Evolve HESI study questions

In what order does normal cardiac condition occur through the heart?

Sinoatrial (SA) node, Atrioventricular (AV) node, Bundle of His, Bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

When caring for a client with anorexia nervous, how many kilograms per week is a reasonable goal for weight gain? Record answer as a whole number.q

1 kg/week

According to current studies, what percentage of adolescents have used alcohol by the end of their high school years? Record your answer using a whole number.

85%

Which hormone is released from the posterior pituitary gland? A. Oxytocin B. Prolactin C. Growth hormone D. Luteinizing hormone

A. Oxytocin

Which hormone has both inhibiting and releasing action? A. Prolactin B. Somatostatin C. Somatotropin D. Gonadotropin

A. Prolactin

Which technique would be appropriate for clients who exhibit mild neurocognitive impairment? A. Reality orientation B. Behavioral confrontation C. Reflective communication D. Reminiscence group therapy

A. Reality orientation

Which is the most common teratogenic effect associated with thalidomide? A. Shortened limbs B. Growth delay C. Neural tube defects D. Cleft lip with cleft palate

A. Shortened limbs

Which definition of assault would the nurse include in teaching a group of parents about child abuse? A. Threat to do bodily harm to another person B. An unintentional act committed by one person against another person C. A legal wrong committed against the public that is punishable by federal law D. The application of force to another person without lawful justification

A. Threat to do bodily harm to another person

Which is the causative organism for syphilis? A. Treponema pallidum B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Chlamydia trachomatis

A. Treponema pallidum

Which hormone increases the rate of protein synthesis? A. Estrogen B. Thyroxine C. Parathormone D. Vitamin D

B. Thyroxine

How long should a toddler sleep each day? A. 8 hours B. 9 to 10 hours C. 11 to 12 hours D. 13 to 14 hours

C. 11 to 12 hours

Aspirin is prescribed on a regular schedule for a client with rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse understands that the medication is being primarily for which property? A. Analgesic B. Antipyretic C. Anti-inflammatory D. Antiplatlet

C. Anti-inflammatory

Which test is used in the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus? A. Patch test B. Photo patch test C. Direct immunofluorescence test D. Indirect immunofluorescence test

C. Direct immunofluorescence test

Which amount is the normal value of a client's inspiratory reserve volume? A. 0.5 L B. 1.0 L C. 1.5 L D. 3.0 L

D. 3.0 L

Which surgery will a client undergo if pituitary gland must be removed? A. Mastectomy B. Prostatectomy C. Thyroidectomy D. Hypophysectomy

D. Hypophysectomy

Which diagnostic study would the health care provider use to investigate the cause of an inflamed joint and determine a client's response to anti-inflammatory medication therapy? A. Duplex venous Doppler B. Plethysmography C. Thermography D. Somatosensory evoked potential

C. Thermography Rationale: Thermography uses an infrared detector that measures the degree of heat radiating from the skin's surface.

Which statement is true about prescriptive theories? A. They are action-oriented B. They explain client assessment C. They focus on a specific field of nursing D. They are the first level of theory development

A. They are action-oriented. Rationale: Prescriptive theories are action oriented, testing the validity and predictability of a nursing intervention.

An adolescent reports scrotal pain, redness, dysuria, and fever. Which condition would the nurse expect? A. Varicocele B. Epididymitis C. Testicular torsion D. Testicular cancer

B. Epididymitis

The nurse would identify which medication as the most common cause of extrapyramidal side effects (EPSs)? A. Clozapine B. Haloperidol C. Risperidone D. Aripiprazole

B. Haloperidol

Which nursing intervention would the nurse direct toward a child admitted for acute glomerulonephritis? A. Enforcing bed rest B. Promoting diuresis C. Encouraging fluids D. Removing dietary salt

B. Promoting diuresis

A client has been given a prescription for acetylsalicylic acid. The nurse recalls that this medication has which property? A. Sedative B. Hypnotic C. Analgesic D. Antibiotic

C. Analgesic Rationale: acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) acts as an analgesic by inhibiting production of inflammatory mediators.

Which caring intervention helps provide comfort, dignity, respect, and peace to a client? A. Listening B. Spiritual caring C. Providing presence D. Relieving pain and suffering

D. Relieving pain and suffering

Which statement is true regarding varicoceles? A. Varicoceles are commonly seen in prepubertal children. B. Varicoceles results in a partial or complete venous occlusion. C. Varicoceles result in a red, warm, and edematous scrotum. D. Varicoceles cause an elongation of the veins of the spermatic cord.

D. Varicoceles cause an elongation of the veins of the spermatic cord.

Which foods should be eliminated from the diet of a child found to have celiac disease? A. Meat, poultry, and eggs B. Processed sugar products C. Milk and other dairy products D. Wheat-based breads and cereals

D. Wheat-based breads and cereals Rationale: Celiac disease, also known as gluten enteropathy, results from the inability to adequately digest grains such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats.

To which part of the respiratory system would the client's radiology report refer when identifying the angle of Louis? A. Hilum B. Carina C. Alveoli D. Epiglottis

B. Carina

How does exercise help relieve menstrual discomfort in adolescents? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. By reducing ischemia B. By decreasing vasodilation C. By increasing prostaglandins D. By reducing pelvic discomfort E. By releasing endogenous opiates

A, D, E.

The CAGE questionnaire is used to screen the client's use of which substance? A. Alcohol B. Barbiturates C. Hallucinogens D. Multiple drugs

A. Alcohol

In which parts of the kidney are glucose and amino acids reabsorbed? A. Distal tubule B. Loop of Henle C. Collecting duct D. Proximal tubule

D. Proximal tubule

Which is a complication that may develop in the child with hypospadias with chordee? A. Renal failure B. Testicular cancer C. Testicular torsion D. Sexual difficulties

D. Sexual difficulties Rationale: Chordee can affect the child's future reproductive capabilities, which are related to the inability to inseminate directly.

Which foods would the nurse encourage for a child with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN)? A. Baked potato, meatloaf, banana, and pretzels B. Baked ham, bread and butter, peaches, and milk C. Corn on the cob, baked chicken, rice, apple, and milk D. Hot dog on a bun, potato chips, dill pickle slices, and brownie

C. Corn on the cob, baked chicken, rice, apple, and milk Rationale: These foots are permitted on the low-sodium, low-potassium diet that the child should be following.

Which theory provides a basis for identifying and testing nursing care behaviors to determine if caring improves client health outcomes? A. Neuman's system theory B. Swanson's theory of caring C. Orem's self-care deficit theory D. Mishel's theory of uncertainty in illness

B. Swanson's theory of caring

Which condition would be a contraindication to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? A. Brain tumor B. Type 1 diabetes C. Hypothyroid disorder D. Urinary tract infection

A. Brain tumor Rationale: the treatment causes an increase in intracranial pressure.

Which gerontologic assessment findings of the auditory system are related to the inner ear? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Hair cell degeneration B. Reduced blood supply to the cochlea C. Atrophic changes of the tympanic membrane D. Decline in the ability to filter out unwanted sounds E. Less effective vestibular apparatus in the semicircular canals

A. Hair cell degeneration, B. Reduced blood supply to the cochlea, and E. Less effective vestibular apparatus in the semicircular canals

Which are manifestations of hypoestrogenism? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Hot flashes B. Amenorrhea C. Gynecomastia D. Hypermenorrhea E. Reduced bone density

A. Hot flashes, B. Amenorrhea, and E. Reduced bone density

Which client/parent education would the nurse include about a potential complication of mumps? A. Sterility B. Hypopituitarism C. Decrease in libido D. Decrease in androgens

A. Sterility Rationale: Mumps can cause orchitis (inflammation of the testes) in males and oophoritis (inflammation of the ovaries) in females. Although rare, both conditions can render the post-pubescent child sterile.

Which consistent approach would the nurse use for a client with antisocial personality disorder? A. Warm and firm without being punitive B. Indifferent and detached but nonjudgmental C. Conditionally acquiescent to client demands D. Clearly communicative of personal disapproval

A. Warm and firm without being punitive

Which ages are the most critical for speech development during the preschool years? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 4 years D. 5 years E. 6 years

B and C - 3 and 4 years of age

Which school-age children require close supervision when using a skateboard? Select all that apply, one some, or all responses may be correct. A. 5 year old B. 6 year old C. 7 year old D. 8 year old E. 9 year old

B, C, D, E - 6 to 9 years of age. Rationale: The 5 year-old school age client should not be allowed to ride a skateboard due to the high risk of injury.

Which age correlates with pubertal growth spurt peak in males? A. 12 years B. 14 years C. 16 years D. 18 years

B. 14 years

How much additional daily protein intake is required by the lactating client? (g = grams) A. 10g B. 25g C. 30g D. 45g

B. 25g

The spouse of a client with pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) received a tuberculin skin test. The nurse examined the skin test and identified an area of induration greater than 10 mm. Which response to this finding would the nurse implement? A. No further action is required at this time. B. Additional tests are necessary to determine infection status. C. Immediately report the skin test for confirmation. D. Results are positive, indicating an active infection.

B. Additional tests are necessary to determine infection status

Which B vitamin deficiency will result in Wernicke encephalopathy? A. B3 (niacin) B. B1 (thiamine) C. B2 (riboflavin) D. B6 (pyridoxine)

B. B1 (thiamine) Rationale: Severe deficiency of thiamine will result in Wernicke encephalopathy.

Which explanation will the nurse give when a client asks about what causes varicose veins? A. 'Abnormal configurations of the veins.' B. 'Incompetent valves of superficial veins.' C. 'Decreased pressure within the deep veins.' D. 'Atherosclerotic plaque formation in the veins.'

B. Incompetent valves of superficial veins

Which position is indicated to assess the musculoskeletal system but is contraindicated in clients with respiratory difficulties? A. Left lateral recumbent position B. Prone position C. Supine position D. Knee-chest position

B. Prone position Rationale: It is indicated with caution with clients with respiratory difficulties because they cannot tolerate this position well. (Laying on stomach)

Which surgery is used to treat excessive wrinkling or sagging of facial skin? A. Rhinoplasty B. Rhytidectomy C. Dermabrasion D. Blepharoplasty

B. Rhytidectomy Rationale: Rhytidectomy is the removal of excess skin and tissue from the face; this is the surgery used to treat wrinkling or sagging of facial skin.

When a parent asks about a sudden issue with bedwetting, which would the nurse document in the child's health record? A. Primary enuresis B. Secondary enuresis C. Primary encopresis D. Secondary encopresis

B. Secondary enuresis Rationale: Enuresis is the act of wetting the bed. Secondary enuresis is the onset of bedwetting in ac hold who was previously potty-trained at nighttime.

While obtaining the client's health history, which factor would the nurse identify that predisposes the client to type 2 diabetes? A. Having diabetes insipidus B. Eating low-cholesterol foods C. Being 20 pounds (9 kg) overweight D. Drinking a daily alcoholic beverage

C. Being 20 pounds (9 kg) overweight Rationale: Excessive body weight is a known predisposing factor to type 2 diabetes; the exact relationship is unknown.

A client with Hodgkin's disease adds doxorubicin to current therapy. Which advice will the nurse provide about this medication? A. Cease taking any medication that contains Vitamin D. B. Keep the doxorubicin in a dark place protected from light. C. Expect urine to turn red for a few days after taking this medication. D. Take the doxorubicin on an empty stomach with large amounts of fluids.

C. Expect the urine to turn red for a few days after taking this medication.

Which clinical finding is associated with strabismus? A. Bloodshot sclera B. Excessive blinking C. Frequent squinting D. Continuous tearing

C. Frequent squinting Rationale: Strabismus is a disorder in which the optic axes cannot be directed to the same object; this causes difficulty focusing from one distance to the other. Eventually lose of vision in the eye will occur if the condition goes uncorrected.

Which element would the nurse focus on when teaching crutch-walking to a client who has a casted leg fracture? A. Establishing a schedule for pain medication B. Maintaining a fixed schedule of daily activities C. Modifying the home environment to prevent accidents D. Understanding that a more sedentary lifestyle is necessary

C. Modifying the home environment to prevent accidents

After numerous diagnostic tests, a client with jaundice receives the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer. Which rational explains the cause of the client's jaundice? A. Necrosis of the parenchyma caused by the neoplasm B. Excessive serum bilirubin caused by red blood cell destruction C. Obstruction of the common bile duct by the pancreatic neoplasm D. Impaired liver function, resulting in incomplete bilirubin metabolism

C. Obstruction of the common bile duct by the pancreatic neoplasm

Which substance is released in response to low serum levels of calcium? A. Renin B. Erythropoietin C. Parathyroid hormone D. Atrial natriuretic peptide

C. Parathyroid hormone

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has a blood pH of 7.25 and a partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) of 60 mm Hg. Which complication would the nurse suspect the client is experiencing? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

C. Respiratory acidosis Rationale: The pH indicates acidosis; the PCO2 level is the parameter for respiratory function. The expected PCO2 is 40 mm Hg.

Which dietary selections made by the client indicate understanding of previously taught dietary principles associated with having viral hepatitis? A. Turkey salad, french fries, sherbet B. Cottage cheese, mixed fruit salad, milkshake C. Salad, sliced chicken sandwich, gelatin dessert D. Cheeseburger, tortilla chips, chocolate pudding

C. Salad, sliced chicken sandwich, gelatin dessert Rationale: The viral hepatitis diet should be high in carbohydrates, with moderate protein and fat content.

Which medication acts as an antidote to benzodiazepine? A. Zolpidem B. Temazepam C. Suvorexant D. Flumazenil

D. Flumazenil

The weight of a 3-month-old infant with tetralogy of Fallot has declined from the 25th percentile to the 5th. Which mechanism would the nurse suspect is the reason for this inadequate weight gain? A. Cyanosis resulting in cerebral changes B. Decreased arterial oxygen level resulting in polycythemia C. Pulmonary hypertension resulting in recurrent respiratory infections D. Inadequate oxygen perfusion leading to activity intolerance, resulting in diminished energy to nurse

D. Inadequate oxygen perfusion leading to activity intolerance, resulting in diminished energy to nurse

A client who has previously resided in a foreign country has a chronic vitamin A deficiency. Which information about vitamin A would the nurse consider when assessing the client? A. Vitamin A is an integral part of the retina's pigment called melanin. B. It is a component of the rods and cones, which control color visualization. C. Vitamin A is the material in the cornea that prevents formation of cataracts. D. It is a necessary element of rhodopsin, which controls responses to light and dark environments.

D. It is a necessary element of rhodopsin, which controls responses to light and dark environments.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving azathioprine, cyclosporine, and prednisone before receiving a kidney transplant. Which medication action would the nurse identify as the purpose of these medications? A. Stimulate leukocytosis B. Provide passive immunity C. Prevent iatrogenic infection D. Reduce antibody production

D. Reduce antibody production Rationale: These drugs suppress the immune system, decreasing the body's production of antibodies in response to the new organ, which acts an antigen. These medications decrease the risk of rejection.