EPPP: Test 6

The item difficulty index ranges from __________, with 0 indicating a __________. A. 0 to +1.0; very difficult item B. 0 to +1.0; very easy item. C. -10 to +10; moderately difficult item D. -1.0 to +1.0; moderately difficult item

A. 0 to +1.0; very difficult item

According to the DSM-5, the onset of tics is usually between the ages of: A. 4 and 6 years. B. 6 and 8 years. C. 8 and 10 years. D. 10 and 12 years.

A. 4 and 6 years. According to the DSM-5, the onset of tics is typically between 4 and 6 years of age, with the severity of tics ordinarily peaking between 10 and 12 years of age.

Based on a review of psychotherapy outcome studies, Hans Eysenck (1952) concluded that: A. 72% of patients with neuroses can be expected to experience spontaneous recovery without treatment. B. 66% of patients with neuroses can be expected to experience spontaneous recovery without treatment. C. 72% of patients with neuroses who received psychoanalytic psychotherapy can be expected to show little or no improvement in symptoms. D. 66% of patients with neuroses who received eclectic psychotherapy can be expected to show little or no improvement in symptoms.

A. 72% of patients with neuroses can be expected to experience spontaneous recovery without treatment. Based on his review of 24 psychotherapy outcome studies, Eysenck concluded that 72% of untreated patients, 66% of patients receiving eclectic psychotherapy, and 44% of patients receiving psychoanalytic psychotherapy experienced a substantial decrease in symptoms. In other words, many untreated patients were better off than the treated patients, and he attributed the improvement of untreated patients to spontaneous recovery.

The ______ gene variant has been identified as a high risk factor for neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease. A. APOE4 B. APOE3 C. APOE2 D. APOE1

A. APOE4 There are three main variants of the APOE (apolipoprotein E) gene: APOE2, APOE3, and APOE4. APOE2 is the rarest variant and its presence reduces the risk for Alzheimer's disease, while APOE3 is the most common variant and its presence doesn't seem to affect the risk for Alzheimer's disease. In contrast, APOE4 has been linked to an increased risk for Alzheimer's disease and several other neurocognitive disorders including neurocognitive disorder due to Lewy body disease. APOE1 is very rare and has not been linked to Alzheimer's disease.

Which of the following is true about the pharmacological treatment of major depressive disorder? A. SSRIs and SNRIs are both considered first-line pharmacological treatments. B. SSRIs are considered first-line pharmacological treatments and SNRIs are prescribed only when SSRIs have been ineffective. C. SNRIs are considered first-line pharmacological treatments and SSRIs are prescribed only when SNRIs have been ineffective. D. SSRIs are considered first-line pharmacological treatments and SNRIs are prescribed only when neuropathic pain is comorbid with depression.

A. SSRIs and SNRIs are both considered first-line pharmacological treatments. The SSRIs and SNRIs are both generally viewed as first-line pharmacological treatments for major depressive disorder. SNRIs are more effective than SSRIs when neuropathic pain is comorbid with depression, but answer D can be eliminated because SNRIs aren't prescribed only in this situation.

Which of the following decreases the risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)? A. breastfeeding the baby and having the baby sleep on his/her back B. having the baby sleep on his/her stomach and keeping the crib as bare as possible C. breast feeding the baby and having the baby co-sleep with his/her parents D. using crib bumpers in the baby's crib and having the baby sleep on his/her back

A. breastfeeding the baby and having the baby sleep on his/her back Breast feeding the baby, having the baby sleep on his back, and keeping the crib as bare as possible are associated with a decreased risk for SIDS. In contrast, having the baby sleep on his/her stomach, having the baby co-sleep with his/her parents, and using crib bumpers have been linked to an increased risk.

Implicit memories are recorded and recalled without conscious effort. These memories are stored in which of the following areas of the brain? A. cerebellum and basal ganglia B. hippocampus and prefrontal cortex C. cerebellum and hippocampus D. thalamus and prefrontal cortex

A. cerebellum and basal ganglia

Which of the following are evidence-based treatments for binge-eating disorder? A. cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal psychotherapy B. cognitive-behavioral therapy and motivational interviewing C. family focused therapy and interpersonal psychotherapy D. family-based treatment and acceptance and commitment therapy

A. cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal psychotherapy

An initial goal in structural family therapy is most likely to be which of the following? A. increasing the strength of diffuse boundaries or the flexibility of rigid boundaries B. increasing the differentiation of all family members C. helping family members perceive their problems in alternative ways D. replacing problem-saturated stories with alternative, more satisfying ones.

A. increasing the strength of diffuse boundaries or the flexibility of rigid boundaries The primary goal of structural family therapy is to resolve the family's presenting problem by altering the family's structure. An initial step is to achieve agreement between the therapist and family members that the goal of therapy is to eliminate the problem, which is followed by the use of strategies that alter the structural elements that are maintaining the problem. Depending on the nature of the problem, this may include using strategies that create clear boundaries between family members and subsystems by increasing the strength of diffuse boundaries or the flexibility of rigid boundaries. Increasing the differentiation of all family members (answer B) is a goal of extended family systems therapy. Helping family members perceive their problems in alternative ways (answer C) is a goal of Milan systemic family therapy. Replacing problem-saturated stories with alternative, more satisfying ones (answer D) is the primary goal of narrative family therapy.

A barrier to using cost benefit analysis is that: A. it's often difficult to express the outcomes of mental health programs in monetary terms. B. it doesn't permit comparisons of programs that have different types of costs. C. it's often difficult to obtain the information needed to calculate quality of adjusted life-years (QALYs). D. it cannot be used when the outcomes of the programs being compared are not directly comparable.

A. it's often difficult to express the outcomes of mental health programs in monetary terms.

Data collected from the U.S. Medicare Outcome Survey (Jia & Lubetkin, 2020) confirmed that, for individuals between 65 and 95 years of age, the estimated life expectancy in years was longest for: A. married women. B. married men. C. never married women. D. never married men.

A. married women.

Elevated levels of dopamine in the __________ pathway of the brain are responsible for the reinforcing effects of alcohol, psychostimulants, and opiates. A. mesolimbic B. nigrostriatal C. cortico-striatal D. cortico-accumbens

A. mesolimbic

Research comparing patients with schizophrenia living in Western industrialized countries and non-Western developing countries has found that these patients differ in terms of which of the following? A. onset and course of the disorder and rate of remission B. onset and course of the disorder but not rate of remission C. rate of remission only D. course of the disorder only

A. onset and course of the disorder and rate of remission patients residing in non-Western developing countries are more likely than those residing in Western industrialized countries to experience an acute onset of symptoms, a shorter course of the disorder, and a higher rate of remission

In the context of operant conditioning, the matching law: A. predicts the effects of two or more concurrent schedules of reinforcement on the behaviors that are being reinforced. B. predicts the effects of gradually reducing a reinforcement schedule on a well-established behavior. C. is used to determine the most effective reinforcement schedule based on the current frequency of the target behavior. D. is used to identify the optimal discriminative stimulus-behavior-consequence sequence when using chaining to establish a new behavior.

A. predicts the effects of two or more concurrent schedules of reinforcement on the behaviors that are being reinforced. According to the matching law, the relative rate of responding to two or more stimuli is equal to the relative rate of reinforcement received for responding. For example, if a pigeon is reinforced with a food pellet after every 20 pecks on key #1 and is concurrently reinforced with a food pellet after every 10 pecks on key #2, the pigeon will peck key #2 twice as often as it pecks key #1.

Kobasa's (1982) concept of __________ is useful for understanding the traits that are needed to cope successfully with stress. A. psychological hardiness B. dispositional resilience C. personal efficacy D. psychological optimism

A. psychological hardiness

A therapist asks clients what they want and desire and what they're doing to fulfill their wants and desires and then helps them evaluate the effectiveness of their behaviors and develop a plan of action. This therapist is a practitioner of which of the following? A. reality therapy B. Gestalt therapy C. personal construct therapy D. acceptance and commitment therapy

A. reality therapy R. Wubbolding developed the WDEP system to describe the cycle of reality therapy. This system consists of four components: wants, doing, evaluation, and plan.

A test developer is calculating a test's __________ when she divides the number of true positives identified by the test by the number of true positives plus false negatives. A. sensitivity B. specificity C. positive predictive value D. negative predictive value

A. sensitivity

Carstensen, Gottman, and Levenson (1995) found that, compared to dissatisfied middle-aged married couples, dissatisfied older married couples: A. show more restraint in expressing negative emotions. B. are more likely to blame each other for their problems. C. spend less time discussing past pleasant events. D. express greater commitment to their relationships.

A. show more restraint in expressing negative emotions. L. L. Carstensen, J. M. Gottman, and R. W. Levenson found that dissatisfied older married couples were less likely than dissatisfied middle-aged couples and satisfied older and middle-aged couples to engage in "negative start up" - i.e., they were less likely to respond to their partners' expressions of neutral affect with expressions of anger, disgust, or other negative emotions during discussions of their marital problems.

The __________ is known as the "body's clock" because of its regulation of the sleep-wake cycle and other circadian rhythms. A. suprachiasmatic nucleus B. pons C. reticular activating system D. globus pallidus

A. suprachiasmatic nucleus

Physical and psychological fidelity are associated with which of the following? A. the principle of identical elements B. the principle of equipotentiality C. time and motion studies D. overlearning

A. the principle of identical elements According to the principle of identical elements, the more similar the training and work situations are, the greater the transfer of training. Identical elements is also known as physical and psychological fidelity: Physical fidelity refers to the extent to which the physical training and work conditions are similar, while psychological fidelity refers to the degree to which training addresses the KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics) needed to perform the job satisfactorily. [The principle of equipotentiality (answer B) is another name for the principle of multifinality and predicts that systems can achieve dissimilar outcomes when they have the same starting point.]

Toward the end of his second date with Susie S., Dr. Browne realizes that Susie is the sister of one of his clients. Dr. Brown is very attracted to Susie, would like to continue dating her, and thinks she could be "the one." However, as an ethical psychologist, Dr. Browne: A. will continue dating Susie only if she's the sister of a former (not current) client of his. B. will continue dating Susie if she's the sister of a current client only if he discusses the potential for problems with the client and with Susie. C. will continue dating Susie if she's the sister of a current client only if he terminates therapy with the client. D. will not continue dating Susie whether she's the sister of a current or a former client.

A. will continue dating Susie only if she's the sister of a former (not current) client of his.

A middle school student receives a full-scale IQ score of 105 on an intelligence test that has a mean of 100, standard deviation of 15, and standard error of measurement of 3. The 95% confidence interval for this student's score is: A. 102 to 108. B. 99 to 111. C. 96 to 114. D. 94 to 106.

B. 99 to 111. add and subtract 2 SEMs for 95% CI

__________ processing is data driven. A. Top-down B. Bottom-up C. Parallel D. Serial

B. Bottom-up Bottom-up processing is data driven (driven by information), while top-down processing is concept-driven.

To decrease an undesirable behavior and increase one or more specific alternative desirable behaviors that already occur at least occasionally, you would use which of the following? A. DRL B. DRA C. DRO D. DRI

B. DRA DRA (differential reinforcement for alternative or appropriate behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and increase one or more specific desirable behaviors that already occur at least occasionally. It involves removing all reinforcement (e.g., attention) following the undesirable behavior and providing reinforcement whenever a specified alternative behavior occurs. DRL (differential reinforcement of low rates of behavior) is used to reduce a behavior to a more acceptable level by providing reinforcement only when the behavior occurs at or below that level. It does not involve reinforcing alternative behaviors. DRO (differential reinforcement of other behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior by providing reinforcement after specified intervals of time only when the individual hasn't engaged in the undesirable behavior during each interval. In contrast to DRA, DRO does not require the individual to engage in any specific alternative behaviors during each interval, only that he/she doesn't engage in the undesirable behavior. DRI (differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and increase a desirable and physically incompatible behavior (i.e., a behavior that cannot be performed at the same time as the undesirable behavior is performed). Because the question doesn't mention that the desirable behaviors are incompatible with the undesirable behavior, this is not the best answer.

Which of the following theories proposes (a) that emotions are due to a combination of physiological arousal in response to an external event and cognitive attributions for that arousal and (b) that physiological arousal is similar for all emotions and that differences in the experience of emotions is due to differences in the attributions. A. James-Lange B. Schachter-Singer C. Cannon-Bard D. Lazarus-Papez

B. Schachter-Singer According to Schachter and Singer's cognitive arousal theory (also known as two-factor theory), the experience of emotion is the result of physiological arousal elicited by an event followed by an attribution ("cognitive label") for that arousal. The James-Lange theory (answer A) proposes that exposure to an event causes a physiological reaction that, in turn, is perceived as an emotion and that the physiological states associated with different emotions are distinct from one another. Like the Schachter-Singer theory, Cannon-Bard theory (answer C) views all emotions as involving similar physiological arousal, but it proposes that the physiological reaction and subjective emotional reaction to an event occur simultaneously and independently. There is no Lazarus-Papez theory (answer D), but Lazarus developed the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion which predicts that physiological arousal follows the cognitive appraisal of an event and Papez was among the first to link emotions to specific areas of the brain.

Which of the following describes career development as paralleling the eight psychosocial stages identified by Erikson? A. Krumboltz's social learning theory of career decision-making B. Tiedeman and O'Hara's career decision-making model C. Driver and Brousseau's career concept model D. Holland's theory of career choice

B. Tiedeman and O'Hara's career decision-making model

The WAIS-IV's Global Ability Index (GAI) is based on subtests for which of the following Indexes? A. Processing Speed and Working Memory B. Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning C. Working Memory and Perceptual Reasoning D. Verbal Comprehension and Working Memory

B. Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning

Informational influence is usually stronger than normative influence when the task is: A. unambiguous and difficult. B. ambiguous and difficult. C. unambiguous and easy. D. ambiguous and easy.

B. ambiguous and difficult. Informational influence occurs when people conform to the judgments of others because they think others know more than they do and, consequently, is stronger than normative influence when the task is ambiguous and difficult.

Research on smoking cessation interventions suggests that: A. neither counseling nor medication are effective when used alone and, therefore, should always be combined. B. counseling and medication are each effective when used alone but the combination of counseling and medication is most effective. C. counseling alone is as effective as counseling plus medication. D. medication alone is as effective as medication plus counseling.

B. counseling and medication are each effective when used alone but the combination of counseling and medication is most effective.

The validity of a job performance measure is affected by _______________ when a supervisor's knowledge of an employee's performance on the selection tests used to hire the employee 12 months ago affects how the supervisor rates the employee on the measure of job performance. A. criterion deficiency B. criterion contamination C. the illusory correlation D. the similarity bias

B. criterion contamination Criterion contamination occurs when ratings on a criterion (performance) measure are affected by factors unrelated to the individual's actual performance - for example, when a supervisor's performance ratings for an employee are affected by the rater's knowledge of how well the employee did on the selection tests that were used to hire the employee.

A number of studies have investigated the effects of parental ethnic/racial socialization on various outcomes for African American children and adolescents. With regard to ethnic identity, these studies suggest that: A. cultural socialization and preparation for bias have both been consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity. B. cultural socialization has been more consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity than preparation for bias has. C. preparation for bias has been more consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity than cultural socialization has. D. cultural socialization and preparation for bias have not been consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity.

B. cultural socialization has been more consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity than preparation for bias has. The results of these studies indicate that cultural socialization is most consistently linked to positive outcomes for children and adolescents (including the development of a positive ethnic identity), while preparation for bias is associated with both positive and negative outcomes

When visual or auditory hints or cues that are used to help students recall information are gradually reduced, this is referred to as: A. thinning. B. fading. C. shaping. D. chaining.

B. fading. Fading is sometimes confused with thinning (answer A): However, the gradual removal of visual or auditory hints or cues (prompts) is referred to as fading, while the reduction of reinforcers is referred to as thinning.

In the context of research, between-methods triangulation involves: A. including two or more qualitative methods to collect data. B. including both qualitative and quantitative methods to collect data. C. using multiple theories to interpret research results. D. collecting data at different times, in different places, or from different people.

B. including both qualitative and quantitative methods to collect data. Methodological triangulation involves using more than one method to collect data. When the methods are the same (qualitative or quantitative), this is referred to within-method triangulation (answer A); when the methods differ (qualitative and quantitative), this is referred to as between-methods triangulation (answer B). Answer C describes theoretical triangulation, and answer D describes data triangulation.

Which of the following is not included in the DSM-5 as a symptom of a panic attack? A. a sense of that one's feelings and thoughts do not belong to oneself B. increased sensitivity to environmental stimuli C. concern about losing control of one's mental functions D. tingling or other abnormal dermal sensation

B. increased sensitivity to environmental stimuli The symptoms listed in answers A, C, and D are all included in DSM-5, albeit with slightly different language - i.e., the symptoms listed in DSM-5 include depersonalization (being detached from oneself), fear of losing control or "going crazy," and paresthesias (numbness or tingling sensations). Increased sensitivity to environmental stimuli is not listed as a characteristic symptom of a panic attack.

Family-based treatment for bulimia (FB-BN) and anorexia (FB-AN) are similar, but one important difference is that FB-BN: A. focuses less on the affected adolescent's psychiatric comorbidity. B. involves greater collaboration between parents and the affected adolescent. C. focuses more on challenging the cognitive distortions that are contributing to the affected adolescent's symptoms. D. involves greater emphasis on the acquisition of radical acceptance and other distress tolerance skills by the affected adolescent.

B. involves greater collaboration between parents and the affected adolescent. FB-BN and FB-AN differ somewhat in terms of procedures. For example, FB-BN involves greater collaboration between parents and the affected adolescent in the initial stages of therapy because, in contrast to adolescents with anorexia, those with bulimia often experience their symptoms as distressing and ego-dystonic and, as a result, are more motivated to change. Answer A is incorrect because psychiatric comorbidity rates are higher for bulimia than anorexia and must be addressed to ensure that comorbid symptoms do not interfere with the treatment of bulimia. Answer C is incorrect because challenging cognitive distortions is not a focus of either FB-BN or FB-AN. Answer D is incorrect because skills are addressed in FB-BN and FB-AN, but the focus is on communication, problem-solving, and relapse prevention skills. Although tolerating distress may be addressed, it is not emphasized more in FB-BN than in FB-AN. In addition, helping clients acquire radical acceptance and other distress tolerance skills is a primary focus of dialectical behavior therapy.

A newly developed aptitude test that will be used to help make college admissions decisions was administered to 100 high school seniors whose grade point averages ranged from 3.5 to 4.0, and a split-half reliability coefficient of .75 was calculated from their scores. The aptitude test was then administered to another sample of 100 high school seniors whose grade point averages ranged from 2.0 to 4.0. The split-half reliability coefficient for the second sample of students will most likely be: A. equal to .75. B. larger than .75. C. smaller than .75. D. between about .70 and .80.

B. larger than .75. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to know that the magnitude of a test's reliability coefficient (or any correlation coefficient) is affected by several factors, including the range (heterogeneity) of scores: All other things being equal, the greater the range of scores, the larger the reliability coefficient will be. Because the second sample has a larger range of GPA scores than the first sample did, the reliability coefficient for the second sample will most likely be larger than .75.

As defined by George Kelly (1963), personal constructs are: A. essential determinants of a person's style of life. B. mental representations that are used to interpret and predict events. C. comparable to Jung's archetypes. D. comparable to Glasser's basic innate needs.

B. mental representations that are used to interpret and predict events.

A research study involves comparing the short- and long-term effects of three brief behavioral treatments for social anxiety disorder by randomly assigning clinic patients who have just received the diagnosis to one of the three treatments and assessing their symptoms before treatment and then one week, four weeks, 12 weeks, and 24 weeks following treatment. Which of the following research designs is being used in this study? A. counterbalanced B. mixed C. between groups D. within subjects

B. mixed The study described in this question has two independent variables - treatment and time: Treatment is a between subjects variable because each subject will receive only one of the three treatments, while time is a within subjects variable because all subjects will be assessed at five different times.

A hypertensive crisis may occur when foods containing tyramine are consumed while taking which of the following drugs? A. imipramine B. phenelzine C. sertraline D. fluoxetine

B. phenelzine A hypertensive crisis may result when an MAOI is taken in conjunction with foods containing tyramine or with certain drugs (e.g., antihistamines, amphetamines). Of the antidepressants listed in the answers, only phenelzine is an MAOI.

To measure the degree of association between high school diploma (yes or no) and yearly income in dollars, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients? A. Spearman rho B. point biserial C. contingency coefficient D. eta

B. point biserial

As described in the Privacy Rule of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), a therapist can deny clients access to their protected health information when they believe that access is: A. reasonably likely to cause psychological or emotional harm to the client or other person. B. reasonably likely to endanger the life or physical safety of the client or other person. C. reasonably likely to endanger the psychological or physical health of the client or other person. D. not in the best interests of the client or another person.

B. reasonably likely to endanger the life or physical safety of the client or other person. a licensed health care professional can deny an individual access to his/her protected health information, when the "professional has determined, in the exercise of professional judgment, that the access requested is reasonably likely to endanger the life or physical safety of the individual or another person." Note that, in this situation, the client has the right to have the denial reviewed by another designated licensed health care professional.

Piaget proposed that, during substage 3 (secondary circular reactions) of the sensorimotor stage, an infant: A. repeats enjoyable motor or sensory responses that involve his/her own body. B. repeats behaviors that elicit a response from a person or object. C. deliberately changes a behavior to determine the consequences of doing so. D. coordinates two or more responses to solve a problem.

B. repeats behaviors that elicit a response from a person or object. As described by Piaget, the substages of the sensorimotor stage involve different types of circular reactions, which are actions that are performed to repeat an event that first occurred by chance. Substage 3 occurs between four and eight months of age and is characterized by secondary circular reactions, which are goal-directed actions that elicit a response from a person or object. For example, an infant might repeatedly kick the mobile hanging over his crib to make it move.

Jenny J. is conducting a study for extra credit in her Psychology 101 class. She recruits a group of volunteers and divides them into two groups. Subjects assigned to Group A are asked to memorize the 10 word pairs in List 1, are then asked to memorize the 10 word pairs in List 2, and are then asked to recall as many word pairs from List 1 as they can. Subjects assigned to Group B are also asked to memorize the 10 word pairs in List 1. However, they're then asked to solve several simple addition and subtraction problems to keep them from rehearsing List 1 before they're asked to recall as many word pairs from List 1 as they can. Apparently, the purpose of Jenny's study is to investigate the effects of __________ interference. A. proactive B. retroactive C. indirect D. direct

B. retroactive

Behavioral treatments for narcolepsy are often not adequate and, consequently, are usually combined with medications. Which of the following medications is most useful for reducing daytime sleepiness, improving nighttime sleep, and reducing cataplexy? A. modafinil B. sodium oxybate C. fluoxetine D. methylphenidate

B. sodium oxybate This is a difficult question because all of the drugs listed in the answers are used to treat narcolepsy. However, only sodium oxybate has been found to be effective for reducing daytime sleepiness, improving nighttime sleep, and reducing cataplexy. Modafinal, methylphenidate, and other stimulant drugs are useful for reducing daytime sleepiness, while antidepressants (e.g., fluoxetine) are useful for reducing cataplexy.

The point at which an item characteristic curve intercepts the Y (vertical) axis provides information about which of the following? A. the ability of the item to discriminate between examinees with high and low ability B. the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing C. the item's difficulty level D. the degree to which the item correlates with other items in the test

B. the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing

The initial session of strategic family therapy consists of four stages, the first of which involves: A. describing the nature of strategic family therapy to family members. B. welcoming family members and helping members feel comfortable. C. joining with the family and accommodating to its style. D. eliciting each family member's view of the family's problems.

B. welcoming family members and helping members feel comfortable.

Based on the results of their research, Howard and his colleagues (1986) concluded that about ___% of psychotherapy clients show measurable improvements in symptoms by the 26th therapy session with an additional ___% showing measurable improvements by the 52nd session. A. 50; 10 B. 50; 25 C. 75; 10 D. 75; 20

C. 75; 10

Which of the following illustrates the actor-observer bias? A. Your boss usually ignores your good performance but constantly brags about his own good performance. B. A co-worker usually attributes good things that happen to her to her own effort but good things that happen to other people to "good luck." C. A friend tends to attribute his own behaviors to situational factors but the behaviors of other people to dispositional factors. D. Your neighbor tends to attribute her own behaviors to specific factors but the behaviors of other people to global factors.

C. A friend tends to attribute his own behaviors to situational factors but the behaviors of other people to dispositional factors. The actor-observer bias is an attributional bias and refers to the tendency to attribute our own behaviors to situational (external) factors and the behavior of other people to dispositional (internal) factors.

Which of the following best describes the prediction of goal-setting theory about the relationship between a supervisee's participation in goal setting and his or her commitment to goals? A. A supervisee's participation in setting goals is always necessary to ensure his/her acceptance of and commitment to goals. B. A supervisee's participation in setting goals is likely to affect his/her commitment to goals only when the supervisor has a participative leadership style. C. A supervisee's participation in setting goals is not always necessary for his/her commitment to goals but is important when a supervisee is not likely to accept assigned goals. D. A supervisee's participation in setting goals is not necessary for his/her commitment to goals unless the supervisee is low in need for achievement and is not likely to accept assigned goals.

C. A supervisee's participation in setting goals is not always necessary for his/her commitment to goals but is important when a supervisee is not likely to accept assigned goals.

In the context of classical conditioning, latent inhibition is due to which of the following? A. blocking B. overshadowing C. CS preexposure D. US preexposure

C. CS preexposure Latent inhibition occurs when pre-exposure to the intended CS alone on multiple occasions prior to conditioning trials reduces the likelihood that the intended CS will actually become a CS and elicit a CR after it's subsequently paired with the US. In other words, preexposure to the intended CS alone inhibits or disrupts learning the association between the intended CS and the US.

Which of the following best describes the results of research investigating the effects of treatments for childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) on children's neurocognitive functioning? A. Only chemotherapy is associated with deficits in neurocognitive functioning. B. Only cranial irradiation is associated with deficits in neurocognitive functioning. C. Chemotherapy and cranial irradiation are both associated with deficits in neurocognitive functioning. D. Neither chemotherapy nor cranial irradiation are associated with deficits in neurocognitive functioning.

C. Chemotherapy and cranial irradiation are both associated with deficits in neurocognitive functioning. Research has found that, when used to treat ALL, chemotherapy and cranial irradiation are both associated with subsequent neurocognitive deficits and problems related to academic achievement. Note that this is an example of the very difficult questions you'll encounter on the exam. Fortunately, there won't be very many of these and, when you encounter them, you won't want to spend too much time trying to determine the correct answer if you're unfamiliar with what is being asked about.

____________ conditioning is the most effective method for establishing a conditioned response. A. Backward B. Trace C. Delay D. Simultaneous

C. Delay Delay conditioning is a type of forward conditioning in which presentation of the conditioned stimulus precedes and overlaps presentation of the unconditioned stimulus. Of the methods for presenting the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli, delay conditioning produces the fastest acquisition of the conditioned response.

A patient with a brain injury who is nonagitated but confused and responds to simple, familiar commands but has difficulty retaining new information would most likely receive a __________ rating on the Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning Revised. A. Level I B. Level III C. Level V D. Level VIII

C. Level V A patient who receives a rating of Level V (Confused/Inappropriate Nonagitated) is confused but nonagitated; responds to simple, familiar commands; is not oriented to person, place, or time; has difficulty learning new information; and may wander randomly with a vague intention of going home.

Lewinsohn's (1974) model of depression attributes it to: A. a chronic boundary disturbance. B. "depressogenic" cognitions. C. a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement. D. inadequate stimulus discrimination.

C. a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement. Knowing that Lewinsohn's model of depression is known as social reinforcement theory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The model is based on the principles of operant conditioning and attributes depression to low rates of response-contingent reinforcement for social behaviors due to a lack of reinforcement in the environment and/or poor social skills.

Emiko was a client of Dr. Beck for 7 months. She ended therapy with him 4 months ago but calls to request an appointment because she's feeling very anxious and depressed and has started thinking about killing herself. For the past 3 months, Dr. Beck has been reducing his practice because he is planning to move. The best course of action is to: A. explain to Emiko that he's no longer accepting clients and provide her with a referral to a colleague. B. explain to Emiko that he's no longer accepting clients and provide her with a referral to a colleague and tell her he's willing to consult with the new therapist. C. agree to see Emiko in therapy until her crisis has passed and then provide her with a referral to a colleague if she needs additional therapy sessions. D. tell Emiko to have a friend or family member take her to the hospital if she starts feeling that she can't control the impulse to kill herself.

C. agree to see Emiko in therapy until her crisis has passed and then provide her with a referral to a colleague if she needs additional therapy sessions. This situation is not directly addressed in ethical guidelines. However, this answer is most consistent with the "spirit" of the guidelines because it's the response that best addresses Emiko's welfare (see, e.g., Standard 10.09 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle II.35 of the Canadian Code of Ethics). Answers A and B are not the best answers because Emiko seems to need immediate assistance due to her suicidal ideation, and starting therapy with a new therapist (who may not be able to see her right away) would not be adequate. And answer D is not the best answer because Emiko may or may not be capable of or motivated to follow through on the suggestion to have someone take her to the hospital if she starts feeling like she can't control the impulse to attempt suicide.

In their study comparing the effects of age-based stereotype threat and self-stereotyping on memory performance, O'Brien and Hummert (2006) found that late middle-aged adults ages 48 through 62 who had: A. a youthful (vs. older) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults. B. a youthful (vs. older) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of younger (vs. older) adults. C. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults. D. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of younger (vs. older) adults.

C. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults. This question is confusing to me, but I think they were induced to think of themselves as falling within the "older adult" age group by being told they were being compared to older adults.

Which of the following is not one of the factors identified by the Health Belief Model as contributing to the likelihood that a person will engage in behaviors that reduce the risk that he/she will develop a disorder? A. self-efficacy B. perceived barriers C. behavioral norms D. cues to action

C. behavioral norms The Health Belief Model identifies the following factors as contributors to the likelihood that a person will engage in behaviors that reduce the risk for developing a disorder: perceived susceptibility to the disorder, perceived severity of the consequences of having the disorder, perceived benefits of taking action, perceived barriers to taking action, self-efficacy, and cues to action.

During your second session, Anita reveals that she's been seeing another therapist for three months but started seeing you because she's concerned about his behavior. She tells you that, in her last few sessions with that therapist, he touched her inappropriately and said he was doing so to help her deal with her fear of physical and sexual intimacy. As an ethical psychologist, you should: A. convince Anita to terminate therapy with the other therapist immediately and then help her work through her feelings about what has happened. B. encourage Anita to terminate therapy with the other therapist immediately and file a complaint against him with the ethics committee. C. explain to Anita the seriousness of her allegation and discuss the options she has in this situation. D. tell Anita you're ethically required to file a complaint against the other therapist because of the seriousness of her allegation.

C. explain to Anita the seriousness of her allegation and discuss the options she has in this situation. Of the answers given, this is the best one because it respects Anita's autonomy (i.e., it doesn't involve convincing or encouraging her to do something) and it does not violate the ethical requirement to address ethical violations by colleagues but to do so in a way that does not violate the client's confidentiality.

Conduction aphasia involves: A. nonfluent (slow, halting) speech, relatively intact comprehension, some impairment in repetition and naming. B. fluent (normal) speech, relatively intact comprehension, intact repetition, and impaired naming. C. fluent (but paraphasic) speech, relatively intact comprehension, poor word repetition, and impaired naming. D. fluent (but paraphasic) speech, impaired comprehension, and severely impaired word repetition and naming.

C. fluent (but paraphasic) speech, relatively intact comprehension, poor word repetition, and impaired naming. Conduction aphasia is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus which connects Wernicke's area with Broca's area and produces the symptoms listed in this answer.

A person whose primary symptom is psychogenic nonepileptic seizures (PNES) is most likely to receive which of the following diagnoses? A. dissociative fugue B. phencyclidine use disorder C. functional neurological symptom disorder D. obstructive sleep apnea

C. functional neurological symptom disorder

Providing adults with training on a demanding working memory task is likely to: A. have no effect on their fluid intelligence. B. improve their fluid intelligence only when the working memory task is similar in format to the fluid intelligence task. C. improve their fluid intelligence even when the working memory task is not similar in format to the fluid intelligence task. D. improve their fluid intelligence whether or not the working memory task is similar in format to the fluid intelligence task but only for individuals with initially low levels of fluid intelligence.

C. improve their fluid intelligence even when the working memory task is not similar in format to the fluid intelligence task. ..training on a demanding working memory task produced increases in fluid intelligence even though the working memory task was entirely different from the fluid intelligence task. This is a very difficult question, but you may have been able to identify the correct answer as long as you know that performance on working memory tasks correlates with performance on fluid intelligence tasks and that tasks designed to measure working memory and fluid intelligence may require the same underlying abilities but are not likely to be the same in terms of format.

The studies suggest that children exhibit the greatest number of internalizing and externalizing behaviors and other problems when their divorced parents remarry when the children are: A. between five and eight years old. B. between nine and 12 years old. C. in early adolescence. D. in late adolescence.

C. in early adolescence.

For members of cultural groups that emphasize high-context communication: A. knowledge is transferable and nonverbal messages are most important. B. knowledge is transferable and verbal messages are most important. C. knowledge is situational and nonverbal messages are most important. D. knowledge is situational and verbal messages are most important.

C. knowledge is situational and nonverbal messages are most important. for members of cultural groups that emphasize high-context communication, knowledge depends largely on the nature of the situation and communication relies primarily on nonverbal messages. In contrast, for members of cultural groups that emphasize low-context communication, knowledge depends less on the situation and, instead, is viewed as something that is easily transferred from one person to another. In addition, communication relies primarily on verbal messages. (REMEMBER: high-context = situational)

Leader-member exchange (LMX) theory is based on the assumption that: A. leaders who ensure that each subordinate's job satisfies the subordinate's prepotent needs are the most effective leaders. B. leaders who adopt a relations-oriented (participative) leadership style are the most effective leaders. C. leaders adopt different behaviors with different subordinates and these behaviors depend on the quality of the leader-subordinate relationship. D. leaders adopt different behaviors with different subordinates and these behaviors are determined by the subordinate's willingness to be a "team player."

C. leaders adopt different behaviors with different subordinates and these behaviors depend on the quality of the leader-subordinate relationship.

Which of the following areas of the brain has been identified as "ground zero" for Alzheimer's disease? A. amygdala B. thalamus C. locus coeruleus D. corpus callosum

C. locus coeruleus

Rods and cones are the two types of photoreceptors in the eye. The cones are responsible for all of the following except: A. color vision. B. vision in bright light. C. peripheral vision. D. visual acuity.

C. peripheral vision.

Dyslexia is the most common reading disorder and, of the types of dyslexia, _______ is most common. A. surface dyslexia B. deep dyslexia C. phonological dyslexia D. pure alexia

C. phonological dyslexia

A psychotherapist who has an emic perspective: A. focuses on changing characteristics of the client to better fit environmental demands. B. focuses on changing the client's environment to better fit the client's needs. C. recognizes the differences between cultural groups. D. tends to overlook important cultural differences.

C. recognizes the differences between cultural groups.

Ten-year-old Tyler was brought to therapy by his mother at the recommendation of the school counselor who's concerned about the recent decline in Tyler's grades and increasing oppositional behavior toward his teachers. After Tyler's fourth therapy session, you receive a letter from the counselor asking about the progress of Tyler's therapy. The counselor's letter is accompanied by an authorization to release information signed by Tyler's mother. To be consistent with ethical requirements, you should: A. send the requested information to the counselor. B. send the requested information to the counselor only if she's a licensed mental health professional. C. send the counselor only information you believe is relevant to Tyler's problems at school. D. discuss this issue with Tyler and his mother before you send any information to the counselor.

C. send the counselor only information you believe is relevant to Tyler's problems at school. This answer is most consistent with Standard 4.04(a) of the APA's Ethics Code, which requires psychologists to "include in written and oral reports and consultations only information germane to the purpose for which the communication is made." It's also consistent with the requirements of Standards I.37 and I.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Because Tyler's mother has signed an authorization to release information, it would be acceptable to provide the counselor with information relevant to Tyler's problems at school.

Risperidone and other second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic drugs are: A. serotonin agonists and dopamine antagonists. B. serotonin antagonists and dopamine agonists. C. serotonin and dopamine antagonists. D. serotonin and dopamine agonists.

C. serotonin and dopamine antagonists. -both block serotonin AND dopamine receptors

A concurrent validity study finds that a selection test has the same validity coefficient for men and women and that men and women obtained similar job performance scores. However, women obtained significantly lower scores than men on the selection test. Which of the following terms is used to describe this situation? A. criterion deficiency B. measurement error C. test unfairness D. divergent validity

C. test unfairness test unfairness occurs when a criterion-related validity coefficient is the same for two groups and the two groups achieve similar scores on the criterion but their scores on the predictor are significantly different.

Research suggests that ____________ is most useful for understanding the "testing effect." A. interference theory B. the encoding specificity principle C. the mediator effectiveness hypothesis D. the levels of processing model

C. the mediator effectiveness hypothesis The "testing effect" is the increased ability to remember information when learning not only includes studying but also repeated opportunities to retrieve the information. According to M. A. Pyc and K. A. Rawson's mediator effectiveness hypothesis, "testing improves memory by supporting the use of more-effective mediators during encoding" and the mediators that are "generated during testing ... are more likely to be subsequently retrieved and decoded, [thereby] increasing recall of target responses"

When using competency modeling, the process of identifying core competencies begins with specifying: A. which employees will act as models and trainers. B. the job's most important duties and tasks. C. the organization's primary values, goals, and strategies. D. the skills and behaviors that are required for successful job performance.

C. the organization's primary values, goals, and strategies. Competency modeling is similar to job analysis but focuses on the core competencies that are required to successfully perform all jobs or a subset of jobs within an organization and are linked to the organization's values, goals and strategies. Therefore, specifying these values, goals, and strategies is an initial step when using competency modeling.

Your new client's primary symptoms are aggressive outbursts that have been recurrent and impulsive but have not caused damage or destruction of property or physical injury to other people or animals. To meet the diagnostic criteria for a DSM-5 diagnosis of intermittent explosive disorder, the client's aggressive outbursts must have occurred, on average, at least _____ weekly for at least _____ months. A. twice; four B. once; six C. twice; three D. once; four

C. twice; three

Damage to the frontal lobe is least likely to have an adverse effect on which of the following? A. motivation B. judgment C. memory D. IQ

D. IQ Frontal lobe damage often has an adverse effect on motivation, judgment, and memory but not on IQ test scores. One explanation for this is that frontal lobe damage seems to have a negative impact on divergent thinking (creative process of generating new ideas) but not on convergent thinking (finding concrete/familiar solutions to problems) which is what is measured by standard IQ tests

You have developed a new selection test for your client, the Acme Company, to help the company make better hiring decisions. After administering the test to samples of job applicants and current employees, you decide to raise the test's cutoff score. Doing so will have which of the following effects? A. It will increase the number of false negatives and true positives. B. It will decrease the number of false negatives and false positives. C. It will increase the number of true positives and decrease the number of false negatives. D. It will decrease the number of false positives and increase the number of true negatives.

D. It will decrease the number of false positives and increase the number of true negatives. -higher cutoff --> fewer applicants hired -number of false positives and true positives will BOTH be lower (less people hired overall) -number of false negatives and true negatives will BOTH be higher

Which of the following best describes ethical requirements about denying tenure or promotion to employees who have made or are the subjects of an ethics complaint? A. Psychologists may deny tenure or promotion to an employee who is the complainant or respondent in a pending ethics complaint. B. Psychologists may deny tenure or promotion to an employee who is the respondent (but not the complainant) in a pending ethics complaint. C. Psychologists may deny tenure or promotion to an employee who is the respondent (but not the complainant) in a pending ethics complaint as long as they reconsider the tenure or promotion decision if the employee is acquitted. D. Psychologists may not deny tenure or promotion to an employee solely because that employee is the complainant or respondent in a pending ethics complaint.

D. Psychologists may not deny tenure or promotion to an employee solely because that employee is the complainant or respondent in a pending ethics complaint.

Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding in-person solicitation of business? A. Psychologists must never engage in in-person solicitation of business. B. Psychologists must never engage in uninvited in-person solicitation of business. C. Psychologists must not engage in in-person solicitation of business from current therapy clients who are vulnerable to undue influence. D. Psychologists must not engage in uninvited in-person solicitation of business from current or potential therapy clients or others who are vulnerable to undue influence.

D. Psychologists must not engage in uninvited in-person solicitation of business from current or potential therapy clients or others who are vulnerable to undue influence. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 5.06 of the APA's Ethics Code. It prohibits psychologists from engaging "in uninvited in-person solicitation of business from actual or potential therapy clients/patients or other persons who because of their particular circumstances are vulnerable to undue influence." This answer is also consistent with Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which prohibits psychologists from exploiting "any relationship established as a psychologist to further personal, political, or business interests at the expense of the dignity or well-being of their primary clients, contract examinees, research participants, students, trainees, employers, or others."

The best conclusion about the results of research on the use of pharmacological treatments for cocaine addiction (substance use disorder in the DSM-5) is which of the following? A. The studies have confirmed that pharmacological treatment, especially with an antidepressant or mood stabilizer, is the treatment-of-choice. B. The studies have confirmed that pharmacological treatment is an effective approach as long as the choice of medications is tailored to an individual patient's circumstances. C. The studies have found that pharmacological and psychosocial treatments are equally effective for this disorder and that combining them does not produce an increase in effectiveness. D. The studies have not yet identified a pharmacological treatment that is consistently effective for this disorder.

D. The studies have not yet identified a pharmacological treatment that is consistently effective for this disorder.

There's evidence that, for some patients, depressive symptoms can be alleviated by either a placebo or an antidepressant and that a placebo and antidepressants affect the same area of the brain. More specifically, the research has found that: A. a placebo and antidepressants both produce increased activity in the prefrontal cortex. B. a placebo and antidepressants both produce decreased activity in the prefrontal cortex. C. a placebo produces decreased activity in the prefrontal cortex while antidepressants produce increased activity. D. a placebo produces increased activity in the prefrontal cortex while antidepressants produce decreased activity.

D. a placebo produces increased activity in the prefrontal cortex while antidepressants produce decreased activity. Patients who had a positive response to the placebo exhibited increased activity in the prefrontal cortex, while those who had a positive response to an antidepressant (fluoxetine or venlafaxine) exhibited decreased activity in the prefrontal cortex.

McGuire's (1973) attitude inoculation hypothesis addresses the usefulness of __________ for increasing resistance to persuasion. A. forewarning B. reactance C. a supportive defense D. a refutational defense

D. a refutational defense McGuire's attitude inoculation hypothesis is based on the medical model of immunization and proposes that an effective way to increase resistance to persuasion is to "immunize" people against attempts to change their attitudes. This involves providing them with weak arguments against their current attitudes along with counterarguments that refute those arguments (i.e., a refutational defense) before they're exposed to a persuasive message.

As described by Kahneman and Tversky (1974), the representativeness heuristic is most similar to which of the following? A. illusory correlation B. counterfactual thinking C. confirmation bias D. base rate fallacy

D. base rate fallacy The base rate fallacy (also known as base rate neglect) is the tendency to ignore or underuse base rate information and to rely, instead, on irrelevant information. Of the cognitive errors and biases listed in the answers, it's most similar to the representativeness heuristic. When relying on this heuristic to make judgments about the likelihood of an event, a person ignores base rates and other important information and focuses, instead, on the extent to which the event resembles a typical case. Some experts believe the base rate fallacy is the result of relying on the representativeness heuristic.

It's common for children of immigrants to act as language brokers. Research on the effects of language brokering has found that it has: A. positive effects on the child but negative effects on the parent-child relationship. B. negative effects on the child but positive effects on the parent-child relationship. C. positive effects on the child and the parent-child relationship. D. both positive and negative effects on the child and the parent-child relationship.

D. both positive and negative effects on the child and the parent-child relationship. Studies on the effects of language brokering have produced mixed results. For example, with regard to the parent-child relationship, language brokering has been linked to a greater sense of connection between the child and his/her parents but also to role reversals within the family that force the parents to become overly dependent on the child

When using aversive counterconditioning to treat a client's fetishistic disorder, the fetish object is the: A. primary reinforcer. B. secondary reinforcer. C. unconditioned stimulus. D. conditioned stimulus.

D. conditioned stimulus. When using aversive counterconditioning to treat a fetishistic disorder, the fetish object is the conditioned stimulus, and presentation of the fetish object is paired with presentation of an unconditioned stimulus (e.g., electric shock) that naturally elicits fear or other undesirable response. As a result, the sexual arousal elicited by the fetish object is replaced with fear or other undesirable response. *fetish object has previously been conditioned; UCS refers to things that automatically produce a response without conditioning hx

Your current client, Maggie M., invites you to a party she's having to celebrate the completion of her dissertation. As an ethical psychologist, you: A. refuse the invitation and explain to Maggie why it would be unethical for you to attend her party. B. accept the invitation but make sure Maggie understands that you normally don't attend social events with clients but will attend this party because it's a special occasion. C. discuss the potential conflicts that could arise with Maggie and ways to avoid them before accepting her invitation. D. consider the nature of your therapeutic relationship with Maggie and the potential effect on her of your acceptance or refusal of her invitation before deciding whether or not to accept the invitation.

D. consider the nature of your therapeutic relationship with Maggie and the potential effect on her of your acceptance or refusal of her invitation before deciding whether or not to accept the invitation. Standard 3.05 of the APA's Ethics Code prohibits multiple relationships that "could be reasonably expected to impair the psychologist's objectivity, competence, or effectiveness ... or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person." And Standard III.30 of the Canadian Code of Ethics requires psychologists to "avoid dual relationships ... that are not justified by the nature of the activity, by cultural or geographic factors, or where there is a lack of reasonably accessible alternatives." Neither document prohibits all types of multiple relationships; and, in the situation described in this question, your first action would be to consider the nature of your therapeutic relationship with Maggie and the possible effects on that relationship of accepting or refusing her invitation. Discussing potential conflicts with Maggie (answer C) isn't a better answer because it implies that you would accept her invitation regardless of the outcome of that discussion.

Aversion therapy makes use of which of the following? A. positive reinforcement B. negative reinforcement C. extinction D. counterconditioning

D. counterconditioning Aversion therapy is an application of counterconditioning or, more specifically, aversive counterconditioning. When using this technique, stimuli associated with an undesirable behavior that produces a reinforcing response (e.g., the pleasant sensations resulting from ingestion of alcohol) are paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits an unpleasant response (e.g., pain). As a result, stimuli associated with the undesirable behavior become conditioned stimuli that elicit the unpleasant response rather than the reinforcing response.

The last step in Meichenbaum's self-instructional training is: A. application and follow-through. B. evaluation of self-instructions. C. inductive instruction. D. covert self-instruction.

D. covert self-instruction. It consists of five steps: cognitive modeling, overt external guidance, overt self-guidance, faded overt self-guidance, and covert self-instruction. (Answer A is the final step in stress inoculation training and answers B and C are "made-up" terms that aren't relevant to self-instructional training.)

Prader-Willi syndrome is most often caused by: A. an extra chromosome 21. B. an extra chromosome 15. C. deletion of a segment on maternal chromosome 21. D. deletion of a segment on paternal chromosome 15.

D. deletion of a segment on paternal chromosome 15. Knowing that Prader-Willi syndrome is due to a chromosomal deletion would have helped you eliminate answers A and B, and knowing that chromosome 21 is most associated with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) would have helped you eliminate answer C. Prader-Willi syndrome is most often the result of the deletion of a segment on paternal chromosome 15, while Angelman syndrome is usually the result of the deletion of a segment on maternal chromosome 15.

The first-line treatment for female orgasmic disorder (FOD) is generally considered to be which of the following? A. orgasmic reconditioning B. relaxation training C. Kegel exercises D. directed masturbation

D. directed masturbation Behavioral and cognitive-behavioral techniques have been found effective for treating FOD. Of these, directed masturbation is the most empirically supported technique (especially for lifelong FOD) and is considered to be the first-line treatment for this disorder.

As described by Helms (1995), each stage of White racial identity development involves a different information processing strategy (IPS). For example, the IPS for the __________ status is suppression of information and ambivalence. A. contact B. pseudoindependence C. immersion/emersion D. disintegration

D. disintegration Disintegration is the second status in this model, and its IPS is suppression of information and ambivalence.

During his third therapy session, a client tells his therapist that he's HIV positive. He also says that he engaged in unsafe sex with three partners after receiving his test results 18 months ago but is no longer doing so. The 1976 Tarasoff decision: A. applies in this situation and the therapist must file a report with the local health department or other appropriate agency. B. applies in this situation and the therapist should contact the three partners of the client to notify them of the client's HIV status. C. applies in this situation and the appropriate actions for the therapist and client depend on state or provincial laws. D. does not apply in this situation and the appropriate actions for the therapist and client depend on state or provincial laws.

D. does not apply in this situation and the appropriate actions for the therapist and client depend on state or provincial laws.

The tendency to believe that the personal attitudes of a member of a group are similar to the personal attitudes of all members of the group is referred to as the: A. fundamental attribution error. B. false consensus error. C. ultimate attribution error. D. group attribution error.

D. group attribution error. For the exam you want to be sure you know the difference between the ultimate attribution error and the group attribution error, which are sometimes confused because they both address attributions made about groups rather than individuals. The ultimate attribution error occurs when the negative behaviors of members of one's own in-group are attributed to situational factors while the negative behaviors of members of out-groups are attributed to dispositional factors, and vice versa for positive behaviors. The group attribution error occurs when people believe that an individual group member's beliefs, attitudes, and preferences are the same as those of all members of the group. Note that the false consensus error (answer B) is actually known as the false consensus effect and is not an attributional bias. It refers to the tendency to overestimate the extent to which other people share our opinions, values, and beliefs.

Overcorrection consists of restitution and positive practice, which can be used alone or together. Positive practice is most similar to which of the following? A. chaining B. negative punishment C. discrimination training D. habit reversal training

D. habit reversal training Positive practice involves having the individual practice appropriate behaviors that are alternatives to his or her inappropriate behavior. Habit reversal training similarly involves eliminating an undesirable behavior by having the individual practice an alternative, usually incompatible, behavior.

According to the transtheoretical model, which of the following accurately matches a stage of change with an optimal process of change? A. precontemplation: self-reevaluation B. contemplation: stimulus control C. action: self-liberation D. maintenance: counterconditioning

D. maintenance: counterconditioning According to this model, consciousness raising is an optimal strategy for clients in the precontemplation stage and contemplation stages, stimulus control is optimal for clients in the action or maintenance stage, self-liberation is optimal for clients in the preparation stage, and counterconditioning is another optimal intervention for clients in the action or maintenance stage.

During your fifth session with Bonnie, she tells you that her boyfriend, Bruno, is very angry with you because he thinks you're trying to get her to leave him and he's threatening to "beat you up." You know from what Bonnie has told you in previous sessions that Bruno is a violent person and has spent time in jail for physical assault more than once. To be consistent with ethical requirements, you: A. should continue seeing Bonnie in therapy but contact the police about Bruno's threat. B. should suggest that Bonnie bring her boyfriend with her to the next therapy session. C. may terminate therapy with Bonnie but must provide her with pretermination counseling and referrals before doing so. D. may terminate therapy with Bonnie with or without providing her with pretermination counseling and referrals.

D. may terminate therapy with Bonnie with or without providing her with pretermination counseling and referrals.

According to Selman (1980), children ages 3 to 6 are most likely to say that friends are children who: A. do nice things for them. B. do what they want them to do. C. like the same things they do. D. play with or live near them.

D. play with or live near them.

According to Lazarus's (1991) cognitive appraisal theory, __________ appraisal occurs when a person determines what resources he or she has to cope with a stressful event. A. central B. peripheral C. primary D. secondary

D. secondary Cognitive appraisal theory distinguishes between three types of appraisal: primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and reappraisal. It proposes that the immediate response to an external event is primary appraisal, which involves determining if the event is relevant and, if so, whether it's nonstressful or stressful. If the event is stressful, the person then engages in secondary appraisal, which involves determining what personal and environmental resources he/she has to help cope with the event.

Penfield (1974) found that electrical stimulation of certain areas of the __________ lobes elicited memories of events that were so vivid that patients felt they were actually experiencing the events. A. frontal B. occipital C. parietal D. temporal

D. temporal

Research on the serial position effect suggests that the primacy effect is due to: A. latent learning. B. retroactive interference. C. continued rehearsal of information in working memory. D. transfer of information from short- to long-term memory.

D. transfer of information from short- to long-term memory. Research on the serial position effect suggests that the ability to recall items from the beginning of the list of words (primacy effect) is due to the transfer of the words from short- to long-term memory, while the ability to recall items from the end of the list (recency effect) is due to the fact that the words are still present in short-term memory.

A person who obtains the highest score on the realistic scale of Holland's Self-Directed Search would most likely say he/she likes to: A. follow set procedures and routines. B. lead and persuade people. C. work with ideas and solve problems. D. work with tools and machinery.

D. work with tools and machinery. People who obtain the highest score on Holland's realistic scale prefer to work with things (e.g., tools and machinery) rather than people. People who obtain the highest score on the conventional scale prefer jobs that involve following set procedures and routines (answer A). Those who obtain the highest score on the enterprising scale like to lead and persuade people (answer B), and those who obtain the highest score on the investigative scale prefer to work with ideas and solve problems (answer C).