EPPP Exam Questions alot

28. A within-subjects design that involves changing the order in which each treatment is administered to different groups of participants is referred to as: A. counterbalancing B. changing criterion C. Latin square D. Solomon four-group

A ( Counterbalancing is a within-subjects design that involves changing the order in which each treatment is administered to different groups of individuals. The goal is to use every possible treatment sequence with equal numbers of participants for each sequence. If the number of participants is too small to permit the use of a completely counterbalanced research design, then researchers may use a type of partial counterbalancing like the Latin square design -c.-. This design is useful for determining what exact sequences of treatment will be administered to the different participant groups. The changing criterion design -b.- is a single case design consisting of a series of phases with differing behavioral criterion set for each. The treatment is considered effective if the behavior reaches the criterion level for each phase. The Solomon four-group design -d.- is used to evaluate the effects of pretesting on internal and external validity.)

39. Symptoms of Bipolar Disorder are typically treated with lithium and/or any of the following medications EXCEPT: A. phenelzine B. carbamazepine C. divalproex D. valproic

A ( Currently, lithium and/or an anti-seizure medication is the drug treatment-of-choice for Bipolar Disorder. Unlike the others, phenelzine is not used for the treatment of Bipolar Disorder as it is an MAOI antidepressant. Carbamazepine -Tegretol-, divalproex -Depakote- and valproic acid -Depakene- are anti-seizure drugs that have been found to be useful for treating patients with Bipolar Disorder who have not responded well, or cannot tolerate, other treatments.)

1. The technique which allows a researcher to identify the underlying -latent- factors that relate to a set of measured variables and the nature of the causal relationships between those factors is: A. structural equation modeling -SEM- B. cluster analysis C. Q-technique factor analysis D. survival analysis

A ( Structural equation modeling is a multivariate technique used to evaluate the causal -predictive- influences or test causal hypotheses about the relationships among a set of factors. Cluster analysis -b.- is used to identify homogeneous subgroups in a heterogeneous collection of observations. Q-technique factor analysis -c.- determines how many types of people a sample of people represents. Survival analysis -d.- is used to assess the length of time to the occurrence of a critical event. )

8. Which of the following is not characteristic of Nicotine Withdrawal? A. hypersomnia B. weight gain/increased appetite C. decreased heart rate D. depressed or dysphoric mood

A ( Symptoms of Nicotine Withdrawal have a rapid onset and are characterized by insomnia, decreased heart rate -c.-, increased appetite -b.- and depressed or dysphoric mood -d.-. Studies indicate that a desire to avoid negative affect, as well as the rapid withdrawal symptoms, are primary reasons nicotine dependent individuals relapse.)

7. One reason to give job applicants a realistic job description at the time they apply for a job is to: A. reduce turnover. B. attract talented job applicants. C. retain current employees. D. reduce the need for selection tests.

A (A realistic job description is known among industrial/organizational psychologists as a "realistic job preview." It involves providing job applicants with accurate information about the job and the company -- both positive information and negative information. Research on realistic job previews has shown that they are beneficial for reducing turnover.)

24. Habituation would be most likely to occur in which of the following situations. A. An experimenter repeatedly presents the same stimulus. B. An experimenter increases the intensity of a stimulus. C. An examinee focuses his/her attention. D. Background music is played during exposure to the stimulus.

A (Habituation most likely occurs if the experimenter repeatedly presents the same stimulus. Habituation is defined as a decrease in response strength due to repeated stimulation and occurs when one no longer responds to a repeatedly applied stimulus. It is believed to occur because of a decrease in the amount of neurotransmitter released.)

2. To reduce their liability risk, managed care organizations are most likely to do which of the following? A. insure their providers are credentialed B. reduce the amount of time between date of claim submission and approval of claim C. utilization review D. pay their providers a reasonable reimbursement rate

A (Managed care organizations typically require all their providers to be credentialed. This helps to insure that their providers are competent and, consequently, reduces their risk of liability. Utilization Review -C- is a cost containment procedure involving an evaluation of patients' use of services to identify any unnecessary or inappropriate use of health care resources.)

10. The best way to increase the intra-rater reliability of a test that is subjectively scored would be to A. train raters to pay very close attention to the scoring of the test. B. have a second set of raters rescore the test. C. use mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories. D. ensure that the rating instrument is correlated with multiple criterion measures.

A (Note that this question is asking about intra-rater reliability, not inter-rater reliability. The prefix "intrA means the same thing it means in other contexts -e.g., intra-psychic-: inside or internal. Thus, the question is asking you how to increase the internal consistency of a rating instrument. Of the choices listed, the only one which makes sense is to train the raters to pay more attention to what they are doing. If they pay closer attention, they are less likely to score the test inconsistently. Incidentally, mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories -choice C- are useful for increasing the inter-rater reliability of a test.)

21. Of the following, the best predictor of job success would likely be a A. general cognitive ability test. B. personality test. C. structured interview. D. vocational interest inventory.

A (Research on the validity of selection measures generally finds the cognitive ability tests and biodata are 1-2 in terms of predictive validity. Although validity coefficients will vary from study to study, the most widely accepted conclusion is that general ability tests are the best overall predictors.)

44. A college psychology instructor gives a battery of psychological tests to some of his students who volunteered to be participants. Based on these tests, he finds that one of the participants is at risk for emotional disturbance. He talks to this student and suggests counseling. At the same time, he informs the director of the college counseling office who is a friend of his. According to APA ethical principles, the professor acted A. unethically, because he revealed this information to a third party. B. ethically, because he acted in accord with the student's welfare. C. ethically, because he had responsibilities to the college as well as to the student. D. unethically, because he isn't a clinician.

A (Suggesting counseling to the student is ethical and appropriate. However, barring an emergency situation characterized by imminent danger, informing a third party is unethical.)

36. Lashley's ____________________ predicts that, if certain parts of the cortex are damaged, other parts may assume the functions of the damaged parts. A. principle of mass action B. principle of equipotentiality C. law of effect D. all-or-none principle

B ( Karl Lashley's research on the function of the brain in relation to behavior developed two main principles as a result of his research. The principle of equipotentiality states that certain small areas of the brain can take on the function of larger, related areas that have been destroyed and the principle of mass action -a.-, which states that in many types of learning the cerebral cortex acts as a whole. Thorndike's law of effect -c.- states that feedback either reward or punishment will automatically strengthen or weaken responses. The all-or-none principle -d.- states that the strength of response to a stimulus is not dependent on the strength of the stimulus. For example, if the stimulus is any strength above threshold, the nerve or muscle fiber will either give a complete response or no response at all. -See: Lashley, K.S. Coalescence of Neurology and Psychology. Proceedings of the American Philosophical Society, Vol. 84, No. 4, Symposium on Recent Advances in Psychology -Jun. 30, 1941-, pp. 461-470.)

41. Research on gender differences in judgments of sexual harassment indicate: A. men and women are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment regardless of the severity of the behaviors. B. men and women are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment but only in severe cases. C. men are more likely than women to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment but only in severe cases. D. women are more likely than men to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment regardless of the severity of the behaviors.

B ( Sexual harassment research has consistently found that males and females are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment in severe cases; however, there are significant gender differences in judgments in mild to moderate cases of harassment. Studies have continually found females are more likely than males to rate mild to moderately severe or sexually-ambiguous behaviors as constituting sexual harassment. -See: C. W. Williams et al., An attributional -causal dimensional- analysis of perceptions of sexual harassment, Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 1995, 25, 1169-1183.)

3. Several demographic characteristics are associated with the risk of divorce. According to the National Survey of Family Growth -2002-, divorce rates are highest for women who: A. have a higher level of education and marry at a younger age B. have a lower level of education and marry at a younger age C. have a higher level of education and marry at an older age D. have a lower level of education and marry at an older age

B ( The likelihood of a marriage ending in divorce varies based on age at marriage, income, education, length of marriage, race and other factors distinguished in the National Survey of Family Growth. The survey data indicates that rates of divorce are highest for women who marry at a younger age, have a lower level of education, had a child when she got married, have a lower income or live in a community with low family income, or have no religious affiliation. -See: Bramlett, M.D. & Mosher, W.D. -2002- Cohabitation, Marriage, Divorce, and Remarriage in the United States. National Center for Health Statistics. Vital Health Statistics, 23-22-.)

43. Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to cause: A. impaired motor coordination B. impaired memory and attention C. alterations in the sleep/wake cycle D. "psychic blindness"

B ( The prefrontal cortex is associated with a variety of cognitive functions, including attention and certain aspects of memory. An individual with damage to the prefrontal cortex may exhibit distractibility, impaired working memory, a reduced attention span, and impaired prospective memory. "Psychic blindness" -d.- is associated with Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is caused by damage to certain areas of the temporal lobes. )

9. A split-brain patient is shown a picture of an object to his left visual field then told to pick the object out from behind a screen. Which of the following will the patient will be able to do? A. pick the object with either hand B. pick the object with only his left hand C. pick the object with only his right hand D. able to say what the object was however unable to pick it with either hand

B ( The visual information about the object crosses in the patient's optic chiasm and ends up in the right hemisphere so when the person is asked to pick out the object he will be able to correctly pick out the object because touch information from the left hand crosses over to the right hemisphere. )

40. Which of the following is true regarding Sleep Terror Disorder in children? A. It usually begins between 4 and 12 years and follows a chronic course B. It usually begins between 4 and 12 years and resolves spontaneously during adolescence C. The frequency of episodes remains constant throughout the course of the disorder D. It occurs three times more often in females than males

B (According to DSM-IV-TR, Sleep Terror Disorder is characterized by "the repeated occurrence of sleep terrors, that is, abrupt awakenings from sleep usually beginning with a panicky scream or cry." It usually begins between 4 and 12 years and resolves spontaneously during adolescence. The frequency of episodes varies over time. Among children it is somewhat more common in males than in females.)

19. Experimenters find conformity is lowest when the: A. group size is reduced from 15 to 6. B. subject has a "partner" in the group who shares his or her opinion. C. subject is "deserteD by a partner. D. stimuli to be judged are highly ambiguous.

B (Experimenters have found that just having a "partner" in a group liberates an individual to latch on to the partner and defy the wrong majority. Reducing the size isn't correct, since, if anything, reducing the size is likely to increase group cohesiveness and thereby increase conformity. The remaining choices also are incorrect because they would increase the pressure to conform.)

22. If someone presents with complaints and symptoms including anxiety, irritability, and hypomania, and the diagnosed disorder is not exclusively psychogenic, the most likely non-psychiatric cause would be A. Addison's Disease. B. hyperthyroidism. C. Sleep Apnea. D. Alcohol Amnestic Disorder.

B (Hyperthyroidism, or over secretion of thyroxine by the thyroid gland, is a possible physiological cause of symptoms that resemble generalized anxiety or hypomania.)

30. Cluster sampling involves A. randomly selecting individual subjects from a larger target population. B. randomly selecting a naturally-occurring group of subjects from a larger target population. C. randomly selecting several naturally occurring groups from a larger population, and then randomly selecting individuals from each group. D. randomly selecting individuals from a larger target population and dividing subjects into groups on the basis of their status on a demographic variable.

B (In cluster sampling, naturally occurring groups of subjects, rather than individual subjects, are randomly selected for participation in research. For instance, if a researcher wants to use elementary school students in an educational study, he or she could randomly choose a school from the schools in his state, and use all the students in that school as participants in the study. That's cluster sampling. A variation of cluster sampling, known as multistage cluster sampling, involves selecting a large cluster -group- and then selecting selectively smaller clusters. For example, the researcher studying elementary school students could randomly select a school district, then randomly select a school from the chosen school district, and then randomly select a classroom from the chosen school. In this case, both forms of cluster sampling would be more practical than the alternative of simple random sampling. That would involve randomly selecting individual elementary school students from across the state.)

18. Standardized ratings of adaptive behavior, such as the Adaptive Behavior Scale and the Vineland, are completed by caretakers, teachers, trained observers, etc., and measure: A. abilities and competencies. B. competencies, but not necessarily abilities. C. abilities, but not necessarily competencies. D. neither abilities nor competencies.

B (The idea behind these rating instruments is that we are determining what the person actually does in an average, expectable environment. That is, what his or her competencies are: can he get dressed by himself, can she eat appropriately, does he engage in conversation when addressed, etc.?)

26. All of the following are generally considered to be characteristic of brief psychotherapy, except: A. time limited therapy B. lack of theoretical orientation C. effective for acute symptoms D. encourages the development of a positive transference between the client and the therapist.

B (There are many different approaches to brief therapy including psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioral, and eclectic to name a few; however, brief therapy is always based on theory. Brief therapy, as its name implies, is time limited and effective for acute symptoms. A positive transference is also generally considered to be essential to the success of brief therapy.)

35. Individuals with narcolepsy and individuals with hypersomnia have which of the following in common? A. sleep paralysis B. cataplexy C. daytime sleep attacks D. hypnagogic hallucinations

C ( Narcolepsy is a condition in which people are overcome with irresistible sleepiness and sleep attacks of brief duration that occur unpredictably. Other distinguishing features of the condition is cataplexy, a sudden loss of partial or complete muscle tone during excitement or arousal, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic hallucinations. Hypersomnia may be either idiopathic, secondary, or periodic. Like Narcolepsy, individuals with hypersomnia experience daytime sleepiness and sleep attacks, however the attacks last longer and are more resistible than in narcolepsy and there are no auxiliary symptoms. Typically, nocturnal sleep is disrupted in narcolepsy, is prolonged in idiopathic hypersomnia and variable in secondary hypersomnia. Although the exact causes of narcolepsy and idiopathic hypersomnia are unknown, there is evidence for genetic predisposition. Causative factors in secondary hypersomnia include: neurologic, -e.g., brain tumors, head injuries, and cerebrovascular insufficiency-; general medical, such as metabolic disorders, various intoxications, and conditions leading to brain hypoxia; and psychiatric, most notably depression.)

11. Research by Laurence Steinberg, Sanford Dornbusch and their colleagues on the relationship between parenting style and academic achievement has revealed that A. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to children but not adolescents. B. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to adolescents regardless of gender, socioeconomic status, or race. C. the positive impact of authoritative parenting may apply less to African-American adolescents than to European, Asian, and Hispanic adolescents. D. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to adolescents and seems to be due primarily to parents' encouragement of academic excellence.

C (Authoritative parenting has been linked to many positive outcomes for both children and adolescents including better academic performance. However, the effects of authoritative parenting seem to be moderated by race. Steinberg and his colleagues found that, even though African-American parents often adopt an authoritative style, the academic performance of their adolescents is influenced more by peers and, therefore, has less of an effect. These investigators also found that, overall, parents' involvement in their youngster's schooling is more important than their encouragement of academic excellence. See, for example, L. Steinberg et al., Impact of parenting practices on adolescent achievement: Authoritative parenting, school involvement, and encouragement to succeed, Child Development, 1992, 63, 1266-1281.)

13. All of the following are true regarding women and depression, except A. marriage reduces the risk of depression to a greater extent for men than it does for women. B. the more children a woman has, the more likely it is that she'll be depressed. C. women who have multiple roles -e.g., a job, children, a marriage- are more vulnerable to depression than women who don't. D. gender differences in coping style apparently are a reason why women are at a greater risk for depression than men.

C (Choice C is not true; women who have multiple roles appear to be at lower risk for depression. This may be because they have many different support sources and outlets for their competence -- i.e., if their life is not going well in one area, they can compensate with success in other areas. The other choices, according to the APA Task Force Report on Women and Depression, are true. Regarding choice D, the report states that men may be at a lower risk than women because, in response to their problems, they are more likely to employ action and mastery -e.g., work, sports, going out with friends- strategies that distract them from their worries and give them a sense of power and control. Women, on the other hand, tend to brood and dwell on their problems.)

4. When applied to substance dependence, the specifier "early full remission" means that the client has been without any symptoms of substance abuse or dependence: A. for at least six months but less than one year B. for at least three months but less than one year C. for at least one month but less than one year D. for at least one year

C (Early full remission, early partial remission, sustained full remission, or sustained partial remission are specifiers used to describe a substance dependence diagnosis. "Early" means that there is more than one month but less than 12 months of remission. "SustaineD means that there is 12 months or longer of remission -response "D-. "Full" means that the person no longer meets any of the criteria for substance dependence or abuse, and "partial" means that one or more of the criteria for substance dependence are still met but the full criteria are no longer met.)

45. The theory that proposes convergent and divergent thinking as dimensions of intelligence is associated with: A. Galton B. Thurstone C. Guilford D. Cattell

C (J.P. Guilford identified 120 elements using factor analysis that he proposed in sum comprise intelligence. Convergent thinking is the ability to group or analyze divergent ideas usually leading to a unifying concept or single solution. Divergent thinking is the ability to generate creative, new ideas or to elaborate or branch off from traditional approaches, such as in brainstorming or "thinking out of the box." Galton -a.- postulated that intelligence is an inherited trait distributed normally across the population. Thurstone -b.- applied his method of factor analysis to intelligence leading to his proposed theory of Primary Mental Abilities -that individuals possess varying degrees of sub-components of intelligence-. Cattell's -d.- theory distinguished between fluid and crystallized intelligence.)

46. Which of the following ethnic groups has the highest proportion of reported incidents of child abuse? A. Asian B. Hispanic C. Native American D. White

C (Of the reported cases of child abuse, 50% are White; 25% are African American; 15% are Hispanic; 2% are Native American; and 1% are Asian/Pacific Islanders. However, the proportions of child abuse victims who are Native American or African American are two times greater than the proportions of these children in the general population Child Maltreatment 2001: Summary of Key Findings. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Washington, DC: U.S. Government Printing Office.)

31. The "pseudopatients" who were admitted to mental hospitals in Rosenhan's -1973- study were: A. all discharged from the hospitals within72 hours due to their "remission" B. identified by hospital staff as being "normal" during the second week of their stay C. identified by other patients but not staff members as being "normal" D. identified by staff members as being "normal" only after they stopped feigning symptoms

C (Rosenhan's famous "pseudopatient study" involved 8 confederates who presented themselves to mental hospitals complaining of hearing voices. All were admitted to the hospital and7 of the 8 were given the diagnosis "Schizophrenia." Once admitted, they all stopped feigning any symptoms and behaved normally. Nevertheless, their hospital stays ranged from7 to 52 days with an average stay of 19 days and although nearly one-third of the other patients recognized the pseudopatients as "normal," none of the hospital staff recognized them as such.)

6. The Working Memory Index of the WAIS-III is based on which of the following subtests? A. vocabulary, similarities, and information B. digit symbol and symbol search C. digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing D. picture completion, block design, and matrix reasoning

C (The WAIS-III measures four factors: verbal comprehension, perceptual organization, working memory, and processing speed. The working memory index is comprised of digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing. Each of the other choices contain the subtests which comprise the other indices. Vocabulary, similarities, and information subtests -A- make up the verbal comprehension index. Digit symbol and symbol search -B- determine the processing speed index. And picture completion, block design, and matrix reasoning -D- comprise the perceptual organization index.)

33. Which of the following infractions accounts for the largest percentage of malpractice costs? A. lack of competence B. breach of confidentiality C. sexual contact with clients D. improper billing practices

C (The infraction that accounts for the greatest proportion of malpractice claims depends on how the infractions are categorized. However, regardless of the way that malpractice claims are grouped, sex with clients is always the infraction that accounts for the greatest insurance costs, with reported figures ranging from 45 to 50%.)

25. Traditional psychoanalytic psychotherapy and brief therapies derived from it share several characteristics but also differ in a number of ways. Which of the following is not true about brief forms of psychodynamic psychotherapy? A. In brief psychotherapy, past experiences are important to the degree that they contribute to the client's current conflicts. B. Brief therapy targets specific therapeutic goals, which are identified during the first few sessions. C. In order to solve a client's problems rapidly, brief therapy makes use of the "transference cure" rather than fostering the client's insight into his or her problems. D. Brief therapy can be described as a problem-solving process in which the therapist helps the client use his or her own resources to resolve current difficulties.

C (This is the opposite of what is true. In brief forms of psychodynamic psychotherapy, client insight is desirable, although it is limited to those areas that are identified as the targets of therapy.)

20. The validity coefficient of a new job selection test is 0.25. This test would most likely be useful when: A. the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very low B. the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very high C. there are many applicants for few job openings D. there are few applicants for many job openings

C (This question is referring to a test's incremental validity. Incremental validity is the increase in decision-making accuracy resulting from the use of a particular predictor. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1- the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2- the test's validity coefficient; and 3- the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants -for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05-. Incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is moderate, the validity coefficient is high, and the selection ratio is low. The Taylor-Russell tables can be used to determine a test's incremental validity, given specific values for the base rate, validity coefficient, and selection ratio. We can eliminate Choices A and B because a moderate base rate maximizes the usefulness of a selection test more than a low or high base rate does. Contrary to Choice D, a low selection ratio -many applicants for few job openings- is better than a high selection ratio.)

32. Research utilizing functional brain imaging techniques has shown a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder -ADHD- and has linked it to abnormalities in the following brain structures: A. parietal lobe, hypothalamus, and corpus callosum B. parietal lobe, striatum, and amygdala C. frontal lobe, thalamus, and amygdala D. frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum

D ( Recent research has established a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder -ADHD- with abnormalities in the right frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum most consistently implicated in this disorder. Other areas of the brain, including certain regions of the parietal lobe, have been linked to ADHD to a lesser extent. Using the core symptoms of ADHD and functions of the major brain structures, you may have determined the frontal lobes -mediates higher-order functions-, the striatum -part of the basal ganglia and composed of the caudate nucleus and the putamen- and cerebellum -involved in motor activity- are the areas linked to this disorder. -See: J. Giedd et al., Brain imaging of attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, Annals of New York Academy of Sciences, 2001, 931, 33-49.)

16. Research on sex-role determinants suggests the characteristic that is most related to genetics, as opposed to socialization, is: A. anxiety B. dependency C. sociability D. aggression

D ( The vast majority of empirical studies indicate that very few abilities and traits that distinguish males from females are biologically determined. In other words, the things typically viewed as either inherently masculine or feminine are actually defined and developed through socialization. However, there are some characteristics that seem to transcend socialization. Aggression is the only one of the four response choices that appears to be more related to hormones than learning, with boys being naturally more active and having higher aggressive drives than girls. It is important to note though, recent research has found that gender differences in aggression needs to be qualified: Boys are more overtly -physically and verbally- aggressive than girls, but girls display more relational aggression - i.e., they try to harm or exert control over others by withdrawing their acceptance or friendship -Crick & Grotpeter, 1995-. )

38. An individual with apperceptive visual agnosia would have difficulty: A. locating an object in space B. perceiving the placement of their limbs in space C. identifying familiar faces D. identifying an object from an atypical view

D ( Visual agnosia refers to the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight. The type of visual agnosia described in this question is referred to as apperceptive agnosia and involves an inability to recognize familiar objects, especially in low-light conditions, when there are many shadows, when objects overlap, or from an atypical view. )

29. A study is conducted to determine the effectiveness of 3 different reading programs on reading comprehension. The participants are 5th grade students who are divided into 3 levels based on their past reading comprehension -below average, average, and above average-. Results from a factorial ANOVA indicate that there are significant main effects of each variable and a significant interaction effect. Based on these results, one could conclude that: A. each of the reading programs is equally effective for students at every reading level B. only one of the reading programs is effective for students at every reading level C. the reading programs are only effective for students at a particular reading level D. the most effective reading program is dependent on the student's reading level

D (A factorial ANOVA is used when a study has more than one independent variable. Factorial designs also allow for the assessment of both main effects -the effects of each independent variable considered individually- and interaction effects -the effects of each variable at the different levels of the other variable-. The study described in this question has two "significant main effects" for the independent variables: type of reading program and past level of reading comprehension. And a "significant interaction effect" means that the effects of the different reading programs varied significantly for students at different reading levels. For example, "Reading Program A may have been highly effective for above average students, moderately effective for average students, yet ineffective for below average students. On the other hand, "Reading Program B may have been only effective for below average students, while "Reading Program C may not have been effective for any students.)

17. According to the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists -APA, 1991-, if a psychological evaluation is ordered by a court and the defendant to be evaluated informs the evaluating psychologist that he does not wish to cooperate, the psychologist should: A. conduct the evaluation B. refuse to conduct the evaluation C. refuse to conduct the evaluation unless the defendant consents D. postpone the evaluation and notify the defendant's attorney

D (Although it is not necessary to obtain informed consent for court-ordered evaluations, the subject of the evaluation should be informed of its purpose. Furthermore, if the subject does not want to be evaluated, the subject's attorney should be contacted before taking further action. If the attorney also objects to the evaluation, the psychologist should then notify the court and respond as directed.)

14. Presbyopia, a common result of normal aging, is most likely to increase the near point from four inches at 20 years of age to _________ at 60 years of age. A. 8 inches B. 12 inches C. 24 inches D. 48 inches

D (As we age the ability of our eyes to focus on objects declines due to a loss of elasticity in the lens of the eye. This condition, known as "presbyopia," typically increases the near point -the shortest distance at which we can focus- from four inches at 20 years of age to about four feet at 60 years of age. Although some people have different rates of decline, presbyopia eventually affects everyone.)

15. Erikson's final developmental stage is: A. generativity vs. stagnation. B. contentment vs. despondency. C. intimacy vs. isolation. D. ego integrity vs. despair.

D (Erikson is among those developmental psychologists who postulate qualitatively different stages we pass through from birth to senescence. Erikson's final stage is called integrity versus despair. That is, in the last stage we look at our life and say "I did the best I coulD or, alternatively, "I regret what I did.")

34. A psychologist compliments several of his co-workers on their clothing. One of his female co-workers indicates that she is not comfortable with these type of comments and asks him to stop. He complies with her request. His behavior is: A. Unacceptable B. Unethical C. Sexual harrassment D. Acceptable

D (His behavior is acceptable. According to Standard 3.02 -Sexual Harassment-: "Sexual harassment is sexual solicitation, physical advances, or verbal or nonverbal conduct that is sexual in nature, that occurs in connection with the psychologist's activities or roles as a psychologist, and that either -1- is unwelcome, is offensive, or creates a hostile workplace or educational environment, and the psychologist knows or is told this or -2- is sufficiently severe or intense to be abusive to a reasonable person in the context. Sexual harassment can consist of a single intense or severe act or of multiple persistent or pervasive acts." In this case the co-worker evidently found the psychologist's comments offensive. The psychologist upon learning this stopped his behavior.)

27. Which of the following statements regarding informed consent procedures in research is least true? A. Psychologists should inform research participants, in language that is reasonably understandable, about the nature of the research. B. Research participants should be informed of significant factors that may affect their willingness to participate in the research. C. Informed consent to research must be appropriately documented. D. Informed consent to research must be obtained in all cases.

D (In most cases, informed consent to research must be obtained from participants. However, there are some exceptions, such as research involving anonymous questionnaires or naturalistic observations. Ethical standard 8.05 discusses the circumstances under which research does not require informed consent.)

12. Recent meta-analyses of the research on work-family conflict suggest that it is: A. only a problem for married employees. B. related more to job satisfaction for men than for women. C. related to job satisfaction but not life satisfaction. D. related more to life satisfaction for women than for men.

D (Meta-analyses indicate that work-family conflict has an impact on job satisfaction and life satisfaction for both men and women. However, there is some evidence that it's effects for women may be greater, especially in terms of life satisfaction.)

37. In Piaget's concrete operational stage the child is able to conserve due to the development of reversibility and decentration. Other achievements of this stage are: A. Deferred imitation B. Object permanence C. Propositional thought D. Transitivity

D (Other achievements of the concrete operational stage are transitivity, or the ability to mentally sort objects; and hierarchical classification--the ability to sort object into classes and subclasses based on similarities and differences among groups. Deferred imitation and object permanence are achievements of the sensorimotor stage. Deferred imitation is the ability to imitate an observed act at a later point in time. Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not there. Finally, propositional thought -C- is developed in the Formal Operational Stage. It is the ability to evaluate the logical validi)

42. A new therapeutic intervention for heroin addiction is tested in a 6-month study, comparing it to existing treatment programs and a control group. At the end of 3 months the researchers find a dramatic success rate for the experimental treatment with over 75% of the clients maintaining abstinence from heroin, compared to 30% for the other treatment groups and 10% for the control group. What should the researchers do? A. inform the other groups of the results and recommend that they begin the new treatment program. B. inform the other groups of the results and give them the option of receiving the new treatment or continuing with their existing program. C. not inform the other groups of the results D. wait until the conclusion of the study and then offer the other groups the new treatment

D (Since this study was designed for a duration of 6 months, it should continue as planned before any conclusions regarding the effectiveness are made. Informing any of the groups about the relative effectiveness of any of the treatments prior to the conclusion of the study would likely contaminate the validity of the final results. Of course, the researchers have an obligation to inform the participants of the results and conclusions of the research, but this should not be provided until the conclusions have been made.)

5. In most species of animals the differences between males and females in body size and shape is referred to as: A. androgyny B. sexual bifurcation C. gender dichotomy D. sexual dimorphism

D (The term "sexual dimorphism" may be new to you, but now you know that it refers to any consistent differences between males and females in size or shape. Sexual dimorphism enables animals to readily identify males and females of their species which serves to facilitate mating.)

23. A person with agnosia is unable to identify a familiar object by sight but does identify it when it is placed in her hand. This is most likely due to A. a visual impairment. B. visual inattention. C. a deficit in iconic memory. D. visual "not knowing."

D (The type of visual agnosia described in this question is referred to as apperceptive agnosia and involves an inability to recognize familiar objects, especially in low-light conditions, when there are many shadows, when objects overlap, etc.)

Which of the post hoc analyses are vulnerable to a Type I error? a) Scheefe b) Tukey c) Fishers

Fishers; the others are vulnerable to a Type II error

Which type of structural equation modeling involves non-static groups and one-way or two-way causal flows-ie. non-recursive relationships? a) path analysis b) LISERL c) canonical correlation

LISREL

What refers to the tendency to incorrectly reject the null hypothesis? a) Type I error b) Type II error

Type I error

What error is made when the researcher accepts the null hypothesis but it is actually false? a) Type I error b) Type II error

Type II error

Increased power refers to the: a) ability to correctly reject the false null hypothesis b) ability to correctly accept the false null hypothesis

a) ability to correctly reject the false null hypothesis

Which statistical test is suitable for using on nominal data? a) chi-square b) Mann-Whitney U c) t-test d) multiple regression

a) chi-square

Which type of structural equation modeling involves static groups and one-way causal flows-ie. recursive relationships? a) path analysis b) LISERL c) canonical correlation

a) path analysis

All of these increase statistical power except: a) reducing alpha (.01 instead of .05) b) large sample size c) one-tailed test d) controlling for extraneous variables

a) reducing alpha (.01 instead of .05)--power is increased by increasing alpha (but this also increases the probability of making a Type I error); decreasing alpha gives you more confidence but less power

You are contacted by the APA Ethics Committee in regard to a complaint filed against you by your client. The committee asks for your records related to the client's therapy with you. You should: a. cooperate fully with the Committee's request b. contact the client and obtain a release of information before cooperating c. contact the client and attempt to settle the matter informally with him. d. call your travel agent and find out when the next plane to Tahiti is leaving.

a. you must fully cooperate. confidentiality is not an issue because a signed waiver is completed before action is taken

The probability of making a Type I error is: a) alpha b) beta c) 1-alpha d) 1-beta

alpha

What is the level of significance? a) alpha b) beta c) 1-alpha d) 1-beta

alpha

In an AB design, the DV is measured: a) once b) twice-before and after the interven c) at regular intervals d) three times

at regular intervals

Pro bono work is: a. required by the Ethical Principles b. encouraged by the Ethical Principles c. discouraged by the Ethical Principles d. prohibited by the Ethical Principles

b. "strive" to contribute portions of time for little or no compensation or personal advantage

You share an office with one other psychologist. One morning, you arrive early to the office and find your partner having sex with one of his current patients. You should: a. discuss the matter with him later b. report him to the ethics committee c. discuss the matter with the patient, and explain to her that she has the option to take action against your partner d. discuss the matter with the patient, and attempt to get her to sign a release of information so you can pursue a complaint

b. must report because in this case, the violation is not amenable to informal resolution, but protect confidentiality of the patient identity

A psychologist who has been having marital problems begins to notice that during marital therapy with his clients, he is tending to agree more with the husband's perspective. He should: a. explain to his clients the reasons for his countertransference b. seek consultation c. refer his marital clients d. suspend doing marital therapy until his marital problems are resolved.

b. through consultation, may be able to resolve countertransference issue and decide course of action

The probability of making a Type II error is: a) alpha b) beta c) 1-alpha d) 1-beta

beta

Which statis test would be used to investigate the correlation btwn a continuous variable and an artificial dichotomy variable? a) pearson r b) spearman rho c) biseral d) point biseral

biseral

An ABAB design is looking for: a) an increase in the baseline with the application of the treatment b) a decrease in the baseline with the application of the treatment c) a return in the baseline with the withdrawal of the treatment d) an increase in the baseline with withdrawal of the treatment

c) a return in the baseline with the withdrawal of the treatment

Which of these is not a prediction of the central limit theorem? a) as sample size increases, the sampling distribution of the mean approaches normal distribution b) mean of the sample should equal the population mean c) the median of the sample should equal the population median d) SD of the sampling distribution should qual the population SD divided by the sq root of the sample size

c) the median of the sample should equal the population median

You want to work with clients from an ethnic group you have not worked with before. Your best option would be to: a. refer such clients to another therapist b. read books about the ethnic group while you are working with the clients c. seek supervision and/or consultation before taking on such clients and while you are working with them d. see the clients, since we are all human beings and why can we just get along?

c.

Which type of regression analysis is used when there are 2+predictors and 2+ continuous criterion? a) multiple regression b) canonical correlation c) discriminant function analysis

canonical correlation

The primary value underlying the existence of Ethical Principles is: a. confidentiality of therapist-client communication b. the continued prosperity of the field of psychology c. the advancement of the welfare of society as a whole d. the advancement and protection of the welfare of patients and clients of psychologists

d. "has it goals the welfare and protection of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work"

If an ethical issue is not addressed in the Ethical Code, it indicates that any related conduct is: a. ethical b. unethical c. ethical, if not prohibited by any law or regulation d. may be ethical or unethical

d. "the fact that a given conduct is not specifically addressed" does not mean that it is necessarily "ethical or unethical."

If a client tells you that he had sex with a previous therapist, you should: a. have the client sign a release of information, and report the psychologist to the appropriate ethics committee b. with the client's permission, contact the psychologist yourself c. report the psychologist to an ethics committee, with or without the client's permission d. outline the client's rights and options regarding legal action and ethics complaints

d. cannot report without permission = breach of confidentiality, cannot force client to sign a waiver, BEST OPTION = outline client's rights and options and let them decide on legal action/complaint

The use of interpreters for psychotherapy: a. is always unethical due to the inherent lack of confidentiality b. is always unethical because psychologists must refer clients if they cannot communicate directly in the same language c. is ethical if the interpreter has signed an agreement to maintain the client's confidentiality d. may be ethical if steps have been taken to avoid a multiple relationship between the interpreter and the client

d. no ethical standard requires interpreters to sign a confidentiality agreement

Which type of regression analysis is used when there are 2+predictors and 1 nominal criterion? a) multiple regression b) canonical correlation c) discriminant function analysis

discriminant function analysis

Which statis test would be used to investigate the correlation btwn a continuous variable and another continuous variable when the relationship is nonlinear? a) pearson r b) eta c) biseral d) point biseral

eta

Which statistical test is suitable for comparing 2/more group means for 2/more IVs? a) one-way ANOVA b) factorial ANOVA c) t-test d) multiple regression

factorial ANOVA

What do you compare to determine if there is an interaction effect? a) statistical analyses b) factorial means c) marginal means d) F ratios

factorial means (inside the boxes-compared btwn IVs--> if they cross on a graph, this indicates an interaction)

All of these are threats to internal validity except: a) history b) Hawthorn effect c) maturation

hawthorn effect (this is a threat to external validity)

In which type of graph do the bars touch to indicate the overlapping nature of the data? a) bar graph b) histogram c) pie chart d) scatterplot

histogram

What refers to the degree to which a study allows the investigator to conclude that variability of the DV is due to the effects of the IV rather than other factors? a) internal validity b) external validity c) reliability

internal validity

Which scale of measurement would be used to measure temperature? a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio

interval-no absolute zero

Which type of distribution is peaked? a) platykurtic b) kurtosis c) leptokurtic

leptokurtic

What refers to the effects of each IV without considering the effects of the other IVs? a) main effects b) interaction effects c) factorial design

main effects

What do you compare to determine if there is a main effect? a) statistical analyses b) factorial means c) marginal means d) F ratios

marginal means (if no difference --> no main effect)

All of these are threats to external validity except: a) demand characteristics b) Hawthorn effect c) multiple treatment interference d) maturation

maturation (this is a threat to internal validity)

In a positively skewed distribution, which has the largest value? a) mean b) median c) mode

mean

What should you use as a measure of central tendency when there are no outliers? a) mean b) median c) mode

mean-it is more precise

What should you use as a measure of central tendency when there are outliers? a) mean b) median c) mode

median

In a negatively skewed distribution, which has the largest value? a) mean b) median c) mode

mode

A larger F score on an ANOVA demonstrates a: a) less significant effect b) more significant effect

more significant effect

Which type of regression analysis is used when there are 2+predictors and 1 continuous criterion? a) multiple regression b) canonical correlation c) discriminant function analysis

multiple regression

Which scale of measurement is dichotomous/categorical and does not have a sp order, equal intervals or an absolute zero? a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio

nominal

Which scale of measurement would be used to measure the places achieved in a horse race? a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio

ordinal

Which statis test would be used to investigate the correlation btwn a continuous variable and another continuous variable when the relationship is linear? a) pearson r b) spearman rho c) biseral d) point biseral

pearson r

Which statis test would be used to investigate the correlation btwn a continuous variable and a true dichotomy variable? a) pearson r b) spearman rho c) biseral d) point biseral

point biseral

In what type of research can the researcher not randomly assign participants to different levels of the IV? a) true exptl research b) quasi-exptl research c) clinical study

quasi-exptl research

Which scale of measurement would be used to measure reaction time in seconds? a) nominal b) ordinal c) interval d) ratio

ratio

Which statistical test is used to predict an individual's score on Y given her obtained score on X? a) pearson r b) eta c) regression analysis d) tetrachoric

regression analysis

A tire manufacturer wants to find out if drivers in LA drive more miles per year than divers in the rest of the US. He obtains the national mileage avg and determines the miles driven by 100 drivers randomly chosen from the LA phonebook. What stats test should he use to analyse the data? a) t-test b) ANOVA c) MANOVA d) ANCOVA

t-test

Which statistical test is suitable for comparing the means of 2 groups? a) ANOVA b) ANCOVA c) t-test d) multiple regression

t-test

In what type of research can the researcher randomly assign participants to different levels of the IV a) true exptl research b) quasi-exptl research c) clinical study

true-exptl research

All of these are examples of single-subject designs except: a) AB design b) ABAB design c) Multiple baseline design d) within subjs design

within subjs design