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A colectomy is scheduled for a 38-year-old woman with ulcerative colitis. The nurse should plan to include what prescribed measure in the preoperative preparation of this patient? A. Instruction on irrigating a colostomy B. Administration of a cleansing enema C. A high-fiber diet the day before surgery D. Administration of IV antibiotics for bowel preparation

B Preoperative preparation for bowel surgery typically includes bowel cleansing with antibiotics, such as oral neomycin and cleansing enemas, including Fleet enemas. Instructions to irrigate the colostomy will be done postoperatively. Oral antibiotics are given preoperatively, and an IV antibiotic may be used in the OR. A clear liquid diet will be used the day before surgery with the bowel cleansing.

The nurse would assess a patient with complaints of chest pain for which clinical manifestations associated with a myocardial infarction (MI) (select all that apply.)? A. Flushing B. Ashen skin C. Diaphoresis D. Nausea and vomiting E. S3 or S4 heart sounds

B C D E During the initial phase of an MI, catecholamines are released from the ischemic myocardial cells, causing increased sympathetic nervous system stimulation. This results in the release of glycogen, diaphoresis, and vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels. The patient's skin may be ashen, cool, and clammy (not flushed) as a result of this response. Nausea and vomiting may result from reflex stimulation of the vomiting center by severe pain. Ventricular dysfunction resulting from the MI may lead to the presence of the abnormal S3 and S4 heart sounds.

The nurse is providing teaching to a patient recovering from a myocardial infarction. How should resumption of sexual activity be discussed? A. Delegated to the primary care provider B. Discussed along with other physical activities C. Avoided because it is embarrassing to the patient D. Accomplished by providing the patient with written material

B. Although some nurses may not feel comfortable discussing sexual activity with patients, it is a necessary component of patient teaching. It is helpful to consider sex as a physical activity and to discuss or explore feelings in this area when other physical activities are discussed. Although providing the patient with written material is appropriate, it should not replace a verbal dialogue that can address the individual patient's questions and concerns.

The nurse prepares a discharge teaching plan for a 44-yr-old male patient who has recently been diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which risk factor should the nurse plan to focus on during the teaching session? A. Type A personality B. Elevated serum lipids C. Family cardiac history D. Hyperhomocysteinemia

B. Dyslipidemia is one of the four major modifiable risk factors for CAD. The other major modifiable risk factors are hypertension, tobacco use, and physical inactivity. Research findings related to psychologic states (i.e., type A personality) as a risk factor for coronary artery disease have been inconsistent. Family history is a nonmodifiable risk factor. High homocysteine levels have been linked to an increased risk for CAD.

Which patient is at greatest risk for sudden cardiac death (SCD)? A. A 42-yr-old white woman with hypertension and dyslipidemia B. A 52-yr-old African American man with left ventricular failure C. A 62-yr-old obese man with diabetes mellitus and high cholesterol D. A 72-yr-old Native American woman with a family history of heart disease

B. Patients with left ventricular dysfunction (ejection fraction < 30%) and ventricular dysrhythmias after MI are at greatest risk for sudden cardiac death (SCD). Other risk factors for SCD include (1) male gender (especially African American men), (2) family history of premature atherosclerosis, (3) tobacco use, (4) diabetes mellitus, (5) hypercholesterolemia, (6) hypertension, and (7) cardiomyopathy.

The nurse is examining the electrocardiogram (ECG) of a patient just admitted with a suspected MI. Which ECG change is most indicative of prolonged or complete coronary occlusion? A. Sinus tachycardia B. Pathologic Q wave C. Fibrillatory P waves D. Prolonged PR interval

B. The presence of a pathologic Q wave, as often accompanies STEMI, is indicative of complete coronary occlusion. Sinus tachycardia, fibrillatory P waves (e.g., atrial fibrillation), or a prolonged PR interval (first-degree heart block) are not direct indicators of extensive occlusion.

The nurse admits a 73-yr-old male patient with dementia for treatment of uncontrolled hypertension. The nurse will closely monitor for hypokalemia if the patient receives which medication? A. Clonidine (Catapres) B. Bumetanide (Bumex) C.Amiloride (Midamor) D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

B. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic. Hypokalemia is a common adverse effect of this medication. Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone is an aldosterone-receptor blocker. Hyperkalemia is an adverse effect of both amiloride and spironolactone. Clonidine is a central-acting α-adrenergic antagonist and does not cause electrolyte abnormalities.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a history of hypertension. The patient's medication history includes hydrochlorothiazide daily for the past 10 years. Which parameter would indicate the optimal intended effect of this drug therapy? A. Weight loss of 2 lb B. BP 128/86 mm Hg Correct C. Absence of ankle edema D. Output of 600 mL per 8 hours

B. Hydrochlorothiazide may be used alone as monotherapy to manage hypertension or in combination with other medications if not effective alone. After the first few weeks of therapy, the diuretic effect diminishes, but the antihypertensive effect remains. Because the patient has been taking this medication for 10 years, the most direct measurement of its intended effect would be the blood pressure.

When providing dietary instruction to a patient with hypertension, the nurse would advise the patient to restrict intake of which meat? A. Broiled fish B. Roasted duck Correct C. Roasted turkey D. Baked chicken breast

B. Roasted duck is high in fat, which should be avoided by the patient with hypertension. Weight loss may slow the progress of atherosclerosis and overall cardiovascular disease risk. The other meats are lower in fat and are therefore acceptable in the diet.

The nurse supervises an unlicensed assistant personnel (UAP) who is taking the blood pressure of 58-yr-old obese female patient admitted with heart failure. Which action by the UAP will require the nurse to intervene? A. Waiting 2 minutes after position changes to take orthostatic pressures B. Deflating the blood pressure cuff at a rate of 8 to 10 mm Hg per second C. Taking the blood pressure with the patient's arm at the level of the heart D. Taking a forearm blood pressure because the largest cuff will not fit the patient's upper arm

B. The cuff should be deflated at a rate of 2 to 3 mm Hg per second. The arm should be supported at the level of the heart for accurate blood pressure measurements. Using a cuff that is too small causes a falsely high reading and too large causes a falsely low reading. If the maximum size blood pressure cuff does not fit the upper arm, the forearm may be used. Orthostatic blood pressures should be taken within 1 to 2 minutes of repositioning the patient.

In caring for a patient admitted with poorly controlled hypertension, which laboratory test result should the nurse understand as indicating the presence of target organ damage? A. Serum uric acid of 3.8 mg/dL B. Serum creatinine of 2.6 mg/dL C. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L D. Blood urea nitrogen of 15 mg/dL

B. The normal serum creatinine level is 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL. This elevated level indicates target organ damage to the kidneys. The other laboratory results are within normal limits.

When teaching a patient about dietary management of stage 1 hypertension, which instruction is most appropriate? A. Increase water intake. B. Restrict sodium intake. C. Increase protein intake. D. Use calcium supplements.

B. The patient should decrease intake of sodium. This will help to control hypertension, which can be aggravated by excessive salt intake, which in turn leads to fluid retention. Protein intake does not affect hypertension. Calcium supplements are not recommended to lower blood pressure.

After teaching a patient with chronic stable angina about nitroglycerin, the nurse recognizes the need for further teaching when the patient makes which statement? A. "I will replace my nitroglycerin supply every 6 months." B. "I can take up to five tablets every 3 minutes for relief of my chest pain." C. "I will take acetaminophen (Tylenol) to treat the headache caused by nitroglycerin." D. "I will take the nitroglycerin 10 minutes before planned activity that usually causes chest pain."

B. The recommended dose of nitroglycerin is one tablet taken sublingually (SL) or one metered spray for symptoms of angina. If symptoms are unchanged or worse after 5 minutes, the patient should be instructed to activate the emergency medical services (EMS) system. If symptoms are improved, repeat the nitroglycerin every 5 minutes for a maximum of three doses and contact EMS if symptoms have not resolved completely.

The nurse teaches a 28-yr-old man newly diagnosed with hypertension about lifestyle modifications to reduce his blood pressure. Which patient statement requires reinforcement of teaching? A. "I will avoid adding salt to my food during or after cooking." B."If I lose weight, I might not need to continue taking medications." C. "I can lower my blood pressure by switching to smokeless tobacco." D. "Diet changes can be as effective as taking blood pressure medications.

C Nicotine contained in tobacco products (smoking and chew) cause vasoconstriction and increase blood pressure. Persons with hypertension should restrict sodium to 1500 mg/day by avoiding foods high in sodium and not adding salt in preparation of food or at meals. Weight loss can decrease blood pressure between 5 to 20 mm Hg. Following dietary recommendations (e.g., the DASH diet) lowers blood pressure, and these decreases compare with those achieved with blood pressure-lowering medication.

Which antilipemic medications should the nurse question for a patient with cirrhosis of the liver (select all that apply.)? A. Niacin B. Cholestyramine C. Ezetimibe (Zetia) D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid) E. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)

C D E Ezetimibe (Zetia) should not be used by patients with liver impairment. Adverse effects of atorvastatin (Lipitor), a statin drug, include liver damage and myopathy. Liver enzymes must be monitored frequently and the medication stopped if these enzymes increase. Niacin's side effects subside with time, although decreased liver function may occur with high doses. Cholestyramine is safe for long-term use.

The nurse is teaching a women's group about prevention of hypertension. What information should be included in the teaching for all the women (select all that apply.)? A. Lose weight. B. Limit nuts and seeds. C. Limit sodium and fat intake. D. Increase fruits and vegetables. E. Exercise 30 minutes most days.

C D E Primary prevention of hypertension is to make lifestyle modifications that prevent or delay the increase in BP. Along with exercise for 30 minutes on most days, the DASH eating plan is a healthy way to lower BP by limiting sodium and fat intake, increasing fruits and vegetables, and increasing nutrients that are associated with lowering BP. Nuts and seeds and dried beans are used for protein intake. Weight loss may or may not be necessary for the individual.

A 74-yr-old man with a history of prostate cancer and hypertension is admitted to the emergency department with substernal chest pain. Which action will the nurse complete before administering sublingual nitroglycerin? A. Administer morphine sulfate IV. B. Auscultate heart and lung sounds. C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Correct D. Assess for coronary artery disease risk factors.

C. If a patient has chest pain, the nurse should institute the following measures: (1) administer supplemental oxygen and position the patient in upright position unless contraindicated, (2) assess vital signs, (3) obtain a 12-lead ECG, (4) provide prompt pain relief first with a nitrate followed by an opioid analgesic if needed, and (5) auscultate heart sounds. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG during chest pain aids in the diagnosis.

When teaching how lisinopril (Zestril) will help lower the patient's blood pressure, which mechanism of action should the nurse explain? A. Blocks β-adrenergic effects B. Relaxes arterial and venous smooth muscle C. Inhibits conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II D. Reduces sympathetic outflow from central nervous system

C. Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor that inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which reduces angiotensin II-mediated vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention. β blockers result in vasodilation and decreased heart rate. Direct vasodilators relax arterial and venous smooth muscle. Central acting α-adrenergic antagonists reduce sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system to produce vasodilation and decreased systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure.

Postoperative care of a patient undergoing coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery includes monitoring for which common complication? A. Dehydration B. Paralytic ileus C. Atrial dysrhythmias D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome

C. Postoperative dysrhythmias, specifically atrial dysrhythmias, are common in the first 3 days after CABG surgery. Although the other complications could occur, they are not common complications.

The nurse assesses the right femoral artery puncture site as soon as the patient arrives after having a stent inserted into a coronary artery. The insertion site is not bleeding or discolored. What should the nurse do next to ensure the femoral artery is intact? A. Palpate the insertion site for induration. B. Assess peripheral pulses in the right leg. C. Inspect the patient's right side and back. D. Compare the color of the left and right legs.

C. The best method to determine that the right femoral artery is intact after inspection of the insertion site is to logroll the patient to inspect the right side and back for retroperitoneal bleeding. The artery can be leaking and blood is drawn into the tissues by gravity. The peripheral pulses, color, and sensation of the right leg will be assessed per agency protocol.

In caring for the patient with angina, the patient said, "While I was having a bowel movement, I started having the worst chest pain ever, like before I was admitted. I called for a nurse, then the pain went away." What further assessment data should the nurse obtain from the patient? A. "What precipitated the pain?" B. "Has the pain changed this time?" C. "In what areas did you feel this pain?" D. "What is your pain level on a 0 to 10 scale?"

C. Using PQRST, the assessment data not volunteered by the patient is the radiation of pain, the area the patient felt the pain, and if it radiated. The precipitating event was going to the bathroom and having a bowel movement. The quality of the pain was "like before I was admitted," although a more specific description may be helpful. Severity of the pain was the "worst chest pain ever," although an actual number may be needed. Timing is supplied by the patient describing when the pain occurred and that he had previously had this pain.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), angina, and hypertension. Before administering the prescribed daily dose of atenolol 100 mg PO, the nurse assesses the patient carefully. Which adverse effect is this patient at risk for given the patient's health history? A. Hypocapnia B. Tachycardia C. Bronchospasm D. Nausea and vomiting

C. Atenolol is a cardioselective β1-adrenergic blocker that reduces blood pressure and could affect the β2-receptors in the lungs with larger doses or with drug accumulation. Although the risk of bronchospasm is less with cardioselective β-blockers than nonselective β-blockers, atenolol should be used cautiously in patients with COPD.

A patient with a history of chronic hypertension is being evaluated in the emergency department for a blood pressure of 200/140 mm Hg. Which patient assessment question is the priority? A. Is the patient pregnant? B. Does the patient need to urinate? C. Does the patient have a headache or confusion? D. Is the patient taking antiseizure medications as prescribed?

C. The nurse's priority assessments include neurologic deficits, retinal damage, heart failure, pulmonary edema, and renal failure. The headache or confusion could be seen with hypertensive encephalopathy from increased cerebral capillary permeability leading to cerebral edema. In addition, headache or confusion could represent signs and symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke. Pregnancy can lead to secondary hypertension. Needing to urinate and taking antiseizure medication do not support a hypertensive emergency.

The UAP is taking orthostatic vital signs. In the supine position, the blood pressure (BP) is 130/80 mm Hg, and the heart rate (HR) is 80 beats/min. In the sitting position, the BP is 140/80, and the HR is 90 beats/min. Which action should the nurse instruct the UAP to take next? A. Repeat BP and HR in this position. B. Record the BP and HR measurements. C. Take BP and HR with patient standing. D. Return the patient to the supine position

C. The vital signs taken do not reflect orthostatic changes, so the UAP will continue with the measurements while the patient is standing. There is no need to repeat or delay the readings. The patient does not need to return to the supine positon. When assessing for orthostatic changes, the UAP will take the BP and pulse in the supine position, then place the patient in a sitting position for 1 to 2 minutes and repeat the readings, and then reposition to the standing position for 1 to 2 minutes and repeat the readings. Results consistent with orthostatic changes would have a decrease of 20 mm Hg or more in systolic BP, a decrease of 10 mm Hg or more in diastolic BP, and/or an increase in HR of greater than or equal to 20 beats/min with position changes.

C. Postoperative dysrhythmias, specifically atrial dysrhythmias, are common in the first 3 days after CABG surgery. Although the other complications could occur, they are not common complications.

3. Which assessment question is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving care for suspected obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)? "Do you smoke?" "Do you tend to awaken early in the morning?" "Are you under a lot of stress at work or at home right now?" "Do you have a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?"

"Do you smoke?" Smoking is a major etiologic factor in OSA. Early wakening and stress are associated with insomnia, not OSA in particular. COPD exacerbates the hypoxemia associated with OSA but does not precipitate the onset of OSA itself.

10. A patient was just diagnosed with narcolepsy and wants to know what he can do to get rid of it. What is the best response the nurse can give this patient? "If you take your medicine and naps, you will be cured." "Patient support groups may be able to help you feel better." "Drug therapy and behavioral strategies will be used to help treat it." "Safety precautions must only be when you are driving an automobile."

"Drug therapy and behavioral strategies will be used to help treat it."

When teaching the patient about the diet for diverticular disease, which foods should the nurse recommend? A. White bread, cheese, and green beans B. Fresh tomatoes, pears, and corn flakes C. Oranges, baked potatoes, and raw carrots D. Dried beans, All Bran (100%) cereal, and raspberries

D A high fiber diet is recommended for diverticular disease. Dried beans, All Bran (100%) cereal, and raspberries all have higher amounts of fiber than white bread, cheese, green beans, fresh tomatoes, pears, corn flakes, oranges, baked potatoes, and raw carrots.

The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with a colostomy. The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of famotidine (Pepcid) when the patient asks why the medication was ordered since the patient does not have a history of heartburn or gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What response by the nurse would be the most appropriate? A. "This will prevent air from accumulating in the stomach, causing gas pains." B. "This will prevent the heartburn that occurs as a side effect of general anesthesia." C. "The stress of surgery is likely to cause stomach bleeding if you do not receive it." D. "This will reduce the amount of HCl in the stomach until the nasogastric tube is removed and you can eat a regular diet again

D Famotidine is an H2-receptor antagonist that inhibits gastric HCl secretion and thus minimizes damage to gastric mucosa while the patient is not eating a regular diet after surgery. Famotidine does not prevent air from accumulating in the stomach or stop the stomach from bleeding. Heartburn is not a side effect of general anesthesia.

The nurse would question the use of which cathartic agent in a patient with renal insufficiency? A. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) B. Lubiprostone (Amitiza) C. Cascara sagrada (Senekot) D. Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia)

D Milk of Magnesia may cause hypermagnesemia in patients with renal insufficiency. The nurse should question this order with the health care provider. Bisacodyl, lubiprostone, and cascara sagrada are safe to use in patients with renal insufficiency as long as the patient is not currently dehydrated.

The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of docusate sodium (Colace) when the patient reports an episode of loose stool and does not want to take the medication. What is the appropriate action by the nurse? A. Write an incident report about this untoward event. B. Attempt to have the family convince the patient to take the ordered dose. C. Withhold the medication at this time and try to administer it later in the day. D. Chart the dose as not given on the medical record and explain in the nursing progress notes.

D Whenever a patient refuses medication, the dose should be charted as not given with an explanation of the reason documented in the nursing progress notes. In this instance, the refusal indicates good judgment by the patient, and the patient should not be encouraged to take it today

A patient experienced sudden cardiac death (SCD) and survived. Which preventive treatment should the nurse expect to be implemented? A. External pacemaker B. An electrophysiologic study (EPS) C. Medications to prevent dysrhythmias D. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)

D. An ICD is the most common approach to preventing recurrence of SCD. An external pacemaker may be used in the hospital but will not be used for the patient living daily life at home. An EPS may be done to determine if a recurrence is likely and determine the most effective medication treatment. Medications to prevent dysrhythmias are used but are not the best prevention of SCD.

A male patient who has coronary artery disease (CAD) has serum lipid values of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol of 98 mg/dL and high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol of 47 mg/dL. What should the nurse include in patient teaching? A. Consume a diet low in fats. B. Reduce total caloric intake. C. Increase intake of olive oil. D. The lipid levels are normal.

D. For men, the recommended LDL is less than 100 mg/dL, and the recommended level for HDL is greater than 40mg/dL. His normal lipid levels should be included in the patient teaching and encourage him to continue taking care of himself. Assessing his need for teaching related to diet should also be done.

The patient is being dismissed from the hospital after acute coronary syndrome and will be attending rehabilitation. What information would be taught in the early recovery phase of rehabilitation? A. Therapeutic lifestyle changes should become lifelong habits. B. Physical activity is always started in the hospital and continued at home. C. Attention will focus on management of chest pain, anxiety, dysrhythmias, and other complications. D. Activity level is gradually increased under cardiac rehabilitation team supervision and with electrocardiographic (ECG) monitoring.

D. In the early recovery phase after the patient is dismissed from the hospital, the activity level is gradually increased under supervision and with ECG monitoring. The late recovery phase includes therapeutic lifestyle changes that become lifelong habits. In the first phase of recovery, activity is dependent on the severity of the angina or myocardial infarction, and attention is focused on the management of chest pain, anxiety, dysrhythmias, and other complications. With early recovery phase, the cardiac rehabilitation team may suggest that physical activity be initiated at home, but this is not always done.

For which problem is percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) most clearly indicated? A. Chronic stable angina B. Left-sided heart failure C. Coronary artery disease D. Acute myocardial infarction

D. PCI is indicated to restore coronary perfusion in cases of myocardial infarction. Chronic stable angina and coronary artery disease are normally treated with more conservative measures initially. PCI is not relevant to the pathophysiology of heart failure.

A 44-yr-old man is diagnosed with hypertension and receives a prescription for benazepril (Lotensin). After providing instruction, which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding? A. "If I take this medication, I will not need to follow a special diet." B. "It is normal to have some swelling in my face while taking this medication." C. "I will need to eat foods such as bananas and potatoes that are high in potassium." D. "If I develop a dry cough while taking this medication, I should notify my doctor."

D. Benazepril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. The medication inhibits breakdown of bradykinin, which may cause a dry, hacking cough. Other adverse effects include hyperkalemia. Swelling in the face could indicate angioedema and should be reported immediately to the prescriber. Patients taking drug therapy for hypertension should also attempt lifestyle modifications to lower blood pressure such as a reduced-sodium diet.

When evaluating a patient's knowledge regarding a low-sodium, low-fat cardiac diet, the nurse recognizes additional teaching is needed when the patient selects which food? A. Baked flounder B. Angel food cake C. Baked potato with margarine D. Canned chicken noodle soup

D. Canned soups are very high in sodium content. Patients need to be taught to read food labels for sodium and fat content.

A patient admitted to the emergency department 24 hours ago with complaints of chest pain was diagnosed with a ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). What complication of myocardial infarction should the nurse anticipate? A. Unstable angina B. Cardiac tamponade C. Sudden cardiac death D. Cardiac dysrhythmias

D. Dysrhythmias are present in 80% to 90% of patients after myocardial infarction (MI). Unstable angina is considered a precursor to MI rather than a complication. Cardiac tamponade is a rare event, and sudden cardiac death is defined as an unexpected death from cardiac causes. Cardiac dysfunction in the period following an MI would not be characterized as sudden cardiac death.

A 67-yr-old woman with hypertension is admitted to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 234/148 mm Hg and was started on nitroprusside (Nitropress). After one hour of treatment, the mean arterial blood pressure (MAP) is 55 mm Hg. Which nursing action is a priority? A. Start an infusion of 0.9% normal saline at 100 mL/hr. B. Maintain the current administration rate of the nitroprusside. C. Request insertion of an arterial line for accurate blood pressure monitoring. D. Stop the nitroprusside infusion and assess the patient for potential complications.

D. Nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator medication. A blood pressure of 234/118 mm Hg would have a calculated MAP of 177 mm Hg. Subtracting 25% (or 44 mm Hg) = 133 mm Hg. The initial treatment goal is to decrease MAP by no more than 25% within minutes to 1 hour. For this patient, the goal MAP would be approximately 133 mm Hg. Minimal MAP required to perfuse organs is around 60 to 65 mm Hg. Lowering the blood pressure too rapidly may decrease cerebral, coronary, or renal perfusion and could precipitate a stroke, myocardial infarction, or renal failure. The priority is to stop the nitroprusside infusion and then use fluids only if necessary to support restoration of MAP.

The nurse instructs a 68-yr-old woman with hypercholesterolemia about natural lipid-lowering therapies. The nurse determines further teaching is necessary if the patient makes which statement? A. "Omega-3 fatty acids are helpful in reducing triglyceride levels." B. "I should check with my physician before I start taking any herbal products." C. "Herbal products do not go through as extensive testing as prescription drugs do." D. "I will take garlic instead of my prescription medication to reduce my cholesterol."

D. Current evidence does not support using garlic in the treatment of elevated cholesterol. Strong evidence supports the use of omega-3 fatty acids for reduction of triglyceride levels. Many herbal products are not standardized and effects are not predictable. Patients should consult with their health care provider before starting herbal or natural therapies.

8. The patient is in the ICU and becoming more irritable as the days go by. The nurse determines the patient is not getting enough sleep. What actions will best help facilitate the patient's sleeping? Give the patient a back rub. Keep the lights on during the day. Talk to the patient when he wakes up at night. Do the vital signs and treatments at the same time.

Do the vital signs and treatments at the same time.

5. What principle should guide nursing practice when providing care for older patients? Drug therapy should be used conservatively. Older adults require less sleep than younger adults. Cognitive-behavioral interventions are less effective than among younger adults. Patient teaching should focus on older adults accepting age-related changes in their sleep cycles.

Drug therapy should be used conservatively.

5.A 58-year-old male patient on the surgical unit after coronary artery bypass grafting complains of vivid nightmares. What assessment should the nurse complete to determine the most likely cause of the nightmares? Ask the patient about a history of post-traumatic stress disorder. Determine if the patient has a history of sleep apnea or narcolepsy. Evaluate the medications the patient is receiving for possible side effects. Review the documentation record to determine if the patient had a fever last night.

Evaluate the medications the patient is receiving for possible side effects. Medication side effects are the most common cause of nightmares in intensive care patients. Drug classes most likely to cause nightmares are sedative-hypnotics, β-adrenergic antagonists, dopamine agonists, and amphetamines.

Which factor should be considered when caring for a woman with suspected coronary artery disease? A. Fatigue may be the first symptom. B. Classic signs and symptoms are expected. D. Increased risk is present before menopause. E. Women are more likely to develop collateral circulation.

Fatigue, rather than pain or shortness of breath, may be the first symptom of impaired cardiac circulation. Women may not exhibit the classic signs and symptoms of ischemia such as chest pain which radiates down the left arm. Neck, throat, or back pain may be symptoms experienced by women. Risk for coronary artery disease increases four times after menopause. Men are more likely to develop collateral circulation.

In contrast to diverticulitis, the patient with diverticulosis: A. has rectal bleeding B. often has no symptoms C. has localized cramping pain D. frequently develops peritonitis

3.What type of drug regimen would the nurse anticipate being prescribed for a 52-year-old man diagnosed with narcolepsy and cataplexy? Valerian and diazepam (Valium) Melatonin and ropinirole (Requip) Modafinil (Provigil) and desipramine (Norpramin) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and low dose fluoxetine (Prozac)

Modafinil (Provigil) and desipramine (Norpramin) Narcolepsy drug management includes amphetamine-like stimulants or non-amphetamine wake-promotion drugs (e.g., modafinil) to relieve excessive daytime sleepiness and antidepressant drug therapy (e.g, desipramine) to control cataplexy. Drugs that often cause drowsiness such as diazepam, melatonin, and diphenhydramine are not indicated for use in patients wtih narcolepsy.

4. An obese male patient is scheduled to begin treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). How will this treatment method alleviate obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)? Calming the patient Preventing airway collapse Increasing the efficiency of gas exchange across alveolar walls Requiring the patient to breathe through his nose rather than his mouth

Preventing airway collapse

7. Which studies are used to diagnose insomnia? EEG Self-report Actigraphy Polysomnography

Self-report

11. Insufficient sleep is associated with changes in bodily function and health problems. Which disease/disorder description is related to disturbed sleep? Insufficient sleep is linked to a decreased risk for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Inadequate sleep in people with hypertension leads to future decreases in BP. Short sleep duration may result in metabolic changes that are linked to obesity. Radiation for cancer treatment is associated with fragmented sleep and fatigue.

Short sleep duration may result in metabolic changes that are linked to obesity.

2.A college student has sought care prompted by his complaints of insomnia over the past several months. What should his health care provider initially recommend? Melatonin Benzodiazepines Sleep hygiene practices Over-the-counter sleep aids

Sleep hygiene practices

9. The patient will schedule a test to see if he has mild sleep apnea. What should the nurse teach the patient to do until the test can be completed? Take sleep medications. Use his wife's CPAP mask. Sleep in a side-lying position. Do not use pillows when sleeping.

Sleep in a side-lying position.

The appropriate collaborative therapy for the patient with acute diarrhea caused by a viral infection is to: A. increased fluid intake B. administer an antibiotic C. administer antimotility drugs D. quarantine the patient to prevent spread of the virus

The nurse explains to the patient undergoing ostomy surgery that the procedure that maintain the most normal functioning of the bowel is: A. a sigmoid colostomy B. a transverse colostomy C. a descending colostomy D. an ascending colostomy

The nurse in the occupational health clinic prepares to administer the influenza vaccine by nasal spray to an employee. Which question should the nurse ask before administration of this vaccine? A. "Are you allergic to chicken?" B. "Could you be pregnant now?" C. "Did you ever have influenza?" D. "Have you ever had hepatitis B?"

The nurse is caring for a 48-yr-old male patient admitted for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The patient develops severe dyspnea at rest, with a change in respiratory rate from 26 breaths/min to 44 breaths/min. Which action by the nurse would be the most appropriate? Have the patient perform huff coughing. Perform chest physiotherapy for 5 minutes. Teach the patient to use pursed-lip breathing. Instruct the patient in diaphragmatic breathing.

The nurse is scheduled to administer seasonal influenza vaccinations to the residents of a long-term care facility. What would be a contraindication to the administration of the vaccine to a resident? A. Hypersensitivity to eggs B. Age older than 80 years C. History of upper respiratory infections D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

The nurse is teaching a patient how to self-administer ipratropium via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction given by the nurse is most appropriate to help the patient learn the proper inhalation technique? "Avoid shaking the inhaler before use." "Breathe out slowly before positioning the inhaler." "Using a spacer should be avoided for this type of medication." "After taking a puff, hold the breath for 30 seconds before exhaling."

The nurse supervises a team including another registered nurse (RN), a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN), and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on a medical unit. The team is caring for many patients with respiratory problems. In what situation should the nurse intervene with teaching for a team member? LPN/LVN obtained a pulse oximetry reading of 94% but did not report it. RN taught the patient about home oxygen safety in preparation for discharge. UAP report to the nurse that the patient is complaining of difficulty breathing. LPN/LVN changed the type of oxygen device based on arterial blood gas results.

The nurse teaches a 53-yr-old male patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) how to administer fluticasone by metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which statement by the patient to the nurse indicates correct understanding of the instructions? "I should not use a spacer device with this inhaler." "I will rinse my mouth each time after I use this inhaler." "I will feel my breathing improve over the next 2 to 3 days." "I should use this inhaler immediately if I have trouble breathing."

The nurse teaches a patient about the use of budesonide intranasal spray for seasonal allergic rhinitis. The nurse determines that medication teaching is successful if the patient makes which statement? A. "My liver function will be checked with blood tests every 2 to 3 months." B. "The medication will decrease the congestion within 3 to 5 minutes after use." C. "I may develop a serious infection because the medication reduces my immunity." D. "I will use the medication every day of the season whether I have symptoms or not."

The nurse, who has administered a first dose of oral prednisone to a patient with asthma, writes on the care plan to begin monitoring for which patient parameters? Apical pulse Daily weight Bowel sounds Deep tendon reflexes

The patient has an order for each of the following inhalers. Which one should the nurse offer to the patient at the onset of an asthma attack? Albuterol Ipratropium bromide Salmeterol (Serevent) Beclomethasone (Qvar)

6. The nurse usually works day shift but will be working night shift to help a friend. What can the nurse do to help herself sleep during the day? Make the bedroom warmer. Use room-darkening window shades. Drink warm Earl Grey tea at the end of her shift. Go to the gym to work out before going home to sleep.

Use room-darkening window shades.

ABCE

When admitting a patient with a diagnosis of asthma exacerbation, the nurse will assess for what potential triggers (select all that apply.)? Exercise Allergies Emotional stress Decreased humidity Upper respiratory infections

When planning teaching for the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse understands that what causes the manifestations of the disease? An overproduction of the antiprotease a1-antitrypsin Hyperinflation of alveoli and destruction of alveolar walls Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of goblet cells in the bronchi Collapse and hypoventilation of the terminal respiratory unit

When teaching the patient with bronchiectasis about manifestations to report to the health care provider, which manifestation should be included? Increasing dyspnea Temperature below 98.6°F Decreased sputum production Unable to drink 3 L of low-sodium fluids

1.The nurse providing care to a group of patients during the night sets a goal of promoting restful sleep. The nurse defines sleep as an unconscious state in which arousal is not easily accomplished. a basic but unorganized behavior that is not necessary to survival. a state of chemical balance among acetylcholine, norepinephrine, and serotonin. a state during which a person lacks conscious awareness but can easily be aroused.

a state during which a person lacks conscious awareness but can easily be aroused.

The nurse cares for a 34-yr-old woman after bariatric surgery. The nurse determines that discharge teaching related to diet is successful if the patient makes which statement? a. "A high-protein diet that is low in carbohydrates and fat will prevent diarrhea." b. "Food should be high in fiber to prevent constipation from the pain medication." c. "Three meals a day with no snacks between meals will provide optimal nutrition." d. "Fluid intake should be at least 2000 mL per day with meals to avoid dehydration."

a. "A high-protein diet that is low in carbohydrates and fat will prevent diarrhea." The diet generally prescribed is high in protein and low in carbohydrates, fat, and roughage and consists of six small feedings daily. Fluids should not be ingested with the meal, and in some cases, fluids should be restricted to less than 1000 mL per day. Fluids and foods high in carbohydrate tend to promote diarrhea and symptoms of the dumping syndrome. Generally, calorically dense foods (foods high in fat) should be avoided to permit more nutritionally sound food to be consumed.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is 5'6" tall and weighs 186 lb. The nurse has discussed reasonable weight loss goals and a low-calorie diet with the patient. Which statement made by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will limit intake to 500 calories a day." b. "I will try to eat very slowly during mealtimes." c. "I'll try to pick foods from all of the basic food groups." d. "It's important for me to begin a regular exercise program."

a. "I will limit intake to 500 calories a day." Limiting intake to 500 calories per day is not indicated for this patient, and the severe calorie energy restriction would place this patient at risk for multiple nutrient deficiencies. Decreasing caloric intake at least 500 to 1000 calories a day is recommended for weight loss of 1 to 2 lb per week. The other options show understanding of the teaching.

A community health nurse is conducting an initial assessment of a new patient. Which assessments should the nurse include when screening the patient for metabolic syndrome (select all that apply.)? a. Blood pressure b. Resting heart rate c. Physical endurance d. Waist circumference e. Fasting blood glucose

a. Blood pressure The diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome include elevated blood pressure, fasting blood glucose, waist circumference, triglycerides, and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol. Resting heart rate and physical endurance are not part of the diagnostic criteria. d. Waist circumference The diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome include elevated blood pressure, fasting blood glucose, waist circumference, triglycerides, and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol. Resting heart rate and physical endurance are not part of the diagnostic criteria. e. Fasting blood glucose The diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome include elevated blood pressure, fasting blood glucose, waist circumference, triglycerides, and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol. Resting heart rate and physical endurance are not part of the diagnostic criteria.

The nurse has completed initial instruction with a patient regarding a weight loss program. The nurse determines that the teaching has been effective when the patient makes which statement? a. "I plan to lose 4 lb a week until I have lost the 60-lb goal." b. "I will keep a diary of weekly weights to illustrate my weight loss." c. "I will restrict my carbohydrate intake to less than 30 g/day to maximize weight loss." d. "I should not exercise more than my program requires because increased activity increases the appetite."

b. "I will keep a diary of weekly weights to illustrate my weight loss." The patient should monitor and record weight once per week. This prevents frustration at the normal variations in daily weights and may help the patient to maintain motivation to stay on the prescribed diet. Weight loss should occur at a rate of 1 to 2 lb/week. The diet should be well balanced rather than lacking in specific components that may cause an initial weight loss but is not usually sustainable. Exercise is a necessary component of any successful weight loss program.

2.The nurse teaches a 44-year-old woman with a sleep disorder about sleep hygiene. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates understanding of the instructions? "I will go to bed at the same time whether I am sleepy or not." "I should set the temperature in my bedroom under 70° F at night." "I must stop drinking alcoholic beverages 2 hours before I go to bed." "I can use the prescribed sleeping pills every night to help me stay asleep."

"I should set the temperature in my bedroom under 70° F at night." Good sleep hygiene should include the following: a cool, dark, and quiet bedroom, going to bed only when sleepy, avoiding sleeping pills or using them cautiously, and avoiding alcohol for at least 4 to 6 hours before bedtime.

4.Which patient is at highest risk for obstructive sleep apnea? 82-year-old male with Parkinson's disease who has dysphagia 68-year-old obese male who smokes one pack of cigarettes per day 18-year-old female with cystic fibrosis who has recurrent pneumonia 35-year-old female with a BMI of 22 kg/m2 who has seasonal allergies to pollen

68-year-old obese male who smokes one pack of cigarettes per day Risk of obstructive sleep apnea increases with obesity (BMI > 28 kg/m2), age more than 65 years, neck circumference > 17 inches, craniofacial abnormalities, and acromegaly. Smokers are more at risk for OSA, and OSA is more common in men than women (until menopause).

A stroke patient who primarily uses a wheelchair for mobility has diarrhea with fecal incontinence. What should the nurse assess first? A. Fecal impaction B. Perineal hygiene C. Dietary fiber intake D. Antidiarrheal agent use

A Patients with limited mobility are at risk for fecal impactions due to constipation that may lead to liquid stool leaking around the hardened impacted feces, so assessing for fecal impaction is the priority. Perineal hygiene can be assessed at the same time. Assessing the dietary fiber and fluid intake and antidiarrheal agent use will be assessed and considered next.

A 45-yr-old man with asthma is brought to the emergency department by automobile. He is short of breath and appears frightened. During the initial nursing assessment, which clinical manifestation might be present as an early manifestation during an exacerbation of asthma? Anxiety Cyanosis Bradycardia Hypercapnia

A 68-yr-old patient with bronchiectasis has copious thick respiratory secretions. Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care for this patient? Use the incentive spirometer for at least 10 breaths every 2 hours. Administer prescribed antibiotics and antitussives on a scheduled basis. Increase intake to at least 12 eight-ounce glasses of fluid every 24 hours. Provide nutritional supplements that are high in protein and carbohydrates.

When providing nutritional counseling for patients at risk for coronary artery disease (CAD), which foods would the nurse encourage patients to include in their diet (select all that apply.)? A. Tofu B. Walnuts C. Tuna fish D. Whole milk E. Orange juice

A B C Tuna fish, tofu, and walnuts are all rich in omega-3 fatty acids, which have been shown to reduce the risks associated with CAD when consumed regularly.

When caring for elderly patients with hypertension, which information should the nurse consider when planning care (select all that apply.)? A. Systolic blood pressure increases with aging. B. Blood pressures should be maintained near 120/80 mm Hg. C. White coat syndrome is prevalent in elderly patients. D. Volume depletion contributes to orthostatic hypotension. E. Blood pressure drops 1 hour postprandially in many older patients. F. Older patients will require higher doses of antihypertensive medications.

A C D E Systolic blood pressure increases with age and patients older than age 60 years should be maintained below 150/90 mm Hg. Older patients have significantly higher blood pressure readings when taken by health care providers (white coat syndrome). Older patients experience orthostatic hypotension related to dehydration, reduced compensatory mechanisms, and medications. One hour after eating, many older patients experience a drop in blood pressure. Lower doses of medications may be needed to control blood pressures in older adults related to decreased absorption rates and excretion ability.

1. Which individual most clearly exhibits the signs and symptoms of primary insomnia? A man whose increased sleep latency is not clearly attributable to any particular cause A woman who is in the habit of having a cappuccino in the late evening while she watches TV A man whose corticosteroid therapy causes him to feel "edgy" and unable to fall asleep at night A woman who has experienced frequent nighttime awakenings since the recent death of her husband

A man whose increased sleep latency is not clearly attributable to any particular cause

A nursing intervention that is most appropriate to decrease postoperative edema and pain following an inguinal herniorraphy is: A. applying a truss to the hernia site B. allowing the patient to stand to void C. supporting the incision during coughing D. applying a scrotal support with ice bag

A patient had an open reduction repair of a bilateral nasal fracture. The nurse plans to implement an intervention that focuses on both nursing and medical goals for this patient. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Apply an external splint to the nose. B. Insert plastic nasal implant surgically. C. Humidify the air for mouth breathing. D. Maintain surgical packing in the nose.

A patient has a tracheostomy tube after reconstructive surgery for invasive head and neck cancer. What is most important for the nurse to assess before performing tracheostomy cannula care? A. Level of consciousness B. Quality of breath sounds C. Presence of the gag reflex D. Tracheostomy cuff pressure

BDE

A patient is being discharged from the emergency department after being treated for epistaxis. In teaching first aid measures in the event the epistaxis would recur, what measures should the nurse suggest (select all that apply.)? A. Tilt patient's head backwards. B. Apply ice compresses to the nose. C. Tilt head forward while lying down. D. Pinch the entire soft lower portion of the nose. E. Partially insert a small gauze pad into the bleeding nostril.

ABC

A school nurse is providing information to high school students about influenza prevention. What should the nurse emphasize in teaching to prevent the transmission of the virus (select all that apply.)? A. Cover the nose when coughing. B. Obtain an influenza vaccination. C. Stay at home when symptomatic. D. Drink noncaffeinated fluids daily. E. Obtain antibiotic therapy promptly.

A 52-yr-old male patient has received a bolus dose and an infusion of alteplase (Activase) for an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Which patient assessment would determine the effectiveness of the medication? A. Presence of chest pain B. Blood in the urine or stool C. Tachycardia with hypotension D. Decreased level of consciousness

A. Alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that is administered to patients who have had an STEMI. If the medication is effective, the patient's chest pain will resolve because the medication dissolves the thrombus in the coronary artery and results in reperfusion of the myocardium. Bleeding is a major complication of fibrinolytic therapy. Signs of major bleeding include decreased level of consciousness, blood in the urine or stool, and increased heart rate with decreased blood pressure.

Despite a high dosage, a male patient who is taking nifedipine (Procardia XL) for antihypertensive therapy continues to have blood pressures over 140/90 mm Hg. What should the nurse do next? A. Assess his adherence to therapy. B. Ask him to make an exercise plan. C. Instruct him to use the DASH diet. D. Request a prescription for a thiazide diuretic.

A. A long-acting calcium-channel blocker such as nifedipine causes vascular smooth muscle relaxation, resulting in decreased systemic vascular resistance and arterial blood pressure and related side effects. The patient data the nurse has about this patient is very limited, so the nurse needs to begin by assessing adherence to therapy.

The nurse teaches a patient with hypertension that uncontrolled hypertension may damage organs in the body primarily by which mechanism? A. Hypertension promotes atherosclerosis and damage to the walls of the arteries. B. Hypertension causes direct pressure on organs, resulting in necrosis and replacement of cells with scar tissue. C. Hypertension causes thickening of the capillary membranes, leading to hypoxia of organ systems. D. Hypertension increases blood viscosity, which contributes to intravascular coagulation and tissue necrosis distal to occlusions.

A. Hypertension is a major risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis by mechanisms not yet fully known. However, when atherosclerosis develops, it damages the walls of arteries and reduces circulation to target organs and tissues.

Which individuals would the nurse identify as having the highest risk for coronary artery disease (CAD)? A. A 45-yr-old depressed man with a high-stress job B. A 60-yr-old man with below normal homocysteine levels C. A 54-yr-old woman vegetarian with elevated high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels D. A 62-yr-old woman who has a sedentary lifestyle and body mass index (BMI) of 23 kg/m2

A. The 45-yr-old depressed man with a high-stress job is at the highest risk for CAD. Studies demonstrate that depression and stressful states can contribute to the development of CAD. Elevated HDL levels and low homocysteine levels actually help to prevent CAD. Although a sedentary lifestyle is a risk factor, a BMI of 23 kg/m2 depicts normal weight, and thus the patient with two risk factors is at greatest risk for developing CAD.

Although a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF) is most often made before age 2 years, an 18-yr-old patient at the student health center with a history of frequent lung and sinus infections has clinical manifestations consistent with undiagnosed CF. Which information would be accurate for the nurse to include when teaching the patient about a scheduled sweat chloride test? "Sweat chloride greater than 60 mmol/L is consistent with a diagnosis of CF." "The test measures the amount of sodium chloride in your postexercise sweat." "If sweating occurs after an oral dose of pilocarpine, the test result for CP is positive." "If the sweat chloride test result is positive on two occasions, genetic testing will be necessary."

The nurse recognizes that primary manifestations of systolic failure include: A. Decreased EF and increased PAWP. B. Decreased PAWP and increased EF. C. Decreased pulmonary hypertension associated with normal EF. D. Decreased afterload and decreased left-ventricular end-diastolic pressure.

Answer: A. Decreased EF and increased PAWP.

A patient with a recent diagnosis of heart failure has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix) in an effort to physiologically do what for the patient? A. Reduce preload. B. Decrease afterload. C. Increase contractility. D. Promote vasodilation.

Answer: A. Reduce preload. Rational: Diuretics such as furosemide are used in the treatment of HF to mobilize edematous fluid, reduce pulmonary venous pressure, and reduce preload. They do not directly influence afterload, contractility, or vessel tone.

The patient with chronic heart failure is being discharged from the hospital. What information should the nurse emphasize in the patient's discharge teaching to prevent progression of the disease to ADHF? A. Take medications as prescribed. B. Use oxygen when feeling short of breath. C. Only ask the physician's office questions. D. Encourage most activity in the morning when rested.

Answer: A. Take medications as prescribed. Rational: The goal for the patient with chronic HF is to avoid exacerbations and hospitalization. Taking the medications as prescribed along with nondrug therapies such as alternating activity with rest will help the patient meet this goal. If the patient needs to use oxygen at home, it will probably be used all the time or with activity to prevent respiratory acidosis. Many HF patients are monitored by a care manager or in a transitional program to assess the patient for medication effectiveness and monitor for patient deterioration and encourage the patient. This nurse manager can be asked questions or can contact the health care provider if there is evidence of worsening HF.

A patient with a diagnosis of heart failure has been started on a nitroglycerin patch by his primary care provider. What should this patient be taught to avoid? A. High-potassium foods B. Drugs to treat erectile dysfunction C. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs D. Over-the-counter H2 -receptor blockers

Answer: B. Drugs to treat erectile dysfunction. Rational: The use of erectile drugs concurrent with nitrates creates a risk of severe hypotension and possibly death. High-potassium foods, NSAIDs, and H2-receptor blockers do not pose a risk in combination with nitrates.

What should the nurse recognize as an indication for the use of dopamine (Intropin) in the care of a patient with heart failure? A. Acute anxiety B. Hypotension and tachycardia C. Peripheral edema and weight gain D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

Answer: B. Hypotension and tachycardis. Rational: Dopamine is a β-adrenergic agonist whose inotropic action is used for treatment of severe heart failure accompanied by hemodynamic instability. Such a state may be indicated by tachycardia accompanied by hypotension. PND, anxiety, edema, and weight gain are common signs and symptoms of heart failure, but these do not necessarily warrant the use of dopamine.

The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient with heart failure. In preparation, laboratory results are reviewed with the following findings: sodium 139 mEq/L, potassium 5.6 mEq/L, chloride 103 mEq/L, and glucose 106 mg/dL. What should the nurse do next? A. Withhold the daily dose until the following day. B. Withhold the dose and report the potassium level. C. Give the digoxin with a salty snack, such as crackers. D. Give the digoxin with extra fluids to dilute the sodium level.

Answer: B. Withhold the dose and report the potassium level. Rational: The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. The patient is hyperkalemic, which makes the patient more prone to digoxin toxicity. For this reason, the nurse should withhold the dose and report the potassium level. The physician may order the digoxin to be given once the potassium level has been treated and decreases to within normal range.

What is the priority assessment by the nurse caring for a patient receiving IV nesiritide (Natrecor) to treat heart failure? A. Urine output B. Lung sounds C. Blood pressure D. Respiratory rate

Answer: C. Blood Pressure. Rational: Although all identified assessments are appropriate for a patient receiving IV nesiritide, the priority assessment would be monitoring for hypotension, the main adverse effect of nesiritide.

A compensatory mechanism involved in heart failure that leads to inappropriate fluid retention and additional workload of the heart is: A. Ventricular dilation. B. Ventricular hypertrophy. C. Neurohormonal response. D. Sympathetic Nervous System activation.

Answer: C. Neurohormonal response.

The nurse is administering a dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient with heart failure (HF). The nurse would become concerned with the possibility of digitalis toxicity if the patient reported which symptom(s)? A. Muscle aches B. Constipation C. Pounding headache D. Anorexia and nausea

Answer: D. Anorexia and nausea. Rational: Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, blurred or yellow vision, and cardiac dysrhythmias are all signs of digitalis toxicity. The nurse would become concerned and notify the health care provider if the patient exhibited any of these symptoms.

A stable patient with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) suddenly becomes dyspneic. Before positioning the patient on the bedside, what should the nurse assess first? A. Urine output B. Heart rhythm C. Breath sounds D. Blood pressure

Answer: D. Blood pressure. Rational: The nurse should evaluate the blood pressure before dangling the patient on the bedside because the blood pressure can decrease as blood pools in the periphery and preload decreases. If the patient's blood pressure is low or marginal, the nurse should put the patient in the semi-Fowler's position and use other measures to improve gas exchange.

Beyond the first year after a heart transplant, the nurse knows that what is a major cause of death? A. Infection B. Acute rejection C. Immunosuppression D. Cardiac vasculopathy

Answer: D. Cardiac Vasculopathy. Rational: Beyond the first year after a heart transplant, malignancy (especially lymphoma) and cardiac vasculopathy (accelerated CAD) are the major causes of death. During the first year after transplant, infection and acute rejection are the major causes of death. Immunosuppressive therapy will be used for posttransplant management to prevent rejection and increases the patient's risk of an infection.

A male patient with a long-standing history of heart failure has recently qualified for hospice care. What measure should the nurse now prioritize when providing care for this patient? A. Taper the patient off his current medications. B. Continue education for the patient and his family. C. Pursue experimental therapies or surgical options. D. Choose interventions to promote comfort and prevent suffering.

Answer: D. Choose interventions to promote comfort and prevent suffering. Rational: The central focus of hospice care is the promotion of comfort and the prevention of suffering. Patient education should continue, but providing comfort is paramount. Medications should be continued unless they are not tolerated. Experimental therapies and surgeries are not commonly used in the care of hospice patients.

After having an MI, the nurse notes the patient has jugular venous distention, gained weight, developed peripheral edema, and has a heart rate of 108/minute. What should the nurse suspect is happening? A. ADHF B. Chronic HF C. Left-sided HF D. Right-sided HF

Answer: D. Right-sided heart failure. Rational: An MI is a primary cause of heart failure. The jugular venous distention, weight gain, peripheral edema, and increased heart rate are manifestations of right-sided heart failure.

A patient admitted with heart failure appears very anxious and complains of shortness of breath. Which nursing actions would be appropriate to alleviate this patient's anxiety (select all that apply)? A. Administer ordered morphine sulfate. B. Position patient in a semi-Fowler's position. C. Position patient on left side with head of bed flat. D. Instruct patient on the use of relaxation techniques. E. Use a calm, reassuring approach while talking to patient.

Answers: A. Administer ordered morphine sulfate, B. Position patient in a semi-Fowler's position, D. Instruct patient on the use of relaxation techniques, E. Use a calm, reassuring approach while talking to patient. Rational: Morphine sulfate reduces anxiety and may assist in reducing dyspnea. The patient should be positioned in semi-Fowler's position to improve ventilation that will reduce anxiety. Relaxation techniques and a calm reassuring approach will also serve to reduce anxiety.

The patient has heart failure (HF) with an ejection fraction of less than 40%. What core measures should the nurse expect to include in the plan of care for this patient (select all that apply)? A. Left ventricular function is documented. B. Controlling dysrhythmias will eliminate HF. C. Prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin) at discharge. D. Prescription for angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor at discharge. E. Education materials about activity, medications, weight monitoring, and what to do if symptoms worsen.

Answers: A. Left ventricular function is documented, D. Prescription for angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor at discharge, E. Education materials about activity, medications, weight monitoring, and what to do if symptoms worsen. Rational: The Joint Commission has identified these three core measures for heart failure patients. Although controlling dysrhythmias will improve CO and workload, it will not eliminate HF. Prescribing digoxin for all HF patients is no longer done because there are newer effective drugs and digoxin toxicity occurs easily related to electrolyte levels and the therapeutic range must be maintained.

A PT with chronic HF and atrial fibrillation is treated with a digitalis glycoside and a loop diuretic. To prevent possible complications of this combination of drugs, what does the nurse need to do? (Select all that apply): A. Monitor serum potassium levels. B. Teach PT how to take a pulse rate. C. Keep an accurate measure of intake and output. D. Teach the PT about dietary restriction of potassium. E. Withhold digitalis and notify health care provider if heart rate is irregular.

Answers: A. monitor serum potassium levels, B. teach PT how to take a pulse.

PT's with a heart transplantation are at risk for which complications in the first year after transplantation? (Select all that apply): A. Cancer. B. Infection. C. Rejection. D. Vasculopathy. E. Sudden cardiac death.

Answers: B. Infection, C. Rejection, E. Sudden cardiac death.

You are caring for a PT with ADHF who is receiving IV dobutamine (Dobutrex). You notice that this drug is ordered because it (Select all that apply): A. Increases SVR. B. Produces diuresis. C. Improves contractility. D. Dilates renal blood vessels. E. Works on the B1-receptors in the heart.

Answers: C. Improves contractility, E. Works on the B1-receptors in the heart.

The nurse is caring for a patient with hypertension who is scheduled to receive a dose of metoprolol (Lopressor). The nurse should withhold the dose and consult the prescribing physician for which vital sign taken just before administration? A. O2 saturation 93% B. Pulse 48 beats/min C. Respirations 24 breaths/min D.Blood pressure 118/74 mm Hg

B Because metoprolol is a β1-adrenergic blocking agent, it can cause hypotension and bradycardia as adverse effects. The nurse should withhold the dose and consult with the health care provider for parameters regarding pulse rate limits.

A patient who is given a bisacodyl (Dulcolax) suppository asks the nurse how long it will take to work. The nurse replies that the patient will probably need to use the bedpan or commode within which time frame after administration? A. 2-5 minutes B. 15-60 minutes C. 2-4 hours D. 6-8 hours

B Bisacodyl suppositories usually are effective within 15 to 60 minutes of administration, so the nurse should plan accordingly to assist the patient to use the bedpan or commode.

The nurse should administer an as-needed dose of magnesium hydroxide (MOM) after noting what information while reviewing a patient's medical record? A. Abdominal pain and bloating B. No bowel movement for 3 days C. A decrease in appetite by 50% over 24 hours D. Muscle tremors and other signs of hypomagnesemia

B MOM is an osmotic laxative that produces a soft, semisolid stool usually within 15 minutes to 3 hours. This medication would benefit the patient who has not had a bowel movement for 3 days. MOM would not be given for abdominal pain and bloating, decreased appetite, or signs of hypomagnesemia.

The wound, ostomy, and continence (WOC) nurse selects the site where the ostomy will be placed. What should be included in the consideration for the site? A. The patient must be able to see the site. B. Outside the rectus muscle area is the best site. C. It is easier to seal the drainage bag to a protruding area. D. The ostomy will need irrigation, so area should not be tender.

A In selection of the ostomy site, the WOC nurse will want a site visible to the patient so the patient can take care of it, within the rectus muscle to avoid hernias, and on a flat surface to more easily create a good seal with the drainage bag.

The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a patient with metastatic lung cancer who was admitted with a bowel impaction. Which instructions would be most helpful to prevent further episodes of constipation? A. Maintain a high intake of fluid and fiber in the diet. B. Reduce intake of medications causing constipation. C. Eat several small meals per day to maintain bowel motility. D. Sit upright during meals to increase bowel motility by gravity.

A Increased fluid intake and a high-fiber diet reduce the incidence of constipation caused by immobility, medications, and other factors. Fluid and fiber provide bulk that in turn increases peristalsis and bowel motility. Analgesics taken for lung cancer probably cannot be reduced. Other medications may decrease constipation, but it is best to avoid laxatives. Eating several small meals per day and position do not facilitate bowel motility. Defecation is easiest when the person sits on the commode with the knees higher than the hips.

The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube into a 68-year-old female patient who is nauseated and vomiting. She has an abdominal mass and suspected small intestinal obstruction. The patient asks the nurse why this procedure is necessary. What response by the nurse is most appropriate? A. "The tube will help to drain the stomach contents and prevent further vomiting." B. "The tube will push past the area that is blocked and thus help to stop the vomiting." C. "The tube is just a standard procedure before many types of surgery to the abdomen." D. "The tube will let us measure your stomach contents so that we can plan what type of IV fluid replacement would be best."

A The NG tube is used to decompress the stomach by draining stomach contents and thereby prevent further vomiting. The NG tube will not push past the blocked area. Potential surgery is not currently indicated. The location of the obstruction will determine the type of fluid to use, not measure the amount of stomach contents

When evaluating the patient's understanding about the care of the ileostomy, what statement by the patient indicates the patient needs more teaching? A. "I will be able to regulate when I have stools." B. "I will be able to wear the pouch until it leaks." C. "Dried fruit and popcorn must be chewed very well." D. "The drainage from my stoma can damage my skin."

A The ileostomy is in the ileum and drains liquid stool frequently, unlike the colostomy which has more formed stool the further distal the ostomy is in the colon. The ileostomy pouch is usually worn 4-7 days or until it leaks. It must be changed immediately if it leaks because the drainage is very irritating to the skin. To avoid obstruction, popcorn, dried fruit, coconut, mushrooms, olives, stringy vegetables, food with skin, and meats with casings must be chewed extremely well before swallowing because of the narrow diameter of the ileostomy lumen.

Two days following a colectomy for an abdominal mass, a patient reports gas pains and abdominal distention. The nurse plans care for the patient based on the knowledge that the symptoms are occurring as a result of A. impaired peristalsis. B. irritation of the bowel. C. nasogastric suctioning. D. inflammation of the incision site.

A Until peristalsis returns to normal following anesthesia, the patient may experience slowed gastrointestinal motility leading to gas pains and abdominal distention. Irritation of the bowel, nasogastric suctioning, and inflammation of the surgical site do not cause gas pains or abdominal distention.

A male patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) becomes dyspneic at rest. His baseline blood gas results are PaO2 70 mm Hg, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, and pH 7.34. What updated patient assessment requires the nurse's priority intervention? Arterial pH 7.26 PaCO2 50 mm Hg Patient in tripod position Increased sputum expectoration

A patient has been receiving oxygen per nasal cannula while hospitalized for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient asks the nurse whether oxygen use will be needed at home. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? "Long-term home oxygen therapy should be used to prevent respiratory failure." "Oxygen will not be needed until or unless you are in the terminal stages of this disease." "Long-term home oxygen therapy should be used to prevent heart problems related to COPD." "You will not need oxygen until your oxygen saturation drops to 88% and you have symptoms of hypoxia."

A patient is admitted for joint replacement surgery and has a permanent tracheostomy. Which task is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A. Suction the tracheostomy. B. Check stoma site for skin breakdown. C. Complete tracheostomy care using sterile technique. D. Provide oral care with a toothbrush and tonsil suction tube.

A patient whose tracheostomy was inserted 30 minutes ago is recovering in the postanesthesia recovery unit when the tracheostomy tube is expelled by coughing. What is the priority action by the nurse? A. Suction the tracheostomy opening. B. Maintain the airway with a sterile hemostat. C. Use an Ambu bag and mask to ventilate the patient. D. Insert the tracheostomy tube obturator into the stoma.

A patient with a history of tonsillitis reports difficulty breathing. Which patient assessment data warrants emergency interventions by the nurse? A. Bilateral erythema of especially large tonsils B. Temperature 102.2°F, diaphoresis, and chills C. Contraction of neck muscles during inspiration D. β-hemolytic streptococcus in the throat culture

A patient with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) needs to receive precise amounts of oxygen. Which equipment should the nurse prepare to use? Oxygen tent Venturi mask Nasal cannula Oxygen-conserving cannula

A patient with metastatic colorectal cancer is scheduled for both chemotherapy and radiation. Patient teaching regarding these therapies for this patient would include an explanation that: A. chemotherapy can be used to cure colorectal cancer B. radiation is commonly used as adjuvant therapy following surgery C. both chemotherapy and radiation can be used as palliative treatments D. the patient should expect few if any side effects from the chemotherapeutic agents

The nurse is planning care for a 68-year-old patient with an abdominal mass and suspected bowel obstruction. Which factor in the patient's history increases the patient's risk for colorectal cancer? A. Osteoarthritis B. History of colorectal polyps C. History of lactose intolerance D. Use of herbs as dietary supplements

B A history of colorectal polyps places this patient at risk for colorectal cancer. This tissue can degenerate over time and become malignant. Osteoarthritis, lactose intolerance, and the use of herbs do not pose additional risk to the patient.

A 61-year-old patient with suspected bowel obstruction had a nasogastric tube inserted at 4:00 AM. The nurse shares in the morning report that the day shift staff should check the tube for patency at what times? A. 7:00 AM, 10:00 AM, and 1:00 PM B. 8:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 4:00 PM C. 9:00 AM and 3:00 PM D. 9:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 3:00 PM

B A nasogastric tube should be checked for patency routinely at 4-hour intervals. Thus if the tube were inserted at 4:00 AM, it would be due to be checked at 8:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 4:00 PM.

What information would have the highest priority to be included in preoperative teaching for a 68-year-old patient scheduled for a colectomy? A. How to care for the wound B. How to deep breathe and cough C. The location and care of drains after surgery D. Which medications will be used during surgery

B Because anesthesia, an abdominal incision, and pain can impair the patient's respiratory status in the postoperative period, it is of high priority to teach the patient to cough and deep breathe. Otherwise, the patient could develop atelectasis and pneumonia, which would delay early recovery from surgery and hospital discharge. Care for the wound and location and care of the drains will be briefly discussed preoperatively, but done again with higher priority after surgery. Knowing which drugs will be used during surgery may not be meaningful to the patient and should be reviewed with the patient by the anesthesiologist.

Before discharge, the nurse discusses activity levels with a 61-yr-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and pneumonia. Which exercise goal is most appropriate once the patient is fully recovered from this episode of illness? Slightly increase activity over the current level. Swim for 10 min/day, gradually increasing to 30 min/day. Limit exercise to activities of daily living to conserve energy. Walk for 20 min/day, keeping the pulse rate less than 130 beats/min.

Following bowel resection, a patient has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction, but complains of nausea and abdominal distention. The nurse irrigates the tube as necessary as ordered, but the irrigating fluid does not return. What should be the priority action by the nurse? A. Notify the physician. B. Auscultate for bowel sounds. C. Reposition the tube and check for placement. D. Remove the tube and replace it with a new one.

C The tube may be resting against the stomach wall. The first action by the nurse (since this is intestinal surgery and not gastric surgery) is to reposition the tube and check it again for placement. The physician does not need to be notified unless the tube function cannot be restored by the nurse. The patient does not have bowel sounds, which is why the NG tube is in place. The NG tube would not be removed and replaced unless it was no longer in the stomach or the obstruction of the tube could not be relieved.

Which clinical manifestations of inflammatory bowel disease are common to both patients with ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn's disease (select all that apply)? A. Restricted to rectum B. Strictures are common. C. Bloody, diarrhea stools D. Cramping abdominal pain E. Lesions penetrate intestine.

C, D Clinical manifestations of UC and Crohn's disease include bloody diarrhea, cramping abdominal pain, and nutritional disorders. Intestinal lesions associated with UC are usually restricted to the rectum before moving into the colon. Lesions that penetrate the intestine or cause strictures are characteristic of Crohn's disease

The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of bisacodyl (Dulcolax). In explaining the medication to the patient, the nurse would explain that it acts in what way? A. Increases bulk in the stool B. Lubricates the intestinal tract to soften feces C. Increases fluid retention in the intestinal tract D. Increases peristalsis by stimulating nerves in the colon wall

D Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that aids in producing a bowel movement by irritating the colon wall and stimulating enteric nerves. It is available in oral and suppository forms. Fiber and bulk forming drugs increase bulk in the stool; water and stool softeners soften feces, and saline and osmotic solutions cause fluid retention in the intestinal tract.

What should the nurse instruct the patient to do to best enhance the effectiveness of a daily dose of docusate sodium (Colace)? A. Take a dose of mineral oil at the same time. B. Add extra salt to food on at least one meal tray. C. Ensure dietary intake of 10 g of fiber each day. D. Take each dose with a full glass of water or other liquid.

D Docusate lowers the surface tension of stool, permitting water and fats to penetrate and soften the stool for easier passage. The patient should take the dose with a full glass of water and should increase overall fluid intake, if able, to enhance effectiveness of the medication. Dietary fiber intake should be a minimum of 20 g daily to prevent constipation. Mineral oil and extra salt are not recommended.

The nurse is caring for a 68-year-old patient admitted with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The patient has an abdominal mass, and a bowel obstruction is suspected. The nurse auscultating the abdomen listens for which type of bowel sounds that are consistent with the patient's clinical picture? A. Low-pitched and rumbling above the area of obstruction B. High-pitched and hypoactive below the area of obstruction C. Low-pitched and hyperactive below the area of obstruction D. High-pitched and hyperactive above the area of obstruction

D Early in intestinal obstruction, the patient's bowel sounds are hyperactive and high-pitched, sometimes referred to as "tinkling" above the level of the obstruction. This occurs because peristaltic action increases to "push past" the area of obstruction. As the obstruction becomes complete, bowel sounds decrease and finally become absent.

The nurse asks a 68-year-old patient scheduled for colectomy to sign the operative permit as directed in the physician's preoperative orders. The patient states that the physician has not really explained very well what is involved in the surgical procedure. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse? A. Ask family members whether they have discussed the surgical procedure with the physician. B. Have the patient sign the form and state the physician will visit to explain the procedure before surgery. C. Explain the planned surgical procedure as well as possible and have the patient sign the consent form. D. Delay the patient's signature on the consent and notify the physician about the conversation with the patient

D The patient should not be asked to sign a consent form unless the procedure has been explained to the satisfaction of the patient. The nurse should notify the physician, who has the responsibility for obtaining consent.

During an assessment of a 45-yr-old patient with asthma, the nurse notes wheezing and dyspnea. The nurse interprets that these symptoms are related to what pathophysiologic change? Laryngospasm Pulmonary edema Narrowing of the airway Overdistention of the alveoli

During the assessment of a patient with acute abdominal pain, the nurse should: A. perform deep palpation before auscultation B. obtain pulse rate and blood pressure to determine hypovolemic changes C. auscultate bowel sounds because hyperactive bowel sounds suggest paralytic ileus D. measure body temperature because an elevated temp may indicate an inflammatory or infectious process

In planning care for the patient with Crohn's disease, the nurse recognizes that a major difference between ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease is that Crohn's disease: A. frequently results in toxic megacolon B. causes fewer nutritional deficiencies than does ulcerative colitis C. often recurs after surgery, whereas ulcerative colitis is curable with a colectomy D. is manifested by rectal bleeding and anemia more frequently than is ulcerative colitis

Nursing assessment findings of jugular venous distention and pedal edema would be indicative of what complication of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Acute respiratory failure Secondary respiratory infection Fluid volume excess resulting from cor pulmonale Pulmonary edema caused by left-sided heart failure

The nurse determines that a patient is experiencing common adverse effects from the inhaled corticosteroid beclomethasone after what occurs? Hypertension and pulmonary edema Oropharyngeal candidiasis and hoarseness Elevation of blood glucose and calcium levels Adrenocortical dysfunction and hyperglycemia

The nurse determines that the goals of dietary teaching have been met when the patient with celiac disease selects from the menu: A. scrambled eggs and sausage B. buckwheat pancake and syrup C. oatmeal, skim milk, and OJ D. yogurt, strawberries and rye toast with butter

The nurse determines that the patient is not experiencing adverse effects of albuterol (Proventil) after noting which patient vital sign? Temperature of 98.4°F Oxygen saturation 96% Pulse rate of 72 beats/min Respiratory rate of 18/ breaths/min

The nurse determines that the patient understood medication instructions about the use of a spacer device when taking inhaled medications after hearing the patient state what as the primary benefit? "I will pay less for medication because it will last longer." "More of the medication will get down into my lungs to help my breathing." "Now I will not need to breathe in as deeply when taking the inhaler medications." "This device will make it so much easier and faster to take my inhaled medications."

The nurse evaluates that a patient is experiencing the expected beneficial effects of ipratropium after noting which assessment finding? Decreased respiratory rate Increased respiratory rate Increased peak flow readings Decreased sputum production

The nurse evaluates that nursing interventions to promote airway clearance in a patient admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are successful based on which finding? Absence of dyspnea Improved mental status Effective and productive coughing PaO2 within normal range for the patient

The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance for a patient with asthma. In patients with asthma, the nurse assesses for which etiologic factor for this nursing diagnosis? Work of breathing Fear of suffocation Effects of medications Anxiety and restlessness

The nurse is assigned to care for a patient in the emergency department admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The patient has received a â-adrenergic bronchodilator and supplemental oxygen. If the patient's condition does not improve, the nurse should anticipate what as the most likely next step in treatment? IV fluids Biofeedback therapy Systemic corticosteroids Pulmonary function testing

The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who has anxiety and an exacerbation of asthma. What is the primary reason for the nurse to carefully inspect the chest wall of this patient? Allow time to calm the patient. Observe for signs of diaphoresis. Evaluate the use of intercostal muscles. Monitor the patient for bilateral chest expansion.

The nurse is assisting a patient to learn self-administration of beclomethasone, two puffs inhaled every 6 hours. What should the nurse explain as the best way to prevent oral infection while taking this medication? Chew a hard candy before the first puff of medication. Rinse the mouth with water before each puff of medication. Ask for a breath mint after the second puff of medication. Rinse the mouth with water after the second puff of medication.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a tracheostomy. What is the priority nursing assessment for this patient? A. Electrolyte levels and daily weights B. Assessment of speech and swallowing C. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation D. Pain assessment and assessment of mobility

The nurse is caring for a patient with an acute exacerbation of asthma. After initial treatment, what finding indicates to the nurse that the patient's respiratory status is improving? Wheezing becomes louder. Cough remains nonproductive. Vesicular breath sounds decrease. Aerosol bronchodilators stimulate coughing.

The nurse is evaluating if a patient understands how to safely determine whether a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is empty. The nurse interprets that the patient understands this important information to prevent medication underdosing when the patient describes which method to check the inhaler? Place it in water to see if it floats. Keep track of the number of inhalations used. Shake the canister while holding it next to the ear. Check the indicator line on the side of the canister.

The nurse observes clear nasal drainage in a patient newly admitted with facial trauma with a nasal fracture. What is the nurse's priority action? A. Test the drainage for the presence of glucose. B. Suction the nose to maintain airway clearance. C. Document the findings and continue monitoring. D. Apply a drip pad and reassure the patient this is normal.

A, C

The nurse performs a detailed assessment of the abdomen of a patient with a possible bowel obstruction, knowing that a manifestation of an obstruction in the large intestine is (select all that apply): A. a largely distended abdomen B. diarrhea that is loose or liquid C. persistent, colicky abdominal pain D. profuse vomiting that relieves abdominal pain

The nurse teaches a patient with hypertension and osteoarthritis about actions to prevent and control epistaxis. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates further teaching is required? A. "I should avoid using ibuprofen for pain and discomfort." B. "It is important for me to take my blood pressure medication every day." C. "I will sit down and pinch the tip of my nose for at least 10 to 15 minutes." D. "If I get a nosebleed, I will lie down flat and raise my feet above my heart."

The nurse teaches pursed-lip breathing to a patient who is newly diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse reinforces that this technique will assist respiration by which mechanism? Loosening secretions so that they may be coughed up more easily Promoting maximal inhalation for better oxygenation of the lungs Preventing bronchial collapse and air trapping in the lungs during exhalation Increasing the respiratory rate and giving the patient control of respiratory patterns

The nurse would increase the comfort of a patient with appendicitis by: A. having the patient lie prone B. flexing the patient's right knee C. sitting the patient upright in a chair D. turning the patient onto his left side

The patient has been diagnosed with head and neck cancer. Along with the treatment for the cancer, what other treatment should the nurse expect to teach the patient about? A. Nasal packing B. Epistaxis balloon C. Gastrostomy tube D. Peripheral skin care

The patient has decided to use the voice rehabilitation that offers the best speech quality even though it must be cleaned regularly. The nurse knows that this is what kind of voice rehabilitation? A. Electromyography B. Intraoral electrolarynx C. Neck type electrolarynx D. Transesophageal puncture

The patient seeks relief from the symptoms of an upper respiratory infection (URI) lasting for 5 days. Which patient assessment should the nurse use to help determine if the URI has developed into acute sinusitis? A. Coughing B. Fever, chills C. Dust allergy D. Maxillary pain

The physician has prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) for a patient with asthma. In reviewing the use of dry powder inhalers (DPIs) with the patient, what instructions should the nurse provide? "Close lips tightly around the mouthpiece and breathe in deeply and quickly." "To administer a DPI, you must use a spacer that holds the medicine so that you can inhale it." "You will know you have correctly used the DPI when you taste or sense the medicine going into your lungs." "Hold the inhaler several inches in front of your mouth and breathe in slowly, holding the medicine as long as possible."

When caring for a patient who is 3 hours postoperative laryngectomy, what is the nurse's highest priority assessment? A. Patient comfort B. Airway potency C. Incisional drainage D. Blood pressure and heart rate

When caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements after noting a weight loss of 30 lb. Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care for this patient? Order fruits and fruit juices to be offered between meals. Order a high-calorie, high-protein diet with six small meals a day. Teach the patient to use frozen meals at home that can be microwaved. Provide a high-calorie, high-carbohydrate, nonirritating, frequent feeding diet.

When initially teaching a patient the supraglottic swallow after a radical neck dissection, with which food or fluid should the nurse begin? A. Cola B. Applesauce C. French fries D. White grape juice

When teaching the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about smoking cessation, what information should be included related to the effects of smoking on the lungs and the increased incidence of pulmonary infections? Smoking causes a hoarse voice. Cough will become nonproductive. Decreased alveolar macrophage function Sense of smell is decreased with smoking.

When teaching the patient with cystic fibrosis about the diet and medications, what is the priority information to be included in the discussion? Fat soluble vitamins and dietary salt should be avoided. Insulin may be needed with a diabetic diet if diabetes mellitus develops. Pancreatic enzymes and adequate fat, calories, protein, and vitamins are needed. Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS) can be treated with increased water.

Which of the following should a patient be taught after a hemorrhoidectomy? A. take mineral oil prior to bedtime B eat a low fiber diet to rest the colon C. administer oil retention enema to empty the colon D. use prescribed pain medication before a bowel movement

Which position is most appropriate for the nurse to place a patient experiencing an asthma exacerbation? Supine Lithotomy High Fowler's Reverse Trendelenburg

Which statement made by the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) indicates a need for further teaching regarding the use of an ipratropium inhaler? "I can rinse my mouth following the two puffs to get rid of the bad taste." "I should wait at least 1 to 2 minutes between each puff of the inhaler." "Because this medication is not fast acting, I cannot use it in an emergency if my breathing gets worse." "If my breathing gets worse, I should keep taking extra puffs of the inhaler until I can breathe more easily."

Which task can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) in the care of a stable patient who has a tracheostomy? A. Assessing the need for suctioning B. Suctioning the patient's oropharynx C. Assessing the patient's swallowing ability D. Maintaining appropriate cuff inflation pressure

Which test result identifies that a patient with asthma is responding to treatment? An increase in CO2 levels A decreased exhaled nitric oxide A decrease in white blood cell count An increase in serum bicarbonate levels

While teaching a patient with asthma about the appropriate use of a peak flow meter, what should the nurse instruct the patient to do? Keep a record of the peak flow meter numbers if symptoms of asthma are getting worse. Use the flow meter each morning after taking medications to evaluate their effectiveness. Increase the doses of the long-term control medication if the peak flow numbers decrease. Empty the lungs and then inhale quickly through the mouthpiece to measure how fast air can be inhaled.

The nurse instructs an obese 22-yr-old man with a sedentary job about the health benefits of an exercise program. The nurse evaluates that teaching is effective when the patient makes which statement? a. "The goal is to walk at least 10,000 steps every day of the week." b. Weekend aerobics for 2 hours is better than exercising every day." c. "Aerobic exercise will increase my appetite and result in weight gain." d. "Exercise causes weight loss by decreasing my resting metabolic rate."

a. "The goal is to walk at least 10,000 steps every day of the week." A realistic activity goal is to walk 10,000 steps a day. Increased activity does not promote an increase in appetite or lead to weight gain. Exercise should be done daily, preferably 30 minutes to an hour a day. Exercise increases metabolic rate.

The nurse teaches a 50-yr-old woman who has a body mass index (BMI) of 39 kg/m2 about weight loss. Which dietary change would be most appropriate to recommend? a. Decrease fat intake and control portion size. b. Increase vegetables and decrease fluid intake. c. Increase protein intake and avoid carbohydrates. d. Decrease complex carbohydrates and limit fiber.

a. Decrease fat intake and control portion size. The safest dietary guideline for weight loss is to decrease caloric intake by maintaining a balance of nutrients and adequate hydration while controlling portion size and decreasing fat intake.

A 50-yr-old African American woman has a body mass index (BMI) of 35 kg/m2, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypercholesterolemia, and irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She is seeking assistance in losing weight because, "I have trouble stopping eating when I should, but I do not want to have bariatric surgery." Which drug therapy should the nurse question if it is prescribed for this patient? a. Orlistat (Xenical) b. Lorcaserin (Belviq) c. Phentermine (Adipex-P) d. Phentermine and topiramate (Qsymia)

a. Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical), which blocks fat breakdown and absorption in the intestine, produces some unpleasant gastrointestinal side effects. This drug would not be appropriate for someone with IBS. Lorcaserin (Belviq) suppresses the appetite and creates a sense of satiety that may be helpful for this patient. Phentermine (Adipex-P) needs to be used for a limited period of time (3 months or less). Qsymia is a combination of two drugs, phentermine and topiramate. Phentermine is a sympathomimetic agent that suppresses appetite and topiramate induces a sense of satiety.

The nurse is caring for a patient after bariatric surgery. What should be included in the plan of care (select all that apply.)? Select all that apply. a. Teach the patient to increase carbohydrate intake. b. Assess for incisional pain versus anastomosis leak. c. Maintain elevation of the head of bed at 35-45 degrees. d. Monitor for vomiting that is a common complication. e. Instruct the patient to consume liquids frequently during meals. f. Assist with early independent ambulation during hospitalization.

b. Assess for incisional pain versus anastomosis leak. After bariatric surgery, the nurse needs to assess for incisional pain versus anastomosis leak. Because vomiting is a common postoperative complication, maintain elevation of the head of bed to reduce the risk of vomiting and aspiration. Dietary recommendations include six small meals that are high in protein and low in carbohydrates and fat. Fluids should be avoided during meals to prevent dumping syndrome. Early ambulation with assistance is recommended. c. Maintain elevation of the head of bed at 35-45 degrees. After bariatric surgery, the nurse needs to assess for incisional pain versus anastomosis leak. Because vomiting is a common postoperative complication, maintain elevation of the head of bed to reduce the risk of vomiting and aspiration. Dietary recommendations include six small meals that are high in protein and low in carbohydrates and fat. Fluids should be avoided during meals to prevent dumping syndrome. Early ambulation with assistance is recommended. d. Monitor for vomiting that is a common complication. After bariatric surgery, the nurse needs to assess for incisional pain versus anastomosis leak. Because vomiting is a common postoperative complication, maintain elevation of the head of bed to reduce the risk of vomiting and aspiration. Dietary recommendations include six small meals that are high in protein and low in carbohydrates and fat. Fluids should be avoided during meals to prevent dumping syndrome. Early ambulation with assistance is recommended. f. Assist with early independent ambulation during hospitalization. After bariatric surgery, the nurse needs to assess for incisional pain versus anastomosis leak. Because vomiting is a common postoperative complication, maintain elevation of the head of bed to reduce the risk of vomiting and aspiration. Dietary recommendations include six small meals that are high in protein and low in carbohydrates and fat. Fluids should be avoided during meals to prevent dumping syndrome. Early ambulation with assistance is recommended.

The nurse is caring for a 45-yr-old woman with a herniated lumbar disc. The patient realizes that weight loss is necessary to lessen back strain. The patient is 5'6" tall and weighs 186 lb (84.5 kg) with a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2. The nurse explains this measurement places her in which weight category? a. Obese b. Overweight c. Severely obese d. Normal weight

b. Overweight A normal BMI is 18.5 to 24.9 kg/m2, and a BMI of 25 to 29.9 kg/m2 is considered overweight. A BMI of 30.0-39.9 kg/m2 is considered obese, and a BMI of 40 kg/m2 or greater is severely obese.

In developing a weight reduction program with a 45-yr-old female patient who weighs 197 lb, the nurse encourages the patient to set a weight loss goal of how many pounds in 4 weeks? a. 1 to 2 b. 3 to 5 c. 4 to 8 d. 5 to 10

c. 4 to 8 A realistic weight loss goal for patients is 1 to 2 lb/wk, which prevents the patient from becoming frustrated at not meeting weight loss goals.

In developing an effective weight reduction plan for an overweight patient who expresses willingness to try to lose weight, which factor should the nurse assess first? a. The length of time the patient has been obese b. The patient's current level of physical activity c. The patient's social, emotional, and behavioral influences on obesity d. Anthropometric measurements, such as body mass index and skinfold thickness

c. The patient's social, emotional, and behavioral influences on obesity Eating patterns are established early in life, and eating has many meanings for people. To establish a weight reduction plan that will be successful for the patient, the nurse should first explore the social, emotional, and behavioral influences on the patient's eating patterns. The duration of obesity, current physical activity level, and current anthropometric measurements are not as important for the weight reduction plan.

At the first visit to the clinic, the female patient with a BMI of 29 kg/m2 tells the nurse that she does not want to become obese. Which question used for assessing weight issues would be most effective? a. "What factors contributed to your current body weight?" b. "How is your overall health affected by your body weight?" c. "What is your history of gaining weight and losing weight?" d. "In what ways are you interested in managing your weight differently?"

d. "In what ways are you interested in managing your weight differently?" Asking the patient about her desire to manage her weight in a different manner helps the nurse determine the patient's readiness for learning, degree of motivation, and willingness to change lifestyle habits. The nurse can help the patient set realistic goals. This question will also lead to discussing the patient's history of gaining and losing weight and factors that have contributed to the patient's current weight. The patient may be unaware of the overall health effects of her body weight, so this question is not helpful at this time.

The severely obese patient has elected to have the Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB) procedure. The nurse will know the patient understands the preoperative teaching when the patient makes which statement? a. "This surgery will preserve the function of my stomach." b. "This surgery will remove the fat cells from my abdomen." c. "This surgery can be modified whenever I need it to be changed." d. "This surgery decreases how much I can eat and how many calories I can absorb."

d. "This surgery decreases how much I can eat and how many calories I can absorb." The RYGB decreases the size of the stomach to a gastric pouch and attaches it directly to the small intestine so food bypasses 90% of the stomach, the duodenum, and a small segment of the jejunum. The vertical sleeve gastrectomy removes 85% of the stomach but preserves the function of the stomach. Lipectomy and liposuction remove fat tissue from the abdomen or other areas. Adjustable gastric banding can be modified or reversed at a later date.

Which patient is at risk for developing metabolic syndrome? a. A 62-yr-old white man who has coronary artery disease with chronic stable angina b. A 54-yr-old Hispanic woman who is sedentary and has nephrogenic diabetes insipidus c. A 27-yr-old Asian American woman who has preeclampsia and gestational diabetes mellitus d. A 38-yr-old Native American man who has diabetes mellitus and elevated hemoglobin A1C

d. A 38-yr-old Native American man who has diabetes mellitus and elevated hemoglobin A1C African Americans, Hispanics, Native Americans, and Asians are at an increased risk for development of metabolic syndrome. Other risk factors include individuals who have diabetes that cannot maintain a normal glucose level, have hypertension, and secrete a large amount of insulin, or who have survived a heart attack and have hyperinsulinemia.

Which patient has the morbidity risk? a. Male 6 ft, 1 in. tall; BMI 29 kg/m2 b. Female 5 ft, 6 in. tall; weight 150 lb c. Male with waist circumference 46 in d. Female 5 ft, 10 in. tall; obesity class III

d. Female 5 ft, 10 in. tall; obesity class III The patient in class III obesity has the risk for disease because class III denotes severe obesity or a BMI greater than 40 kg/m2. The patient with the waist circumference of 46 in has a high risk for disease, but without the BMI or obesity class, a more precise determination cannot be made. The female who is 5 ft, 6 in tall has a normal weight for her height. The male patient who is over 6 ft tall is overweight, which increases his risk of disease, but a more precise determination cannot be made without the waist circumference.

In the immediate postoperative period a nurse cares for a severely obese 72-yr-old man who had surgery for repair of a lower leg fracture. Which assessment is most important? a. Cardiac rhythm b. Surgical dressing c. Postoperative pain d. Oxygen saturation

d. Oxygen saturation After surgery, an older or severely obese patient should be closely monitored for oxygen desaturation. The body stores anesthetics in adipose tissue, placing patients with excess adipose tissue (e.g., obesity, older) at risk for resedation. As adipose cells release anesthetic back into the bloodstream, the patient may become sedated after surgery. This may depress the respiratory rate and result in a drop in oxygen saturation.

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