conclude that validity is roughly equivalent for both instruments. Moreover, in Hiller et al.'s -1999- article, "A Comparative Meta-Analysis of Rorschach and MMPI Validity," their findings indicate that the MMPI had larger validity coefficients than the Rorschach for studies using psychiatric diagnoses and self-report measures as criterion variables, whereas the Rorschach had larger validity coefficients than the MMPI for studies using objective criterion variables.)

26. Kohlberg would agree with all of the following except: A. moral development is an outgrowth of cognitive development. B. each stage of development represents an organized whole. C. stage 5 and 6 are not reached by most people. D. moral development stages have an inherent male bias.

D (The first three answers are descriptions of Kohlberg's theory. Answer D is Carol Gilligan's criticism of Kohlberg. Gilligan thought males are likely to refer to principles of justice and fairness when making decisions, while females are more likely to refer to interpersonal connectedness and care. Research has not generally supported Gilligan's hypothesis.)

81. Introducing a goal that requires cooperation between conflicting intergroups results in: A. increased hositility, increased competition B. increased hostility, reduced competition C. reduced hositility, increased competition D. reduced hostility, reduced competition

D (The introduction of a superordinate goal, one that requires cooperation to accomplish, was found to be the most effective way of reducing or alleviating intergroup hostility and competition in Sherif et al.'s "Robber's Cave" study.)

47. You have been attempting to collect payment from a former patient of yours who did not pay for his final two months of therapy. One day, you get a letter from a state hospital where that former patient is now currently a patient. The letter includes a request for a copy of your records of the patient's treatment along with a signed release of information. In this situation, you should A. refuse to supply any information to the hospital until the bill is paid. B. send a summary of the records to the hospital along with a copy of a bill for the unpaid therapy fees. C. go to the hospital and talk to the patient about the situation. D. provide the information requested by the hospital.

D (The issue here is that you can't withhold records under your control that are "requested and needed for a client's/patient's emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received -Ethical Standard 6.03-. Thus, you must provide the requested information in this instance.)

5. In most species of animals the differences between males and females in body size and shape is referred to as: A. androgyny B. sexual bifurcation C. gender dichotomy D. sexual dimorphism

D (The term "sexual dimorphism" may be new to you, but now you know that it refers to any consistent differences between males and females in size or shape. Sexual dimorphism enables animals to readily identify males and females of their species which serves to facilitate mating.)

23. A person with agnosia is unable to identify a familiar object by sight but does identify it when it is placed in her hand. This is most likely due to A. a visual impairment. B. visual inattention. C. a deficit in iconic memory. D. visual "not knowing."

D (The type of visual agnosia described in this question is referred to as apperceptive agnosia and involves an inability to recognize familiar objects, especially in low-light conditions, when there are many shadows, when objects overlap, etc.)

209. You are a psychologist in private practice and, due to a heavy case load, you decide to work with another psychologist. The second psychologist will see many of the clients and share office space with you. You agree to give this psychologist 50% of all fees received. This arrangement is A. unethical, because the ethical standards prohibit fees for referrals. B. unethical, because it threatens the best interests of the clients. C. unethical, because the clients will be misled about their fees. D. ethical.

D (There is nothing inherently unethical about this arrangement, and it is not barred by APA's ethical standards. The standards do prohibit payment for referrals that are based on the referral itself and not based on services rendered. However, both psychologists in this case will apparently be rendering services, so the arrangement appears acceptable.)

190. In contrast to traditional organizational culture, a quality-oriented culture emphasizes all of the following except: A. using cross-training so that each worker can perform a variety of tasks. B. viewing workers as requiring continuous learning and development. C. basing rewards on long-term -versus short-term- achievement. D. rewarding employees for individual -versus group- achievement.

D (This is the opposite of what is true about organizations that focus on quality where the policy is to emphasize rewarding group performance and organization-level achievement rather than individual achievement -which is characteristic of the traditional approach-. The other characteristics listed in the responses are relatively new approaches and are characteristic of "total quality" organizations.)

210. Which of the following of Kohlberg's stages of moral development is in the correct order? A. Punishment and obedience orientation, social contract and individual rights orientation, instrumental hedonistic orientation, authority and social order maintaining orientation B. Preconventional, postconventional, conventional C. Social relations orientation, instrumental hedonistic orientation, individual rights orientation, social order maintaining orientation D. Instrumental hedonistic orientation, social relations orientation, social contract and individual rights orientation, universal ethical principles orientation

D (This question is an example of EPPP questions that are mostly about reading comprehension. If you were able to stay awake through all the choices, you would have recognized Stage 2, 3, 5 and 6 as the correct selection.)

98. The primary function of a school psychologist is to A. treat children with emotional and/or learning problems. B. identify children who need special help and make appropriate referrals. C. train classroom teachers in operant learning techniques. D. assess, consult, and make recommendations.

D (This was a bit tough because both B and D are correct. However, B is a narrow answer; school psychologists have other functions besides evaluating children and making referrals. They assess children, report their findings, consult with parents and teachers, and make recommendations for further intervention. Their recommendations may or may not involve a referral; for instance, they may recommend an intervention aimed at the teacher or parent rather than the child. In sum, since school psychologists have broad functions, the broader answer is better in this case.)

57. Which of the following statements is not contained in APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct? A. "the purely private conduct of psychologists ... is not within the purview of the Ethics Code. B. "This Ethics Code ... has as its goals the welfare and protection of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work ..." C. "The fact that a given conduct is not specifically addressed by an Ethical Standard does not mean that it is necessarily either ethical or unethical." D. "A violation of the Ethics Code usually means ... that a psychologist will be legally liable in a court action or face other legal consequences."

D (To answer this question, you didn't need to have had the Ethics Code memorized. All you needed was a good understanding of what the Code is all about. Choice D is not part of the Ethics Code, since ethical and legal standards, even though they sometimes overlap, are distinct, with the Ethics Code often holding psychologists to more stringent standards. In fact, the Code states that "whether or not a psychologist has violated the Ethics Code does not by itself determine whether he or she is legally liable in a court action.")

225. In a clinical trial of a new drug, the null hypothesis is the new drug is, on average, no better than the current drug. It is concluded that the two drugs produce the same effect when in fact the new drug is superior. This is: A. corrected by reducing the power of the test B. corrected by reducing the sample size C. a Type I error D. a Type II error

D (Type II errors occur when the null hypothesis is not rejected when it is in fact false; Type I errors are often considered more serious as the null hypothesis is wrongly rejected. For example, in the clinical trial of a new drug, this would be concluding that the new drug was better when in fact it was not. Type I and II errors are inversely related: as the probability of a Type I error increases, the probability of a Type II error decreases, and vice versa. )

119. In the multitrait-multimethod matrix, a low heterotrait-heteromethod coefficient would indicate: A. low convergent validity B. low divergent validity C. high convergent validity D. high divergent validity

D (Use of a multitrait-multimethod matrix is one method of assessing a test's construct validity. The matrix contains correlations among different tests that measure both the same and different traits using similar and different methodologies. The heterotrait-heteromethod coefficient, one of the correlation coefficients that would appear on this matrix, reflects the correlation between two tests that measure different -hetero- traits using different -hetero- methods. An example might be the correlation between vocabulary subtest scores on the WAIS-III for intelligence and scores on the Beck Depression Inventory for depression. Since these measures presumably measure different constructs, the correlation coefficient should be low, indicating high divergent or discriminant validity.)

176. In the multitrait-multimethod matrix, a low heterotrait-monomethod coefficient would indicate: A. low convergent validity. B. low divergent validity. C. high convergent validity. D. high divergent validity.

D (Use of a multitrait-multimethod matrix is one method of assessing a test's construct validity. The matrix contains correlations among different tests that measure both the same and different traits using similar and different methodologies. The heterotrait-monomethod coefficient, one of the correlation coefficients that would appear on this matrix, reflects the correlation between two tests that measure different traits using similar methods. An example might be the correlation between a test of depression based on self-report data and a test of anxiety also based on self-report data. If a test has good divergent validity, this correlation would be low. Divergent validity is the degree to which a test has a low correlation with other tests that do not measure the same construct. Using the above example, a test of depression would have good divergent validity if it had a low correlation with other tests that purportedly measure different traits, such as anxiety. This would be evidence that the depression test is not measuring traits that are unrelated to depression.)

With the elderly, paranoid reactions are possible associated features of ___, ____ and _____.

Delirium and Dementia and are specifically associated with Alzheimer's Disease

T/F Age of maturation is a good predictor of adult adjustment

T/F older adults require less sleep than younger adults

T/F validity is necessary to reliability

T/F Super's theory emphasizes that you can only be in certain roles at any stage and that you move through in a specific order

F. His theory emphasizes fluidity

________________ law states that physical stimulus changes are logarithmically related to their psychological sensations Weber's law Fechner's Law Steven's Power Law

Fechner's law

Which of the post hoc analyses are vulnerable to a Type I error? a) Scheefe b) Tukey c) Fishers

Fishers; the others are vulnerable to a Type II error

TCAs (tricyclics) block all of these NTs EXCEPT norepinephrine serotonin GABA dopamine

GABA

Which NT plays a role in sleep, eating, anxiety disorders and Huntington's? a) Glutamate b) GABA c) Norepinephrine d) Serotonin

GABA

The formula for incremental validity is

Increm Valid= Positive hit rate - Base rate; if increm valid= 40% that is very good (40% added to a base rate of 50% is =90%!!)

GABA has a ______________ effect

Inhibitory

Serotonin exerts a _____________ effect

Inhibitory

Both internal and external validity are concerns in the design of research. ___refers to the extent to which it can be assumed that the changes in the dependent variable are caused by the independent variable. External validity refers to the extent which the results of research can be generalized.

Internal validity, External validity

The _________________ theory of emotion proposest that emotions are inferred from bodily reactions to sensory stimuli James-Lang Canon-Bard Two-factor Cognitive Appraisal

James-Lange Theory

Which type of structural equation modeling involves non-static groups and one-way or two-way causal flows-ie. non-recursive relationships? a) path analysis b) LISERL c) canonical correlation

LISREL

__________________ in the hippocampus refers to the greater responsivity of a postsynaptic neuron to stimulation by a presynaptic neuron for a time after that presyn neuron has been barraged by high freq stimulation long-term potentiation protein synthesis neural mechanistics

Long-term potentiation

Who? applied the term "critical period" to the period during which ducklings bond (or imprint) with their mothers. ___ found that the "critical period" for imprinting in ducklings is 2-3 days after birth. In other words, ducklings will stay close to stimuli which they are exposed to 2-3 days after birth. Research investigating the existence of a similar critical period in humans has been inconclusive.

Lorenz

Which of these neuroimaging techniques are structural techniques? a) MRI b) fMRI c) PET d) SPECT

MRI

What is the level of significance? a) alpha b) beta c) 1-alpha d) 1-beta

alpha

____ is a rare, idiosyncratic reaction to neuroleptic drugs that may be caused by dopamine blockage in the basal ganglia. Muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and stupor are the core symptoms of this. Other symptoms include painful joints, mutism, tachycardia, and urinary retention. a) tricyclic overdose b)Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) c)5-HT toxicity syndrome d)lithium toxicity

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)

Beta-Blockers are used to treat all of these EXCEPT: physical symptoms of anxiety cadiovascular problems migraines OCD

OCD

Damage at the thoracic level of the spinal cord results in

Paraplegia

is an extrapyramidal system disease that affects the control of voluntary movements, is believed to be due to a lack of dopamine in the basal ganglia. a. myasthenia gravis. b. cerebral palsy. c. cystic fibrosis. d. Parkinson's disease.

Parkinson's disease

The ______________ area of the brain plays a role in episodic memory and prospective memory and in constructive memory and false regonition Temporal lobes Hippocampus Prefrontal Cortex Thalamus

Prefrontal Cortex

Infants begin sleep periods with which type of sleep? REM NREM

REM

What are Holland's 6 personality/job types?

RIASEC: Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, Conventional

All of the following are measures of variability: a)Range b)sum c)variance d)standard deviation

What is the formula for the standard error of estimate

SEE= SD *sqrt 1-Rxy^2

Acetylcholine (ACh) is implicated in all of these EXCEPT a) REM sleep b) Schizophrenia c) Alzheimer's d) learning and memory

Schizophrenia

Low levels of serotonin contribute to all EXCEPT a) BN b) OCD c) PTSD d) schizophrenia

Schizophrenia

THe PNS is divided into which 2 nervous systems?

Somatic (SNS) and autonomic (ANS)

__________ law states that sensation is an exponential function of stimulus intensity-useful for describing extreme intensities-ie doubling the intensity of a lightbulb less than double's the sensation of light's brightness but doubling the intensity of an electric shock more than doubles it's physical sensation Weber's law Fechner's Law Steven's Power Law

Steven's power law

All of these structures play a role in procedural memory and implicit memory EXCEPT: Basal Ganglia Thalamus Cerebellum Motor Cortrex

Thalamus

The _________________ area of the brain is involved in processing incoming info and transferring it to the cortex Temporal lobes Hippocampus Prefrontal Cortex Thalamus

Thalamus

Which stage of sleep is characterised by theta waves? a) stage 1 b) stage 2 c) stage 3 d) stage 4

stage 2

This area of the temporal lobe is important for the comprehension of lang and lesions produce deficits in lang comprehension and production

Wernicke's area

Which type of structural equation modeling involves static groups and one-way causal flows-ie. recursive relationships? a) path analysis b) LISERL c) canonical correlation

a) path analysis

A psychologist would most likely administer the Vineland Scale when. a. she is assessing an individual for Mental Retardation. b. she is assessing an individual for Pervasive Developmental Disorder. c. she is checking an individual's recovery following brain injury. d. she wants to assess the cognitive skills of an individual who has limited English proficiency.

Which personality theorist strongly rejected Sigmund Freud's claim that males are dominant or superior to females? a. Alfred Adler b. Karen Horney c. Carl Jung d. Erich Fromm

Which chromosomal abnormality occurs in females and is characterised by short stature, webbed neck and possibly MR and hearing/vision probs? a) Kilnefelter syndrome b) Turner syndrome c) down syndrome

Turner syndrome

According to Freud, dreams are very often a means of a. wish fulfillment. b. solving daytime problems. c. telling oneself what's missing in one's life. d. categorizing one's experience.

The __________________ theory proposes that a combination of physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation of that arousal as well as the environ context result in an emotional experience James-Lang Canon-Bard Two-factor Cognitive Appraisal

Two-factor theory

What refers to the tendency to incorrectly reject the null hypothesis? a) Type I error b) Type II error

Type I error

What error is made when the researcher accepts the null hypothesis but it is actually false? a) Type I error b) Type II error

Type II error

__________ law states that the more intese the stimulus, the greater int increase in stimulus intensity required to produce a noticeable difference - ie 10g added to 100g; 1g added to 10g Weber's law Fechner's Law Steven's Power Law

Weber's law

Which type of aphasia is characterised by paraphasia, and impaired comprehension, and anomia? a) Broca's aphasia b) Wernicke's aphasia c) conduction aphasia d) global aphasia

Wernicke's aphasia

______________ aphasia struggle to understand and express language. Usually have effortless speech but devoid of content

Wernicke's aphasia

**A student who takes a multiple-choice test by reading the stem of each item, generating the correct response before looking at the choices, and then choosing the response closest to the answer is using a. a heuristic. b. an "ideal" solution. c. vicarious problem solving. d. an algorithmic search strategy.

**According to evolutionary psychologists, a. women tend to be concerned with whether mates will devote time and resources to a relationship. b. men place less emphasis on physical attractiveness. c. women place more emphasis on sexual fidelity. d. men are biologically driven to have multiple partners.

**If the ventromedial hypothalamus is destroyed, a rat will a. eat until it becomes obese. b. refuse to eat until forced to do so. c. drink excessively. d. refuse to drink until forced to do so.

**People dream a. about 15 minutes during the night. b. about every 30 minutes in each 90 minute cycle. c. more often in NREM sleep than in REM sleep. d. about 90 minutes a night.

**Secondary motives are a. needs that are learned, such as the needs for power or for achievement. b. innate but not necessary for survival. c. not innate but necessary for survival. d. innate and necessary for survival.

**When a person with little or no authority makes a direct request to another person, the situation involves a. compliance. b. obedience. c. coercion. d. conformity.

**Which of the following statements concerning "jigsaw" classrooms is TRUE? a. Jigsaw groups emphasize cooperation over competition. b. Compared to children in traditional classrooms, children in jigsaw groups were less prejudiced but had slightly lower grades. c. Children in jigsaw groups initially learn "pieces" of information together as a group. d. Even though the jigsaw groups as a whole perform better, high achievers tend to do worse in such groups than when learning alone.

A behavior therapist working with a child who bites her nails sets a timer so that it rings every 5 minutes. For every 5 minute period during which the child doesn't bite her nails, she is given a token. This treatment is an example of. a. D.R.O. b. response cost. c. overcorrection. d. Premack Principle.

A new client of yours, who is homosexual, tells you that he overheard his previous therapist make derogatory remarks about his sexual orientation to a co-worker. Your best course of action would be to. a. discuss his option of filing a complaint against the psychologist with the Ethics Committee. b. file a complaint against the psychologist with the Ethics Committee yourself. c. call the psychologist and tell him that your client overheard his remarks. d. provide the client with support and remind him that there are many prejudiced people in the world.

A person with a temporal lobe tumor is most likely to exhibit which of the following? a. memory impairment, depression or anxiety, and hallucinations. b. poor judgment, impulsivity, and inappropriate jocularity. c. confabulation, irritability and suspiciousness, and prosopagnosia. d. dysgraphia, depression and apathy, and denial of his or her problems.

Which reflex probably helps prevent falling? a. Moro reflex b. grasping reflex c. rooting reflex d. sucking reflex

According to the path-goal theory of leadership, a primary task of a leader is to help subordinates find the best path for attaining goals. In terms of leadership style, this theory proposes that. a. the best style (directive, supportive, participative, or achievement-oriented) depends on certain characteristics of the task and the subordinates. b. the best style (directive, supportive, participative, or achievement-oriented) depends on the leader's experience, personality, and so on. c. the best style is a participative one that allows employees to help set their own goals. d. the best style is an achievement-oriented one that focuses on enhancing the skills and knowledge of subordinates so that they are better able to achieve their goals.

After a training program has been completed, an industrial psychologist wants to determine if the instruction was effective. What type of evaluation will he use. a. summative. b. formative. c. primary. d. secondary.

An achievement test is administered to one hundred people. The test's mean is 50 and its standard deviation is 5 and the test scores are normally distributed. If you want to use test scores to select the top 16 people, you would set the cutoff score at. a. 55. b. 60. c. 65. d. 70.

An adolescent's adoption of a "ready-made" identity that was formulated by a parent or other authority figure is referred to as. a. foreclosure. b. moratorium. c. fusion. d. emersion.

An advocate of a Japanese management philosophy is most likely to advocate which of the following. a. encouraging employees to try out more than one job within the company. b. encouraging each employee to come up with ways for increasing opportunities for individual responsibility and autonomy. c. closely supervising employees . d. rapidly promoting employees who demonstrate superiority.

An industrial psychologist suggests that a factory manager play background music for lineworkers. The manager decides to try this out and begins to play the radio in the factory. The music is most likely to have which of the following effects. a. it will improve performance on routine tasks. b. it will have positive long-term effects on satisfaction and motivation. c. it will decrease worker irritability and frustration. d. it will increase on-the-job accidents.

Approximately 40% of women report experiencing some degree of distress just prior to menstruation. The symptoms of this "premenstrual syndrome" include temporary weight gain, irritability, restlessness, and headache, and appear to be due to which of the following. a. decreased hormonal levels. b. increased blood flow. c. elevated blood sugar levels. d. excessive fluid loss.

Calculated simply by subtracting the lowest score in the distribution from the highest score. a)Range b)variability c)variance d)standard deviation

Delirium shares many symptoms with schizophrenia, schizophreniform disorder, and certain other psychotic disorders, such as disordered thinking, hallucinations, and delusions. Thus, the differential diagnosis of these disorders is often difficult. Generally speaking, however, delirium can be distinguished from the psychotic disorders because. a. the symptoms of delirium tend to be random and haphazard while the symptoms of the psychotic disorders are ordinarily systematized. b. the onset of symptoms in delirium is insidious while the onset of symptoms in psychotic disorders is usually rapid. c. clouding of consciousness is rare in delirium but common in the psychotic disorders. d. the psychotic disorders involve hallucinations and delusions but these symptoms are never present in delirium.

During your first session with a 38 year old man, he tells you that he is homosexual and that he found out, several weeks ago, that his partner of six years is having an affair and is planning on moving out of their house. The man says that he is very nervous and anxious, that he wishes he wasn't a homosexual, and that he lays in bed at night obsessing about his partner. His anxiety has affected his work: He is having trouble concentrating, is not getting along well with his co-workers, and has "called in sick" several times in the past two weeks. Based on these symptoms, the best diagnosis is. a. Adjustment Disorder with Anxious Mood. b. Bereavement. c. Ego-Dystonic Homosexuality. d. P.T.S.D..

Elaine considers her friend, Tom, to be quiet and reserved. She says that when she is alone with Tom or when they are in a small group, Tom listens more than he talks and is never one to "make a scene." One day, however, Elaine observes Tom in a large crowd that is waiting for the arrival of a "special celebrity guest" at the opening of a new shopping mall. The guest is nearly 30 minutes late, and the crowd is beginning to show signs of impatience. Elaine is surprised when she sees Tom initiate loud "booing" and other derogatory comments while waving his clenched fist in the air in anger. Which of the following theories or models best explains Tom's unusual behavior. a. deindividuation. b. social facilitation. c. catharsis. d. paradoxical intention.

Extrinsic motivation stems from a. obvious external factors. b. intrinsic motivation. c. primary drives. d. self-actualization.

Freud argued that the "work of the mental apparatus is directed toward keeping the quantity of excitation low." If the mental apparatus is unsuccessful in doing so, the result is likely to be. a. anxiety. b. ego decompensation. c. psychosis. d. object-cathexis.

In group therapy, members establish a "taking turns"pattern in which each group session is devoted, sequentially, to each group member. In response to this situation, Yalom recommends: a. mass group interpretation. b. here-and-now activation. c. paradoxical prescription. d. reframing

In their theories of development, both Piaget and Kohlberg emphasize which of the following. a. cognitive maturation. b. individual differences. c. imprinting. d. unconscious conflicts.

Kohlberg argued that there is a monotonic relationship between moral judgment and moral action and proposed that, as one moves from a lower to a higher stage of moral development. a. the range of possible moral actions becomes narrower and the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his or her judgments to actions. b. the range of possible moral actions becomes broader and the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his or her judgments to actions. c. the range of possible moral actions remains the same but the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his or her judgments to actions. d. the range of possible moral actions becomes narrower but the individual's sense of responsibility for relating his or her judgments to actions remains about the same.

Margaret Mahler, who is associated with object relations tlieory, views separation-individuation as a reflection of. a. development of a permanent sense of self and a permanent mental representation of the other. b. the formation of strong bonds with additional "significant others". c. splitting of the ego and internalization of the "good mother" as the ideal object. d. development of the conflict-free ego sphere.

More than half of the observations fall on one side of the distribution: a)skewed distribution b)leptokurtic distribution c)platykurtic distribution d)mesokurtic distribution

Most interpretations of performance on the Bender-Gestalt are directed toward. a. screening for brain damage. b. assessing personality. c. estimating intelligence. d. identifying learning disabilities.

Most of the scores are in the negative (low score) side of the distribution and the positive tail is extended because of the presence of a few high scores: a)positive distribution b)leptokurtic distribution c)platykurtic distribution d)negative distribution

Nerve cell bodies and dendrites are not the only locations sensitive to neurotransmitters. Receptor sites can also be found on a. muscles and glands. b. skeletal joints. c. axon terminals. d. all vital organs

Of the following, which is the best way to control the halo effect. a. train the raters. b. use peer ratings. c. make the results of assessments available to employees. d. involve raters in the development of the rating scale.

One advantage of the ___ is that it is the least susceptible to sampling fluctuations and provides an unbiased estimate of the population. A potential disadvantage is that it is affected by the magnitude of every score in the distribution: a)mean b)median c)average d)mode

One of the main differences between the brains of people who score high on mental tests and those who score low indicate that higher scorers have a. higher levels of gray matter. b. lower levels of gray matter. c. lower PET scan recordings. d. higher PET scan recordings

Parasuicide (i.e., attempted, but not completed, suicide) is least associated with. a. middle to upper SES. b. female gender. c. younger age (under 30). d. divorce.

Recent research suggests that people who watch a lot of television. a. fear their environment more than people who report being less frequent TV viewers. b. fear their environment somewhat less than people who report being less frequent TV viewers. c. fear their environment much less than people who report being less frequent TV viewers. d. are about equal in terms of fear of their environment to people who report being less frequent TV viewers.

Research comparing heterogeneous to homogeneous work groups has found that heterogeneous groups. a. are more creative and better at decision-making. b. are more creative but less productive overall. c. make better decisions but are less productive overall. d. are more creative but worse at decision-making.

Research suggests that, in contrast to normal-weight people, overweight people eat in response to. a. external cues. b.hunger pains, which are more frequent in overweight people. c. sugary types of foods. d. stressful events.

Someone who is hungry may show a. an increase in dreams about food and eating. b. a decrease in dreams about food and eating. c. no particular increase in dreams about food and eating. d. no increase in food symbols in their dreams.

Stimulus control training is most effective when. a. the target behavior is consistently reinforced when it is performed in the presence of the discriminative stimulus. b. a continuous reinforcement schedule is replaced by an intermittent one once the target behavior has reached its desired level or intensity. c. the latency between presentation of the discriminative stimulus and the performance of the target behavior is maximized. d. the reinforcement is consistently withheld following the target behavior.

Studies of the Head Start Program indicate that a. children improve their school performance and abilities. b. early childhood educational programs are a waste of the taxpayers' money. c. the gains are about the same as if the child was in a caring environment. d. children improve their performance while they are in the program but lose it in elementary school.

Subjects learn a task while under the influence of a CNS stimulant. Three days later, half of the subjects are tested while under the influence of the drug; the other half are tested while drug-free. Subjects who have been given the drug perform better on the task during testing. This result is predicted by which of the following? a. state dependent memory. b. proactive facilitation. c. drug-dependence effect. d. priming.

Test-retest reliability would be the most appropriate method of determining the reliability of a test if the test is designed to assess which of the following. a. general intelligence. b. mood. c. state anxiety. d. reading level.

The "amazing similarities" of identical twins may be a result of a. the fallacy of positive instances. b. deliberate deceit by the twins. c. deliberate deceit by the researchers. d. the Barnum effect.

The Strong Interest Inventory would probably be least useful. a. as a job selection test. b. as a guide for choosing college major. c. for making career decisions. d. for predicting turnover.

The concept of triangulation is central to general systems theory and can be found in the work of Bowen, Minuchin, Satir, and others. Although these theorists differ somewhat in their definition of triangulation, in general, it is said to be occurring when. a. to reduce tension between them, a two-person system draws in a third party. b. to reduce tension between them, the members of a two-person system focus their attention on a third party. c. to avoid dealing with the conflict between them, a two-person system forms an alliance against a third person. d. to reduce conflict, two members of a three-person system assume a submissive role when interacting with the third dominant member.

The major link between the brain and the glandular system is the a. hypothalamus. b. pituitary. c. CNS. d. midbrain

The original purpose of the classic Hawthorne studies conducted at the Western Electric plant in Chicago in the 1920s and 1930s was to determine. a. the effects of certain environmental factors on work performance. b. the impact of information work group norms on worker productivity. c. the effects of innovative management styles on job satisfaction. d. the relationship between job responsibility and job satisfaction.

The owner of several fast-food restaurants would be best advised to use which of the following intervention strategies if his goal is to help his employees stop smoking cigarettes. a. supplement a behaviorally-oriented program with inter-restaurant competition. b. give employees individual bonuses for reduced cigarette smoking. c. provide employees with information about the negative side-effects of cigarette smoking that is designed to arouse a moderately high level of fear. d. institute a self-control program that is monitored by a physician and a behavioral psychologist.

The presence of which of the following symptoms would suggest a diagnosis of Conduct Disorder rather than a diagnosis of Oppositional Defiant Disorder. a. frequent lying and running away from home. b. low frustration tolerance and temper outbursts. c. drug use. d. onset of symptoms after age 11.

The primary purpose of the state licensing boards is to. a. protect the public from poorly trained and incompetent psychologists. b. supervise the training of psychologists. c. keep a limit on the number of licenses granted yearly. d. uphold APA's ethical practices guidelines.

The word HEART is projected onto a screen so that HE is projected to the subject's right visual field only while ART is projected to the subject's left visual field only. If the subject in the experiment is a "split brain"patient, you would expect him or her to report seeing. a. HE only. b. ART only. c. ART HE. d. HEART.

Undernutrition during the prenatal period and early infancy. a. affects both the size and structure of the brain's cells. b. primarily affects the peripheral (versus central) nervous system. c. increases the body's susceptibility to disease, especially during childhood. d. impairs later cognitive functioning but has little impact on social or emotional development.

Unilateral ECT to the right hemisphere would most likely produce. a. predominantly anterograde amnesia involving nonverbal material. b. predominantly anterograde amnesia involving verbal material. c. predominantly retrograde amnesia involving nonverbal material. d. predominantly retrograde amnesia involving verbal material.

Various predictors are used in industry for the purpose of personnel selection. When validating these predictors, which of the following is most commonly used as the criterion measure. a. supervisory ratings of job proficiency. b. peer ratings of job proficiency. c. objective measures of production quality and quantity. d. salary level

What measure of central tendency do you use for a Interval scale of measurement: a)mode, median, or mean b)Mode or Median c)Mean or mode d) mode

What measure of central tendency do you use for a Ratio scale of measurement: a)mode, median, or mean b)Mode or Median c)Mean or mode d) mode

When a distribution is normal, ____% of the scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus two standard deviation from the mean: a)95.44% b)99.72% c)68.26% d) 48.33%

When conducting an experiment, a researcher sets alpha at .01. On the basis of the results of the t-test she uses to analyze her data, the researcher concludes that her results are "significant at the .01 level." This means that. a. there is a 1% probability that she has falsely rejected the null hypothesis. b. there is a 1% probability that she has falsely retained the null hypothesis. c. there is a 99% probability that she has correctly rejected the null hypothesis. d. there is a 99% probability that she has correctly retained the null hypothesis.

When using the Halstead-Reitan, an examinee's performance on seven measures (e.g., the Category Test, the Seashore Rhythm Test, and the Finger Oscillation Test) is used to derive a or an. a. Impairment Index, which can be used to determine if an examinee has brain damage. b. Impairment Index, which can be used to determine if an examinee is suffering from a functional disorder. c. Pathology Profile, which allows the examiner to compare the examinee's score profile to those of people with and without brain damage. d. Pathology Profile, which helps the examiner determine the appropriate DSM-IV diagnosis.

When working with a Japanese client in therapy, during the first session, you decide that your primary goals are to normalize the client's problems and instill a sense of hope. According to Sue and Zane (1987), these goals are. a. examples of "giving". b. ways of establishing ascribed credibility. c. ways of fostering "amae". d. expressions of cultural knowledge.

Which of the following is the most commonly used criterion-measure in organizational settings? a. supervisor ratings. b. standardized performance tests. c. quantitative measures of production. d. assessment centers.

You administer a test to a sample of young adults with PTSD and, from their scores, calculate a kappa coefficient of .95. This indicates that the test is. a. reliable. b. valid. c. reliable and valid. d. reliable but not valid.

You notice that a friend of yours gets upset every time someone is standing less than 12 feet away from him or her. Which of the following characteristics is your friend most likely to possess. a. low self-esteem. b. female gender. c. a disdain of violence. d. low levels of authoritarianism.

___ statistics are used to describe or summarize a distribution of data: a)descriptive b)inferential c) frequency d)interval

an average n numbers computed by adding some function of the numbers and dividing by some function of n: a)mean b)median c)average d)mode

With an obtained score of 137 and a standard error of measurement of 4.5, what is the 68% confidence interval? a) 132.5-141.5 b) 128-146 c) 123.5- 150.5

a) 132.5-141.5

How quickly do SSRIs work? a) 7-10 days b) 2-3 weeks c) 4-6 weeks d) 2-3 months

a) 7-10 days

Which chromosomal abnormality occurs in males and is characterised by smaller genitals, dvpt of breats and infertility? a) Kilnefelter syndrome b) Turner syndrome c) down syndrome

a) Kilnefelter syndrome

Which type of correction should be used to measure the internal consistency on a dichotomous response test (ie. right and wrong) a) Kuder-Richardson-20 b) Spearman Brown c) Coefficient alpha d) coefficient of equivalence

a) Kuder-Richardson-20

Increased power refers to the: a) ability to correctly reject the false null hypothesis b) ability to correctly accept the false null hypothesis

a) ability to correctly reject the false null hypothesis

All of these are side effects of SSRIs except: a) anticholinergic b) insomnia c) gastro problems d) anorexia

a) anticholinergic

Which side effect refers to dry eyes, mouth, tachycardia, constipation a) anticholinergic effects b) extrapyramidal effects c) neuroleptic malignant syndrome d) agranulocytosis

a) anticholinergic effects-dried up

Which statistical test is suitable for using on nominal data? a) chi-square b) Mann-Whitney U c) t-test d) multiple regression

a) chi-square

Reliability is: a) consistency b) accuracy

a) consistency

The monotrait-heteromethod coefficient provides a measure of: a) convergent validity b) divergent validity c) differental validity d) construct validity

a) convergent validity

A ceiling effect occurs when the test items are too: a) easy b) difficult c) similar

a) easy= negatively skewed--> test can't discriminate btwn those with high levels of ability

Which of these factors do not affect reliability? a) guessing-the easier it is to guess the right answer the larger the reliability b) test length-longer = more reliable c) homogenity of content--more homogenous= higher reliability d) range of scores- a wide range increases reliability

a) guessing---it should be: the more difficult it is to guess the right answer, the higher the reliability coefficient

In humans, critical periods occur: a) only prenatally b) both prenatally and postnatally c) only postnatally d) not at all

a) only prenatally

All of these increase statistical power except: a) reducing alpha (.01 instead of .05) b) large sample size c) one-tailed test d) controlling for extraneous variables

a) reducing alpha (.01 instead of .05)--power is increased by increasing alpha (but this also increases the probability of making a Type I error); decreasing alpha gives you more confidence but less power

Bem's gender schema theory proposes that gender identity is the result of ________ and cognition a) social learning b) sex education c) parental expectations

a) social learning

At 6 months of age______ begins to occur when infants look to the caregiver for cues in ambiguous situations a) social referencing b) separation anxiety c) stranger anxiety d) increased exploration of the environment

a) social referencing

patient factors that correlate positively with therapy outcome include all of the following except (more than one answer): a)age b) educational level, c)ego strength, d)gender e) anxiety tolerance, f) social class, g) attractiveness, h) client participation. i) intelligence

a, d, f

You are contacted by the APA Ethics Committee in regard to a complaint filed against you by your client. The committee asks for your records related to the client's therapy with you. You should: a. cooperate fully with the Committee's request b. contact the client and obtain a release of information before cooperating c. contact the client and attempt to settle the matter informally with him. d. call your travel agent and find out when the next plane to Tahiti is leaving.

a. you must fully cooperate. confidentiality is not an issue because a signed waiver is completed before action is taken

job satisfaction is inversely related to

absenteeism and turnover

In ________ measures, rating scales are used and employees are not compared to other employees a) paired comparison b) forced distribution c) absolute d) criterion

absolute

All of these impact a child's reaction to divorce except: a) age b) academic ability c) gender d) parental conflict

academic ability

In which of James Marcia's adolescent identity dvpt stages is the adolescent committed to specific values, beliefs and career? a) Diffusion b) foreclosure c) moratorium d) achievement

achievement

_______________coping strategies are most effective in reducing pain active passive

active

The largest increase in the rates of suicide and suicide attempts in recent years is among ______

adolescents

Sleep patterns vary by _______-- gender age IQ

age

What refers to the inability to recognise familiar objects/sounds? a) agnosia b) ataxia c) anomia d) anosognosia

agnosia

Which type of drug produces effects similar to those of the NT? a) agonist b) partial agonist c) inverse agonist d) antagonist

agonist

These types of psychoactive drugs produce effects similar to those of the NT agonists inverse agonists partial agonists antagonists

agonists

Parkinson's involves ___________ (cruel restlessness)

akathisia

What refers to theloss of movement? a) akinsesia b) ataxia c) anomia d) anosognosia

akinesia

Shedler and J. Block conclude that problem drug users exhibit a coherent syndrome, often as early as age 7, that is characterized by __, ___, & ___ and that these symptoms clearly precede the onset of drug use.

alienation, impulsivity, and subjective distress

acknowledge their American heritage but are more strongly influenced by their ethnic background, is referred to, by Phinney and Devich-Navarro, as ____.a) blended biculturalism, b) alternating biculturalism, c) separated. d)marginalization

alternating biculturalism

Abnormalities in which part of the brain have been linked to PTSD, anxiety and depression? a) amygdala b) hippocampus c) prefrontal cortex d) primary motor cortex

amygdala

All of these are part of the basal ganglia in the forebrain EXCEPT: caudate nucleus putamen amygdala globus pallidus

amygdala

Bilateral lesions in which part of the brain produce Kluver-Bucy syndrome a) amygdala b) hippocampus c) prefrontal cortex d) primary motor cortex

amygdala

This part of the limbic system integrates, coordinates and directs motivational and emotions activities and attaches emotions to memories

amygdala

An inability to name common objects is known as conduction aphasia anomia apraxia global aphasia

anomia

What refers to the inability to recall the names of objects? a) agnosia b) ataxia c) anomia d) anosognosia

anomia

What refers to the inability to recognise one's own neuro symptoms? a) agnosia b) ataxia c) anomia d) anosognosia

anosognosia

_________ , a type of damage to the parietal lobe, is an inability to recognize one's own neurological symptoms or other disorder apraxia anosognosia somatosensory agnosia Gerstmann's syndrome

anosognosia

These types of psychoactive drugs produce no cell activity but instead reduce/block the effects of a NT agonists inverse agonists partial agonists antagonists

antagonists

All of these are potential side effects of carbamazepine EXCEPT anticholinergic effects cardiovascular effects arganulocytosis aplastic anemia

anticholinergic effects

All of these are side effects of SSRIs EXCEPT gastro disturbances insomnia anxiety anticholinergic effects

anticholinergic effects

These traditional and atypical antipsychotic side effects include dry mouth, blurred cision, urinary retention, constipation, tachycardia and delayed ejaculation parkinsonism akasthisia anticholinergic effects acute dystonia

anticholinergic effects

Which is not a side effect of beta-blockers? a) anticholinergic effects b) bradycardia c) memory impariment d) depression

anticholinergic effects

Carbamazepine was intitially used as _________ drug but is now used as a mood stabilizer a) anti-anxiety b) antipsychotic c) anticonvulsant d) sedative

anticonvulsant

What refers to disturbance in previously acquired language skills? a) aphasia b) ataxia c) anomia d) anosognosia

aphasia

_________ , a type of damage to the parietal lobe, is an inability to perform skilled motor movements apraxia anosognosia somatosensory agnosia Gerstmann's syndrome

apraxia

Piaget-What occurs when a child applies an existing schema to a new object? a) assimilation b) accomodation c) adaptation

assimilation

In an AB design, the DV is measured: a) once b) twice-before and after the interven c) at regular intervals d) three times

at regular intervals

Damage to the cerebellum results in _________, a condition involving slurred speech, tremors and loss of balance

ataxia

What refers to incoordination, clumsiness and lack of balance ? a) agnosia b) ataxia c) anomia d) anosognosia

ataxia

MAOIs are effective for which type of depression: a) mild b) typical c) atypical d) moderate

atypical

MAOIs are most effectice in treating which type of depression?

atypical depression involving anxiety

Which of Baumrind's parenting styles is associated with children who are timid, insecure and socially incompetent? a) authoritative b) authoritarian c) permissive d) rejecting/neglecting

authoritarian

PIaget-In which stage of moral dvpt do individuals recognise that rules and laws can be changed by consensus? a) premoral b) heteronomous c) autonomous d) postconventional

autonomous

Which theory holds that a relationship must be profitable to endure? a. complementary need theory b. social exchange theory c. gain-loss theory d. social comparison theory

"Assessment centers" are most commonly used to. a. hire and promote clerical workers. b. hire and promote managers. c. train semi-skilled and skilled workers. d. evaluate the performance of current employees.

**A solution that correctly states the requirements for success in solving a problem but not in sufficient detail for further action is called a(n) __________ solution. a. heuristic b. general c. functional d. specific

**According to Jung, art, religion, myths, and drama are important to individual functioning because they a. facilitate conscious development. b. are symbols that appeal to basic archetypes. c. provide the means for achieving control over a hostile environment. d. transmit specific information for solving developmental tasks.

**An individual's misuse of valuable natural resources could be an example of a. group sanctions. b. a social trap. c. compliance. d. groupthink.

**The fact that fraternal twins are more similar in intelligence than ordinary siblings suggests the importance of a. common hereditary factors. b. common environmental factors. c. genetic effects. d. effects of intrauterine environment.

**Which is the most closely related to poverty? a. metabolic disorders b. familial retardation c. birth injuries d. fetal damage

**Which of the following best describes the stability of sleep cycles? a. They are innate so they cannot be modified. b. They are innate but can be modified in times of emergency. c. They are entirely learned but are difficult to modify. d. They are entirely learned and, thus, may be easily modified.

**Which of the following is a secondary motive? a. curiosity b. the desire for money c. physical contact d. thirst

10. You are hired by a small company to provide evaluation and counseling services to employees. The company owner tells you that employees routinely sign a waiver of confidentiality when they are hired. In this situation, you should. a. tell the employer that you can give her only very limited and relevant information about an employee even though the employee has signed a waiver. b. clarify the company policy with the employees that you see and determine if they want to continue in counseling. c. provide the employer with information only after you have confirmed that the employee has actually signed the waiver. d. refuse to give the employer any information about the employees that you see.

118. One of the most influential theories in the field of attitude change is Leon Festinger's "cognitive dissonance theory." Based on the principles of this theory, it can be predicted that. a. the less an individual suffers to obtain something, the more he/she will like it once it has been obtained. b. to relieve dissonance after choosing one of two equally attractive alternatives, an individual will attribute greater attractiveness to the chosen alternative. c. to relieve dissonance after choosing one of two equally attractive alternatives, an individual will attribute his or her decision to dispositional factors. d. voluntary participation in an undesirable activity will result in greater dislike for the activity.

A Jungian "archetype" is best described as. a. an organized constellation of feelings, thoughts, and perceptions. b. a structural component of the collective unconscious. c. the "mask" adopted by a person in response to social demands. d. a significant historical event.

A child living in the United States is exposed to both English and a second language between the ages of six months and three years and, as result, becomes fluent in both languages. If the child had not been exposed to the second language until after the age of 4 or 5, she would have had more trouble acquiring the second language. This provides evidence for. a. the concept of critical periods. b. the concept of sensitive periods. c. the Whorfian hypothesis. d. the notion of imprinting.

A child with Oppositional Defiant Disorder is least likely to exhibit which of the following. a. frequent arguments and conflicts with his or her parents. b. high degree of physical aggression toward his or her peers. c. consistently blames others for his or her mistakes. d. views his or her problems as due to the unrealistic demands of others.

A child would be most likely to do which of the following first. a. walk alone. b. show separation anxiety. c. pretend that a wood cylinder is a cup. d. say her first word.

A client presenting memory loss must be carefully evaluated to determine if the loss is due to dissociative amnesia, a medical or substance-induced disorder, or malingering. Clare R., a 46-year-old housewife, is brought to treatment by her husband. Among other symptoms, Clare displays a memory loss for both recent and distant events. Under hypnosis, however, Clare is able to remember incidents she was unable to recall before being hypnotized. Therefore, the therapist can rule out which of the following disorders. a. dissociative amnesia only. b. amnestic disorder only. c. dissociative amnesia and malingering only. d. amnestic disorder and dissociative amnesia only.

A leader who can recognize the need for change and create a vision that motivates followers to effectively achieve that change is referred to as a. a. transactional leader. b. transformational leader. c. superleader. d. dreamer.

A listener is least likely to change her attitude as the result of a communicator's message if. a. the listener accidentally overhears the message. b. the listener has prior knowledge about the content of the message. c. the communicator is arguing against his or her own best interests. d. there is a moderate discrepancy between the listener's initial position and the communicator's position.

A primary distinction between Freud and those psychologists who are collectively identified as "neo-Freudians" (e.g., Fromm, Homey, and Sullivan) is that the latter. a. emphasized the "innate wisdom" of the individual. b. placed greater emphasis on the ego functions and the impact of social influences. c. extended the number of and placed greater emphasis on instinctual (unconscious) forces. d. adopted a teleological approach that viewed behavior as being "pulled" rather than "pushed".

A psychologist administers the MMPI-2 to a 36-year old man who has exhibited a number of neurotic symptoms. The man receives a very low K Scale score. On the basis of this score, the psychologist can tentatively conclude that the man. a. tries to present himself in a favorable light. b. is very self-critical. c. is psychopathic. d. may have an organic disorder.

A psychologist who obtained a Ph.D. in industrial psychology wants to change her specialty to clinical psychology. To meet the requirements of APA's guidelines regarding a change in specialty, the psychologist must. a. complete an internship in clinical psychology under the supervision of a licensed clinical psychologist. b. complete appropriate doctoral-level classes and supervised post-doctoral training. c. obtain a second Ph.D. in clinical psychology from an accredited university or professional school. d. obtain appropriate supervision of her clinical practice.

A securely attached infant. a. may or may not become upset when the parent leaves the room; is comforted by a stranger; and seeks contact with the parent on reunion. b. becomes upset when the parent leaves the room; is unlikely to be comforted by a stranger; and seeks comfort from the parent on reunion. c. becomes upset when the parent leaves the room; is comforted by a stranger; and may or may not seek contact with the parent on reunion. d. becomes upset when the parent leaves the room; seeks comfort from a stranger if upset; and resumes play when the parent returns.

A test developer designs an arithmetic achievement test to be used with junior high school students. When assessing the test's reliability, the test developer is likely to get an overestimate of its reliability if. a. the test contains items that are primarily of a moderate difficulty level. b. the examinees in the sample are more heterogeneous in terms of arithmetic achievement than the examinees the test was designed for. c. the test is a speeded test and the test developer uses the alternate forms method to assess its reliability. d. all of the above.

A two-year-old says, "Water go," to which the parent responds, "Yes, the water goes down the drain." The parent is using the strategy of a. extension. b. expansion. c. prompting. d. parentese.

A woman is told that she has a serious illness for which there is no cure and that it is likely that she will die within six months. From the perspective of Kubler-Ross' stages that dying people pass through, you would expect the woman's first reaction to finding out about her prognosis to be. a. "Why me?" b."The test results must be inaccurate." c. "I must be being punished for something I did." d. "I hate my life anyway, so what difference does it make?"

According to DSM-FV,for approximately 30 to 40% of the individuals with Mental Retardation seen in clinical settings, no clear cause can be identified. For those individuals for whom the etiology of the disorder is known, heredity is responsible in what percentage of cases? a. less than 1%. b. about 5%. c. about 20%. d. more than 50%.

According to Gould, a "crisis of questions, " where an individual ponders the meaning of life, occurs during a. adolescence. b. early adulthood. c. middle adulthood. d. old age

According to Kohlberg, moral development is directly related to. a. changes in cognitive skills. b. changes in cognitive skills and social perspective-taking. c. changes in cognitive skills and socioemotional status. d. sociocultural influences and changes.

According to Patterson and his colleagues, aggression in children is linked to the use of coercive discipline by their parents. In turn, the parents' use of coercive discipline is directly related to. a. the parents' misinterpretations of the child's intentions when he or she misbehaves. b. the parents' personality characteristics and the child's temperament. c. the nature of the attachment between the child and the parent. d. the effectiveness of the discipline in stopping the child's misbehavior.

According to the James-Lange theory. a. I think, therefore I am. b. I'm trembling, so I must be scared. c. It's noon so I must be hungry. d. That was a great birthday surprise, so I must be happy.

After playing the role of a child abuser in a feature film, a well-known and formerly well-liked actor begins receiving a lot of "hate mail." The writers of these letters are exhibiting. a. psychological reactance. b. the fundamental attribution error. c. the availability bias. d. defensive attribution.

An advantage of the ____ is that, if one score in a distribution is extremely high or low, the value of this is not affected. It is insensitive to outliers. A disadvantage of this measure is that its use in other quantitative procedures is limited and it serves primarily as a descriptive statistic: a)mean b)median c)average d)mode

An effective intervention for hyperactive children would probably include which of the following. a. the child will decide on appropriate tasks and rewards for completing tasks. b. the parents will set-up a behavioral routine and enforce it consistently. c. both parents and child will determine appropriate punishments for misbehaviors. d. the parents will determine a behavioral routine but be flexible in its enforcement.

Androgens and estrogens are secreted by the. a. gonads only. b. gonads and adrenal glands. c. gonads and pituitary gland. d. gonads and pineal gland.

Based on your knowledge of the statistics on suicide, you would predict that a client would be at the highest risk for suicide if. a. he is between the ages of 17 and 27. b. he has expressed a desire to kill himself. c. he has a personality disorder. d. his depressive symptoms have recently worsened.

Because they share a number of symptoms, it is often difficult to distinguish between Dementia and pseudodementia of Major Depressive Disorder in elderly patients. The presence of which of the following symptoms, however, is more suggestive of Major Depressive Disorder. a. patient gives confabulated answers to questions. b. patient complains about and is distressed by memory loss. c. patient exhibits apathy and loss of interest in usual activities. d. patient exhibits frequent incontinence.

Conduct Disorder frequently co-occurs with ADHD. Which of the following is not true about children with both disorders? a. They have higher rates of social maladjustment than children with ADHD only. b. They have more extensive cognitive difficulties and poorer school achievement than children with ADHD only. c. They have poorer long-term outcomes and a higher risk of adult psychopathology than children with ADHD only. d. They often have a less favorable response to stimulant medication than children with ADHD only.

Conformity to peer values often a. peaks in late adolescence. b. inhibits personal growth. c. assures an individual of acceptance. d. inhibits a member-of-society perspective

Dr. Prach, a licensed psychologist, is consulting on staff at a teaching hospital. Several psychology interns come to her to complain that they are being excluded from doing the duties they were promised at the beginning of their internships. Dr. Prach would be most helpful if she. a. reports the administrators of the internship program to the ethics committee. b. explores options the interns have in making their needs known to the administrators. c. suggests that she "go to bat" for the interns and try to convince the administrators to change their minds. d. tells the interns that she should not get involved in their dispute.

During the first few sessions of family therapy, a structural family therapist makes use of "tracking" and "mimesis" in order to. a. keep from becoming emotionally triangulated into the family system. b. join with the family system. c. make initial changes in the family structure. d. reduce stress in the family system.

During the first session with a client, you learn that he has a history of offenses that you find difficult to deal with and feel, therefore, that you would not like working with him. As an ethical psychologist you should. a. disregard your personal preferences and accept the young man into therapy. b. refer the young man to another professional. c. accept the young man into therapy but seek supervision. d. tell the young man that you cannot accept him into therapy.

During the third therapy session, a client reveals to you that he has been seeing another psychologist for the past six months. The client claims that this therapist doesn't seem to be "doing any good," and that he feels you'll be better able to help him. As an ethical psychologist, you should. a. call the psychologist and inform her of the situation but only with the client's consent. b. tell the client you will continue therapy with him but discuss the implications of the situation. c. tell the client you cannot continue therapy with him unless he terminates therapy with the other psychologist. d. continue seeing the client but suggest that it would be best if he terminates therapy with the other psychologist.

First-and second-grade children who have been identified as being at risk for academic under achievement are provided with a special after-school program. This is an example of. a. primary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. crisis intervention.

Following the assessment of a child and a meeting with the child's parents, a school psychologist working for a public school district concludes that child abuse has occurred. The psychologist should. a. make a report to the school principal and let the principal handle the situation. b. make a report to the appropriate child protective agency. c. confront the parents with his suspicions and insist that they seek counseling. d. do nothing as it is not within the realm of his responsibilities and would represent a breach of confidentiality.

For a family systems (Bowenian) therapist, when afamily exhibits a high degree of fusion but one member is more differentiated than the others, the likely approach would be to: a. work with the least differentiated family members. b. work with the most differentiated family member. c. work with all family members as a group. d. work with all family members in individual therapy until they reach a similar level of differentiation.

For the following data what is the mode; 3,3,4,7,8: a)25 b)3 c)5 d)4

Which side effect refers to a blood disease? a) anticholinergic effects b) extrapyramidal effects c) neuroleptic malignant syndrome d) agranulocytosis

d) agranulocytosis

From the perspective of Gestalt therapy, an optimal "contact boundary" is semipermeable and coterminous with the actual self. Introjection is one type of boundary disturbance. It occurs when. a. the contact boundary is located far in the environment. b. the contact boundary is located deep within the self. c. the contact boundary is turned back against the self. d. the contact boundary is extremely rigid.

Helena took a(n) __________ test which indicated that she could excel in teaching English as a second language. a. intelligence b. special aptitude c. multiple aptitude d. achievement

If the brain were similar to the postal system, the function of the thalamus would be similar to the role of a. postmaster. b. mail sorter. c. mail carrier. d. Postmaster General

In Freudian theory, the __________ is the "executive" structure that is directed by the reality principle. a. id b. ego c. superego d. libido

In a ____ the mean is greater than the median, which in turn is greater than the mode: a)normal distribution b)positive distribution c)negative distribution d) bell curve

In a research study in which it is necessary to use deception, subjects are not told the exact nature of the study prior to their participation. According to APA's Ethics Code, in this situation, the investigator is obligated to. a. explain why subjects were not informed in the presentation of his research findings. b. explain the true nature of the study to all subjects as soon as possible. c. file a waiver of informed consent with the Ethics Committee prior to beginning the study. d. do none of the above as long as the study is determined to be of significant scientific value.

In an early experiment by Cannon and Washburn, Washburn swallowed a balloon so that they could measure hunger. Their conclusion was that a. the balloon prevented hunger by filling up the stomach. b. the balloon recorded hunger pangs or contractions. c. the balloon stopped digestion, and so nothing could be said of normal hunger. d. hunger had nothing to do with stomach contractions.

In discussing a depressed client, a therapist says the client's problems are due to the fact that she did not experience normal grief following the death of her mother. He says that the focus of treatment will be on helping the client go through the grieving process and restore her interests and friendships so that she can overcome her loss. Apparently, this therapist is a practitioner of. a. rational-emotive therapy. b. interpersonal therapy. c. object-relations therapy. d. reality therapy.

In family therapy, the adolescent daughter complains that she doesn't think she can change and she feels that doing what the therapist has requested is pointless. The therapist responds by saying, "Well, in that case, I think you shouldn't even try." The therapist's response is an example of. a. reactance. b. restraining. c. positioning. d. prescription.

Individuals with which of the following disorders cross-dress for the purposes of sexual arousal. a. transsexualism. b. transvestism. c. gender identity disorder. d. all of the above.

Mental health professionals are sometimes called upon to assist the court in assessing a person's potential for violent behavior. In general, the predictions made by psychologists and psychiatrists yield an abundance of. a. false negatives. b. false positives. c. true negatives. d. true positives.

Parkinson's Disease is associated primarily with a loss of cells in the. a. reticular formation. b. basal ganglia. c. amygdala. d. temporal and occipital lobes.

Rehm's self-control therapy begins with self-monitoring, which involves maintaining a daily log of. a. positive activities. b. automatic thoughts. c. distressful thoughts. d. antecedent events.

Research on Maslow's need hierarchy theory has demonstrated all of the following except. a. line managers perceive greater fulfillment of needs than staff managers, especially esteem and self-actualization needs. b. older workers have greater deficiencies in fulfilling esteem and self-actualization needs than younger workers. c. race seems to be related to fulfillment of needs with minority managers experiencing less fulfillment than non-minority managers. d. managers who work for small companies are less deficient in meeting their needs than managers at large companies, especially at lower levels of management.

Stimulus motives are a. needs that are learned, such as the needs for power or for achievement. b. innate but not necessary for survival. c. not innate but necessary for survival. d. innate and necessary for survival.

Subtracting the mean from each score in a distribution, squaring each result, and then summing the squared results. a. yields the distribution's standard deviation. b. provides a measure of dispersion. c. yields a coefficient of determination d. provides a measure of central tendency

Systematic desensitization, a behavioral technique originally developed by Wolpe, is based on which of the following. a. aversive counterconditioning. b. counterconditioning. c. habituation. d. operant extinction.

The College Entrance Examination Board has conducted several well-controlled studies to assess the effects of commercial coaching courses on SAT (Scholastic Aptitude Test) performance. Results of these studies have generally found that coaching. a. has no effect on SAT performance b. has a slight (but insignificant) positive effect on SAT performance c. has a significant positive effect on the SAT performance of lower-achieving students only d. has a significant positive effect on the SAT performance of students at all levels of achievement

The best way to reduce the likelihood of the development of PTSD following a crisis or other unusual event is. a. stress-inoculation training prior to the event. b. immediate debriefing with opportunities to reprocess the event. c. in vivo or imaginal exposure with response prevention. d. systematic desensitization.

The onset of puberty for boys is between __________ years; for girls it is between __________ years of age. a. 9-13; 10-12 b. 13-16; 11-14 c. 8-11; 9-13 d. 11-14; 13-16 c

The owner of a company has decided that, to determine how well employees are performing, employees will be watched while performing their jobs for a predetermined period of time. Based on the relevant research, you predict that the employees' performance during the period of observation will. a. be inhibited if the task is easy. b. be inhibited if the task is complex. c. be enhanced whether the task is easy or complex. d. be inhibited whether the task is easy or complex.

To help a depressed client identify the cognitive errors and distortions that are affecting her interpretation of current life events, a practitioner of Beck's cognitive therapy would. a. rely primarily on didactic techniques. b. make use of Socratic questioning. c. rely on verbal persuasion. d. use paradox.

What measure of central tendency do you use for a Ordinal scale of measurement: a)mode, median, or mean b)Mode or Median c)Mean or mode d) mode

When a distribution is normal, ____% of the scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus three standard deviation from the mean: a)95.44% b)99.72% c)68.26% d) 48.33%

When a program to reduce aggression in children is based on the work of Patterson and his colleagues, it will include which of the following? a. providing the child with opportunities for catharsis. b. training parents in child management skills. c. increasing the child's perspective-taking skills. d. individual insight-oriented therapy for each parent.

When taking a practice test in preparation for the licensing exam, your performance on the test is least likely to be adversely affected by. a. a loudly ticking clock. b. the stereo that you're too lazy to turn off. c. neighbors arguing in the apartment next door. d. a thunderstorm.

When the distribution is skewed or when there is missing data it is best to use : a)mean b)median c)average d)mode

When using covert sensitization to treat a sexual fetish, the fetish object acts as a or an. a. unconditioned stimulus. b. conditioned stimulus. c. primary reinforcer. d. secondary reinforcer.

Which of the following individuals is least likely to view maladaptive behavior as the inhibition of the natural capacity for growth. a. Rogers. b. Wolpe. c. Goldstein. d. Maslow.

Which of the following is most relevant to equity theory. a. Rosenthal effect. b. social comparison theory. c. drive theory. d. the buffering hypothesis.

Which of the following would be least likely to increase the power of a statistical test. a. increasing the reliability of the dependent variable measure by decreasing its susceptibility to random error. b. changing the level of significance (alpha) from .05 to .01. c. using a one-tailed test (assuming it is appropriate to do so). d. increasing experimental variance by increasing the magnitude of the independent variable effect.

Which of the following would help confirm a diagnosis of Alzheimer's Dementia while ruling out a diagnosis of Dementia due to Head Trauma? a. anterograde and retrograde amnesia appear at about the same time. b. anterograde amnesia appears first; after a period of time, retrograde amnesia appears. c. retrograde amnesia appears first and gradually worsens; after a period of time, anterograde amnesia appears. d. anterograde and retrograde amnesia appear at about the same time but the retrograde amnesia begins with impairments in recent memory and then progresses to impairments in remote memory.

Which of the following would probably be least useful when a therapist is working with an Asian-American client. a. identifying therapy goals during the initial session. b. establishing an egalitarian relationship with the client early in therapy. c. making use of "relationship questions" that elicit information about the client's interactions with others. d. asking the client to try to identify exceptions to the presenting problem.

You are hired by a community mental health center as an outside consultant to help one of the clinicians develop a treatment plan for a difficult client. This type of consultation is referred to as. a. consultee-centered case consultation. b. client-centered case consultation. c. client-administrative case consultation. d. consultee-administrative case consultation.

You conduct a study to compare the effects of treatment type and treatment duration on cigarette smoking. Following administration of the treatments to subjects for the appropriate length of time, you determine the average number of cigarettes smoked each day by subjects in each group and obtain the following data. After two weeks, treatment one subject smoked 10 cigarettes per day, treatment subject two smoked ten per day and treatment three subject smoked 15. After four weeks, subject one smoked 6 per day, subject two smoked 12 and subject under treatment three smoked 9. After eight weeks subject one smoked 3 per day, subject two smoked 6 and subject three smoked three per day. Based on the above information, you can conclude that there are. a. main effects of treatment type and duration only. b. main effects of treatment type and duration and interaction effects. c. main effects of treatment type only. d. interaction effects only.

Zelda obtains a score of 41 on a test that has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 6. If the raw scores are changed so that the test now has a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 12, Zelda's raw score would be equal to. a. 91. b. 82. c. 41. d. none of the above.

__________ is closely related to grammar and pronunciation. a. Aphasia b. Broca's area c. Wernicke's area d. Agnosia

**The term "g-factor," written about by Neisser, refers to a. generation factors. b. general abilities. c. Gardner factors. d. group factors.

b Neisser - mentioned in EPPP grid... ecological validity important to his work. Ulric Gustav Neisser (December 8, 1928 - February 17, 2012[1]) was a German-born, American psychologist and member of the National Academy of Sciences. He was a significant figure in the development of cognitive science and the shift from behaviorist to cognitive models in psychology. 1976, he wrote Cognition and Reality, in which he expressed three general criticisms of the field of cognitive psychology. First, he was dissatisfied with the linear programming model of cognitive psychology, with its over-emphasis on peculiar information processing models used to describe and explain behavior. Second, he felt that cognitive psychology had failed to address the everyday aspects and functions of human behavior. He placed blame for this failure largely on the excessive reliance on artificial laboratory tasks that had become endemic to cognitive psychology by the mid-1970s. In this sense, he felt that cognitive psychology suffered a severe disconnect between theories of behavior tested by laboratory experimentation and real-world behavior, which he called a lack of ecological validity. Lastly, and perhaps most importantly, he had come to feel a great respect for the theory of direct perception and information pickup that had been promulgated by the preeminent perceptual psychologist J. J. Gibson and his wife, the "grand dame" of developmental psychology, Eleanor Gibson. Neisser, in this book, had come to the conclusion that cognitive psychology had little hope of achieving its potential without taking careful theoretical note of the Gibsons' work on perception which argued that understanding human behavior first involves careful analysis of the information available to any perceiving organism. About his book, "The Rising Bell Curve"..."The fact is intelligence test scores are going up everywhere in the world; what's more, the Black-White gap in the school achievement of American children has closed substantially in recent years. These encouraging trends have been established beyond any doubt."

With an obtained score of 137 and a standard error of measurement of 4.5, what is the 95% confidence interval? a) 132.5-141.5 b) 128-146 c) 123.5- 150.5

b) 128-146

With a SEE of 8 and a predicted score of 100, what is the confidence interval at the 95%? a) 92-108 b) 84-116 c) 82-118 d) 76-124

b) 84-116

Which test does not provide a measure of convergent and divergent validity? a) multitrait-multimethod matrix b) cluster analysis c) factor analysis

b) cluster analysis

validity is: a) consistency b) accuracy

b) accuracy

Which type of reliability requires administering 2 forms of the test to the same group? a) test-retest b) alternate/parallel forms c) split-half d) coefficient alpha

b) alternate/parallel forms

Which type of mediaction is useful for treating both positive and negative symptoms of Sx? a) traditional antipsychotics b) atypical antipsychotics c) lithium

b) atypical antipsychotics

Incremental validity is max when: a) base rate is low and selection ratio is low b) base rate is moderate and selection ratio is low c) base rate is high and selection ratio is moderate d) base rate is high and selection ratio is high

b) base rate is moderate (50%=half are successful and half are not) and selection ratio is low (a lot of job applicants for small # jobs)

A floor effect occurs when the test items are too: a) easy b) difficult c) similar

b) difficult = positively skewed-->can't distinguish btwn examinees with low level of what is being measured

Which side effect refers to akathesia, tardive dyskinesia, uncontrollable movements of the mouth, torso and limbs and parkinsonism a) anticholinergic effects b) extrapyramidal effects c) neuroleptic malignant syndrome d) agranulocytosis

b) extrapyramidal effects

Which side effect is less likely with atypical antipsychotics? a) anticholinergic effects b) extrapyramidal effects c) agranulocytosis d) neuroleptic malignant syndrome

b) extrapyramidal effects-especially they are less likely to cause tardive dyskinesia

The primary focus of Total Quality Management (TQM) is to: a) increased productivity b) improved quality of goods, services, and employee quality of work life c) decreased humanization of work d) increased managerial rotation

b) improved quality of goods, services, and employee quality of work life

Which of these represents the increase of correct decision that can be expected by using a given instrument as a selection tool? a) discriminant validity b) incremental validity c) convergent validity d) construct validity

b) incremental validity

Which branch of the ANS is involved in relaxation and recuperation? a) sympathetic branch b) parasympathetic branch

b) parasympathetic branch

What places an upper limit on validity? a) selection ratio b) reliability c) base rate

b) reliability

Which of these refers to what is unique about the test and not measured by any other test a) convergent validity b) specificity c) sensitivity d) differential validity

b) specificity

Which part of the brain controls circadian and seasonal cycles? a) mammillary bodies b) suprachiasmatic nucleus c) reticular formation d) hypothalamus

b) suprachiasmatic nucleus

pattern of viewing themselves as equally American and ethnic or as more American, represents _____. a) blended biculturalism, b) alternating biculturalism, c) separated. d)marginalization

blended biculturalism

Pro bono work is: a. required by the Ethical Principles b. encouraged by the Ethical Principles c. discouraged by the Ethical Principles d. prohibited by the Ethical Principles

b. "strive" to contribute portions of time for little or no compensation or personal advantage

Scapegoating is releasing aggression on __________ targets. a. moving b. unsafe c. safe d. none of these

You share an office with one other psychologist. One morning, you arrive early to the office and find your partner having sex with one of his current patients. You should: a. discuss the matter with him later b. report him to the ethics committee c. discuss the matter with the patient, and explain to her that she has the option to take action against your partner d. discuss the matter with the patient, and attempt to get her to sign a release of information so you can pursue a complaint

b. must report because in this case, the violation is not amenable to informal resolution, but protect confidentiality of the patient identity

A psychologist who has been having marital problems begins to notice that during marital therapy with his clients, he is tending to agree more with the husband's perspective. He should: a. explain to his clients the reasons for his countertransference b. seek consultation c. refer his marital clients d. suspend doing marital therapy until his marital problems are resolved.

b. through consultation, may be able to resolve countertransference issue and decide course of action

__________ are a type of sedative-hypnotic and are a generalised CNS depressant that is dose dependent

barbituates

Huntington's, Parkinson's, Tourettes, OCD and ADHD impact which part of hte forebrain?

basal ganglia

The _________ part of the forebrain is involved in planning, organizing and coordinating coluntary movement limbic system hypothalamus basal ganglia caudate nucleus

basal ganglia

Abnormalities in which part of the brain have been linked to ADHD, Huntington's, Tourette's, Sx, and OCD? a) hypothalamus b) thalamus c) basal ganglia d) amygdala

basal ganglia (caudate nucleus)

Which of these is the proportion of current employees who are considered successful? a) base rate b) selection ratio c) validity coefficient d) reliability coefficient

base rate

Which of Kirkpatrick's criteria for evaluating training programs looks at what behaviour changed from attending the program? a) reaction criteria b) learning criteria c) behavioural criteria d) results criteria

behavioural criteria

___________ are the most widely used psychiatric medication

benzos

The probability of making a Type II error is: a) alpha b) beta c) 1-alpha d) 1-beta

beta

Children from non-English speaking homes initially do better when they start school in what type of education? a) bilingual b) immersion

bilingual

Which of these is second to cognitive ability tests in being a valid predictor across different jobs and settings? a) assessment centers b) biodata c) interviews d) personality tests

biodata

Clozapine is used to treat schizophrenia and which other disorder major depression ocd anxiety bipolar

bipolar

Which statis test would be used to investigate the correlation btwn a continuous variable and an artificial dichotomy variable? a) pearson r b) spearman rho c) biseral d) point biseral

biseral

Which NT mediates the fight/flight response and is involved in mania, depression, and Sx? a) Dopamine b) Acetylcholine (ACh) c) Norepinephrine d) Serotonin

c) Norepinephrine

Biculturalism among African-American and Mexican-American adolescents was recently examined by J. S. Phinney and M. Devich-Navarro, 1997. These investigators found that the adolescents in their sample exhibited one of three patterns:

blended biculturalism, alternating biculturalism, or separated.

Traditional antipsychotics work by: producing an opposite effect of dopamine blocking dopamine receptors mimicking the effects of dopamine producing similar but less intense effects as dopamine

blocking dopamine receptors

Which type of decision-making model proposes that info, time and resources cause decision-makers to be less than totally rational and to safice-ie. choose the 1st thing that meets the minimum criteria? a) rational-economic model b) bounded rationality model

bounded rationality model

What refers to a slowness of movement? a) chorea b) dyskinesia c) bradykinesia d) tardive dyskinesia

bradykinesia

Which type of aphasia is characterised by slow, laborios, nonfluent speech and anomia? a) Broca's aphasia b) Wernicke's aphasia c) conduction aphasia d) global aphasia

broca's aphasia

"Privilege" refers to a client's legal right to have confidential communications protected from disclosure. The situations that legally allow a waiver of privilege vary from state to state. However, generally speaking, which of the following is true about privilege. 1. Privilege is waived when the information is requested at a proceeding initiated by the client in a criminal action to determine his or her sanity. 2. Privilege is waived when the therapist suspects that a minor (e.g., the client or child of the client) has been the victim of child abuse. 3. Privilege is waived when the therapist has reasonable suspicion to believe that the client is a danger to another person. a. 3 only. b. 2 and 3 only. c 1,2 and 3. d. none of the above.

**A concept referring to an object having at least one of a number of features is a __________ concept. a. relational b. conjunctive c. disjunctive d. categorical

**Between the ages of 1 and 3 years, the child is said to go through the __________ stage. a. phallic b. latency c. anal d. genital

**Drawing conclusions on the basis of formal principles of reasoning is termed a. inductive thought. b. deductive thought. c. logical thought. d. illogical thought.

**Prejudice based on displaced aggression represents a form of a. projection. b. discrimination. c. scapegoating. d. authoritarianism.

**The degree of attraction among group members relates to the dimension of a. compatibility. b. structure. c. cohesiveness. d. conformity.

**The judge who is caught cheating on his income tax is likely experiencing a. role diffusion. b. attribution failure. c. role conflict. d. attribution error.

**The polygraph's most common error is to a. fail to detect persons who can lie without anxiety. b. fail to detect persons who are guilty. c. identify as guilty persons who are innocent. d. identify as innocent persons who are easily aroused.

**The surest way to alter human consciousness is a. through meditation. b. by sleeping. c. to administer a psychoactive drug. d. to use sensory deprivation.

42. A patient with which of the following Personality Disorders is most likely to exhibit symptoms that could be erroneously interpreted as signs of depression a. Avoidant Personality Disorder. b.Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder. c. Dependent Personality Disorder. d. Narcissistic Personality Disorder.

A 19-year old male who grew up in the inner-city receives a WAIS-R Verbal IQ score that is 20 points higher than his Performance IQ score. This discrepancy suggests. a. a learning disability. b. an educational deficit. c. right hemisphere damage. d. an invalid test.

A client has missed the last three appointments and has not paid for the past five. You receive a letter from a state in-patient facility requesting information about the client who is now a patient there. The request includes a valid release of information. According to the Ethics Code, you are acting ethically in this situation if you. a. notify the client that you will release the information only after an acceptable arrangement has been made for his unpaid bill. b. agree to release only a summary of your records until an acceptable arrangement has been made for his unpaid bill. c. provide the hospital with the information it has requested. d. use your own discretion as to the best course of action.

A client you have been seeing for two months suddenly informs you that this will be his last session. You believe this is not a good time for the client to stop therapy and are concerned about the potential negative consequences of doing so. You should. a. allow the client to quit since he has the right to do so. b. provide the client with appropriate referrals. c. discuss with him the reasons you believe he should continue and recommend that he re-think his decision. d. inform him that you are not responsible for any negative consequence of terminating prematurely.

A correlation between X and Y of .60 represents BLANK as much shared variability asa correlation of .30. a. twice. b. three times. c. four times. d. six times.

A failure to develop a consistent identity results in a. isolation. b. inferiority. c. role confusion. d. stagnation

A feminist therapist is least likely to advocate the use of which of the following as a therapeutic technique. a. self-disclosure. b. sex-role analysis. c. diagnosis. d. role-modeling.

A mother of a newborn is most likely to say that, based on the nature of her baby's cry, she can tell if her baby is. a. hungry, tired, or uncomfortable. b. hungry, thirsty, or tired. c. hungry, angry, or in pain. d. hungry, lonely, or irritable.

A psychologist is consulted by a medical doctor who is concerned about a patient in a pain clinic. The patient constantly asks for his pain medication and the nurses, who get tired of his barrage of requests, give him too much medication. To get the man to cut down on his requests, the psychologist is most likely to recommend. a. giving him a sedative to keep him quiet. b. giving him his medication after every twenty requests. c. giving him his medication once every four hours. d. giving him higher but less frequent doses of medication.

A researcher designs a study in which subjects will be hospitalized mental patients. The hospital research committee has approved the project, which involves several treatments, some of which include experimental drugs that may cause harmful side effects. Before beginning the study, the researcher should. a. obtain informed consents from the patients if possible. b. obtain informed consents from the patients' guardians. c. obtain informed consents from the patients' guardians and assent from the patients. d. none of the above are necessary since the study has been approved by the hospital's research committee.

A researcher investigating the chemical correlates of memory would be most likely to find that administration of which of the following would improve the memory of elderly adults. a. L.G.N. b. T.H.E. c. R.N.A. d. G.A.B.A.

A strategic family therapist is most likely to use which of the following therapeutic techniques in dealing with a husband and wife who complain that they are constantly arguing with each other. a. obtain a detailed family history from each partner. b. ask the couple to identify the benefits they obtain from arguing. c. tell the couple to argue for at least two hours each evening. d. work individually with the partner who is most "differentiated".

A test developer assesses the reliability of an achievement test using the test-retest method. She obtains a reliability coefficient of .58. The researcher should consider this coefficient to be. a. high for this type of test. b. about average for this type of test. c. low for this type of test. d. high for any type of test.

A test is developed to evaluate students' comprehension of information presented in a high school history class. When the test is administered to three classes of students at the end of the semester, all of the students perform very poorly on the test. This suggests that the test may have poor. a. concurrent validity. b. incremental validity. c. content validity. d. discriminant validity.

According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, middle-aged adults are in which stage of development? a. ego integrity versus despair. b. initiative versus guilt. c. generativity versus stagnation. d. industry versus inferiority.

According to Gould, a "crisis of urgency" and the "attainment of stability" are characteristic of a. late adolescence. b. young adulthood. c. middle adulthood. d. the disengagement period.

According to Sue and Zane (1987), in terms of ensuring good treatment outcomes, the most important factor in culturally-sensitive therapy is. a. demonstrating cultural knowledge. b. using culture-specific techniques. c. using techniques that establish credibility. d. being authentic and empathic.

According to __________, we face a specific psychosocial dilemma at each stage of life. a. James Coleman b. Lawrence Kohlberg c. Erik Erikson d. Sigmund Freud

According to the interference hypothesis, normal aging is associated with a diminishing ability to screen out irrelevant distractions. Assuming that this hypothesis is true, this has the greatest implications for which aspect of attention? a. divided. b. sustained. c. selective. d. episodic.

After several sessions with her therapist, a client starts acting toward the therapist as though he were the client's father. Assuming that the therapist is a practitioner of Gestalt therapy, he is most likely to respond to this transference by. a. ignoring it. b. temporarily assuming the role of the client's father. c. helping the client see the difference between her transference and reality. d. helping the client understand how her past relationship with her father is affecting her current relationships with men.

Al A., a lonely, single, middle-aged psychologist and college professor, is invited to a play by a graduate student, Betty B., who Al finds sexually attractive. Betty has returned to school after a 15-year absence and has been divorced for three years. If Al accepts Betty's invitation, he will. a. be acting unethically because the Ethics Code prohibits professors from dating students. b. not be acting unethically as long as he doesn't become sexually involved with Betty. c. not be acting unethically as long as Betty is a graduate student in a department other than the one Al teaches in. d. not be acting unethically because this situation is not covered by the Ethics Code.

Although a number of longitudinal studies suggest that assessment centers have a high degree of predictive validity, some critics have argued that the high validities reported by these studies are actually the result of. a. a "contrast effect". b. the Hawthorne effect. c. criterion contamination. d. sample size.

Among bilingual speakers, those who exhibit "code-switching". a. tend to obtain lower scores on measures of reading comprehension. b. have less trouble switching between the grammatical rules of the majority and minority languages. c. go back and forth between languages during the course of a conversation as a way to better express themselves. d. unconsciously confuse the majority and minority languages while speaking, especially in high-stress situations.

An OD change intervention is most likely to be successful when. a. an internal (rather than an external) change agent is used. b. an external change agent is used but he/she communicates directly only with the company's managers. c. an external change agent is used and he/she communicates directly with both managers and subordinates. d. an external change agent is hired to act as a representative of subordinates only.

An adolescent is brought to therapy by her mother who says the girl has recently become "another person." She says her daughter used to be easy-going and easy to get along with and was well-liked at school by her peers and teachers. However, now her daughter is constantly irritable, is smoking and drinking, and has started having trouble at school. When the therapist interviews the girl, he learns that she is engaging in high-risk sexual behavior, but the girl feels that nothing bad can ever happen to her. Based on these symptoms, the best diagnosis is. a. ADHD. b. Conduct Disorder. c. Bipolar 1 Disorder. d. Bipolar II Disorder.

An elderly client displays paranoid ideation. In addition to providing a safe, stable environment, treatment for this client would most likely include which of the following. a. ECT. b. peer counseling. c. a phenothiazine. d. methylphenidate.

As a treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, hypnosis. a. is contraindicated because it often paradoxically exacerbates symptoms. b. has been found to be more effective for compulsions than obsessions. c. may have clinical utility, especially when combined with other behavioral techniques. d. is as effective or, in some cases, more effective than other behavioral techniques.

Bill B., a 34-year old small business owner, has trouble completing tasks at home and work, frequently "blows his fuse" at family members and employees, and has his wife do all the paperwork at the office because he doesn't have the patience for it. His wife says Bill never listens to her and often does things without thinking about the consequences. When asked about his past, Bill says that he often got in trouble while he was in school. He frequently got into fights and, in high school, was arrested several times for drugs and drunk driving. All through school, his teachers said he wasn't living up to his potential. Although Bill no longer uses illegal drugs, he often drinks heavily on weekends. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Bill is. a. Antisocial Personality Disorder. b. Borderline Personality Disorder. c. ADHD. d. Bipolar Disorder.

Calculation includes all of the scores in the distribution rather than just the highest and lowest scores: a)Range b)variability c)variance d)standard deviation

Dr. Colombu, a licensed psychologist, is working in a community mental health center. The parents of a 15-year old girl bring their daughter for counseling. The parents will, of course, be paying Dr. Colombu's fee. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Colombu should. a. caution the girl that, since she is a minor, anything she says may be told to her parents. b. advise the parents that he is required to maintain confidentiality and that he will not be able to advise them of anything the girl says during therapy sessions without her consent. c. clearly establish with the girl and her parents prior to therapy what the policy will be with regard to sharing information with the parents. d. use his discretion with regard to what information to reveal to the girl's parents and what information to keep confidential.

Electroconvulsive shock therapy. a. is as or more effective than drug therapy for acute Schizophrenia. b. has been found to be more effective in treating Mania than Depression. c. is considered useful for treating Depression, especially when the Depression involves suicidal preoccupation. d. is no longer used as a treatment for Depression because of its substantial impact on memory processes.

Failure to initiate a sequence of responses (a "behavioral chain") is often a problem because. a. the contingencies (reinforcers) have not been consistently applied. b. habituation has made the reward less desirable. c. the final (primary) reinforcer is remote. d. the final consequence is unknown.

For women suffering from PMS, the most severe physical and emotional symptoms usually occur. a. during the last days of menses. b. four to ten days prior to menses. c. during the week prior to and the first few days of menses. d. during the first three to four days of menses.

From the perspective of Rational Emotive Therapy. a. irrational beliefs are acquired primarily through social learning processes. b. irrational beliefs are acquired largely through the process of selective reinforcement. c. people are biologically prone to the acquisition of irrational beliefs. d. people adopt irrational beliefs as the result of early traumatic events that are still unresolved.

Generativity refers to a. concern for welfare of others and society as a whole. b. the desire to have children and thereby ensure survival of the species. c. the ability to establish adequate social and financial security. d. active acceptance of aging and the social changes it brings.

I am in my late forties. If I do not reach out to others, especially to young people, Erikson says I will experience a. shame. b. isolation. c. stagnation. d. guilt

If a test has a mean of 50 and and standard deviation of 5 and scores on the test are normally distributed, it is possible to conclude that ____ % of people have scores between 45 and 55. a)95.44% b)99.72% c)68.26% d) 48.33%

If you are most concerned about the reliability of an achievement test you will be administering to high school freshmen, which one of the following kinds of tests would you be least likely to use. a. fill-in-the-blank. b. four-alternative multiple-choice. c. true-false. d. essay.

In a ___ the mode is greater than the median, which is greater than the mean: b)positive distribution c)negative distribution d) bell curve

In baseball, an "out" is a a. conjunctive concept. b. relational concept. c. disjunctive concept. d. prototype.

In contrast to traditional psychodynamic psychotherapy, the brief psychotherapies. a. focus on current phenomenon only. b. discourage the development of transference. c. focus on specific conflicts. d. all of the above.

In his classic studies of conformity, Asch demonstrated that a. size of the majority does not influence how many people will conform. b. a majority of one produces about as much conformity as a majority of eight. c. lack of unanimity greatly reduces the pressure to conform. d. obedience to authority was determined by the authority's perceived referent power.

In the assessment of cognitive abilities with a standardized test, you would "test the limits". a. before administering the test. b. before administering each subtest. c. after administering the test. d. whenever it seems appropriate to do so.

In vivo flooding has been found to be an effective treatment for Agoraphobia. Studies investigating the effects of in vivo flooding for this disorder suggest that. a. frequent, brief exposures are more effective than less frequent, longer exposures to the feared stimuli. b. people with high arousability are more responsive to in vivo treatments than people with low arousability. c. high anxiety provocation is not the key factor in the effectiveness of in vivo flooding. d. courtterconditioning is a necessary component of in vivo flooding as a treatment for agoraphobia.

Increasing age is least likely to have which of the following effects on a man's sexual response cycle. a. the time to achieve an erection will increase. b. complete penile erection may not occur until just prior to orgasm. c. the resolution phase and refractory period will both increase. d. all of the above.

Investigations into the relationship between client race or ethnicity and premature termination from therapy have shown that. a. matching minority clients and therapists in terms of race/ethnicity substantially reduces premature dropout rates. b. premature dropout rates among minority clients arc, in fact, due to the confounding effects of socioeconomic status rather than to race or ethnicity. c. minority clients do have higher premature dropout rates, which seem to be attributable to negative attitudes toward the therapist and/or a perception of therapy as nonbeneficial. d. premature dropout rates among minority clients is largely a myth.

Kohlberg's theory of moral development views it as being. a. the result of parental expectations. b. biologically innate and universal. c. promoted by peer interactions. d. the result of school and church teachings.

Of 100 students surveyed on a particular college campus, 50 voted Republican and 50 voted Democratic in the last election. On another college campus, 60 voted Republican and 40 voted Democratic. The correct statistical test to use to determine if the difference in voting preferences at the two colleges is significant is which of the following. a. two-way ANOVA. b. t-test. c. chi-square test. d. Mann-Whitney U test.

Of the following, which is most true about adolescents who have a history of repeated suicide attempts. a. the failure of their attempts is usually due to a lack of access to lethal means. b. their continued threats to commit suicide are of minimal concern because very few adolescent repeat attempters actually complete suicide. c. the real purpose of their suicide attempts is often to exert power in situations in which they feel powerless. d. their suicide attempts are often a self-imposed extension of the physical abuse they have experienced since early childhood.

One problem associated with subjective measures of performance is that they are susceptible to certain biases or errors. For example, the leniency bias occurs when an evaluator consistently overrates all of the employees being appraised. Which of the following is the most effective method for reducing such appraisal errors. a. graphic checklists. b. Likert scales. c. forced-choice scales. d. Guttman scales.

Presence of which of the following symptoms suggests that the appropriate diagnosis is Alcohol Withdrawal as opposed to Cocaine Withdrawal? a. insomnia. b. dysphoria. c. seizures. d. psychomotor agitation.

Provides a measure of the average amount of variability in a distribution by indicating the degree to which the scores are dispersed around the distribution's mean: a)Range b)variability c)variance d)standard deviation

Research on mnemonic devices suggests that they are. a. superior to rote rehearsal in terms of both short-and long-term retention. b. superior to rote rehearsal and elaboration in terms of both short-and long-term retention. c. superior to rote rehearsal in terms of short-term but not long-term retention. d. superior to rote rehearsal and elaboration in terms of short-term but not long-term retention.

Research on the effects of maternal employment suggests that it. a. has positive effects on the cognitive development of all children. b. has negative effects on the cognitive development of all children. c. may have negative effects on the cognitive development of middle-class boys. d. may have negative effects on the cognitive development of middle-class girls.

Research on working women suggests that combining work and family roles is most associated with. a. stress-related illness. b. reduced involvement in family roles. c. enhanced self-esteem. d. low job commitment.

Research suggests that, in comparison to popular children, less popular children tend to be all of the following except. a. less intelligent. b. less physically attractive. c. less friendly and sociable. d. less cooperative.

Speed of processing has been measured by which of the following techniques? a. the number of mistakes a person makes b. the amount of time a person needs to clap their hands when instructed c. the brain activity that follows exposure to a stimulus d. how quickly a person can blink their eyes after being told to do so

Studies of visual perception indicate that a. newborn babies prefer simple patterns over complex ones. b. babies make little use of the visual sense before age 6 months. c. infants prefer faces to colored ovals. d. infants prefer unfamiliar faces to familiar faces.

Teachers, peers, and adults outside the home become important in shaping attitudes toward oneself in Erikson's stage of a. trust versus mistrust. b. initiative versus guilt. c. industry versus inferiority. d. integrity versus despair.

The inverted-U function describes the relationship between a. deprivation and sex drive. b. stimulation and curiosity. c. arousal and performance. d. sex drive and satisfiers.

To be consistent with the Federal Educational Rights and Privacy Act (aka the Buckley Amendment), a school psychologist must keep in mind that. a. it is necessary to obtain the signed consent of a student's parents before releasing any information from the student's file to officials of another school where the student is planning to enroll. b. student records, including identifying information, must be released to designated federal and state educational authorities if needed in connection with the evaluation of federally-sponsored educational programs. c. parents have the right not only to inspect and review their children's school records but also to challenge the contents of records. d. all of the above.

To ensure that a consent to treatment form is truly an "informed" consent, a therapist should. a. make sure that the client reads the entire form before signing it. b. warn the client of the potential risks involved in signing the form. c. make sure the client understands the information contained in the form before he or she signs it. d. warn the client of the potential limits of confidentiality.

To evaluate an intervention designed to increase the time a hyperactive child stays on-task when doing schoolwork, the best technique would be. a. situational sampling. b. event recording. c. interval recording. d. sequential analysis.

When a constant is added or subtracted to every score in a distribution, the measures of ______ change but the measures of _____ do not: a) scale and central tendency b) central tendency and scale c)central tendency and variability d) variability and central tendency

When a distribution is more peaked it is refer to as _____; when a distribution is flatter, it is called ______. a) negative skewed, positive skewed b)positive skewed, negative skewed c) leptokurtic, platykurtic d)mesokurtic, platykurtic

When a distribution is normal, ____% of the scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus one standard deviation from the mean: a)95.44% b)99.72% c)68.26% d) 48.33%

When a psychologist is requested by a court to provide psychological assessment of a defendant for a competency hearing, the psychologist is primarily asked to evaluate. a. the defendant's psychic functioning as it relates to his or her psychological development. b. the defendant's vocational history and probability of rehabilitation. c. the defendant's ability to understand and participate in a court proceeding. d. the psychological status of the defendant at the time of the alleged crime.

When administering a standardized 60-item test that has a time limit of 60 minutes, a test administrator accidentally gives the examinees only 50 minutes to complete the test. To get accurate test results, the test administrator should. a. add 10 points to each examinee's score. b. administer the last 10 items to examinees on another day. c. administer an alternate form of the test to examinees. d. do any one of the above.

When deciding on an intervention plan for a client suffering from agoraphobia, it is important to keep in mind that which of the following seems to be the key element in treating this disorder. a. counterconditioning. b. progressive relaxation. c. in vivo exposure. d. cognitive restructuring.

When each score in a distribution is multiplied or divided by a constant, the measures of ____ and ____ are all effected: a) scale and central tendency b) central tendency and scale c)central tendency and variability d) variance and central tendency

When faced with an "undifferentiated family ego mass," a family therapist who has adopted a Bowenian approach would be most likely to do which of the following. a. help differentiate family members by becoming emotionally triangulated into family dyads. b. help differentiate family members by using behavioral and cognitive-behavioral techniques that promote individuation. c. work first with the most differentiated family member to help him or her achieve greater individuation. d. work first with the "identified patient" to help him or her become more differentiated.

When using Beck's cognitive approach to therapy with a client with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. a exposure in vivo or in imagination is not considered beneficial because it produces strong emotions that interfere with cognitive work. b. exposure in vivo or in imagination is conducted only when the symptoms are so severe that they are interfering with cognitive work and must be alleviated quickly. c. exposure in vivo or in imagination is considered useful for eliciting "hot cognitions" related to the disorder so that they are available for cognitive work. d. exposure in imagination is considered more useful than exposure in vivo because it elicits target cognitions without the strong emotions that may interfere with cognitive work.

When using the technique known as the Premack Principle, the reinforcer is. a. applied intermittently. b. a generalized conditioned reinforcer. c. a behavior that occurs frequently. d. a stimulus that naturally elicits the desired behavior.

Which of the developmental changes is most likely to occur in males between the ages of 40-45. a. a decrease in work satisfaction. b. significant personality change and emotional disturbance due to the "mid-life" crisis. c. a shift in perspective from "time-since-birth" to "time-left-to-live". d. peaceful acceptance of the impending black doom of the grim reaper.

Which of the following is likely to be one of a child's first words. a. ball. b. give. c. cold. d. doggy.

Which of the following medical conditions is least likely to be a cause of an anxiety disorder due to a general medical condition. a. thyroid dysfunction. b. epilepsy. c. diabetes mellitus. d. malignancy.

Which of the following statements is least true of individuals who have been diagnosed with Autistic Disorder. a. only a small percentage of them go on as adults to live and work independently. b. signs of the disorder may be present in early infancy. c. a subset of individuals with the disorder, "those who do have the cognitive ability to eventually function independently", "grow out" of the disorder in adulthood. d. they are sometimes excellent in tasks involving long-term memory.

Withdrawal from which of the following substances is least likely to involve hallucinations. a. a sedative. b. an anxiolytic. c. cocaine. d. alcohol.

You are conducting a study to investigate the phenomenon known as "blocking." Consequently, you will. a. first present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established, present the US prior to the CS. b. first present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established, present the CS prior to a sec and US. c. first present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established, present the original CS simultaneously with a second CS prior to the US. d. first present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established, present a second CS prior to the original CS.

You are using in vivo aversive conditioning to reduce alcohol consumption in chronic alcoholics. To maximize the effectiveness of the treatment, the aversive stimulus (electric shock) should be applied. a. while the client is thinking about taking a drink. b. right before the client takes a drink. c. immediately after the client begins drinking. d. after the client has finished a drink

You are using neuroleptics to treat a schizophrenic patient. If you were to rely on research into their use in the treatment of schizophrenia, you would discover which of the following. a. thorazine tends to be the least effective drug for treating schizophrenia. b. the thioxanthenes tend to be the most effective drugs for treating schizophrenia. c. the selection of an appropriate neuroleptic depends largely on the patient's responsivity. d. no neuroleptic has been found to be particularly effective for the positive symptoms of this disorder.

You have just started seeing a couple in conjoint therapy and believe that the husband is physically abusing his wife. Most likely you will. a. wait for the husband or wife to bring up the issue of abuse. b. say that you want to see the wife in individual therapy. c. ask the couple how they deal with conflict and disagreement. d. ask the couple to sign a "no-violence" contract.

You've been seeing a client for eight months. During that time, he has complained several times about the course of therapy and, each time, you have discussed this matter with him and modified treatment goals. During the last three sessions, he has again mentioned that he is not happy with therapy. As an ethical psychologist, your best course of action would be to. a. realize that his behavior is a manifestation of resistance and ignore it. b. make a clinical decision as to whether or not the client is benefitting from therapy and, if you determine that he is, encourage him to continue in therapy. c. discuss his dissatisfaction with him and the possibility of a referral to another therapist. d. tell him that, as an ethical therapist, you must terminate treatment since he does not feel he is benefitting.

It is recommended that this is used when you need to estimate the positive hit rate but there is no concurrent validity study a) Multitrait-multimethod matrix b) factorial analysis c) Taylor-Russell tables d) cluster analysis

c) Taylor-Russell tables

Which theory of leadership states that the best decision-making style depends on certain characteristics of the situation and provides a decision-tree to help choose the best style? a) Hersey & Blanchard's Situational Leadership b) House's Path-Goal Theory c) Vroom & Yettom's Normative (Contingency) Model d) Fielder's Contingency Model

c) Vroom & Yettom's Normative (Contingency) Model

An ABAB design is looking for: a) an increase in the baseline with the application of the treatment b) a decrease in the baseline with the application of the treatment c) a return in the baseline with the withdrawal of the treatment d) an increase in the baseline with withdrawal of the treatment

c) a return in the baseline with the withdrawal of the treatment

A test used to predict job performance should have good: a) content validity b) construct validity c) criterion-validity

c) criterion-validity

The main side effects of atypical antipsychotics are all except: a) anticholinergic effects b) sedation c) extrapyramidal effects d) agranulocytosis

c) extrapyramidal effects

Which of these tests is used to determine how many dimensions are needed to explain inter-correlations a) multitrait-multimethod matrix b) cluster analysis c) factor analysis

c) factor analysis

The intervention recommended for aggressive kids is to: a) punish them b) reward good behaviour c) foster empathy d) ignore the aggression

c) foster empathy

What are the three stages of Kohlberg's gender identity dvpt model? a) unfreezing, changing, refreezing b) precontemplative, changing, maintenance c) identity, stability, constancy d) identity, questioning, affirming

c) identity, stability, constancy

Which type of reliability indicates the degree of consistency across different test items? a) test-retest b) alternate/parallel forms c) internal consistency

c) internal consistency

Which side effect refers to rigidity, tachycardia, fever, altered states of consciousness and is potentially fatal a) anticholinergic effects b) extrapyramidal effects c) neuroleptic malignant syndrome d) agranulocytosis

c) neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A _____ migraine does not have an aura but may be signaled by gastro problems common classic aura

common

According to Thomas & Chess's goodness-of-fit model, maladjustment in children is due to a lack of fit btwn: a) child's ideas and parent's ideas b) parental discipline and child's temperament c) parents' behaviour and child's temperament d) parents' expectations and child's expectations

c) parents' behaviour and child's temperament

Which refers to a tendency for an individual to exert less effort as a group member than when working alone? a) social inhibition b) social facilitation c) social loafing

c) social loafing

Which of these is not a prediction of the central limit theorem? a) as sample size increases, the sampling distribution of the mean approaches normal distribution b) mean of the sample should equal the population mean c) the median of the sample should equal the population median d) SD of the sampling distribution should qual the population SD divided by the sq root of the sample size

c) the median of the sample should equal the population median

Vygotsky-teaching is optimal when it occurs within the _________ a) critical period b) sensitive period c) zone of proximal dvpt d) classroom

c) zone of proximal dvpt

You want to work with clients from an ethnic group you have not worked with before. Your best option would be to: a. refer such clients to another therapist b. read books about the ethnic group while you are working with the clients c. seek supervision and/or consultation before taking on such clients and while you are working with them d. see the clients, since we are all human beings and why can we just get along?

Which type of regression analysis is used when there are 2+predictors and 2+ continuous criterion? a) multiple regression b) canonical correlation c) discriminant function analysis

canonical correlation

________ is a type of rater bias which occurs when a rater consistently assigns avg ratings to all ratees a) leniecy bias b) strictness bias c) central tendency bias d) halo bias

central tendency

All of these are forebrain structures EXCEPT: cerebellum thalamus hypothalamus basil ganglia limbic system

cerebellum

Which part of the brain is involved in posture and balance and coordinates voluntary movement? a) medulla b) cerebellum c) reticular formation d) hypothalamus

cerebellum

Which part of the hindbrain is implicated in coordination, balance, posture and motor movements and is impacted greatly by alcohol

cerebellum

Which of the following disorders is known to be caused by brain lesions. a. myasthenia gravis. b. cerebral palsy. c. cystic fibrosis. d. Parkinson's disease.

cerebral palsy.

Stroke is a __________ accident cerebroaerterial cerebrovascular cerebrohypertension

cerebrovascular accident

What refers to irregular, jerky movements? a) chorea b) dyskinesia c) bradykinesia d) tardive dyskinesia

chorea

The frontal lobe includes all of these areas EXCEPT primary motor cortex supplementary motor area premotor cortex Broca's area cingulate cortex

cingulate cortex

About 12% of migraine sufferers experience __________ migraine, which starts with an aura (focal neuro symptoms) common classic aura

classic

In all states, the __ is the holder of the privilege, which means that it is up to the client to decide whether to exercise or waive the privilege.

client

Which of these is an atypical antipsychotic? clozapine thiothixene chlorpromazine haloperidol

clozapine

Which type of internal consistency involves correlating the examinees' scores on all test items to obtain a measure of avg inter-item consistency? a) test-retest b) alternate/parallel forms c) split-half d) coefficient alpha

coefficient alpha

Patterson et al propose that aggression in children is linked to: a) permissive parenting b) coercive parenting c) authoritative parenting d) resistant attachment

coercive parenting

Which of these predictors is the most valid across different jobs and settings? a) cognitive ability tests b) biodata c) interviews d) personality tests

cognitive ability tests

Your handsome successful boyfriend winks at you each time before he tells you "I love you." Your expectation when he winks is a(an) a. unconditional stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. unconditional response.

conditioned response c

Piaget-cognition is limited by all of these in the preoperational stage except: a) egocentrism b) conservation c) centration d) transductive reasoning

conservation

A test measuring intelligence should have good: a) content validity b) construct validity c) criterion-validity

construct validity

Convergent and discriminant validity are used to evaluate: a) content validity b) construct validity c) criterion-validity

construct validity

A test measuring achievement or work samples should have good: a) content validity b) construct validity c) criterion-validity

content validity

Kohlberg- In which stage of moral dvpt do individuals follow rules to avoid social disapproval and maintain social order? a) postconventional b) conventional c) preconventional d) premoral

conventional

When pleading not guilty by reason of insanity, a person relinquishes his or her legal privilege. Therefore, the psychologist should produce the records requested by the ______. Except when privilege has been waived by a client (e.g., when he/she is invoking the insanity defense), a psychologist should first assert the privilege when a client's records are subpoenaed by the court.

court

________ refers to performance appraisals a) job analysis b) job evaluation c) criterion measures d) needs assessment

criterion measures

A method for reducing rater biases: a) critical incident technique b) using paired comparison c) using forced distribution

critical incident

is a genetically-transmitted disorder that affects exocrine gland functioning. a. myasthenia gravis. b. cerebral palsy. c. cystic fibrosis. d. Parkinson's disease.

cystic fibrosis

**A loud noise awakens you; you emerge from sleep confused and do not remember the noise. You were in which stage of sleep? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4

**According to Chomsky, we are able to express ideas in a variety of ways by applying __________ rules. a. functional b. generative c. disjunctive d. transformation

**If the lateral hypothalamus is destroyed, a rat will a. drink more water than biologically needed. b. refuse to drink until forced to do so. c. eat until it becomes obese. d. refuse to eat until force fed.

**Night terrors most often occur during a. Stage 1 NREM sleep. b. Stage 2 REM sleep. c. Stage 3 NREM sleep. d. Stage 4 NREM sleep.

**The description of a person's character implies a. the use of rating scales. b. the use of multiple observers. c. the use of situational testing. d. judgment about the desirability of traits.

**The study in which college students attached a bumper sticker for a militant black organization to their cars and then received frequent traffic citations demonstrates a. group prejudice. b. scapegoating. c. personal prejudice. d. discrimination.

160. Recent research on goal-setting in organizations has shown that all of the following are true except. a. providing feedback on goal achievement is a necessary but not sufficient condition for improved job performance. b. overall, participation in goal setting is not as important as acceptance of goals. c. employees who are told to "do their best" will usually exhibit lower levels of productivity than employees who are given difficult goals. d. participation in goal-setting is more important for educationally-advantaged workers.

A 34-year old woman is often very irritable, has trouble controlling her anger, has a history of frequent job changes, and often complains that she is bored. Based on these symptoms, the best diagnosis is. a. Schizoid Personality Disorder. b. Narcissistic Personality Disorder. c. Histrionic Personality Disorder. d. Borderline Personality Disorder.

A distinctive feature of the MMPI-2 is its inclusion of several "validity scales." The purpose of one of these scales, the L (Lie) Scale, is to. a. obtain information about the examinee needed to derive a specific psychiatric diagnosis. b. provide information on the test itself for use in validation studies. c. check the examinee's propensity to view him or herself in an unfavorable manner so that a "correction factor" can be applied to the examinee's scores. d. measure the examinee's tendency to depict him/herself favorably so that the validity of the test results can be determined.

A feminist therapist is least likely to view which of the following as an important aspect or goal of therapy. a. identifying the sociopolitical and interpersonal forces that underlie the woman's "psychopathology". b. reconstructing the therapeutic process so that the traditional pattern of dependence is not recreated in the therapeutic relationship. c. using the therapeutic relationship as an opportunity to model appropriate behavior. d. identifying and integrating the masculine and feminine aspects of the woman's personality.

A girl has a punishing father who is in the army reserves. Eventually, the girl becomes extremely anxious whenever she sees a man in uniform. The girl's reaction to uniformed men is an example of. a. higher-order conditioning. b. negative transfer. c. pseudoconditioning. d. stimulus generalization.

A person with apraxia has. a. deficits in memory. b. trouble recognizing objects by touch. c. impaired procedural memory. d. difficulty carrying out intentional movements.

A split-brain patient would be able to do which of the following? a. say the word "spoon" after it is projected to his left visual field. b. repeat a series of letters that have been whispered in his left ear. c. identify an odor that has been presented to his right nostril. d. identify a spoon with his left hand after an image of a spoon is projected to his left visual field.

A worker whose job consists primarily of handling customer complaints will be happier if she blames the customer's problems on. a. external, stable, and global factors. b. internal, stable, and specific factors. c. external, unstable, and global factors. d. external, unstable, and specific factors.

According to Erikson, a child entering adolescence can expect major developmental task demands to center around the need to a. develop trust in others. b. achieve intimacy with another. c. acquire personal autonomy. d. develop a sense of one's self.

According to Erikson, at age two, the primary task of psychosocial development is to develop BLANK, and failure to successfully accomplish this task leads to BLANK. a. an ego identity; identity diffusion. b. a capacity for industry; a sense of inferiority. c. a sense of basic trust; suspicion and mistrust. d. a sense of autonomy; doubt and shame.

According to Freud's psycho dynamic theory, the origin of anxiety is. a. an inability to free oneself from symbiotic relationships. b. reactions to strangers during infancy. c. an inability to repress id impulses. d. an inability to resolve conflicts between the id, the superego, and reality.

Advantage of ____ is that it is easy to identify. A disadvantage is that it is very susceptible to sampling fluctuations. a)mean b)median c)average d)mode

Research investigating outcome following a traumatic head injury suggests that within 12 to 18 months following the trauma BLANK percentage of total recovery of functions directly related to the activity of the brain can usually be expected. a. 20 to 30%. b. 40 to 50%. c. 60 to 75%. d. 80 to 95%.

After speaking at a workshop at a large university, Dr. A., a renowned expert on eating disorders, is approached by a woman who asks him about her daughter who she believes is beginning to exhibit symptoms of anorexia nervosa. Dr. A. gives the woman the phone numbers of three therapists in the area who have experience with this disorder. Six months later, Dr. A. finds out that the woman is planning to file a malpractice suit against him. During that time, her daughter received treatment from one of the therapists on Dr. A.'s list but became much worse and is currently hospitalized. The woman feels that Dr. A. is responsible for not adequately warning her of the potential course of her daughter's disorder. In terms of malpractice. a. Dr. A. is guilty because he had a "duty to warn" the woman about possible complications of anorexia nervosa. b. Dr. A. is guilty because he apparently did not give the woman adequate referrals. c. Dr. A. is not guilty because he gave the woman the names of several therapists. d. Dr. A. is not guilty because he didn't have a professional relationship with the woman or her daughter.

An 12-year old who has received a diagnosis of Oppositional Defiant Disorder is LEAST likely to be exhibiting which of the following symptoms. a. swearing. b. low frustration tolerance. c. alcohol use. d. lying and cheating in games.

An advocate of client-centered therapy would most likely view diagnosis as. a. the starting point of therapy. b. an ongoing process. c. a joint task of the therapist and client. d. unnecessary and possibly detrimental.

An industrial psychologist is hired by a company to assist in the development of a selection program for assembly-line workers. Based on her knowledge of the literature in this area, the psychologist is most likely to advise the company to use which of the following selection techniques. a. interviews and personal recommendations. b. interviews and selection tests. c. selection tests and assessment centers. d. biographical information and work samples.

Dr. Able, a psychologist, has been seeing a client for five months and feels that the client may not be benefitting from treatment. When she mentions this to him, the client says he is quite satisfied with the progress of therapy. Based on this information, Dr. Abie's best course of action would be to. a. continue seeing the client in therapy since the client is satisfied. b. tell the client that she is ethically required to refer him to another therapist. c. obtain supervision to ensure that her treatment is effective. d. consult with another psychologist to discuss the situation.

Dr. Dither is hired by the court to conduct an evaluation of a family as part of a child protection matter. Based on Dr. Dither's evaluation and other evidence, the court determines that the child can remain at home with his family who will be provided with supervision and counseling. Six months after the case is heard in court. Dr. Dither is contacted by the mother who says she would like to begin therapy with him for issues unrelated to the child protection matter. According to APA's Guidelines for Psychological Evaluations in Child Protection Matters, Dr. Dither should. a. agree to see the woman in therapy since the child protection matter has been resolved. b. agree to see the woman in therapy only if her problem is, in fact, unrelated to the child protection matter. c. agree to see the women in therapy since his familiarity with her situation will be an advantage. d. refer the woman to a colleague.

Dr. Lane, a psychologist, is conducting a research study on peer pressure. Her subjects will be 120 fifth grade students. The study will involve a 30-minute interview with each student and observation of the students during their lunch hour. Before beginning the study, the psychologist should. a. obtain the consent of the students. b. obtain the consent of the students' parents. c. obtain the consent of appropriate school personnel. d. obtain the assent of the students and the consent of their parents.

Dr. Werner, a psychologist, is conducting a research study and obtains subjects for his study by placing advertisements in a local newspaper. Dr. Weiner informs potential subjects about all aspects of the study and tells them that they should not agree to participate unless they are willing to stay for its duration (six sessions over a six-week period), since once they sign up, they will not be permitted to withdraw from the study. According to APA's Ethics Code, the proposed arrangement is. a. clearly ethical. b. ethical as long as the withdrawal restriction is included in the informed consents that all subjects must sign. c. ethical as long as the withdrawal restriction has been determined to be crucial to the study. d. unethical.

For the following data what is the median; 3,3,4,7,8: a)25 b)3 c)5 d)4

If an infant is startled by a loud sound, it makes movements similar to an embrace. This is called a __________ reflex. a. grasping b. rooting c. Babinski d. Moro

If her parents encourage little Tanya to ask questions, to use her imagination, and give her the freedom to choose some activities, according to Erikson, they are encouraging a. industry. b. identity. c. generativity. d. initiative

In avoidance conditioning, the initial fear that causes the avoidance response is the result of which of the following. a. negative reinforcement. b. punishment. c. stimulus generalization. d. classical conditioning.

In which of the following situations would an exception to the requirement for an informed consent to treatment not be an issue. a. medical or psychological emergency. b. incompetency. c. client waiver. d. court-ordered treatment.

Interpersonal attraction is encouraged by which one of the following? a. personal space b. proxemics c. competition d. similarity

Jung's theory differs from Freud's in all of the following ways except. a. Jung's perspective reflects a more optimistic view of human nature. b. Jung promoted a more active interchange between analyst and patient. c. Jung conceptualized the psyche as continuing to evolve throughout the lifespan. d. Jung replaced the concept of the ego with the concepts of the self and the ideal-self.

Most scores are located in the positive (high score) side of the distribution and the negative tail is extended due to the presence of a few low scores: a)positive distribution b)leptokurtic distribution c)platykurtic distribution d)negative distribution

The research suggests that which of the following would be least useful for the treatment of alcoholism? a. social-skills training. b. stress management training. c. antidepressant medication. d. anxiolytic medication.

Research investigating the effects of maternal employment on cognitive development in children has revealed that such employment. a. has beneficial effects for middle-class girls and boys only. b. has beneficial effects for middle-class boys only. c. has statistically insignificant adverse effects on children from all social classes. d. has no substantial effects.

Research on sex differences in leadership style suggests that actual differences between male andfemale leaders are far less than what might be expected. The research has also shown that. a. males and females are evaluated similarly by group members regardless of their perceived leadership style. b. males are evaluated more favorably than females by group members regardless of their perceived leadership style. c. although males and females are evaluated similarly by group members when they are perceived to have an autocratic leadership style, males are evaluated more favorably than females when they are perceived to have a participative leadership style d. although males and females are evaluated similarly by group members when they are perceived to have a participative leadership style, males are evaluated more favorably than females when they are perceived to have an autocratic leadership style.

Score or category tat occurs most frequently in a set of data. a)mean b)median c)average d)mode

Shortly after a school psychologist begins working for a small rural school district, she finds that there are a number of children in a class for retarded children who are emotionally disturbed but who appear to have an average or above average level of intelligence. The county has no class for emotionally disturbed children. The psychologist should. a. report the situation immediately to the psychology ethics committee in her state. b. report the situation immediately to the teacher's standards and practices commission in her state. c. threaten to quit if the children are not placed in a regular classroom. d. evaluate each student and recommend an appropriate action regardless of available options.

The Ethics Committee is investigating a complaint against a psychologist and requests, by letter, that you provide the Committee with information about the complainant who is a former client of yours. When you check your records, you realize that you stopped seeing this client nine years ago. As an ethical psychologist, you should. a. respond immediately to the Committee's request by supplying them with the information they have asked for. b. respond immediately to the Committee's request but provide them only with the information you feel is relevant to the complaint. c. respond to the Committee's request by informing them that the information you have about the client is obsolete. d. respond immediately to the Committee's request only after verifying that the client has signed a release of information.

The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale a. was specifically designed to test adult intelligence. b. provides separate scores for performance intelligence and verbal intelligence. c. is completely culturally fair, in that children of different cultures do just as well as children in this culture. d. assumes that intellectual ability in childhood improves as age increases.

The mother of a 35-year-old man says that, for the past five weeks, he has been acting very uncharacteristically. He seems perplexed and nervous much of the time, his tone of voice varies between flat and shrill, and his speech is sometimes like "word salad." The mother says that sometimes it seems like he is listening to voices or sounds that she cannot hear. Based on this information, the best diagnosis is. a. schizophrenia, disorganized type. b. schizoid personality disorder. c. schizoaffective disorder. d. schizophreniform disorder.

The problem-solving and decision-making abilities of a team of employees who have been working together for several months are beginning to decline. Which of the following would be least useful for improving the performance of this team. a. having members come up with solutions alone before discussing them with each other. b. dividing their tasks into subtasks and having subgroups work on those tasks they are best suited for. c. encouraging members of the team to express more dissent and to be more openly critical about the solutions expressed by other members. d. adding members to the group who are known to be low in dominance.

The psychoanalyst Adolph Stern provided the first organized clinical description of the borderline patient. Of the ten basic characteristics Stern delineated, which of the following did he consider to be the most primary? a. inhibited aggression. b. fixation. c. emotional dysregulation. d. narcissism.

The target of an organizational development (OD) intervention depends, of course, on the nature of the organization's problems. However, most OD interventions share in common an overarching concern with. a. structure. b. function. c. task and technology. d. human/social relationships.

There are a number of widely-accepted myths about old age. Which of the following is not a myth? a. Older adults are more difficult and rigid than younger adults. b. Older adults are more similar than younger adults in terms of personality, cognitive skills, interests, etc. c. Older adults have higher rates of depression and anxiety than younger adults. d. Older adults tend to exhibit more stability in personality traits than younger adults.

Tolman's demonstration of latent learning suggests that. a. a student studying algebra in September may not learn algebra until he begins to study geometry. b. a student studying algebra will come to a sudden and whole understanding of it. c. a student will not learn algebra unless the proper incentive for learning is provided. d. a student might appear to know little about algebra until he takes an algebra test.

What is the median of the following scores 3,3,5,7,8,9? a)5 b) 5 and 7 c) 7 d) 6

What measure of central tendency do you use for a Nominal scale of measurement: a)mode, median, or mean b)Mode or Median c)Mean or mode d) mode

When asked to recall an accident you witnessed two weeks ago, which of the following will be involved. a. procedural memory. b. semantic memory. c. representational memory. d. episodic memory.

When attempting to expand your private practice, it is important to keep in mind that. a. in-person solicitations are always unethical. b. solicitations of individuals receiving similar services from another professional are unethical. c. solicitations are unethical only when they include deceptive or misleading information. d. solicitations are unethical when they include deceptive information or when the person solicited is susceptible to undue influence.

Which of the following is most true about pregnancy prevention programs for adolescents? a. They are most effective when they are school-based and they contribute to reduced pregnancy by reducing sexual activity. b. They are most effective when they are school-based and they contribute to reduced pregnancy by increasing contraceptive use. c. They are most effective when they are community-based and they contribute to reduced pregnancy by reducing sexual activity. d. They are most effective when they are community-based and they contribute to reduced pregnancy by increasing contraceptive use.

Which of the following is true about the retrograde amnesia that occurs as the result of moderate to severe head injury? a. it is limited to recent long-term memories. b. it is limited to remote long-term memories. c. when it begins to resolve, the most recent memories return first. d. when it begins to resolve, the most remote memories return first.

Which of the following was a significant factor in determining the degree of obedience in Milgram's series of experiments? a. the tone of voice used by the experimenter b. whether the experimenter was male or female c. amount of complaining, shouting, and crying by the learner d. the setting in which the experiment was conducted

Which one of the following is true regarding treatment for premature ejaculation. a. premature ejaculation is one of the more difficult sexual dysfunctions to treat. b. treatment usually involves temporary abstinence from sexual contact. c. treatment will involve helping the client maintain an erection for at least four minutes. d. treatment will probably include the use of the "stop-start" or "squeeze" technique.

Which statement about physical attractiveness is FALSE? a. Beauty is a factor mainly in initial acquaintances. b. Looks are less related to dating frequency for men than for women. c. For men, there is little relationship between attractiveness and the achievement of status. d. For marriage partners there is a tendency for attractive men to be paired with highly educated women with high incomes.

With regard to bartering, APA's Ethics Code. a. clearly prohibits bartering of services only. b. clearly prohibits bartering of goods only. c. discourages bartering unless alternative methods of payment for services are not feasible. d. discourages bartering unless it is not clinically contraindicated and is not exploitative.

With regard to the effects of age on global job satisfaction, the best conclusion is that these variables have. a. a U-shaped relationship. b. an inverted U-shaped relationship. c. an inverse relationship. d. a positive relationship.

Work by Perry and Busey (1977) suggests that highly aggressive children. a. were exposed prenatally to high levels of androgens. b. are less sensitive to physical discomfort than less aggressive children. c. exhibited a disoriented/disengaged attachment pattern as young children. d. show little remorse after hurting another child.

You administer the MMPI-2 to several clients. One client, a 27-year old male, obtains a T score of 100 on the F scales. This means that. a. the client has attempted to "fake good". b. the client is insecure, intolerant of unconventional behavior, and has a lack of insight. c. you should use the F scale score as a correction factor for other scales. d. assuming no scoring errors, you should consider the test results invalid.

The most common neuropsychiatric symptom following a stroke is anxiety depression mania psychosis dementia

depression

You are working as an industrial psychologist and are hired as a consultant by the owner of a medium-sized company who says she is having problems with employee productivity. As an advocate of "goal-setting theory," you are most likely to tell the owner that, to maximize the productivity of her workers, she should. a. let the workers set their own goals. b. let the workers set their own goals when the task is simple and structured, but assign goals when the task is complex and unstructured. c. assign the workers moderate goals that are within the capabilities of the least proficient workers. d. assign the workers relatively difficult goals and give them feedback about their attainment of those goals.

You receive a subpoena duces tecum from the court requesting that you provide it with information about one of your clients. Your best course of action would be to. a. immediately provide the information requested to the court. b. obtain the client's consent and then provide the information requested to the court. c. assert the privilege not to reveal confidential information and then provide the information requested to the court. d. assert the privilege not to reveal confidential information and provide the information only after obtaining the client's consent or being ordered to do so by the court.

__________ traits are personality traits the comprise a person's unique individual qualities. a. Central b. Secondary c. Cardinal d. Individual

a computed measure of how much scores vary around the mean score: a)Range b)variability c)variance d)standard deviation

is calculated by taking the square root of the variance, which converts it to the same unit of measurement as the original scores.a)Range b)variability c)variance d)standard deviation

**Recent evidence suggests that THC, the active ingredient in marijuana, a. is harmless. b. is physically addictive. c. is fatal in mild doses. d. accumulates in fatty tissue.

d B is also true - an even more recent finding

Which of the following is one of the four basic ingredients of positive parent-child interactions? a. discipline b. forced teaching and learning c. flooding the infant with stimuli d. mutual respect

d (not sure of age ref for the child)

Which type of drug blocks the effects of the NT? a) agonist b) partial agonist c) inverse agonist d) antagonist

d) antagonist

All of these are side effects of methylphenidate except: a) dysphoria b) tics c) ocd symptoms d) anticholinergic effects

d) anticholinergic effects

Benzodiazepines (Xanax, valium) are a form of: a) antidepressant b) psychostimulant c) antipsychotic d) anxiolytic

d) anxiolytic

Tricyclics (clomipramine and imipramine) have all these side effects except: a) anticholinergic b) gastro problems c) cardiotoxicity d) extrapyramidal effects

d) extrapyramidal effects

All of these are signs of attachment except: a) social referencing b) separation anxiety c) stranger anxiety d) increased exploration of the environment

d) increased exploration of the environment

Which of these is not a potential source of error in inter-rater reliability? a) lack of motivation b) unclear criteria c) observer drift d) inter-rater communication

d) inter-rater communication

All of these are errors associated with test-retest reliability except: a) time sampling factos b) practice effects c) memory effects d) length of test

d) length of test

SSRIs have less of these side effects than TCAs except: a) less cardiotoxic b) less likely to cause cognitive problems c) less likely to cause anticholinergic effects d) less likely to cause sexual dysfunction

d) less likely to cause sexual dysfunction

What do you not need to know to use the Taylor Russell tables? a) base rate b) selection ratio c) validity coefficient d) reliability coefficient

d) reliability coefficient

All of these are side efects of MAOIs except: a) anticholinergic effects b) insomnia c) hypertensive crisis d) sexual dysfunction

d) sexual dysfunction

Aggressive children are likely to do all of these except: a) believe it's easy to perform an aggressive act b) expect aggression to have positive outcomes c) misinterp behav of others as intentionally hostile d) understand that their actions hurt others

d) understand that their actions hurt others

The primary value underlying the existence of Ethical Principles is: a. confidentiality of therapist-client communication b. the continued prosperity of the field of psychology c. the advancement of the welfare of society as a whole d. the advancement and protection of the welfare of patients and clients of psychologists

d. "has it goals the welfare and protection of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work"

If an ethical issue is not addressed in the Ethical Code, it indicates that any related conduct is: a. ethical b. unethical c. ethical, if not prohibited by any law or regulation d. may be ethical or unethical

d. "the fact that a given conduct is not specifically addressed" does not mean that it is necessarily "ethical or unethical."

If a client tells you that he had sex with a previous therapist, you should: a. have the client sign a release of information, and report the psychologist to the appropriate ethics committee b. with the client's permission, contact the psychologist yourself c. report the psychologist to an ethics committee, with or without the client's permission d. outline the client's rights and options regarding legal action and ethics complaints

d. cannot report without permission = breach of confidentiality, cannot force client to sign a waiver, BEST OPTION = outline client's rights and options and let them decide on legal action/complaint

The use of interpreters for psychotherapy: a. is always unethical due to the inherent lack of confidentiality b. is always unethical because psychologists must refer clients if they cannot communicate directly in the same language c. is ethical if the interpreter has signed an agreement to maintain the client's confidentiality d. may be ethical if steps have been taken to avoid a multiple relationship between the interpreter and the client

d. no ethical standard requires interpreters to sign a confidentiality agreement

in a ___, power is delegated throughout the organization. In contrast, in _____, power is primarily in the hands of one person or a few people.

decentralized organization, centralized organizations

Stage 4 sleep and REM sleep ______ from childhood to adulthood a) increase b) decrease c) stay the same

decrease

In Hersey & Blanchards's Situational leadership model, which type of leader maximises employee responsibility and is best for employees high in ability & motivation? a) telling leader b) selling leader c) participating leader d) delegating leader

delegating leader

Oblique factors in factor analysis are: a) independent b) dependent

dependent

Benzos are used for all of these EXCEPT: relieve anxiety sleep disturbances seizures depression

depression

Axons that carry info from cutaneous receptors gather together in nervies that enter the spinal cord. These are known as ____________ cervical nerves dermatomes thoracic nerves

dermatomes

A potential cause of adverse impact that occurs when the predictor has different validity coefficients for different groups of people a) unfairness b) differential validity c) discrimanent validity

differential validity

Any predictor that is more valid for one class or subset of examinees than it is for another is said to have _______

differential validity

Which type of regression analysis is used when there are 2+predictors and 1 nominal criterion? a) multiple regression b) canonical correlation c) discriminant function analysis

discriminant function analysis

A low heterotrait-heteromethod coefficient reflects high: a) convergent validity b) divergent validity c) differental validity d) construct validity

divergent validity

The heterotrait-monomethod coefficient provides a measure of: a) convergent validity b) divergent validity c) differental validity d) construct validity

divergent validity

What is provided by low correlations with measures of unrelated traits? a) convergent validity b) divergent validity c) differental validity

divergent validity

Cocaine exposure prenatally can lead to all of these EXCEPT: a) premature birth b) seizures c) docility d) physical defects

docility

The General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services requires Professional Psychologists to have a ____ in psychology from a regionally accredited university or professional school. This is a correct description of the requirements of the General Guidelines.

doctoral degree

Which NT is involved in involuntary movement and mood? Excessive levels/oversensitivity is assoc with Sx, Tourette's, and substance abuse a) Dopamine b) Acetylcholine (ACh) c) Norepinephrine d) GABA

dopamine

Parkinson's is due to a progressive degeneration of ________-containing cells in the _________ area of the brain

dopamine-containing cells in the substantia nigra

Damage to the dorsolateral area results in dorsal convexity ________ syndrome

dysexecutive syndrome

What refers to abnormal muscle movements including jerky and writing movements? a) chorea b) dyskinesia c) bradykinesia d) tardive dyskinesia

dyskinesia

Piaget- All of these emerge in the concrete operational stage except: a) conservation b) metacognitive abilities c) centration d) egocentrism

egocentrism

Piaget-All of these are achievements of the sensorimotor stage except: a) object permanence b) represen thought c) deferred imitation d) egocentrism

egocentrism

Long-term effects of divorce are worse for which age group? a) preschool b) elementary school c) middle school d) highschool

elementary school

What type of memory is affected most by increasing age? a) episodic b) semantic c) procedural

episodic

This theory of motivation states that motivation is affected by comparison btwn our own input/outcome ratio and that of others a) goal-setting theory b) equity theory c) McCelland's Need for Achievement d) Expectancy Theory

equity theory

Alternate/parallel forms produces the coefficient of: a) stability b) equivalence c) internal consistency

equivalence

Which statis test would be used to investigate the correlation btwn a continuous variable and another continuous variable when the relationship is nonlinear? a) pearson r b) eta c) biseral d) point biseral

eta

This theory of motivation states that motivation is a function of 3 beliefs, one of which is valence a) goal-setting theory b) equity theory c) McCelland's Need for Achievement d) Expectancy Theory

expectancy theory

Which statistical test is suitable for comparing 2/more group means for 2/more IVs? a) one-way ANOVA b) factorial ANOVA c) t-test d) multiple regression

factorial ANOVA

What do you compare to determine if there is an interaction effect? a) statistical analyses b) factorial means c) marginal means d) F ratios

factorial means (inside the boxes-compared btwn IVs--> if they cross on a graph, this indicates an interaction)

Which type of child has a harder time adjusting to a stepfather? a) females b) preadolescent males c) young child males

females

**Two schedules of reinforcement that produce the highest rates of response are a. continuous and fixed interval. b. fixed interval and variable interval. c. variable interval and variable ratio. d. fixed ratio and variable ratio.

fixed ratio and variable ratio d

All of these are tricyclic antidepressants EXCEPT imipramine fluoxetine clomipramine doxepin

fluoxetine-SSRI

________ is a type of relative measure in which a predefined distribution of employees is used a) paired comparison b) forced distribution c) objective measures d) needs assessment

forced distribution

In which of James Marcia's adolescent identity dvpt stages is the adolescent influenced by older peers or significant adults? a) Diffusion b) foreclosure c) moratorium d) achievement

foreclosure

____refers to the form (shape) of the inkblot. It refers specifically to the degree to which an examinee's response matches the actual form of the inkblot.

form quality

During the ____ stage, infants reach for a partially hidden object but stop if the object disappears from view.

four to eight month

Broca's area is located in which part of the brain? a) frontal lobe b) parietal lobe c) occipital lobe d) temporal lobe

frontal lobe

What are the four lobes of the cerebral cortex?

frontal, parietal, temporal & occipital

do not distinguish between ethnic and American cultures but have characteristics of both, is referred to as a ______ Phinney and Navarro found no evidence of this pattern in their sample.

fused identity.

All of these are side effects of TCAs (tricyclics) EXCEPT gastro disturbances cardio symptoms anticholinergic effects parathesia

gastro disturbances

The _______________ theory of pain states that the nervous system can only process a limited amount of sensory info at a time-when too much info is received, some of the pain info is blocked

gate-control theory

Tonic-clonic and absence seizures are the basic tyopes of _________ seizures

generalised

Which type of aphasia is the most widespread? a) Broca's aphasia b) Wernicke's aphasia c) conduction aphasia d) global aphasia

global

This theory of motivation proposes that performance is optimal when goals are specific and moderately difficult and when workers are given regular feedback a) goal-setting theory b) equity theory c) McCelland's Need for Achievement d) Expectancy Theory

goal-setting theory

A type of rater bias which occurs when a rater judges all aspects of the ratee's performance on the basis of a single aspect of his performance a) leniecy bias b) strictness bias c) central tendency bias d) halo bias

halo bias

All of these are threats to internal validity except: a) history b) Hawthorn effect c) maturation

hawthorn effect (this is a threat to external validity)

What does the term brain lateralization refer to?

hemisphere specialisation- left= lang, logical; right = creative

PIaget-In which stage of moral dvpt do children consider rules to be absolute and unchangeable? a) premoral b) heteronomous c) autonomous d) conventional

heteronomous

PIaget-In which stage of moral dvpt do children consider the consequences of the act when judging it (rather than the actor's intentions)? a) premoral b) heteronomous c) autonomous d) postconventional

heteronomous

Fielder's contingency LPC model states that which type of leaders are best in moderately favorable situations a) low LPC b) high LPC c) task-oriented

high LPC

Fielder's contingency LPC model states that which type of leaders are person-oriented a) low LPC b) high LPC

high LPC

The _____________ part of the brain is implicated in transferring info from short to long-term memory but not for the subsequent storing of the memories Temporal lobes Parietal lobes Hippocampus Prefrontal Cortex

hippocampus

This part of the limbic system is more associated with memory and learning as well as processing information

hippocampus

Which part of the brain is involved in memory consolidation? a) hippocampus b) amygdala c) temporal lobe d) prefrontal cortex

hippocampus

Which part of the brain is involved in processing spatial, visual and verbal memories and consolidating declarative memories? a) amygdala b) hippocampus c) prefrontal cortex d) primary motor cortex

hippocampus

Which smaller than normal part of the brain has been assoc with PTSD and depression a) amygdala b) hippocampus c) prefrontal cortex d) primary motor cortex

hippocampus

In which type of graph do the bars touch to indicate the overlapping nature of the data? a) bar graph b) histogram c) pie chart d) scatterplot

histogram

At 12 months, babies begin to display what type of speech? a) babbling b) telegraphic speech c) holophrases d) underextension

holophrases-single words to express an entire idea

What type of speech is a child using when she says "cookie" to mean "i want a cookie"? a) babbling b) telegraphic speech c) holophrastic speech d) underextension

holophrastic speech

In Herzberg's 2 factor theory, which causes dissatisfaction when absent? a) hygiene factors b) motivator factors

hygiene

D. Herzberg's two-factor theory divides job components into two types: ______

hygiene factors and motivator factors.

Hypoglycemia is caused by _______ in the pancreas and can be it's own condition or a symptom of diabetes, liver disease, pancreatic tumor, etc hyperinsulinism hypoinsulinism

hyperinsulinism

The most dangerous side effect of MAOIs is: cardiotoxicity hypertensive crisis anticholinergic effects blood dyscrasia

hypertensive crisis

The _____________ axis refers to the system in which the hypothalamus secretes chemicals that stimulate the anterior pituitary gland, which then releases the gonadotropic hormones that stimulate testosterone and perm production by the testes or ovulation and estrogen production by the ovaries

hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis

The __________ part of the forebrain is involved in vital functions, movement and emotional reactions thalamus hypothalamus basal ganglia caudate nucleus

hypothalamus

Which part of the brain is involved in hunger, thirst, sex, sleep , body temp, movement and emotions? a) medulla b) cerebellum c) reticular formation d) hypothalamus

hypothalamus

This refers to the allowances made by a group for a highly valued member to occasionally deviate from group norms a) norm credits b) deviation credits c) idiosyncrasy credits d) centralised networkds

idiosyncrasy credits

Orthogonal factors in factor analysis are: a) independent b) dependent

independent

Beta-blockers (Inderal) are used to treat all of these except: a) insomnia b) physical symptoms of anxiety c) hypertension d) migraines

insomnia

____ which proposes that memory loss is due to inhinderence (i.e., stimuli encountered during the period of activity hinders previously acquired information). a. interference. b. memory trace decay. c. retrieval cue. d. motivated forgetting.

interference

What refers to the degree to which a study allows the investigator to conclude that variability of the DV is due to the effects of the IV rather than other factors? a) internal validity b) external validity c) reliability

internal validity

Which scale of measurement would be used to measure temperature? a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio

interval-no absolute zero

These types of psychoactive drugs produce an effect opposite to the effect produced by a NT agonists inverse agonists partial agonists antagonists

inverse agonists

Holland's theory works best if a person- a) has lots of interests b) is not differentiated c) is highly differentiated d) is in the appropriate life stage

is highly differentiated

What do you compare to determine if there is a main effect? a) statistical analyses b) factorial means c) marginal means d) F ratios

marginal means (if no difference --> no main effect)

This refers to making a job more interesting (although this is not always a good thing) a) job enrichment b) job enlargement c) job analysis

job enrichment

________ refers to the procedure used to set wages by defining job requirements and assigning a dollar value to each a) job analysis b) job evaluation c) criterion measures d) needs assessment

job evaluation

What provides a measurement of inter-rater reliability? a) coefficient of stability b) kappa statistic c) coefficient of equivalence c) internal consistency

kappa statistic

Which of Kirkpatrick's criteria for evaluating training programs looks at what whether participants felt they gained something from the training? a) reaction criteria b) learning criteria c) behavioural criteria d) results criteria

learning criteria

What does the term contralateral representation refer to?

left hemisphere controls the functions of the right side of the body and vice versa with the exception of olfaction (goes to same side of brain) and visual information (info from each EYE goes to both sides of brain but the visual field info is contralaterally rep)

Which type of distribution is peaked? a) platykurtic b) kurtosis c) leptokurtic

leptokurtic

In comparison with TCAs, SSRIs have these advantages EXCEPT a) less cardiotoxic b) safer in overdose c) less likely to produce cognitive impairment d) less risk of suicide

less risk of suicide

The __________ part of the forebrain is associated with memory and mediates emotions limbic system hypothalamus basal ganglia caudate nucleus

limbic system

what are the two mood stabilizing drugs?

lithium and carbamazepine

Nausea and vomiting, loss of coordination, and seizures, are symptoms that suggest _____. a) tricyclic overdose b)Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) c)5-HT toxicity syndrome d)lithium toxicity

lithium toxicity

Teachers tend to attribute poor performance of boys to: a) low effort b) low aptitude c) lack of caring d) inattention

low aptitude

Teachers tend to attribute poor performance of boys to: a) low effort b) low aptitude c) lack of caring

low effort

Hormone replacement therapy reduces these negative effects of menopause EXCEPT Hot flashes mood swings low sex drive risk for bone loss

low sex drive

How should you fix unfairness? a) use a different predictor cutoff score b) use a different predictor c) change the wording of the predictor d) conduct a pilot study

lower the pass rate for minorities-use a different predictor cutoff score

In Bronfenbrenner's Ecological Model, which level described the general economic conditions and culture? a) Mesosystem b) Exosystem c) Macrosystem d) Chronosystem

macrosystem

What refers to the effects of each IV without considering the effects of the other IVs? a) main effects b) interaction effects c) factorial design

main effects

How might you improve the validity of a job interview? a) make the interview structured b) have only one interviewer c) include personality tests in the interview

make the interview structured using empirically derived items

Alcohol Dependence, is more common in ; ratio may be as high as 5:1.

males, 5:1

Which part of the brain plays a role in memory and is implicated in Korsakoff's? a) mammillary bodies b) suprachiasmatic nucleus c) reticular formation d) hypothalamus

mammillary bodies

situated midway between ethnic and American culture and are part of neither, describes _____. None of the adolescents in Phinney and Devich-Navarro's sample fit this pattern..a) blended biculturalism, b) alternating biculturalism, c) separated. d)marginalization

marginalization

All of these are threats to external validity except: a) demand characteristics b) Hawthorn effect c) multiple treatment interference d) maturation

maturation (this is a threat to internal validity)

In a positively skewed distribution, which has the largest value? a) mean b) median c) mode

mean

What should you use as a measure of central tendency when there are no outliers? a) mean b) median c) mode

mean-it is more precise

What should you use as a measure of central tendency when there are outliers? a) mean b) median c) mode

median

Pseudodepression results from damage to the ___________area

mediofrontal

Which part of the brain controls reflexes and vital functions? a) medulla b) cerebellum c) reticular formation d) hypothalamus

medulla

Which part of the hindbrain influences the flow of info btwn the spinal cord and the brain and regulates vital functions?

medulla

SSRIs are most effective for which type of depression?

melancholic

Symptoms of stroke within the middle cerebral artery include all of the following EXCEPT contralateral hemiplegia contralateral homonymous hemianopia aphasia apraxia memory loss

memory loss

Research has demonstrated that recall of a particular piece of information is greater after five hours of sleep than after five hours of wakeful activity. This finding tends to discredit which of the following theories of forgetting. a. interference. b. memory trace decay. c. retrieval cue. d. motivated forgetting.

memory trace decay

_____ theory which attributes memory loss to a decay in memory traces as the result of the passage of time. a. interference. b. memory trace decay. c. retrieval cue. d. motivated forgetting.

memory trace decay

In Bronfenbrenner's Ecological Model, which level describes interactions between microsystems? a) Mesosystem b) Exosystem c) Macrosystem d) Chronosystem

mesosystems

Which artery is the most responsible for stroke? a) lateral cerebral artery b) middle cerebral artery c) higher cerebral artery d) cerebral artery

middle cerebral artery

The amino acid tyramine, which can cause hypertensive crisis when combined with MAOIs is found in these foods EXCEPT: fava beans aged cheese/meat bananas milk

milk

In a negatively skewed distribution, which has the largest value? a) mean b) median c) mode

mode

In McCelland's Theory, employees with high need for achievement usually choose tasks that are of _________ difficulty and risk a) low b) moderate c) high

moderate-they make good entrep and salespeople but bad managers

The peripheral nervous system contains all of these except: a) somatic nervous system b) spinal cord c) autonomic nervous system

spinal cord

A ____ is a variable that alters the strength of the causal relationship. So for instance, psychotherapy may reduce depression more for men than for women, and so we would say that gender ____ the causal effect of psychotherapy (X) on depression (Y).

moderator variable, moderates

late during Piaget's Preoperational Stage children treat social rules as absolute and unchangeable

moral realism

The view that there is no absolute or universal moral law or truth, resulting in a morality determined by cultural factors or personal preference.

moral relativism

A larger F score on an ANOVA demonstrates a: a) less significant effect b) more significant effect

more significant effect

According to two-factor theory, satisfaction and motivation are increased by providing an employee with_____

motivator factors

In Herzberg's 2 factor theory, which fosters satisfaction when present? a) hygiene factors b) motivator factors

motivator factors

scores on two or more predictors are combined to predict membership in three or more criterion groups. This procedure is known as __________. a) multiple cutoff technique b)multiple discriminant analysis

multiple discriminant analysis

Which type of regression analysis is used when there are 2+predictors and 1 continuous criterion? a) multiple regression b) canonical correlation c) discriminant function analysis

multiple regression

negative symptoms of parkinsons include all of these EXCEPT muscle rigidity postural disturbances speech difficulties bradykinesia akinesia

muscle rigidity

is a disorder of neuromuscular transmission. Although its underlying cause is unknown, it apparently involves inhibition of nerve action potentials as the result of a presynaptic abnormality or postsynaptic insensitiviry. a. myasthenia gravis. b. cerebral palsy. c. cystic fibrosis. d. Parkinson's disease.

myasthenia gravis

Methylphenidate is contraindicated for people with all of these EXCEPT anorexia narcolepsy anxiety hypertension

narcolepsy

Which of these is not a side effect of carbamazepine? a) lethargy b) nausea c) tremor d) ataxia

nausea

A rare but potentially fatal side effect of the anitpsychotic drugs is acute dystonia tardive dyskinesia neuroleptic malignant syndrome anticholinergic effects

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

**In Pavlov's experiments with dogs, the bell (prior to conditioning) was the a. neutral stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

neutral stimulus a

For most questions about the relationship between therapist, client, or process variables and therapy outcome, the best answer is _____

no relationship

Which scale of measurement is dichotomous/categorical and does not have a sp order, equal intervals or an absolute zero? a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio

nominal

multiple cutoff technique is _____; that is, a high score on one measure does not compensate for a low score on another measure.

noncompensatory

Damage to which lobe may result in achromotopsia? a) frontal lobe b) parietal lobe c) temporal lobe d) occipital lobe

occipital lobe

This lobe contains the visual cortex, responsible for visual percep, recognition, and memory

occipital lobe

Damage to which lobe may result in the inability to recognise familiar faces? a) frontal lobe b) parietal lobe c) temporal lobe d) occipital lobe

occipital lobe-caused by bilateral or RIGHT lobe damage

The ________________ theory of color vision states that there are three types of bipolar receptors : red-green, yellow-blue & white-black

opponent-process theory

Pseudopsychopathy refers to damage in the _________ area

orbitofrontal

Which scale of measurement would be used to measure the places achieved in a horse race? a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio

ordinal

An ____ (as opposed to a manipulated variable), is one that can be measured but cannot be manipulated or controlled by the researcher. For example, in a study assessing the relationship between gender and beer consumption, both variables are ___ since the researcher cannot control either the gender or the beer consumption of the subjects.

organismic variable, organismic

Retinal disparity refers to

our 2 eyes see objects in the world from 2 different views -there is a disparity btwn these, esp at closer distances

What type of speech is a child using when she says "foots" instead of feet? a) over-regulation b) telegraphic speech c) holophrastic speech d) underextension e) over-regularization

over-regularisation

What type of speech is a child using when she is familiar with cats and so says "cat" when she sees a new animal (ie. a dog)? a) overextension b) telegraphic speech c) holophrastic speech d) underextension e) over-regularization

overextension

**To be effective, punishment should be a. delivered late in the day. b. immediate and severe. c. explained in detail to the child. d. paired with reinforcement.

paired with reinforcement d

**Advertisers often try to use higher order conditioning by a. pairing images that evoke good feelings with pictures of their products. b. sounding loud tones at key points in the advertisement. c. reducing fear or anxiety as they repeatedly show the same commercial. d. associating the unconditioned stimulus with a cognitive response.

pairing images that evoke good feelings with pictures of their products. a

Which part of the NS is associated with conservation of enerfy and relaxation? a) peripheral NS b) autonomic NS c) sympathetic branch d) parasympathetic branch

parasympathetic

Which of these factors is most significant in a child being negatively impacted by divorce? a) age b) gender c) parental conflict

parental conflict

Damage to this cerebral cortex lobe includes apraxia, anosognosia and Gerstmann's syndrome

parietal lobe

Damage to which part of the brain may cause Gertsmann's syndrome? a) prefrontal cortex b) parietal lobe c) visual cortex d) Wernicke's area

parietal lobe

Damage to which part of the brain may cause anosognosia? a) prefrontal cortex b) parietal lobe c) visual cortex d) Wernicke's area

parietal lobe

Damage to which part of the brain may cause apraxia? a) prefrontal cortex b) parietal lobe c) visual cortex d) Wernicke's area

parietal lobe

Damage to which part of the brain may cause asomatognosia (inabilit to recognise parts of own body)? a) prefrontal cortex b) parietal lobe c) visual cortex d) Wernicke's area

parietal lobe

What type of seizure starts in one hemisphere? a) tonic-clonic b) absence c) partial

partial

_________ seizures begin in one side of the brain

partial

Which type of drug produces similar but less effects of the NT? a) agonist b) partial agonist c) inverse agonist d) antagonist

partial agonist

These types of psychoactive drugs produce effects similar to but less than those of the NT agonists inverse agonists partial agonists antagonists

partial agonists

Which statis test would be used to investigate the correlation btwn a continuous variable and another continuous variable when the relationship is linear? a) pearson r b) spearman rho c) biseral d) point biseral

pearson r

Declines in working memory with increased age is due largely to reduced: a) attention span b) semantic memory c) procedural memory d) perceptual processing speed

perceptual processing speed

Which nervous system relays messages between the CNS and the rest of the body? a) Peripheral NS b) Somatic NS c) Autonomic NS d) sympathetic branch

peripheral NS

Which of Baumrind's parenting styles is associated with children who are impulsive, self-centered, easily frustrated and are uninvolved in school? a) authoritative b) authoritarian c) permissive d) rejecting/neglecting

permissive

Which of these refers to a persons genetic and environmental influences? a) genotype b) chromosomes c) phenotype

phenotype

What is the smallest unit of sound understood in language? a) phonemes b) morphemes c) syllables

phonemes

Which statis test would be used to investigate the correlation btwn a continuous variable and a true dichotomy variable? a) pearson r b) spearman rho c) biseral d) point biseral

point biseral

Age has a __________ linear relationship with job satisfaction a) negative b) positive c) non-

positive. Also, increased job satis is linked to Anglo-Am, able to use skills on job & more generally satisfied with life

What are 3 functional neuroimaging techniques?

positron-emission tomography (PET); single proton emission computed tomography (SPECT); functional magnetic imaging (fMRI)

____________ amnesia is post-injury anterograde amnesia and it's duration is a good predictor of the persistence of symptoms caused by TBI

post-traumatic amnesia

Kohlberg- In which stage of moral dvpt do individuals act according to democratically chosen laws or universal ethical principles? a) postconventional b) conventional c) preconventional d) premoral

postconventional-decisions made based on what is right/just/fair

Kohlberg- In which stage of moral dvpt do children obey rules to avoid punishment and obtain rewards? a) postconventional b) conventional c) preconventional d) premoral

preconventional

The standard error of estimate is used to construct a confidence interval around a ________ criterion score a) predicted b) obtained c) absolute

predicted

Damage to which part of the brain produces orbitofrontal disinhibtion-pseudopsychopathy -as well as pseudodepression? a) amygdala b) hippocampus c) prefrontal cortex d) primary motor cortex

prefrontal cortex

This part of the frontal lobe is involved in a variety of complex behavs including emotions, memory, attention, self-awareness and higher-order cognitive functions primary motor cortex supplementary motor area prefrontal cortex Broca's area

prefrontal cortex

Which part of the brain is involved in short-term memory, episodic memory and prospective memory? a) hippocampus b) amygdala c) temporal lobe d) prefrontal cortex

prefrontal cortex

First level of Piaget morality states that people will do something if the consequences for it are happy

premoral

PIaget-Which stage of moral dvpt do children have little awareness of the rules? a) premoral b) heteronomous c) autonomous

premoral

Piaget proposed a sequence of moral development involving three stages:

premoral, moral realism, and moral relativism.

____________hypertension is diagnosed when high bp is not due to a known physio cause and is doagnosed in 85-90% of cases. It is the "silent killer" and is often asymptomatic primary secondary related

primary

This part of the frontal lobe is located in the precentral gyrus and is involved in the execution of movement

primary motor cortex

What refers to the inability to recognise familiar faces? a) agnosia b) prosopagnosia c) anomia d) anosognosia

prosopagnosia

Long-term memory depends on enhanced _____ following learning a) repitition b) time c) protein synthesis d) sugar metabolising

protein synthesis

Long-term memory depends on enhanced __________ during the mintutes/hours following learning

protein synthesis

________________ laws identify the absolute and difference thresholds for sensation perception

psychophysical

**A team coach who benches a player for poor performance is using a. aversive conditioning. b. modeling. c. negative reinforcement. d. punishment.

punishment d

In what type of research can the researcher not randomly assign participants to different levels of the IV? a) true exptl research b) quasi-exptl research c) clinical study

quasi-exptl research

Which scale of measurement would be used to measure reaction time in seconds? a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio

ratio

Which type of decision-making model proposes that decision makers maximize benefits by considering all possible alternatives before choosing the optimal one? a) rational-economic model b) bounded rationality model

rational-economic model

Selye's Stress/General adaptation syndrome identifies these as stages except: a) alarm b) reaction c) resistance d) exhaustion

reaction

Which of Kirkpatrick's criteria for evaluating training programs looks at participants' reactions to the program? a) reaction criteria b) learning criteria c) behavioural criteria d) results criteria

reaction criteria

Prosopagnosia is caused by lesions at the junction of the occipital, temporal and parietal lobes and involves and inability to

recognize familiar faces

Which statistical test is used to predict an individual's score on Y given her obtained score on X? a) pearson r b) eta c) regression analysis d) tetrachoric

regression analysis

Which of Baumrind's parenting styles is associated with children who have low self-esteem and tend to be moody and aggressive? a) authoritative b) authoritarian c) permissive d) rejecting/neglecting

rejecting/neglecting

This is a measure of the consistency of scores over tiem or across different forms of the test/different raters a) validity b) reliability c) construct validity d) criterion validity

reliability

Which of Kirkpatrick's criteria for evaluating training programs looks at whether the organisational goals were in line with the training? a) reaction criteria b) learning criteria c) behavioural criteria d) results criteria

results criteria aka bottom line criteria

Which of Kirkpatrick's criteria for evaluating training programs is least likely to be evaluated? a) reaction criteria b) learning criteria c) behavioural criteria d) results criteria

results criteria-it is the most abstract

The ______________ is part of the reticular formation in the midbrain and is vital to consciousness, arousal, and wakefulness. It screens sensory input, esp during sleep

reticular activating system

Depth perception depends on a combinaton of binocular and monocular cues. Binocular cues include convergence and ____________

retinal disparity

**A rat learns to push a button in order to turn on a tone previously associated with food. The button pushing has been rewarded by a(n) __________ reinforcer. a. unconditioned b. primary c. secondary d. generalized

secondary c

All of these are side effects of traditional antipsychotics (Chlorpromazine, Haldol) except: a) anticholinergic effects b) extrapyramidal effects c) neuroleptic malignant syndrome d) sedation

sedation

Which of these is the number of applicants per job opening? a) base rate b) selection ratio c) validity coefficient d) reliability coefficient

selection ratio

Super stated that the job that fit a person's ________ leads to satisfaction and success a) personality b) self-concept c) interests d) motivational need

self-concept

Which NT regulates hunger and thirst, sexual behav, sleep and mood? Elevated levels linked to Sx, anorexia, and Autism and low levels with depression, and OCD. a) Dopamine b) Acetylcholine (ACh) c) Norepinephrine d) Serotonin

serotonin

________________ of the brain refers to sex-related differences and is related to differential exposure to androgens during prenatal and early postnatal development sexual dimorphism sexual dichotomy sexual opponent sexual difference

sexual dimorphism

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome is caused by all of these EXCEPT: a) low birth weight b) hyperactivity c) MR d) shrill cry

shrill cry

When an elderly client displays paranoid reactions, __, ___, & ___ are the most effective forms of treatment.

small dose of major tranquilizer, such as phenothiazine, a supportive environment, correct any sensory deficits that may be contributing to the client's paranoia.

Vygotsky proposed the importance of _____ in learning a) stages b) social environment c) reading d) development

social environment

Which refers to decreased performance when working in the presence of others on a difficult or new task? a) social inhibition b) social facilitation c) social loafing

social inhibition

The parietal lobe contains the ________ cortex

somatosensory

Damage to which part of the brain may cause contralateral neglect? a) prefrontal cortex b) somatosensory cortex c) visual cortex d) Wernicke's area

somatosensory cortex

Which part of the brain mediates pressure, temp, pain, taste and proprioception? a) prefrontal cortex b) somatosensory cortex c) visual cortex d) Wernicke's area

somatosensory cortex in the parietal lobe

The pituitary gland secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and __________ (growth) hormone somatoform somatophoric somatotrophic

somatotrophic

What is used as a correction for split-half reliability? a) Kuder-Richardson-20 b) Spearman Brown c) Coefficient alpha d) coefficient of equivalence

spearman-brown

How should you fix differential validity? a) use a different predictor cutoff score b) use a different predictor c) change the wording of the predictor d) conduct a pilot study

stop using the test-it is broken-use a different predictor

Neuroimaging techniques provide information on the ____________ and ___________ of the brain

structure and function

This part of the frontal lobe plays a role in learning new motor sequences

supplementary motor area

____is irrelevant to the criterion, but affects criterion scores and thus acts as a source of error and reduces the correlation between the predictor and the criterion.

suppressor variable

The ____________ part of the hypothalamus mediates the sleep-wake cycle and circadian rhtyms and is implicated in SADs

suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

Vygotsky_________ provides children with a zone of proximal dvpt that enables them to practice behavs a) the classroom b) symbolic play c) family culture d) teaching

symbolic play

Which part of the NS is associated with arousal and energy usage? a) peripheral NS b) autonomic NS c) sympathetic branch d) parasympathetic branch

sympathetic

What 2 branches is the autonomic NS divided into?

sympathetic and parasympathetic

A tire manufacturer wants to find out if drivers in LA drive more miles per year than divers in the rest of the US. He obtains the national mileage avg and determines the miles driven by 100 drivers randomly chosen from the LA phonebook. What stats test should he use to analyse the data? a) t-test b) ANOVA c) MANOVA d) ANCOVA

t-test

Which statistical test is suitable for comparing the means of 2 groups? a) ANOVA b) ANCOVA c) t-test d) multiple regression

t-test

The most serious extrapyramidal side effect of traditional antipsychotics is parkinsonism akasthisia acute dystonia tardive dyskinesia

tardive dyskinesia

What refers to repetitive facial grimaces and spasms of the head and neck? a) chorea b) dyskinesia c) bradykinesia d) tardive dyskinesia

tardive dyskinesia

What type of speech is a child using when she says "mommy leave" to mean "mommy is leaving for work now"? a) babbling b) telegraphic speech c) holophrastic speech d) underextension

telegraphic speech

Kagen found that _______ is an excellent predictor of personality a) birth order b) attachment style c) temperament d) parental discipline styles

temperament

This lobe contains the auditory cortex and Wernicke's area

temporal lobe

Which part of the brain contains the Wernicke's area? a) frontal lobe b) parietal lobe c) temporal lobe d) occipital lobe

temporal lobe

Which part of the brain contains the auditory cortex? a) frontal lobe b) parietal lobe c) temporal lobe d) occipital lobe

temporal lobe

Which part of the brain is involved in encoding, storing and retrieving long-term declarative memories? a) hippocampus b) amygdala c) temporal lobe d) prefrontal cortex

temporal lobe

All of these are parts of the hindbrain EXCEPT: medulla cerebellum pons thalamus

thalamus

The ____________ part of the forebrain is involved in motor activity, lang, memory and is a rely station for incoming sensory info thalamus hypothalamus basal ganglia caudate nucleus

thalamus

Wernick-Korsakoff syndrome causes atrophy of neurons in certain areas of the __________

thalamus

Which part of the brain is the relay station? a) hypothalamus b) thalamus c) basal ganglia d) amygdala

thalamus

An advantage of the atypical antipsychotics over the traditional antipyschotics is that a) they have less side effects b) they have a quicker onset of therapeutic effects c) they alleviate both positive and negative symptoms

they alleviate both positive and negative symptoms

the main danger of using lithium is

toxicity which results when the dose is too high

All of these manifest in the formal operational stage except: a) egocentrism b) transductive reasoning c) hypothetical-deductive reasoning d) abstract thought

transductive reasoning

The _______________ theory of color vision claims there are 3 types of color receptors, known as cones-red, blue & green

trichromatic theory

Ataxia, cardiac arrhythmia, and delirium, are symptoms of _____ a) tricyclic overdose b)Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) c)5-HT toxicity syndrome d)lithium toxicity

tricyclic overdose.

In what type of research can the researcher randomly assign participants to different levels of the IV a) true exptl research b) quasi-exptl research c) clinical study

true-exptl research

Major Depressive Disorder is about ___ as common in females as males.

twice

Hypertensive crisis occurs when an MAOI is taken in conjuction with barbituates, amphetamines, antihistamines and other drugs/foods containing which amino acid?

tyramine

What type of speech is a child using when her family has a cat and so she only calls that animal a "cat" but not other cats? a) over-regulation b) telegraphic speech c) holophrastic speech d) underextension e) over-regularization

underextension

A potential cause of adverse impact that occurs when a predictor has similar validity coefficients for both groups but members of one group consistently obtain lower scores on the predictor even though they do as well on the criterion a) unfairness b) differential validity c) discrimanent validity

unfairness

Lewin's Force Field Model of Planned change in organisations has which 3 stages? a) loosening, altering, sticking b) preperation, changing, restabilising c) unfreezing, changing, refreezing d) rallying, changing, decentralisation

unfreezing, changing, refreezing

One of the most consistent findings of the research on group therapy is that people who terminate prematurely from group treatment are those who have _____ and ______

unrealistic expectations and unfavorable attitudes.

Which of these indicates a larger incremental validity when it is larger? a) base rate b) selection ratio c) validity coefficient d) reliability coefficient

validity coefficient

When you cross-validate, what will shrink? a) reliability coefficient b) validity coefficient c) selection ratio d) base rate

validity coefficient, but this does not imply less validity-it's expected

The greatest degree of resistance to extinction is typically caused by a __________ schedule of reinforcement. a. variable interval b. variable ratio c. fixed interval d. fixed ratio

variable interval a

Which type of depression are TCA (tricyclics) most effective for?

vegetative, somatic symptoms

What is the least well developed sense at birth? a) vision b) hearing c) smell d) taste e) touch

vision

Damage to the occipital lobes produces ______________

visual agnosia

Damage to the parietal lobe can cause all of these EXCEPT tactile agnosia apraxia anosognosia visual agnosia

visual agnosia

Which of these side effects does not suggest that lithium toxicity may be beginning? a) nausea b) slurred speech c) visual side effects d) vomiting

visual side effects

All of these are examples of single-subject designs except: a) AB design b) ABAB design c) Multiple baseline design d) within subjs design

within subjs design

MS is most common in _____ (gender) and it's onset often occurs between the ages of __-__

women aged 20-40

Which age group has a more difficult time adapting to a remarriage? a) preschool b) middle childhood c) younger adolescents d) older adolescents

EPPP Exam Questions #2

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