Evolution p. 1 (hard q's)

10) Which pair of scientists below would probably have agreed with the process that is depicted by this tree? A) Cuvier and Lamarck B) Lamarck and Wallace C) Aristotle and Lyell D) Wallace and Linnaeus

B) Lamarck and Wallace

27) If Darwin had been aware of genes and their typical mode of transmission to subsequent generations, with which statement would he most likely have been in agreement? A) If natural selection can change gene frequency in a population over generations, given enough time and genetic diversity, then natural selection can cause sufficient genetic change to produce new species from old ones. B) If an organism's somatic cell genes change during its lifetime, making it more fit, then it will be able to pass these genes on to its offspring. C) If an organism acquires new genes by engulfing, or being infected by, another organism, then a new genetic species will result. D) A single mutation in a single gene in a single gamete, if inherited by future generations, will produce a new species.

A) If natural selection can change gene frequency in a population over generations, given enough time and genetic diversity, then natural selection can cause sufficient genetic change to produce new species from old ones.

30) Mutation is the only evolutionary mechanism that _____. A) does little to change allele frequencies B) is more important in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes C) happens in all populations D) has no effect on genetic variation

A) does little to change allele frequencies

41) Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones, which develop from similar embryonic tissues. These structural similarities are an example of _____. A) homology B) convergent evolution C) the evolution of common structure as a result of common function D) the evolution of similar appearance as a result of common function

A) homology

(refer to paragraph about junco bird on UCSD campus) Given this information, which of the following evolutionary mechanisms do you think is most likely responsible for the difference between the UCSD and mountain populations? A) natural selection B) genetic drift C) gene flow D) mutation

A) natural selection

6) When Cuvier considered the fossils found in the vicinity of Paris, he concluded that the extinction of species _____. A) occurs, but that there is no evolution B) and the evolution of species both occur C) and the evolution of species do not occur D) does not occur, but evolution does occur

A) occurs, but that there is no evolution

42) The inability of organisms to evolve anything that could be an advantage reflects _____. A) the limits of historical constraints B) the inability to compromise C) the consequences of random mutations D) the consequences of inbreeding

A) the limits of historical constraints

36) Researchers discovered that a new strain of bacteria that cause tuberculosis (M. tuberculosis) taken from a dead patient has a point mutation in the rpoB gene that codes for part of the RNA polymerase enzyme. This mutant form of RNA polymerase does not function as well as the more common form of RNA polymerase. A commonly used antibiotic called rifampin does not affect the mutant rpoB bacteria. A researcher mixes M. tuberculosis with and without the rpoB mutation and adds the bacteria to cell cultures. Half the cell cultures contain only standard nutrients, while the other half of the cell cultures contain rifampin and the standard nutrients. After many cell generations, the researcher finds that _____. A) very few M. tuberculosis in the standard nutrient cell cultures carry the rpoB gene mutation, but almost all of the M. tuberculosis in the cell cultures with rifampin carry the rpoB mutation B) almost all M. tuberculosis in the standard nutrient cell cultures carry the rpoB gene mutation, but very few of the M. tuberculosis in the cell cultures with rifampin carry the rpoB mutation C) very few M. tuberculosis in any of the cell cultures carry the rpoB gene mutation D) almost all of the M. tuberculosis in both types of cell cultures carry the rpoB mutation

A) very few M. tuberculosis in the standard nutrient cell cultures carry the rpoB gene mutation, but almost all of the M. tuberculosis in the cell cultures with rifampin carry the rpoB mutation

5) Rank the following one-base point mutations (from most likely to least likely) with respect to their likelihood of affecting the structure of the corresponding polypeptide. 1. insertion mutation deep within an intron 2. substitution mutation at the third position of an exonic codon 3. substitution mutation at the second position of an exonic codon 4. deletion mutation within the first exon of the gene A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 4, 3, 2, 1 C) 2, 1, 4, 3 D) 3, 1, 4, 2

B) 4,3,2,1

3) Which statement about the beak size of finches on the island of Daphne Major during prolonged drought is true? A) Each bird evolved a deeper, stronger beak as the drought persisted. B) Each bird's survival was strongly influenced by the depth and strength of its beak as the drought persisted. C) Each bird that survived the drought produced only offspring with deeper, stronger beaks than seen in the previous generation. D) The frequency of the strong-beak alleles increased in each bird as the drought persisted.

B) Each bird's survival was strongly influenced by the depth and strength of its beak as the drought persisted.

7) In the mid-1900s, the Soviet geneticist Lysenko believed that his winter wheat plants, exposed to increasingly colder temperatures, would eventually give rise to more cold-tolerant winter wheat. Lysenko's attempts in this regard were most in agreement with the ideas of _____. A) Cuvier B) Lamarck C) Darwin D) Lyell

B) Lamarck

49) The greatest number of endemic species is expected in environments that are _____. A) easily reached and ecologically diverse B) isolated and show little ecological diversity C) isolated and ecologically diverse D) easily reached and show little ecological diversity

B) isolated and show little ecological diversity

3) With what other idea of his time was Cuvier's theory of catastrophism most in conflict? A) the scala naturae B) the fixity of species C) island biogeography D) uniformitarianism

D) uniformitarianism

52) Arrange the following in order from most general to most specific. 1. natural selection 2. microevolution 3. intrasexual selection 4. evolution 5. sexual selection A) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 B) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 C) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 D) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3

C) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3

32) Cotton-topped tamarins are small primates with tufts of long white hair on their heads. While studying these creatures, you notice that males with longer hair get more opportunities to mate and father more offspring. To test the hypothesis that having longer hair is adaptive in these males, you should _____. A) test whether other traits in these males are also adaptive B) look for evidence of hair in ancestors of tamarins C) determine if hair length is heritable D) test whether males with shaved heads are still able to mate

C) determine if hair length is heritable

48) A biologist doing a long-term study on a wild spider population observes increased variation in silk thickness. Which of the following could the spider population be experiencing? A) directional selection B) stabilizing selection C) disruptive selection D) genetic drift

C) disruptive selection

30) In a hypothetical environment, fishes called pike-cichlids are visual predators of large, adult algae-eating fish (in other words, they locate their prey by sight). The population of algae-eaters experiences predatory pressure from pike-cichlids. Which of the following is least likely to result in the algae-eater population in future generations? A) selection for drab coloration of the algae-eaters B) selection for nocturnal algae-eaters (active only at night) C) selection for larger female algae-eaters, bearing broods composed of more, and larger, young D) selection for algae-eaters that become sexually mature at smaller overall body sizes

C) selection for larger female algae-eaters, bearing broods composed of more, and larger, young

4) Which statement about variation is true? A) All phenotypic variation is the result of genotypic variation. B) All genetic variation produces phenotypic variation. C) All nucleotide variability results in neutral variation. D) All new alleles are the result of nucleotide variability.

D) All new alleles are the result of nucleotide variability.

(refer to paragraph about HIV) 8) Every HIV particle contains two RNA molecules. If two genes from one RNA molecule become detached and then, as a unit, get attached to one end of the other RNA molecule within a single HIV particle, which of these is true? A) There are now fewer genes within the viral particle. B) There are now more genes within the viral particle. C) A point substitution mutation has occurred in the retroviral genome. D) One of the RNA molecules has experienced gene duplication as the result of translocation.

D) One of the RNA molecules has experienced gene duplication as the result of translocation.

57) Logically, which of these should cast the most doubt on the relationships depicted by an evolutionary tree? A) Some of the organisms depicted by the tree had lived in different habitats. B) The skeletal remains of the organisms depicted by the tree were incomplete (in other words, some bones were missing). C) Transitional fossils had not been found. D) Relationships between DNA sequences among the species did not match relationships between skeletal patterns.

D) Relationships between DNA sequences among the species did not match relationships between skeletal patterns.

In those parts of equatorial Africa where the malaria parasite is most common, the sickle-cell allele constitutes 20% of the β hemoglobin alleles in the human gene pool. 59) In the United States, the parasite that causes malaria is not present, but African-Americans whose ancestors were from equatorial Africa are present. What should be happening to the sickle-cell allele in the United States, and what should be happening to it in equatorial Africa? A) stabilizing selection; disruptive selection B) disruptive selection; stabilizing selection C) directional selection; disruptive selection D) directional selection; stabilizing selection

D) directional selection; stabilizing selection

35) Which of the following, if discovered, could refute our current understanding of the pattern of evolution? A) no fossils of soft-bodied animals B) a modern bird having reptile-like scales on its legs C) radioactive dating of rocks showing that rocks closer to the Earth's surface are younger than lower rock strata D) diverse fossils of mammals in Precambrian rock

D) diverse fossils of mammals in Precambrian rock

20) Darwin and Wallace were the first to propose _____. A) that evolution occurs B) a mechanism for how evolution occurs C) that Earth is older than a few thousand years D) natural selection as the mechanism of evolution

D) natural selection as the mechanism of evolution

14) For biologists studying a large flatworm population in the lab, which Hardy-Weinberg condition is most difficult to meet? A) no selection B) no genetic drift C) no gene flow D) no mutation

D) no mutation

46) Pseudogenes are _____. A) composed of RNA, rather than DNA B) the same things as introns C) unrelated genes that code for the same gene product D) nonfunctional vestigial genes

D) nonfunctional vestigial genes

HIV's genome of RNA includes the code for reverse transcriptase (RT), an enzyme that acts early in infection to synthesize a DNA genome off of an RNA template. The HIV genome also codes for protease (PR), an enzyme that acts later in infection by cutting long viral polyproteins into smaller, functional proteins. Both RT and PR represent potential targets for antiretroviral drugs. Drugs called nucleoside analogs (NA) act against RT, whereas drugs called protease inhibitors (PI) act against PR. 7) Which of the following represents the treatment option most likely to avoid the evolution of drug-resistant HIV (assuming no drug interactions or side effects)? A) using a series of NAs, one at a time, and changed about once a week B) using a single PI, but slowly increasing the dosage over the course of a week C) using high doses of NA and a PI at the same time for a period not to exceed one day D) using moderate doses of NA and two different PIs at the same time for several months

D) using moderate doses of NA and two different PIs at the same time for several months