EXAM 1

Define prevalence: A- The percentage of people in a population believed to currently have a specific disorder. B- The percentage change, whether negative or positive, of a disorder in a given population over a given time period. C- The rate of new cases of a given disorder reported over a specific period. D- The total number of people that have been diagnosed with a specific disorder.

A

I asked my patient, "Why are you here (in the emergency room) today?" He answered: "There's a rat in my belly. He's gnawing on me. The rat is a lover. Are you a lover?" According to the mental status exam, which of the following would best describe his response? A- Disturbance in thought process; looseness of association B- Disturbance in thought process; Illogical delusion C- Disturbance in thought content; looseness of association D- Psychotic disturbance; persecutory delusion

A

In the diathesis-stress model, "diathesis" refers to A- an inherited tendency or condition that makes a person susceptible to developing a disorder. B- the inheritance of multiple disorders. C- conditions in the environment that can trigger a disorder depending upon how severe the stressors are. D- an inherited disorder.

A

Neville avoids leaving his home. He fears being in public places because he thinks he may embarrass himself or have an anxious or panicked reaction when in public. His symptoms appear most consistent with which disorder? A- Agoraphobia B- Generalized anxiety disorder C- Separation anxiety disorder D- Panic Disorder

A

Socioeconomic status (SES) is based on a person's ________. A- income, employment, and education B- income and social networks C- income, employment, education, and social networks D- income and employment

A

Some psychological tests may not elicit valid information from a client who is part of a minority group. This may mean the psychological test has ________ . A- a cultural bias. B- a theoretical orientation bias. C- a client bias. D- a clinician bias.

A

The fact that Penelope always gets a cold during final exams and other high-stress situations could provide evidence to support the ________ perspective. A- immune system B- evolutionary C- genetic D- general paresis

A

Bill has just been diagnosed with schizophrenia, a form of psychosis. Which neurotransmitter might we reasonably suspect could be playing a central role in this disorder? A- Norepinephrine B- Dopamine C- GABA D- Serotonin

B

For about a month, Molly has been experiencing sudden shortness of breath, trembling, dizziness, and chest pain. Because of her age and weight, she initially thought she was having a heart attack, but that proved to be incorrect. Molly is trying to find a pattern for these recurrent events, but they're almost always unexpected. Molly can be best characterized as having: A- Agoraphobia B- Panic disorder C- Specific phobia D- Social anxiety disorder

B

According to HiTOP, which of the following pairing of mental disorders is incorrect? A- Panic Disorder and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) B- Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) and Major Depressive Disorder C- Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) D- Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and Specific Phobia

C

Based on DSM-5 criteria, which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms that overlap between GAD (Generalized Anxiety Disorder) and depression? A- Concentration difficulty B- Sleep disturbance C- Uncontrollable worry D- Psychomotor agitation

C

Dr. Granger believes that a decrease in frontal lobe function underlies the cognitive deficits seen in schizophrenia. She has hypothesized that effective drug therapy serves to selectively increase metabolic activity in this part of the brain. Which of the following is Dr. Granger most likely to use to test her hypothesis? A- An electroencephalogram (EEG) B- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) C- Positron emission tomography (PET) scans D- Computerized axial tomography (CAT) scans

C

Dr. Granger is interested in the origins of somatization disorder. In particular, she is interested in the interaction of genetic predisposition, anxiety sensitivity, early parent-child relationships, and maladaptive cognitions that may be causal contributors to the onset of somatization disorder. We could say broadly that Dr. Granger: A- Explains etiology in this case from a medical model, and is likely trained as a psychiatrist. B- Probably rejects the diathesis-stress model, opting to focus on sociocultural phenomena. C- Explains etiology in this case from a biopsychosocial perspective, including the cognitive and attachment psychological approaches. D- Emphasizes psychological factors in determining the prognosis of this case.

C

In an experiment, the researcher controls or manipulates the _________. A- random sample B- dependent variable C- independent variable D- confounding variable

C

The diagnosis of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) cannot be assigned in the absence of an identified traumatic event. In this case, the traumatic event is what type of cause? A- Diathesis B- Contributory C- Necessary D- Sufficient

C

The therapist's mind was busy as she listened to her client: Is he filtering? Is he jumping to conclusions? Is this an example of minimizing an event? In other words, she was searching for examples of _______. A- slips of the tongue B- defense mechanisms C- cognitive distortions D- conditions of worth

C

What is one key factor that distinguishes anxiety and fear? A- Compared to fear, anxiety does not involve the fight-or-flight response, it is predominantly a cognitive experience. B- Anxiety occurs in the presence of an actual threat, but fear does not. C- Neurochemicals such as adrenalin are discharged in cases of fear but remain active in cases of anxiety. D- Anxiety does not involve the release of neurochemicals, such as adrenalin.

C

Which definition describes the term presenting problem? A- Mild discomfort that is endured when in the presence of others. B- Feeling uncomfortable with who you are during adolescence and emerging adulthood. C- Someone's current problems for which they are seeking treatment. D- Having difficulty living "in the moment" after moving away from restrictive parents.

C

Which of the following is FALSE regarding comorbidity? A- It poses challenges to validity. B- It illustrates the blurred boundaries between different mental disorder categories. C- It improves interrater reliability. D- It is defined as diagnosing multiple disorders at a time.

C

Which of the following statements about prevalence is true? A- Past year prevalence will almost always be lower than incidence rates. B- Lifetime prevalence can be lower than past-year prevalence. C- Lifetime prevalence will almost always be higher than point prevalence. D- Prevalence and incidence are interchangeable terms.

C

Which of the following best describes the content of modules included in the Transdiagnostic Treatment of Emotional Disorders (also called the Unified Protocol)? A- Interoceptive exposure, situational exposure, breathing training, psychoeducation B- Psychoeducation, exposure to triggers, prevention of compulsions, cognitive restructuring C- Breathing retraining, identifying and preventing emotional avoidance, cognitive restructuring, and psychoeducation D- Mindful emotion awareness, cognitive flexibility, situational and interoceptive emotion-focused exposure

D

Which of the following is TRUE about control groups? A- They constitute the group or groups in our experiment that we have the most influence over. B- They are useful in experimental, quasi-experimental, and correlational designs. C- They are rarely used in abnormal psychology research. D- They do not receive the treatment, but instead serve as a basis of comparison for our treatment group(s).

D

Which of the following is most associated with case study research? A- Cognitive-behavioral perspective B- Biological perspective C- Randomized controlled trials D- Psychoanalytic perspective

D

Which of the following provides a unique challenge when trying to eliminate the obsessions seen in OCD? A- The client is likely to feel that his or her concerns are justified. B- Medications are ineffective in suppressing obsessions. C- Obsessions are likely to only be experienced under certain environmental conditions. D- Attempting to not think about something may lead to thinking about it more.

D

Which of the following statements about HiTOP is FALSE? A- It relies heavily on diagnostic categories. B- It sees many mental disorders as comorbid. C- Its spectra are derived by analyzing scientific data. D- It contains six spectra dimensions.

D

Which of the following statements about amygdala hijack is NOT true? A- During amygdala hijack, rational thought is overridden by strong emotional responses. B- Amygdala hijack is characterized by an immediate sense of emotional overwhelm driven by cortisol and adrenaline. C- A stressor, such as an expensive bill we cannot afford or a nasty email from our boss, can elicit amygdala hijack. D- According to the triune brain model, amygdala hijack occurs in the neocortex.

D

Vanessa shared with her clinician that she was seeing and talking with her deceased grandmother. The clinician needs to determine how to use this information in relation to diagnosis and treatment. Which of the following statements best characterizes this situation? A- The client's cultural beliefs around death and the afterlife are relevant to determining the accuracy of labeling such experiences as psychosis. B- The client's religious beliefs, but not their educational background, is rarely a factor in determining diagnosis. C- The client's cultural beliefs, which includes their religious upbringing or spiritual values, education, and ethnic traditions, are related to the expression or content of psychotic delusions. D- The experience of seeing her grandmother could be mischaracterized as psychosis, but is also a risk factor for later problems with reality testing.

A

What are the four Ps of the 4P model of case formulation? A- Preconditions, precipitating factors, perpetuating factors, protective factors B- Preparation, participation, perpetuation, postvention C- Preparedness, predispositions, posttraumatic factors, premeditated interventions D- Prerequisites, precalculus, premeditation, preparedness

A

What is the difference between neuropsychological and neurological tests? A- The former use perceptual, cognitive, and motor tasks to infer brain dysfunction; the latter directly measure brain function. B- The former use objective tests and structured interviews to make DSM diagnoses; the latter use biological measures to make DSM diagnoses. C- The former use biological measures to make DSM diagnoses; the latter use objective tests and structured interviews to make DSM diagnoses. D- The former directly measure brain function; the latter use perceptual, cognitive, and motor tasks to infer brain dysfunction.

A

Which of the following best describes the difference between a psychologist and a psychiatrist? A- Psychiatrists have MDs, while psychologists usually have PhDs. B- Psychiatrists can perform psychological assessments, while psychologists cannot. C- Psychologists tend to take a more biological perspective on abnormality and mental illness, while psychiatrists tend to take a more psychological perspective. D- Psychiatrists can perform counseling and do research, while psychologists mostly do research.

A

Which of the following statements best explains why a forensic psychologist would choose to use a projective test during assessment? A- The ambiguity of projective tests makes it hard for individuals to manipulate responses to create a false, positive impression. B- Projective tests are ambiguous. C- Forensic psychologists need to use assessment instruments that will withstand scrutiny of the court system. D- Projective tests do not have apparent face validity.

A

All of the following are true regarding assessment, EXCEPT what? A- Assessment should use multiple methods to obtain information. B- Assessment is not necessary if the client understands what is causing their problem. C- Good assessment will rule-out alternative explanations for the presenting problem. D- Assessment may include multiple sources beside the patient (e.g., teachers, family members).

B

According to conceptualizations of anxiety disorders, fear is considered a ________ , whereas anxiety is considered a ________ . A- false alarm; true alarm B- true alarm; false alarm C- learned alarm; false alarm D- learned alarm;

B

How do quantitative and qualitative methods differ from one another? A-Qualitative methods are used for experimental designs whereas quantitative methods are used for quasi-experiments. B-Qualitative methods explore how people understand or make meaning of things; quantitative methods test objective theories using statistical analyses. C-Quantitative methods explore how people understand or make meaning of things; quantitative methods test objective theories using statistical analyses. D-Quantitative methods are used for experimental designs whereas qualitative methods are used for quasi-experiments.

B

Katie can't stop eating chocolate donuts. She heard a rumor that chocolate donut cravings might be polygenic. If the cravings are truly polygenic, what would this mean? A- That most of her donut craving is caused by genes. B- That several genes work together to produce her donut craving. C- That both genes and environmental factors work together to produce her donut craving. That most of her donut craving cannot be explained by genes.

B

One of the main problems with the worry in generalized anxiety disorders is ________ A- it increases the effects of operant conditioning on their fears. B- it is a form of avoidance and prevents extinction. C- it keeps people with the disorder feeling happier than if they don't worry. D- it keeps people distracted from what is really bothering them.

B

PCT or Panic Control Treatment is a form of CBT with strong empirical support. Which of the following statements regarding PCT is NOT true? A- PCT includes psychoeducation, breathing training, cognitive restructuring, and interoceptive exposure. B- Interoceptive exposure involves presenting the client with cues that elicit panic, such as dirt or germs. C- PCT involves addressing fear of the internal sensations resembling panic attacks. D- Interoceptive exposure involves producing sensations that resemble panic attacks in the office, for example, by spinning in a chair.

B

Punishment _____ future behavior, while reinforcement _____ future behavior. A- increases the likelihood of; decreases the likelihood of B- decreases the likelihood of; increases the likelihood of C- decreases the likelihood of bad; increases the likelihood of good D- increases the likelihood of bad; decreases the likelihood of good

B

Ron is terrified of spiders. He probably has a spider phobia. His phobia is consistent with this perspective, which argues the fact that people are more likely to develop phobias for heights, rats, and blood than for books, pencils, or cars. A- A genome-wide perspective B- The evolutionary perspective C- The immune system perspective D- Group selection perspective

B

What is the relevance of Mowrer's Two-Factor Theory to CBT interventions for anxiety or PTSD? A- Mowrer's Two-Factor Theory explains why Exposure and Response Prevention is so effective for OCD. B- Mowrer's Two-Factor Theory explains the need to use exposure-based therapies to extinguish the reinforcing properties of avoidant behavior. C- Mowrer's Two-Factor Theory explains the need to use medications to address both classical and operant conditioning. D- Mowrer's Two-Factor Theory explains the need to use exposure-based therapies to modify maladaptive cognitions associated with disgust.

B

What is the social oppression perspective as it pertains to psychopathology? A- The tendency to explain social conditions by referencing how psychopathology creates troublesome behavior and emotions. B- The tendency to explain psychopathology by referencing how social conditions lead to troublesome behavior and emotions. C- Social oppression is a sociology term, not a psychology term, and thus has nothing to do with psychopathology. D- The view that medical explanations for psychopathology are irrelevant without reference to oppressive societal conditions.

B

"It's not the event itself that upsets us. Rather, it's our unique interpretation of that event that determines how we feel," said the _______ therapist. A- behavioral B- sociocultural C- psychodynamic D- cognitive

D

Fill in the blanks. A __________ is what the client tells the clinician they experience, whereas a __________ is observed by the clinician, both of which occur in distinct combinations or patterns, referred to as a _____________ . A- sign; symptom; syndrome B- syndrome; sign; symptom C- symptom; syndrome; sign D- symptom; sign; syndrome

D

Lily, who was diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), is extremely anxious about germs. She relieves her anxiety by washing her hands frequently with hot water. During therapy, however, she is asked to touch doorknobs but is NOT allowed to wash her hands afterward. What type of intervention is her therapist using? A- progressive relaxation B- imaginal exposure C- thought stopping D- exposure and response prevention

D

Rats in an impoverished environment (being in a cage with few toys or opportunities for social interactions) have fewer synaptic connections in their brain cells. If we move them to a more enriched environment, their synaptic connections improve and the rats become healthier. How are these changes related to the diathesis-stress model? A- This indicates that genetics, which act as a diathesis, exert a stronger influence than environmental stressors. B- This suggests that social stimulation is more important than genetic predisposition. C- This illustrates that the diathesis of neural rigidity occurs in older rats, but neuroplasticity occurs in younger rats. D- This example illustrates neural plasticity, which suggests that the effects of stressors such as poverty can be reversed or modified.

D

Under what circumstances might a researcher choose an ABAB design? A- When conducting a randomized controlled trial. B- When conducting a correlational study. C- When seeking to test multiple types of treatments. D- When conducting single-subject research.

D

What is one factor we should consider when distinguishing normal fear reactions and pathological reactions, such as panic attacks? A- That panic attacks are sufficient to diagnosis panic disorder. B- Only cued panic attacks are symptoms of panic disorder. C- The context of the panic attacks is irrelevant if the distress is sufficiently high. D- We need to consider the context of anxiety, and whether it is actually a true alarm.

D

Which individual was one of the first to catalog psychiatric disorders? A- Allen Frances B- Sigmund Freud C- Robert Spitzer D- Emil Kraepelin

D