Exam 3 Patho Pharm 1

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What are the risk factors for osteoarthritis?

-Female -Obesity -Quadriceps weakness -Major joint injury/instability/hypermobility -Poor proprioception -Heavy physical activity with repetitive use -Genetics -Age > 40 -White race -Hemachromatosis -Hyperparathyroidism -Acromegaly -DM

Arrange the pathophysiological events of acne in the correct sequence. 1. Excessive sebum production 2. Alterations in follicular growth and differentiation 3. Immune response and inflammation 4. Colonization of Propionibacterium acnes

1, 2, 4, 3

The nurses in a health care facility have developed a new care plan to prevent the risk of infection in clients with an indwelling urinary catheter in place. To determine if the changes prevent infections, the nurse manager uses the plan-do-study-act (PDSA). Place in order the steps that the nurse manager would follow to evaluate the changes. 1. Try out the change 2. Plan to test the change 3. Determine what was learned 4. Analyze what happened from the change

2, 1, 4, 3

A 5-year-old child is given fluoroquinolones. Which potential adverse effect unique to pediatric clients would the nurse anticipate? A. Tendon rupture B. Cartilage erosion C. Staining of developing teeth D. Central nervous system toxicity

For which client would the nurse need to contact the health care provider based upon the client's condition and treatment after reviewing the medication reconciliation documents of four clients? Client A: Enterocolitis faecalis associated UTI, Streptomycin Client B: Staphylococcus epidermidis associated osteomyelitis, Vancomycin Client C: Streptococcus pneumoniae associated pneumococcal pneumonia, Cefotaxime Client D: Klebsiella pneumoniae associated pneumonia, Meropenem

The client is on neutropenic precautions. From which direction does the protective environment isolation help prevent the spread of infection? A. To the client from outside sources B. From the client to others C. From the client by using special techniques to destroy infectious fluids and secretions D. To the client by using special sterilization techniques for linens and personal items

The nurse is changing the dressing of a postoperative client. Another client has fallen near the nursing station and is unconscious. Which is the priority nursing action in this situation? A. Attend to the client who lost consciousness. B. Delegate the dressing change to the nursing assistant. C. Delegate the care of the unconscious client to the nursing assistant. D. Complete the dressing, because the open wound may increase infection risk.

The nurse is teaching unlicensed assistant personnel about ways to prevent the spread of infection. The nurse decides to emphasize the need to break the cycle of infection. Which teaching would be priority? A. Hand washing before and after providing client care B. Cleaning all equipment with an approved disinfectant after use C. Wearing personal protective equipment (PPE) when providing client care D. Using medical and surgical aseptic techniques at all times

The nurse recommends that, when in bed, a client who has osteoarthritis should lie in the supine or prone position. The client states that these positions are uncomfortable for the knees and hips. Which action would the nurse take? A. Encourage the client to maintain extension for specific periods of time. B. Urge the client to lie in whatever position is most comfortable. C. Insert a pillow under the client's knees to relieve discomfort. D. Place the client in the semi-Fowler position most of the time.

The nurse would include which instruction to the parents of a child being treated with oral ampicillin for otitis media? A. Complete the entire course of antibiotic therapy. B. Herbal fever remedies are highly discouraged. C. Administer the medication with meals. D. Stop the antibiotic therapy when the child no longer has a fever.

The plan of care for a client with osteoporosis includes active and passive exercises, calcium supplements, and daily vitamins. Which finding would indicate that the therapy is helping? A. Mobility increases. B. Fewer muscle spasms occur. C. The heartbeat is more regular. D. There are fewer bruises than before therapy.

The primary healthcare provider prescribed medications to 4 clients with osteoporosis. Which client would the nurse instruct to remain medications upright for 30 minutes after receiving the medication? Client A: Alendronate Client B: Zoledronic acid Client C: Calcium supplements Client D: Raloxifene

When assessing risk factors, which question would the nurse ask a client who has developed pneumonia? A. "Are you diabetic?" B. "Have you ever had pneeumonia?" C. "What do you use for contraception?" D. "Do you have a history of intravenous [IV] drug abuse?"

Which action would the nurse take to avoid red man syndrome when preparing to administer a vancomycin infusion? A. Infuse slowly. B. Change the intravenous (IV) site. C. Reduce the dosage. D. Administer vitamin K.

Which action would the nurse take when a client develops a maculopapular rash on the upper extremities and audible wheezing during the admistinration of intravenous vancomycin? A. Stop the infusion. B. Decrease the flow rate. C. Reassess in 15 minutes. D. Notify the health care provider.

Which adverse effect would the nurse monitor for in an infant receiving a sulfonamide? A. Kernicterus B. Gray syndrome C. Growth suppression D. Discoloration of the teeth

Which advice will the nurse provide to the client after a health care provider prescribes aspirin for a client with severe arthritis? A. Take the medicine with meals. B. See a dentist if bleeding gums develop. C. Switch to acetaminophen if tinnitus occurs. D. Avoid spicy foods while taking the medication.

Which class of medication would a nurse expect to be prescribed to prevent the development of cerebral edema after craniotomy to remove a brain tumor? A. Glucocorticoids B. Anticholinergics C. Anticonvulsants D. Antihypertensives

Which diagnostic test would be used for the direct visualization of ligaments, menisci, and articular surfaces of joints? A. Arthroscopy B. Muscle biopsy C. Ultrasonography D. Electromyography

Which finding in older adult clients is associated with aging? A. Decrease in height B. Decreased neck rigidity C. Increased fine-motor dexterity D. Increased range of motion (ROM)

Which instruction would the nurse include when providing medication teaching to a client prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for cystitis? A. "Drink eight to ten glasses of water daily." B. "Take this medication with orange juice." C. "Take the medication with meals." D. "Take the medication until symptoms subside."

Which medication does the nurse expect in the prescription of a client suffering from the skin condition depicted in the image? A. Acyclovir B. Macrolides C. Ketoconazole D. Cephalosporin

Which medication may contribute to development of a peptic ulcer in a client receiving immunosuppressive therapy? A. Prednisone B. Azathioprine C. Cyclosporine D. Cyclophosphamide

Which type of immunity would a 4-year-old child develop during the course of an infection with varicella? A. Active natural immunity B. Active artificial immunity C. Passive natural immunity D. Passive artificial immunity

While assessing a client, the nurse finds inflammation of the skin at the bases of the client's nails. Which event or disorder would the nurse associate with the reason behind this condition? A. Trauma B. Trichinosis C. Pulmonary disease D. Iron-deficiency anemia

The nurse notes an older adult's admission orders include gentamicinfor the treatment of osteomyelitis. Which laboratory report would the nurse review before beginning the medication? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine B. Electrolytes and urinalysis C. Erythrocyte count D. Blood platelet count E. Serum thyroxin levels

A, B

A client with a history of cardiac dysrhythmias is admitted to the hospital due to a fluid volume deficit caused by a pulmonary infection. The registered nurse assesses the recorded vital signs. Which vital sign assessment requires reassessment? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute B. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. C. Oxygen saturation of 95% D. Temporal temperature of 99.3?F (37.4?C) E. Radial pulse rate of 72 and irregular

A, B, C

Which disease process places a client at increased risk for infection? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Leukemia B. Lymphoma C. Emphysema D. Schizophrenia E. Osteoarthritis

A, B, C

Which findings noted during assessment would lead the nurse to determine that a client is at an increased risk for infection? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct A. Surgical incision B. Urinary catheter C. Antibiotic therapy D. Intravenous access E. Diminished appetite

A, B, C, D

Which strategies would the nurse apply when vaccinating a child to decrease pain and anxiety? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Applying a topical anesthetic B. Injecting the most painful vaccine last C. Holding the child upright during the vaccination D. Administering intramuscular injections rapidly without prior aspiration E. Administering acetaminophen or ibuprofen after vaccination

A, B, C, D

Which substance history of a severe allergic reaction results in avoidance of the cephalosporins such as cefazolin, cefditoren, cefotetan, and ceftriaxone? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Milk B. Aspirin C. Calcium D. Penicillin E. Strawberries

A, B, C, D

Which action would the nurse take when a client receiving an infusion of penicillin reports having an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin in the past? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Notifying rapid response B. Measuring oxygen level C. Administering epinephrine D. Inserting an indwelling catheter E. Assessing the respiratory pattern

A, B, C, D, E

Which assessment would the nurse perform before administering a dose of vancomycin to a client? Select all that apply.One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Creatinine B. Trough level C. Hearing ability D. Intravenous site E. Blood urea nitrogen

A, B, C, D, E

Which complication would the nurse monitor for in a client on strict bed rest for 3 days? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Atelectasis B. Hypotension C. Constipation D. Pressure injuries E. Urinary tract infection

A, B, C, D, E

Which finding during a home health visit would prompt the nurse to provide a client with home safety instructions? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Area rugs on the floor B. Clogged, dirty fireplace C. Multiple electrical cords D. Multiple prescribed medications E. Wheeled walker with uneven legs

A, B, C, D, E

Which information would the nurse provide to a client diagnosed with chlamydia and prescribed doxycycline? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Report worsening symptoms. B. Refrain from sexual relations. C. Use barrier protection devices. D. Contact partners to be tested. E. Take the entire course of antibiotics.

A, B, C, D, E

Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with herpes zoster? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Acyclovir B. Silvadene C. Gabapentin D. Wet compresses E. Contact isolation

A, B, C, D, E

Which action would the nurse instruct an older client to implement to ensure antibodymediated immunity? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Obtain a shingles vaccination. B. Receive a tetanus booster injection. C. Obtain the pneumococcal vaccination. D. Receive annual testing for tuberculosis. E. Receive an annual influenza vaccination. F. Avoid obtaining the pertussis vaccination.

A, B, C, E

The nurse identifies which antimicrobial medications as safe during breast-feeding? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Penicillins B. Macrolides C. Tetracycline D. Cephalosporins E. Chloramphenicol

A, B, D

Which client condition is an example of a cell-mediated immunity? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct, A. Tuberculosis (TB) B. Graft rejection? C.Allergic rhinitis D. Contact dermatitis E. Anaphylactic shock

A, B, D

Which option is an example of actively acquired specific immunity? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Recovery from measles B. Recovery from chickenpox C. Maternal immunoglobulinin the neonate D. Immunization with live or killed vaccines E. Injection of human gamma immunoglobulin

A, B, D

Identify the clinical manifestation associated with the release of histamine during a type l rapid hypersensitivity reaction. Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Pruritus B. Erythema C. Fibrotic changes D. Nasal mucus secretion E. Conjunctival mucus secretion F. Hematuria

A, B, D, E

Which assessment finding during the administration of intravenous penicillin would prompt the nurse to stop the infusion? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Hives B. Itching C. Nausea D. Skin rash E. Shortness of breath

A, B, D, E

Which information will the nurse consider when planning care for a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who has been diagnosed with class 3 tuberculosis? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Class 3 tuberculosis is a clinically active disease, which is contagious. B. Tuberculosis is the leading cause of mortality in clients infected with HIV. C. HIV-positive clients are more likely to have multidrug resistant tuberculosis. D. Individuals with HIV usually have high fevers with active tuberculosis infection. E. Persons with active tuberculosis are usually treated on an outpatient basis.

A, B, E

Which medication increases the risk for upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Aspirin B. Ibuprofen C. Ciprofloxacin D. Acetaminophen E. Methylprednisolone

A, B, E

Which function of leukocytes is involved in the inflammation process? Select all that apply. One, some, or all.responses may be correct. A. Destruction of bacteria and cellular debris B. Selective attack and destruction of non-self cells C. Release of vasoactive amines during allergic reactions D. Secretion of immunoglobulins in response to a specific antigen E. Enhancement of immune activity through secretion of various factors, cytokinesis lymphokines

A, C

Which hormones are involved in building and maintaining healthy bone tissue? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Insulin B. Thyroxine C. Glucocorticoids D. Growth hormone E. Parathyroid hormone

A, C, D

A pregnant client is.prescribed heparin to prevent the risk of thromboembolism. Which is a possible adverse effect of this medication when used during pregnancy? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Osteoporosis B. Suppression of contractions in labor C. Increased risk of serious bleeding D. Stimulation of uterine contraction E. Compression fractures of the spine

A, C, E

According to Maslow's hierarchy, which example belongs to the third level of needs? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. "A client is depressed because the client's significant other passed away." B. "A client is constipated due to excess loss of fluids from the body." C."A client wants to reconnect with old friends after being diagnosed with cancer." D. "A client has to live in a rat-infested apartment due to a lack of financial resources." E. "A client never goes to family gatherings because the family members do not accept the client."

A, C, E

Which activities would be encouraged of a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis to prevent loss of joint function? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Riding a bicycle B. Walking to school C. Watching videos after school D. Swimming in the community pool E. Playing computer games after school

A, C, E

Which information is appropriate for the nurse to include in the education for a group of nursing students regarding near-miss events? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. No actual harm is caused to the clients. B. Moderate-harm may be caused. C. They are caused by a variation in standard care. D. They are caused by impaired immune functioning. E. The cause may be analyzed by a failure modes effects analysis (FMEA).

A, C, E

Which intervention would the nurse anticipate incorporating into the plan of care for a client with bursitis of the left knee? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Rest the affected joint. B. Apply a heat pack. C. Use a compression splint. D. Do gentle range-of-motion exercises. E. Take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as needed for pain.

A, C, E

Which physiological change of the musculoskeletal system would the nurse associate with aging? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Slowed movement B. Cartilage degeneration C. Increased bone density D. Increased range of motion E. Increased bone prominence

A, C, E

A primary health care provider schedules a bone scan for a client with osteoporosis. Which nursing action is beneficial for the client? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Placing the client in the supine position B. Verifying presence or absence of a shellfish allergy C. Ensuring the client does not have metal on their clothing D. Instructing the client to empty their bladder before the scan E. Informing the client that the postprocedure headache resolves in 2 days

A, D

What assessments should you do with amoxicillin?

Assess for infection at beginning and throughout therapy Monitor for signs/symp of anaphylaxis Monitor bowel function Obtain culture and sensitivity test before therapy

What assessments would you do with fluconazole?

Assess infected area and monitor CSF Obtain specimens for culture Assess patient for rash (mild to moderate rash usually occurs in the 2nd wk of therapy and resolves within 1-2 wk of continued therapy).

What are the assessments for griseofulvin?

Assess skin at site of fungal infection routinely during therapy. Assess patient for allergy to penicillin; potential cross-sensitivity exists. Assess for rash periodically during therapy (may cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis)

A client with a diagnosis of malabsorption syndrome exhibits a symptom of spastic muscle spasms. Which electrolyte is responsible for this symptom? A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Potassium D. Phosphorus

A client with a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infected wound is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan. To ensure client and visitor safety during transport, the nurse would implement which precaution? A. No special precautions are required. B. Cover the infected site with a dressing. C. Drape the client with a covering labeled biohazardous. D. Place a surgical mask on the client.

A postmenopausal woman has been administered raloxifene for osteoporosis. Which, parameter would the nurse assess to ensure the efficacy of the medication and continuation of use? A. Body weight B. Bone density C. Calcium levels in urine D. Esophageal functioning

An assessment of an 89-year-old client yeilds a history of severe congenital spinal deformity. Which condition would describe the nurse's finding? A. Lordosis B. Kyphosis C. Presbycusis D. Osteoporosis

For which physiological condition would the nurse teach an older adult client about the use of isometric exercises? A. Kyphosis B. Muscle atrophy C. Decreased bone density D. Decreased range of motion (ROM)

How does the skeletal system of a toddler differ from that of an older adult? A. Toddlers' bones are less pliable than the bones of older persons. B. Toddlers' bones can withstand falls better than the bones of older adults. C. Toddlers' bones are more susceptible to osteoporosis than the bones of older adults. D. Toddlers' bones are more susceptible to bone loss than the bones of older persons.

The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client who acquired a nosocomial Clostridium difficile infection. Which would the nurse include in the instructions? A. Anticipate that nausea and vomiting will continue until the infection is no longer present. B. The infection causes diarrhea accompanied by flatus and abdominal discomfort. C. Consume a diet that is high in fiber and low in fat. D. Other than routine hand washing, it is not necessary to perform special disinfection procedures.

The nurse is teaching the parent of a child prescribed a high dose of oral prednisone for asthma. Which information is critical for the nurse to include when teaching about this medication? A. It protects against infection. B. It should be stopped gradually. C. An early growth spurt may occur. D. A moon-shaped face will develop.

The nurse teaches a client about wearing thigh-high antiembolism elastic stockings. Which instruction would be correct to include? A. You do not need to wear them while you are awake, but it is important to wear them at night." B. 'You will need to apply them in the morning before you lower your legs from the bed to the floor." C. 'If they bother you, you can roll them down to your knees while you are resting or sitting down." D. 'You can apply them either in the morning or at bedtime, but only after the legs are lowered to the floor."

The nurse teaches a client who is premenopausal and obese about strategies to prevent osteoporosis. Which strategy identified by the client indicates that the teaching is effective? A. Start a rapid, strict weight-reduction diet B. Join a tennis league and practice every day C. Take 1200 international units of vitamin D a day D. Sign up for a swimming class three times a week

Use of which medication would the nurse identify as a potential risk for hearing impairment in a child? A. Amoxicillin B. Gentamicin C. Clindamycin D. Ciprofloxacin

Which client receiving antibiotic therapy would the nurse identify as being Achilles tendon rupture? Client A: Gentamicin Client B: Ciprofloxacin Client C: Cefazolin Client D: Tobramycin

Which example demonstrates clinical decision-making by the nurse? A. "I palpated the right hip of the client, which appeared red, and noted a warm feeling." B. "I identified impaired skin integrity in a pressure ulcer document upon finding redness in the client's hip. C. "I discussed the use of salt with a client who has a history of hypotension history and suffers from light-headedness and dizziness." D. "I assessed weakness and hunger in a client with a history of diabetes history who suffers with lightheadedness and blurred vision."

Which factor explains why a client who experiences an acute episode of rheumatoid arthritis has swollen finger joints? A. Urate crystals in the synovial tissue B. Inflammation in the joint's synovial lining C. Formation of bony spurs on the joint surfaces D. Deterioration and loss of articular cartilage joints

Which mechanism of action applies to penicillin? A. Prevents reproduction of the pathogen B. Inhibits cell wall synthesis of the pathogen C. Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis of the pathogen D. Injures the cytoplasmic membrane of the pathogen

Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering to a client who reports fever, cough, muscle aches, night sweats, and chest pain with a laboratory report indicating the presence of Coccidioides organisms in the respiratory tract? A. Oseltamivir B. Fluconazole C. Pyrazinamide D. Cephalosporin

Which nursing intervention is the priority when a client receiving chemotherapy develops a temperature of 102.2?F (39?C) when the temperature 6 hours ago was 99.2?F (37.3?C)? A. Assess the amount and color of urine; obtain a specimen for a urinalysis and culture. B. Administer the prescribed antipyretic and notify the primary health care provider of this change. C. Note the consistency of respiratory secretions and obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity. D. Obtain the respirations, pulse, and blood pressure when rechecking the temperature in 1 hour.

Which structure protects a client's internal organs, supports blood cell production, and stores minerals? A. Joints B. Bones C. Muscles D. Cartilages

Which synovial joint movement is described as turning the sole away from the midline of the body? A. Pronation B. Eversion C. Adduction D. Supination

Which assessment findings would the nurse identify in a client with clinical manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Obesity and asymmetric joint disease B. Development of antinuclear antibodies C. Inflammatory disease, pattern D. Bilateral involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints E. Disease process involving the distal interphalangeal joints F. Disease in the weight-bearing joints and hands

B, C, D

Which medication would be prescribed when a client reports vaginal itching and the primary health care provider confirms that the client has candidiasis? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Tinidazole B. Miconazole C. Fluconazole D. Clotrimazole E.Metronidazole

B, C, D

Which infection would the nurse monitor for in the toddler based on structural characteristics at this age? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Bronchiolitis B. Ear infection C. Acute sinusitis D. Laryngotracheobronchitis E. Inflammation of the tonsils

B, C, D, E

After a client experiences a cardiac arrest, the client is transferred to the intensive care unit (ICU). Which nursing intervention is the major attribute that affects the quality of care provided to the client? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Develop a diet plan according to the client's food preference. B. Coordinate with the members of the ICU while transferring the client. C. Provide cardiopulmonary resuscitation before transferring the client. D. Encourage the client's family members to visit the client frequently. E. Administer digoxin to the client according to the prescription.

B, C, E

The nurse instructs a client who avoids bathing to take a bath or shower each day as a means of maintaining hygiene and preventing infection. Which of these reactions would the nurse expect if the client is in the action stage? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. "I only take a bath once a week, but I don't see any infections on my skin." B. "I try to take a shower every day, but I skip it sometimes because of my tight work schedule." C. "I understand that bathing regularly is a good habit, but my bathroom is very cold in the mornings." D. "Please tell me how to get into the habit of taking a bath daily so that I can keep myself clean and healthy." E. "I want to take a bath regularly, but I don't have time because I need to look after my kids and my parents."

B, C, E

The nurse is assessing a client with a moon-shaped face and thin arms and legs. The nurse expects which other assessment findings? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Weight loss B. Gastric ulcer C. Pain in bones D. Poor appetite E. Muscle weakness

B, C, E

The nurse teaches the parent of an infant prescribed nystatin for oral thrush how to prevent aggravation of the condition. Which statements by the parent indicate the need for further teaching? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. "I should rinse the infant's mouth with plain water after feeding." B. "I should boil the pacifier for at least 20 minutes on alternate days." C. "I should apply the medication at least 20 minutes before feeding." D. "I should apply the medication to the infant's oral cavity four times a day." E. "I should boil the reusable nipples for at least 5 minutes after washing."

B, C, E

Which leukocyte would the nurse include when teaching about antibody-mediated immunity? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Monocyte B. Memory cell. C. Helper T cell D. B-lymphocyte E. Cytotoxic T cell

B, D

A 5-month-old infant is brought to the pediatric clinic because of exposure to an adolescent sibling with measles. Which factor would the nurse consider when determining the infant's risk of infection? A. The infant's immunizations B. The infant's previous viral illnesses C. Maternal diseases and immunizations D. Maternal exposure to tuberculosis and herpes genitalis

A child recovering from a severe asthma attack is given oral prednisone 15 mg twice daily. Which intervention would be a priority for the nurse? A. Having the child rest as much as possible B. Checking the child's eosinophil count daily C. Preventing exposure of the child to infection D. Offering sips of water when administering the medication

A client is admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and vomiting for 5 days. Upon further assessment, the primary health care provider finds the symptoms occurred after the client ate eggs, salad dressings, and sandwich fillings. Which food-borne disease would the provider suspect in this client? A. Listeriosis B. Shigellosis C. Salmonellosis D. Staphylococcus

A client with adrenal insufficiency reports feeling weak and dizzy, especially in the morning. Which physiological response would the nurse suspect is the probable cause of these symptoms? A. A lack of potassium B. Postural hypertension C. A hypoglycemic reaction D. Increased extracellular fluid volume

A nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with rheumatoid arthritis who has severe pain and swelling of the hand joints. Which details about range-of-motion exercises would the plan include? A. Passively performing the exercises for the client B. Discontinuing the exercises if the client reports discomfort C. Applying heat or cold before the exercises D. Increasing the vigor of the exercises to restore mobility

A pregnant client with an infection tells the nurse that they have taken tetracycline for infections in the past and prefer to take it now. Which response would the nurse give regarding the avoidance of tetracycline administration during pregnancy? A. "It affects breast-feeding adversely." B. "Tetracycline causes fetal allergies." C. "It alters the development of fetal teeth buds." D. "It increases fetal tolerance to the medication."

After completing a week of antibiotic therapy, an infant develops oral thrush. Which medication is indicated for treatment of this condition? A. Acyclovir B. Vidarabine C. Nystatin D. Fluconazole

After instructing an older client's adult child about age-related immune system changes and associated care measures, which statement indicates a need for further instruction? A. "My parent has a private room at home." B. "My parent has received the pneumococcal vaccination recently." C. "My parent comes in for checkup's only when experiencing a fever." D. "My parent has been given a second dose of the pertussis vaccination."

The health care provider prescribed raloxifene for a client with osteoporosis. Which manifestation would the nurse monitor in this client? A. Check serum creatinine B. Monitor urinary calcium C. Monitor liver function tests D. Observe for anxiety and drowsiness

The nurse is caring for a client who had an above-the-knee amputation 1 week ago. Which action would the nurse take to control edema of the residual limb? A. Administer a diuretic as needed. B. Restrict the client's oral fluid intake. C. Rewrap the elastic bandage as necessary. D. Keep the residual limb elevated on a pillow.

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic inflammation of the bowel. For which most serious complication would the nurse monitor in this client? A. lleus B. Pain C. Perforation D. Obstruction

The nurse should seek clarification by the practitioner for which order? A. Discharge in AM B. Blood glucose monitoring ac and bedtime C. Erythromycin 250 mg TIW D. Dalteparin 5000 international units Sub-Q BID

To prevent thrombophlebitis in the immediate postoperative period, which action is important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care? A. Increase fluid intake. B. Restrict fluids. C. Encourage early mobility. D. Elevate the foot of the bed.

Which action will the nurse take when it is time to administer vancomycin to a client with a continuous intravenous (IV) heparindrip? A. Stop the heparin, flush the line with normal saline, and administer the vancomycin. B. Administer the vancomycin into the heparin line using an IV piggyback set. C. Start a second IV line for the vancomycin and continue the heparin as prescribed. D. Hold the vancomycin and tell the health care provider that the medication is incompatible with heparin.

Which education would the nurse provide the parent of a 2-month-old infant about home care in the event of an immunization reaction? A. Give aspirin for pain; if swelling at the injection site develops, call the health care provider. B. Apply heat to the injection site for the first day after the injection; apply ice if the arm is inflamed. C. Give acetaminophen for fever; call the health care provider if the child exhibits marked drowsiness or seizures. D. Apply ice to the injection site if soreness develops; call the health care provider if the child comes down with a fever.

Which explanation would the nurse provide to a client with gastric ulcer disease who asks the nurse why the health care provider has prescribed metronidazole? A. To augment the immune response B. To potentiate the effect of antacids C. To treat Helicobacter pylori infection D. To reduce hydrochloric acid secretion

Which factor in the client's history increases the risk for osteoporosis? A. Estrogen therapy B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Prolonged immobility D. Excessive calcium intake

Which information would the nurse provide when administering the first dose of prednisone prescribed to a client with an exacerbation of colitis? A. "Prednisone protects you from getting an infection." B. "The medication may cause weight loss by decreasing your appetite." C. "Prednisone is not curative but does cause a suppression of the inflammatory process." D. "The medication is relatively slow in precipitating a response but is effective in reducing symptoms."

Which initial action would the nurse take when caring for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin who reports ringing in both ears? A. Notify the primary health care provider. B. Consult an audiologist. C. Stop the infusion. D. Document the finding and continue to monitor the client.

Which injury would the nurse suspect in a young adult client who reports that a knee occasionally gives way, sometimes locks, and "clicks" when walking? A. Cracked patella B. Ruptured Achilles tendon C. Torn cartilage D. Stress fracture

Which is the correct response to a parent whose child is, undergoing chemotherapy and is not up to date on required immunizations for school? A. 'By this time your child has developed sufficient antibodies to provide immunity.' B. 'Maintaining current immunizations is critical. Make sure the series is completed." C. 'This isn't the best time to finish the immunizations, because your child's immune system is suppressed." D. 'It's important to complete the immunizations because your child needs to be protected from childhood diseases that could be fatal.'

Which nursing intervention would prevent septic shock in the hospitalized client? A. Maintain the client in a normothermic state. B. Administer blood products to replace fluid losses. C. Use aseptic technique during all invasive procedures. D. Keep the critically ill client immobilized to reduce metabolic demands.

Which physiological change occurs in older adults and warrants the nurse teaching the client about safety tips to prevent falls? A. Slowed movement B. Cartilage degeneration C. Decreased bone density D. Decreased range of motion (ROM)

Which population-level action would the nurse use to support tertiary prevention for clients with osteoporosis? A. Develop an educational campaign to support early identification of osteoporosis. B. Provide routine screening for osteoporosis at local health fairs and community sites. C. Support development of low-impact physical activity options for those diagnosed with osteoporosis. D. Encourage local providers to include discussion of strategies that reduce osteoporosis risk during annual wellness visits.

Which response would the nurse provide during an education session at the local community center to a question asking why influenza vaccines are needed annually? A. "The influenza virus has a high level of infectivity, thus requiring an annual booster to keep rates of influenza low." B. "Because influenza is seasonal and has never been eradicated, the need for a vaccine is also seasonal annually." C. "The nature of the virus changes every year; the vaccine is developed based on the most prevalent type and variant being seen." D. "There are several types of influenza viruses with differing levels of virulence, making it difficult to develop a vaccine that will be effective against all types of influenza."

Which surgery is used as a prophylactic measure and as a palliative treatment for clients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? A. Osteotomy B. Arthrodesis C. Synovectomy D. Debridement

Which synovial joint movement is involved in turning a client's palm downward? A. Eversion B. Inversion C. Pronation D. Supination

Which medication would the nurse anticipate being prescribed for a client reporting inflammatory lesions on the face and diagnosed with an inflammatory disorder of the sebaceous glands? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Bacitracin B. Mupirocin C. Clindamycin D. Erythromycin E. Metronidazole

C, D

The nurse caring for a client postsurgery takes necessary steps to achieve quality client care. Which nursing action satisfies the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) competency called informatics? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Washing the hands before handling the client's incision site B. Implementing a new. method of monitoring the client's incision site for infection C. Documenting in the electronic health record (EHR) after performing wound debridement D. Locking the electronic health record (EHR) after every entrance of necessary information E. Using a computer-assisted instruction (CAI) program to provide better quality of care to the client

C, D, E

The nurse is caring for a client whose mobility is restricted to a wheelchair after a motor vehicle accident. The client has been prescribed physiotherapy as a part of rehabilitation care. Which interventions would the nurse consider when the client is discharged fram the health care facility? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Focus firmly on the challenges faced by the client. B. Refrain from including children in the support system. C. Assist the family in identifying community support systems. D. Encourage the primary caregiver to set a routine time for respite. E. Consider the primary caregiver's experience in the discharge plan.

C, D, E

The nurse is collecting case reports that can be analyzed using the failure mode effective analysis (FMEA) tool. Which case files would the nurse collect? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. A coma due to severe hemolytic transfusion reaction B. Depression committed suicide by falling off the terrace of the hospital C. Retained foreign body left during surgery that was removed immediately D. Wheelchair-bound client rescued from falling in the corridor of the hospital E. Urinary tract infection after 4 days of continuous catheterization

C, D, E

Which scenario would the nurse consider an output component of the nursing process? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. While assessing a client, the nurse finds a history of mental illness. B. While assessing a client who is obese, the nurse finds a history of asthma. C. The nurse notices the client's wounds healed after performing regular wound debridement. D. When changing the surgical site dressing, the nurse notices the client developed an infection. E. The nurse finds the client's blood pressure increased, even with timely medication administration.

C, D, E

The nurse is preparing to insert an intravenous (IV) catheter in a thin, emaciated client who is scheduled to begin intravenous fluid therapy. Which interventions would the nurse follow to provide high-quality care? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter B. Change the IV line every 7 days C. Flush the IV line with normal saline D. Insert the IV catheter in the client's femur E. Stop the insertion procedure when there is a break in technique

C, E

What are the labs done with griseofulvin?

CBC serum creatinine hepatic (liver) functions

What are the lab considerations for trimethoprim?

CBC urinalysis

What are the adverse rxns to ceftaroline?

CDAD ENCEPHALOPATHY SEIZURES HYPERSENSITIVITY RXNS hemolytic anemia

What are the adverse rxns to cefepime?

CDAD ENCEPHALOPATHY SEIZURES HYPERSENSITIVITY RXNS rash pain at IM site phlebitis at IV site eosinophilia thrombocytopenia

What are the averse effects of cefoxitin?

CDAD SEIZURES ANAPHYLAXIS bleeding eosinophilia hemolytic anemia leukopenia thrombocytopenia

What are the adverse rxns to imipenem?

CDAD SEIZURES HYPERSENSITIVITY RXNS sweating hypotension dizziness somnolence

What are the adverse rxns of cephalexin?

CDAD SEIZURES HYPERSENSITIVITY RXNS eosinophilia hemolytic anemia neutropenia thrombocytopenia

What are the adverse rxns to cefotaxime?

CDAD SEIZURES ANAPHYLAXIS agranulocytosis bleeding eosinophilia hemolytic anemia neutropenia thrombocytopenia

What is ganciclovir used for?

CMV

What pharmacological therapies are used for osteoporosis?

Calcium Vitamin D Bisphosphonates Denosumab Raloxifene Calcitonin-Salmon Estrogen

How would you use ciprofloxacin while breastfeeding?

Can be used while breastfeeding for post-exposure prophylaxis of anthrax if potential maternal benefit justifies potential risk to infant

A child is prescribed an intravenous (IV) antibiotic. Within 10 minutes of the initial infusion, the child's face and neck are flushed but the remainder of the body is unchanged. The nurse reviews the child's record. Which action would the nurse take next? A. Administer acetaminophen. B. Place the child on protective isolation. C. Increase the rate of the vancomycin infusion. D. Notify the primary health care provider after stopping the infusion.

A client who has rheumatoid arthritis participates in an individualized exercise program daily. Which statement from the client indicates to the nurse that the client understands the purpose of the program? A. "I know the exercises are important, so I do them as many times as can." B. "I do my exercises when I go to physical therapy in the morning and afternoon." C. "Because I'm stiff in the morning, I do most of my exercises then, so I'm done for the day." D. "I do one set of exercises slowly after breakfast, then I space the rest of them throughout the day."

A new mother asks the nurse administering erythromycin ophthalmic ointment to her newborn why her baby must be subjected to this procedure. Which is the best response by the nurse? A. 'It will keep your baby from going blind. B. 'This ointment will protect your baby from bright lights." C. 'There is a law that newborns must be given this medicine.' D. 'This antibiotic helps keep babies from contracting eye infections."

A prescription for 6 mg of intramuscular dexamethasone, twice a day for 2 days, is issued to a client who is 32 weeks' pregnant and having regular labor contractions. The client asks why she needs this medicine. Which reason would the nurse give the client regarding the reason the medication was prescribed? A. "It will promote sleep." B. "It may stop contractions." C. "The medication relaxes uterine muscles." D. "The medication accelerates fetal lung maturity."

After teaching a client about the use of calcitonin (nasal route) as treatment for osteoporosis, which client statement indicates effective learning? A. "I should expect some nausea when taking this medication." B. "I should stop the medication when the symptoms subside." C. "I should not take calcium supplements when taking calcitonin." D. "I should not spray the medication into the same nostril on 2 consecutive days."

After teaching a male client about measures to maintain sexual health and prevent transmission of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), which client statement indicates effective learning? A. "I will use condoms when having sex with an infected partner." B. "I will perform a self-examination of my genitals every month before bathing." C. "I will refrain from getting the human papilloma virus vaccine (HPV) before the age of 27 years." D. "I willconsult with myprimary health care provider when there is a rash or ulcer on my genitalia."

An adolescent is taken to the emergency department of the local hospital after stepping on a nail. The nurse asks if the client has had a tetanus immunization. The adolescent responds that all immunizations are up to date. A few days later, the client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of tetanus. Which statement describes the nurse's responsibility in this situation? A. The nurse's judgment was adequate, and the client was treated accordingly. B. The possibility of tetanus was not foreseen because the client was immunized. C. Nurses would routinely administer immunization against tetanus after such an injury. D. Assessment by the nurse was incomplete and, as a result, the treatment was insufficient

At which joint would the nurse be able to palpate spongy swelling caused by excess synovial fluid? A. Biaxial joint B. Pivotal joint C. Synovial joint D. Temporomandibular joint

How would the nurse reply when a client prescribed a tetracycline class medication asks why milk and antacids should be avoided before and after dosing? A. "Taking these together can lead to kidney impairment." B. "The pairing of these substances leads to tooth staining." C. "Severe diarrhea can occur when taking these substances together." D. "This can lead to decreased absorption of the medication you need."

The nurse creates a plan of care for a client with a risk of infection. Which is the desirable expectedoutcome for the client? A. All nursing functions will be completed by discharge. B. All invasive intravenous lines will remain patent. C. The client will remain awake, alert, and oriented at all times. D. The client will be free of signs and symptoms of infection by discharge.

The nurse is assessing a client with arthritis. Which statement made by the client indicates a precipitating factor? A. "The pain is usually present in my fingers and knees." B. "I observed swelling and redness near the pain area." C. "I feel the pain in each and every joint of my hands and legs." D. "I run for 30 minutes every day; this exercise increases my pain."

The nurse provides moist heat for a client with cartilage degeneration. Which rational explains the use of this nursing intervention? A. To slow bone loss B. To prevent skin breakdown C. To increase muscle strength D. To increase blood flow to the area

The parent of a newborn asks the nurse why, except for hepatitis B vaccine, the immunization schedule does not start until the infant is 2 months old. Which response would the nurse provide? A. "A newborn's spleen can't produce efficient antibodies." B. "Infants younger than 2 months are rarely exposed to infectious disease." C. "The immunization will attack the infant's immature immune system and cause the disease." D. "Maternal antibodies interfere with the development of active antibodies by the infant when immunized."

Which anti-infective agent may lead to blindness if not used correctly by the client in prescribed amounts? A. Bromfenac B. Natamycin C. Trifluridine D. Gentamicin

Which change in the joint may result in joint pain for older adults? A. Dehydration of discs B. Loss of muscle mass C. Decreased elasticity in the ligaments D. Increased cartilage erosion

Which client statement indicates to the nurse effective teaching regarding the administration of ciprofloxacinarapy for treatment of osteomyelitis? A. "I should go to my primary health care provider's clinic for a weekly dressing change." B. "I should stop taking the medication as soon as my symptoms begin to decrease." C. "I should not remove the soiled dressing without someone's assistance." D. "I should contact my primary health care provider if white patches appear in my mouth."

Which client statement provides evidence that the client understands medication teaching for high-dose penicillin? A. "I should take this medication with meals." B. "This medicine may cause constipation." C. "I must avoid dairy products while taking this medicine." D. "I must increase my intake of fluids while taking this medication."

Which client would the nurse suspect as having a type IV hypersensitive reaction when providing care for four clients with hypersensitivity reactions? Client A: IgE, wheal flare Client B: IgM, none Client C: IgG, erythema and edema after 4hr Client D: None, erythema and edema after 24hr

Which condition is consistent with a client's report of posterior leg pain while walking that worsens upon rest? A. Crepitus B. Ankylosis C. Contracture D. Tendonitis

Which effect has resulted in the avoidance of tetracycline use in children under 8 years old? A. Birth defects B. Allergic responses C. Severe nausea andvomiting D. Permanent tooth discoloration

Which hormone promotes bone resorption in a client and potentially leads to decreased bone densities? A. Estrogen B. Calcitonin C. Growth hormone D. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Which instruction indicates a lack of understanding of a nurse teaching a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive client about strategies to prevent opportunistic infections? A. "Reuse cups after washing them with warm soapy water." B. "Rinse your toothbrush in liquid laundry bleach every week." C. "Wash your armpits, groin, and genitals with antimicrobial soap twice a day" D. "Purchase organic, unpasteurized apple cider for your vitamin C requirements."

Which instruction would the nurse provide a client prescribed oral extended-release ciprofloxacino therapy for a urinary tract infection? A. Chew the medication along with food. B. Take a walk in morning sunlight. C. Stop the drug after symptoms subside. D. Refrain from taking the tablet immediately after an antacid.

Which meal is most appropriate for a client with a large pressure injury? A. Hamburger with french fries B. Turkey meatloaf with brown rice C. Pasta and tomato sauce with a side salad D. Grilled chicken, steamed spinach, and a side of orange slices

Which medication is the first-line medication used to treat a client with mild diarrhea who is diagnosed with a Clostridium difficile infection? A. Rifaximin B. Fidaxomicin C. Vancomycin D. Metronidazole

Which medication used to treat bacterial vaginosis may be responsible for a client's report of an unpleasant metallic taste, nausea, and vomiting? A. Tinidazole B. Miconazole C. Clotrimazole D. Metronidazole

Which medication would cause the nurse to monitor the serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, when administered to a client receiving therapy for extensive burn wounds? A. Nitrofurantoin B. Mafenide acetate C. Silver sulfadiazine D. Gentamicin sulfate

Which nursing intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for an older adult client with decreased bone density? A. Teaching the client isometric exercises B. Advising the client to take a warm shower C. Providing supportive armchairs to the client D. Demonstrating weight-bearing exercises to the client

Which prescribed medication will the nurse probably prepare educational materials for when caring for a pregnant woman with a body temperature of 103?F (39.4?C) and clinical manifestations of coccidioidomycosis? A. Doxycycline B. Ciprofloxacin C. Pyrazinamide D. Amphotericin B

Which prescription would the nurse anticipate being written for a client experiencing vaginal discharge with a fishy odor who was diagnosed bacterial vaginosis? A. Tinidazole B. Miconazole C. Clotrimazole D. Metronidazole

Which rationale describes why the nurse would advise a client to have a dental examination before beginning prescribed therapy with zoledronic acid? A. To prevent kidney failure B. To prevent atrial fibrillation C. To prevent bronchoconstriction D. To prevent maxillary osteonecrosis

Which recommendation would the nurse make to the family of a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis who has difficulty getting ready for school in the morning due to joint pain and stiffness? A. Administer acetaminophen before bedtime. B. Ice the joints that are painful in the evening. C. Encourage a program of active exercise after awakening. D. Provide warm, moist heat to the affected joints before arising.

Which response would the nurse give to a client taking ibuprofen for rheumatoid arthritis who asks the nurse if acetaminophen can be substituted? A. "Yes, both are antipyretics and have the same effect." B. "Acetaminophen irritates the stomach more than ibuprofen does." C. "Acetaminophen is the preferred treatment for rheumatoid arthritis." D. "Ibuprofen has anti-inflammatory properties, and acetaminophen does not."

Which statement by the client indicates that the nurse's teaching was effective regarding intravenous gentamicin therapy? A. "I should drink lots of water if I am retaining urine." B. "I should use eyeglasses if I develop vision problems." C. "I should stop the medication when the symptoms have subsided." D. "I should report any hearing loss to the primary health care provider."

Which tissue connects the client's tibia to the femur at the knee joint? A. Fascia B. Bursae C. Tendons D. Ligaments

Which type of synovial joint movement is involved in moving the client's first and fifth metacarpals anteriorly from the flattened palm? A. Flexion B. Extension C. Abduction D. Opposition

While assessing an immobilized client, the nurse notes that the client has shortened muscles over a joint, preventing full extension. Which is this condition known as? A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteoporosis C. Muscle atrophy D. Contracture

What is cefoxitin active against?

Haemophilus influenzae E. coli Klebsiella pneumoniae Morganella morganii Neisseria gonorrhoeae Proteus Providencia Moraxella catarrhalis Bacteroides fragilis *not active against methicillin-resistant staphylococci or enterococci

What are the contraindications for nystatin?

Hypersensitivity

What are the contraindications to vancomycin?

Hypersensitivity

What are the contraindications for erythromycin?

Hypersensitivity Hepatic insufficiency Long QT syndrome Hypokalemia Hypomagnesia HR <50 bpm Known alcohol intolerance Tartrazine sensitivity Neonates

What are the contraindications for metronidazole?

Hypersensitivity Hypersensitivity to parabens (topical only) First trimester of pregnancy.

What are the contraindications for amphotericin B?

Hypersensitivity Lactation (may cross into breastmilk)

What are the contraindications for trimethoprim?

Hypersensitivity Megaloblastic anemia secondary to folate deficiency Pregnancy, lactation, or children <12 yr

What are the contraindications of doxycycline?

Hypersensitivity Pregnancy (staining of teeth)

What are the contraindications for griseofulvin?

Hypersensitivity Severe liver disease or porphyria.

What are contraindications for acyclovir?

Hypersensitivity to acyclovir or valacyclovir Hypersensitivity to milk protein concentrate (buccal only)

What are the contraindications for cefepime?

Hypersensitivity to cephalosporins Serious hypersensitivity to penicillins

What are the contraindications for fluconazole?

Hypersensitivity to fluconazole or other azole antifungals use with pimozide, erythromycin, or quinidine Pregnancy

What are the contraindications of gentamicin?

Hypersensitivity to gentamicin or other aminoglycosides Most parenteral products contain bisulfites and should be avoided in patients with known intolerance Pregnancy (may cause fetal harm) Products containing benzyl alcohol should be avoided in neonate

What are contraindications of amoxicillin?

Hypersensitivity to penicillins severe renal imparement infectious mononucleosis acute lymphatic leukemia cytomegalovirus infection

What signs/symp should patients report to HCP when taking vancomycin?

Hypersensitivity, tinnitus, vertigo, or hearing loss

How is cefotaxime administered?

IM or IV

How is ceftaroline administered?

How is imipenem administered?

How is cefoxitin administered?

IV and IM

How is amphotericin B administered?

IV only

How is Penicillin G administered?

IV or IM

How is gentamicin administered?

IV or IM

How is metronidazole administered?

IV or PO

How is vancomycin administered?

IV or PO

How is methylprednisolone administered?

IV push or IV drip

What is erythromycin used for?

IV+PO o Upper and lower respiratory infections o Otitis media o Skin/skin structure infections o Pertussis o Diptheria o Erythrasma o Intestinal amebiasis o Pelvic inflammatory disease o Nongonococcal urethritis o Syphilis o Legionnaire's disease o Rheumatic fever o Streptococcal infections o Gonorrhea Topical o Acne

What is vancomycin used for?

IV: Endocarditis Meningitis Osteomyelitis Pneumonia Septicemia Soft tissue infections (if allergic to penicillins) Part of endocarditis prophylaxis (if allergic to penicillins) PO: CDAD Staphylococcus enterocolitis

What should the patient do if they are taking metronidazole?

If needed, use single dose and interrupt nursing for 24 hr after taking

What does griseofulvin do?

Inhibits mitosis of fungal cells. Deposits in precursor cells of hair, skin, and nails, making them resistant to fungal invasion.

What do aminoglycosides do?

Inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria at level of 30S ribosome. (bactericidal)

What do "azoles" do?

Inhibits synthesis of fungal sterols, a necessary component of the cell membrane. (Can be fungistatic or fungicidal)

What are the labs done for metronidazole?

Liver function

What are the lab tests for ciprofloxacin?

Liver function Blood glucose Alkaline phosphatase

What is imipenem used for?

Lower respiratory infections UTI Abdominal infections Gynecologic infections Skin/skin structure infections Bone and joint infections Bacteremia Endocarditis Polymicrobic infections

What are the lab considerations for ceftaroline?

May cause a seroconversion from a negative to a positive Coombs test result

Why would you not use cefepime with aminoglycosides or loop diuretics?

May increase risk of nephrotoxicity

Why do you not take erythromycin with pimozide?

May increase risk of serious arrhythmias

What are the lab considerations for gentamicin?

Monitor renal function

What is Cushinoid appearance?

Moon face, truncal obesity and the formation of a buffalo hump

why would you prefer to rake one generation of cephalosporin over the other?

More gram negative and positive coverage with each generation (increase in number)

Should you take tetracycline with calcium/dairy products?

Should parents use household items to administer amoxicillin to their child?

No, the measuring tool should come from the pharmacy or be included in the product.

Should you drive with fluconazole?

Not until alertness is determined

Should you use imipenem if lactating?

Only if maternal benefit outweighs infant's risk

Should you use ceftaroline while lactating?

Only if maternal benefit outweighs infants risk.

Should you use vancomycin while lactating?

Only if maternal benefit outweighs the infant risk

Should you use cephalexin when lactating?

Only if the benefit outweighs the costs

How is Penicillin V administered?

How is amoxicillin administered?

How is cephalexin administered?

How is griseofulvin administered?

How is prednisone administered?

How is trimethoprim administered?

What is fluconazole used for?

PO IV Fungal infections caused by susceptible organisms, including: ● Oropharyngeal or esophageal candidiasis ● Serious systemic candidal infections ● Urinary tract infections ● Peritonitis ● Cryptococcal meningitis. Prevention of candidiasis in patients who have undergone bone marrow transplantation. PO Single-dose oral treatment of vaginal candidiasis.

What is ciprofloxacin used for?

PO IV ●Skin and skin structure infections ●Bone and joint infections ●Complicated intra-abdominal infections (with metronidazole) ●Urinary tract infections ●Chronic bacterial prostatitis ●Lower respiratory tract infections ●Acute bacterial sinusitis (should be used only when there are no other alternative treatment options) ●Post-exposure prophylaxis of inhalational anthrax ●Treatment and prophylaxis of plague. PO ●Infectious diarrhea ●typhoid fever ●uncomplicated cervical and urethral gonorrhea. IV ●Nosocomial pneumonia ●Febrile neutropenia (with piperacillin/tazobactam).

How is ciprofloxacin administered?

PO or IV

How is fluconazole administered?

PO or IV

How is nystatin administered?

PO or topically

How is acyclovir administered?

PO, IV, topical

How is erythromycin administered?

PO, parenteral, topical

What are the adverse rxns of Penicillin G + V?

SEIZURES ANAPHYLAXIS SERUM SICKNESS CDAD epigastric distress rash leukopenia eosinophilia pain at IM site phlebitis at IV site interstitial nephritis urticaria

What are the adverse rxns for acyclovir?

STEVENS-JOHNSON SYNDROME RENAL FAILURE THROMBOTIC THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPURA/HEMOLYTIC UREMIC SYNDROME SEIZURES acne hives rash unusual sweating changes in menstrual cycle, polydipsia ↑ liver enzymes, hyperbilirubinemia abdominal pain anorexia crystalluria hematuria renal pain pain phlebitis local irritation joint pain dizziness headache hallucinations trembling

What are the adverse rxns with metronidazole?

STEVENS-JOHNSON SYNDROME (SJS) SEIZURES rash urticaria burning (topical) mild dryness (topical) skin irritation (topical) transient redness (topical) optic neuropathy tearing (topical) abdominal pain anorexia, diarrhea dry mouth furry tongue glossitis unpleasant taste leukopenia phlebitis at IV site peripheral neuropathy dizziness headache aseptic meningitis (IV) encephalopathy (IV) psychosis superinfection

What is ceftaroline active against?

Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes Streptococcus agalactiae Streptococcus pneumoniae E. coli Klebsiella pneumoniae Klebsiella oxytoca Haemophilus influenzae

What is imipenem active against?

Staphylococcus pneumoniae Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci Enterococcus Staph aureus E. coli Klebsiella Proteus Serratia Pseudomonas aeruginosa Salmonella Shigella Neisseria gonnorhoeae Numerous anareobes

What does Estrogen do? (osteoporosis)

Suppresses resorption of bone

What are the adverse rxns for fluconazole?

TORSADES DE POINTES SJS HEPATOTOXICITY HYPERSENSITIVITY RXNS QT interval prolongation adrenal insufficiency hypokalemia hypertriglyceridemia abdominal discomfort diarrhea headache dizziness seizures

What is the short acting tetracycline?

Tetracycline

What should patients with rheumatic heart disease or valve replacements do?

Use an antimicrobial prophylaxis before invasive dental/medical procedures.

What assessments do you do with erythromycin?

Vitals Appearance of wound, sputum, and stool WBC Culture and sensitivity Monitor bowel function

How should the patient take amoxicillin?

around the clock and finish completely, even if feeling better

How should the patient take cephalexin?

around the clock at evenly spaced intervals and completely as directed, even if feeling better

How should vancomycin be taken?

as directed, take missed doses ASAP (unless close to time of next dose)

what assessments should you do with prednisone?

assess for adrenal insufficiency monitor intake and output ratios periodic growth assessment in children look for signs of hypokalemia

What should the fluid intake be with ciprofloxacin?

at least 1500-2000 mL/day

What medicine should be avoided while having osteoporosis?

corticosteroids and loop diuretics

What are the short acting glucocorticoids?

cortisone and hydrocortisone

What does narrow spectrum mean?

effective only against a limited variety of microbes; limited toxicity

What are the three macrolides that we need to know?

erythromycin (prototype), clarithromycin, and azithromycin

What signs/symp should a patient report to HCP when taking cefotaxime?

furry overgrowth on the tongue vaginal itching/discharge loose/foul-smelling stools fever blood, pus, or mucous in stool

What signs/symp should a patient report to HCP when taking imipenem?

furry overgrowth on the tongue vaginal itching/discharge loose/foul-smelling stools fever blood, pus, or mucous in stool

What sings/symp would you report to HCP when taking cefoxitin?

furry overgrowth on the tongue vaginal itching/discharge loose/foul-smelling stools fever blood, pus, or mucous in stool

What are the most common joints effected by osteoarthritis?

hands, spine, knees, and hips

What kind of diet should someone who takes prednisone have?

high protein, calcium, and potassium with low sodium and carbohydrates. no alcohol

What signs/symp should patients report with gentamicin?

hypersensitivity tinnitus vertigo hearing loss rash dizziness difficulty urinating

What are contraindications of cephalexin?

hypersensitivity to cephalosporins serious hypersensitivity to penicillins renal impairment history of GI disease, especially colitis

What would happen if you mixed imipenem with ganciclovir and cyclosporine?

increase risk of seizures

Why would you not use prednisone with NSAIDs?

increases risk of adverse GI effects

What do sulfonamides/trimethoprim do?

inhibit folic acid synthesis in bacteria (bactericidal)

What do macrolides do?

inhibits protein synthesis by bacteria at the 50S ribosome (bacteriostatic)

What should a patient taking metronidazole avoid?

intake of alcoholic beverages or preparations containing alcohol during and for at least 3 days after treatment (vaginal gel)

Why do you not take aminoglycosides with cefoxitin?

it may increase risk of nephrotoxicity

Why would you not use cephalexin with aminoglycosides or loop diuretics?

it may increase the risk of renal toxicity

What are contraindications of prednisone?

lactation, active untreated infections, OB

What are the lab considerations for cefotaime?

may cause false positive Coombs test (esp in patients with azotemia) may cause increased increased AST, ALT, LDH, BUN, alkaline phosphatase, bilirubin, and serum creatinine may cause false increased serum urine creatinine test results may rarely cause leukopenia, neutropenia, agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia, and eosinophilia

What are the lab considerations for cefoxitin?

What are the lab considerations with cephalexin?

may cause false positive for Coombs test may cause increase in AST, ALT, LDH, BUN, alkaline phosphate, bilirubin, and creatinine may cause neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, and eosinophilia (rare)

Why do you not take Penicillin with oral contraceptives?

may decrease effectiveness of the oral contraceptives

Why do you not take amoxicillin with allopurinol?

may increase frequency of rash

Why would you not use prednisone with insulin/oral hypoglycemics?

may increase requirements

What happens when you mix cefotaxime, aminoglycosides, NSAIDs, and loop diuretics?

may increase risk of nephrotoxicity

Why would you not use prednisone with fluroquinolones?

may increase risk of tendon rupture

What is trimethoprim?

not a sulfonamide but commonly given with sulfonamides

Should a patient treat diarrhea when on Penicillin G + V?

not without consulting a HCP

How are cortisone and hydrocortisone used?

often used as a topical agent

Should acyclovir be used during pregnancy and lactation?

only if maternal benefit outweighs infant/fetal risk

Should you use ciprofloxacin in children 1-17 y/o?

only if no alternatives due to possible arthropathy.

Should you use cefotaxime while pregnant and lactating?

only if the benefit is greater than the risks

Should you take ciprofloxacin with dairy?

only take ciprofloxacin 1 hr before or 2 hr after consuming dairy.

What is nystatin used for?

only used for candidiasis (yeast fungal infection) of skin, mouth, esophagus, and vagina.

What is griseofulvin used for?

only used to treat superficial mycoses (such as with fungal nail infection)

What "VIRS" are used for influenza?

oseltamivir, zanamivir, and peramivir

What are the adverse rxns to gentamicin?

ototoxicity (vestibular and cochlear) nephrotoxicity muscle paralysis (high parenteral doses) ataxia vertigo hypersensitivity reactions

Who is prednisolone used with?

pediatric patients

What is Penicillin G + V used for?

pneumococcal pneumonia streptococcal pharyngitis syphilis gonorrhea strains enterococcal infections prevention of rheumatic fever treatment of Lyme disease septicemia in children with sickle cell

What are the lab considerations with Penicillin G + V?

positive direct Coombs' test result hyperkalemia serum sodium in patients with HF or hypertension hypernatremia increased AST, ALT, LDH, and serum alkaline phosphate leukopenia neutropenia

Who is Calcitonin-Salmon used with?

post menopausal women

What is Betamethasone used for?

pre-term labor to help the pre-term infant's lungs

What are the intermediate acting glucocorticoids?

prednisolone and methylprednisolone

What is a good way to remember cephalosporins?

prefix ceph-/cef

What signs/symp should be reported with griseofulvin?

rash, sore throat, fever, diarrhea, or soreness of mouth or tongue

What are the lab considerations with fluconazole?

renal and liver function

What is Raloxifene?

selective estrogen receptor modulator

What is gentamicin used for?

serious gram negative infections

What are the lab considerations with amoxicillin?

serum alkaline phosphatase (goes up) LDH, AST, ALT concentrations (goes up) false-positive direct Coombs' test result

What are the lab considerations with prednisone?

serum sodium (goes up) serum calcium and potassium (goes down) glucose (goes up) hematologic values WBC count (goes down) serum cholesterol and lipid values (goes up) uptake of thyroid hormones (goes down)

What signs/symp should a patient report with fluconazole?

skin rash, abdominal pain, fever, or diarrhea

What signs/symp should the patient report to the HCP with trimethoprim?

skin rash, sore throat, fever, mouth sores, or unusual bleeding or bruising

What is cefotaxime used for?

skin/skin structure infections bone/joint infections gynecological infections (including gonorrhea) lower respiratory infection intra-abdominal infections septicemia meningitis lyme disease preoperative prophylaxis

What is cephalexin used for?

skin/skin structure infections respiratory tract infections otitis media urinary tract infections bone infections

What are Penicillin G + V active against?

streptococci staphylococci Bacillus anthracis (anthrax) Neisseria meningitidis (meningitis) N. gonorrhoeae (gonorrhea) Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)

What is amoxicillin active against?

streptococci pneumococci enterococci Haemophilus influenzae (flu) E. coli Proteus mirabilis (Proteus infections) Neisseria meningitidis (meningitis) N. gonorrhoeae (gonorrhea) Shigella Chlamydia trachomatis (Chlamydia) Salmonella Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease) H. pylori (ulcer)

What is a good way to remember penicillins?

suffix -cillin

What is a good way to remember tetracyclines?

suffix -cycline

What is a good way to remember floroquinalones?

suffix -floxacin

What is a good way to remember glucocorticoids?

suffix -sone

What is a good way to remember macrolides?

suffix -thromycin

What should patients taking tetracycline wear when outside?

sunscreen and protective clothing

What signs/symp should the patient notify a HCP of when taking Penicillin G + V?

superinfection fever diarrhea stool containing blood, pus, or mucous

What signs/symp should the patient notify a HCP of when taking amoxicillin?

superinfection fever diarrhea stool containing blood, pus, or mucous

What signs/symp should the patient notify a HCP of when taking cephalexin?

superinfection fever diarrhea stool containing blood, pus, or mucous

What do glucocorticoids do? (pharm)

suppression of inflammation and immune response; this is needed in high doses

What does amphotericin B treat?

systemic mycoses (fungus) infections

Why should a patient avoid alcohol with griseofulvin?

tachycardia, flushing, and ↑ CNS depression may result

How should a patient take trimethoprim?

take medication and to finish medication completely as directed, even if feeling better, and take missed doses as soon as remembered

How should ciprofloxacin be taken?

take medication as directed at evenly spaced times and to finish drug completely, even if feeling better, take missed doses as soon as possible (unless within 6 hr of next dose)

How does someone take metronidazole?

take medication as directed with evenly spaced times between doses, even if feeling better

How should fluconazole be taken?

take medication as directed, even if feeling better, doses should be taken at the same time each day

What drugs cause hypokalemia with prednisone?

thiazide, loop diuretics, amphotericin B, piperacillin, ticarcillin and digoxin

What does metronidazole do?

treats: C. Diff infections Gardnerella vaginalis (female genital infection) H. pylori associated with peptic ulcer disease

What medicine is the main treatment of MRSA?

vancomycin

What assessments do you do with imipenem?

vital signs appearance of wound sputum, urine, stool (sign of infection) WBC history of previous rxns to penicillins a obtain specimen for culture and sensitivity observe for sign/symp of anaphylaxis

What assessments do you do with cefepime?

vital signs appearance of wound sputum, urine, stool (sign of infection) WBC history of previous rxns to penicillins and cephalosporins obtain specimen for culture and sensitivity observe for sign/symp of anaphylaxis Monitor bowel function (CDAD)

What assessments do you do with cefotaxime?

What assessments do you do with ceftaroline?

What assessments should you do with cephalexin?

What assessments would you do with cefoxitin?

What assessments should you do with ciprofloxacin?

vital signs appearance of wound, sputum, urine, stool WBC urinalysis frequency and urgency of urination cloudy or foul-smelling urine Obtain specimens for culture and sensitivity Observe for signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis Monitor bowel function.

What assessments do you do with gentamicin?

vital signs wound appearance sputum urine stool WBC culture and sensitivity evaluate eighth cranial nerve function by audiometry Monitor blood levels periodically

How should a patient apply topical gentamicin?

wash affected skin gently and pat dry, apply a thin film of ointment, apply occlusive dressing (only if ordered by health care professional)

What are the most common areas effected by osteoarthritis?

wrist, hip, vertebral column

What are the adverse rxns to ciprofloxacin?

●AORTIC ANEURYSM/DISSECTION ●HEPATOTOXICITY ●ELEVATED INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE ●SEIZURES ●SUICIDAL THOUGHTS ●CDAD ●HYPERSENSITIVITY RXNS ●photosensitivity ●rash ●hyperglycemia ●hypoglycemia ●abdominal pain ●↑ liver enzymes ●vaginitis ●arthralgia ●myalgia ●tendinitis ●tendon rupture ●peripheral neuropathy ●agitation ●confusion ●depression ●dizziness ●drowsiness ●hallucinations ●headache ●Insomnia ●nightmare ●paranoia ●toxic psychosis ●tremor

What are the contraindications for ciprofloxacin?

●Hypersensitivity (cross-sensitivity within class may exist) ●History of myasthenia gravis ●Concurrent use with tizanidine ●Patients with or at ↑ risk for aortic aneurysm (use only if no alternatives) ●Avoid breastfeeding during treatment and for 2 days after final dose (except for anthrax)

What are the assessments for amphotericin B?

●Monitor patient closely during test dose and the first 1-2 hr of each dose for fever, chills, headache, anorexia, nausea, or vomiting ●Assess injection site frequently for thrombophlebitis or leakage ●Monitor vital signs every 15 min during test dose and every 30 min for 2-4 hr after administration. ●Assess respiratory status (lung sounds, dyspnea) daily ●Monitor intake and output and weigh daily, adequate hydration (2000-3000 mL/day)

What are the assessments for metronidazole?

●vital signs ●appearance of wound, sputum, urine, and stool ●WBC ●Obtain specimens for culture and sensitivity ●Monitor neurologic status during and after IV infusions. (numbness, paresthesia, weakness, ataxia, or seizures) ●Monitor intake, output, and daily weight ●Assess for rash periodically during therapy (SJS)

What are the risk factors for a suppressed immune system?

- Age - Nonimmunized state - Environmental factors - Chronic illness - Medical treatments - Genetics - High risk behaviors + substance abuse - Pregnancy

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

-female -increasing age -family history of osteoporosis -white or Asian race -small stature -early menopause sedentary lifestyle -insufficient dietary calcium.

What is a good way to remember "virs"?

-vir = virus

Arrange the steps required to stimulate antibody-mediated immunity in the sequence they occur. 1. Invasion of new antigens in the body 2. Interaction of the macrophage and helper T cells to recognize the antigen 3. Sensitization of B lymphocyte to the new antigen 4. Production of antibodies by B lymphocytes 5. Binding of antibodies to the antigen and formation of immune complex 6. Neutralization or elimination of the antigen

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

How long should someone wait to take doxycycline after taking supplements?

1-3 hr

Arrange the steps involved in skin testing for an allergen causing a type I allergic reaction in their correct sequence. 1. Clean the inner side of the forearm with soap and water. 2. Apply topical steroid on the skin. 3. Use skin testing needle to scratch surface of skin 4. Place drops of sera containing the known allergen on skin 5. Observe for a wheal formation on the skin. 6. Discontinue corticosteroid medications.

6, 1, 4, 3, 5, 2

The nurse is completing the health history of a client admitted to the hospital with osteoarthritis. Which joint would the nurse expect the client to report as having been involved first? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Hips B. Knees C. Ankles D. Shoulders E. Metacarpals

A, B

Which tasks should the nurse perform to comply with public health laws? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct A. Report cases of communicable diseases. B. Report incidents of domestic violence. C. Provide emergency assistance at an accident scene. D. Notify the primary health care provider of any client-related problems. E. Ensure that clients in a community have received necessary immunizations.

A, B, E

The nurse is interviewing a client who was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which clinical findings to this disease would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Butterfly facial rash B. Firm skin fixed to tissue C.Inflammation of the joints D. Muscle mass degeneration E. Inflammation of small arteries

A, C

Which findings are consistent with hypercalcemia after prolonged immobility? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Bone pain B. Convulsions C. Muscle spasms D. Tingling of extremities E. Depressed deep tendon reflexes

A, E

Which hormone is responsible for altered serum calcium concentrations? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Calcitonin B. Thyroxine C. Glucocorticoids D. Growth hormone E. Parathyroid hormone

A, E

What are the adverse rxns to vancomycin?

ACUTE GENERALIZED EXANTHEMATOUS PUSTULOSIS DRUG RXN WITH EOSINOPHILIA AND SYSTEMIC SYMPTOMS LINEAR IGA BULLOUS DERMATITIS SJS TOXIC EPIDERMAL NECROLYSIS ototoxicity nephrotoxicity

What is cefotaxime active against?

Acinetobacter Citrobacter Enterobacter Haemophilus influenzae Haemophilus parainfluenzae E. coli Klebsiella pneumoniae Morganella morganii N. gonnorhoeae and meningitidis Proteus Providencia Serratia Moraxella catarrhalis Borrelia bugdorferi Bacteroides fragilis *not active against methicillin-resistant staphylococcus

What is ceftaroline used for?

Acute bacterial skin/skin structure infections Community acquired pneumonia

What is the broad spectrum penicillin?

Amoxicillin

What pharmacological therapies are used for osteoarthritis?

Analgesics (acetaminophen) Anti Inflammatory agents (NSAIDs) Corticosteroid injections Calcium Vitamin D

How should tetracycline be taken?

Around the clock and finish completely, even if feeling better

How should doxycycline be taken?

Around the clock and finished completely, even if feeling better.

How should you take erythromycin?

Around the clock and until finished, even if feeling better.

What assessments should you do with Penicillin G + V?

Assess for infection History of reactions to penicillin, cephalosporins, and other beta-lactam antibiotics Obtain specimens for culture and sensitivity Observe for signs/symp of anaphylaxis

What assessments should be done with acyclovir?

Assess lesions before and daily during therapy. Monitor frequency of recurrences. Monitor neurologic status in patients with herpes encephalitis.

A client arrives at a health clinic reports, "I am here to have my tuberculin skin test read." The nurse notes a 7-mm indurated area at the injection site. Which nurse's statement describes this result? A. "The result indicates that you have active tuberculosis." B. "The result indicates you are infected with the tuberculosis organism." C. "The result indicates there are no tuberculin antibodies in your system." D. "The result indicates you have a secondary infection related to the tuberculin organism."

To which of these four assigned clients with a mouth infection would the nurse anticipate administering nystatin as an oral suspension? Client A: trench mouth Client B: Moniliasis Client C: cold sores Client D: parotitis

Which condition triggers humoral immunity? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Tuberculosis B. Atopic diseases C. Bacterial infection D. Anaphylactic shock E. Contact dermatitis

B, C, D

Which therapeutic outcome is expected after administering ibuprofen? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Diuresis B. Pain relief C. Temperature reduction D. Bronchodilation E. Anticoagulation F. Reduced inflammation

B, C, F

What labs should be done with acyclovir?

BUN, serum creatinine, and CCr

What do cephalosporins do?

Binds to bacterial cell wall membrane, causing cell death. (bactericidal)

What does vancomycin do?

Binds to bacterial cell wall, resulting in cell death. (bacericidal)

A 12-year-old child recently sustained several tick bites while camping and may have Lyme disease. What is the most appropriate response when he asks what is Lyme disease? A. 'I can see that you're concerned. Tell me what you want to know." B. 'The infection is caused by a spirochete. It can be cured with penicillin." C. 'The tick bites gave you an infection. There is medication that will treat it." D. 'You sound upset. Don't worry. We have medicine that will make you better."

Which action would the nurse take after receiving a urine culture and sensitivity report that reveals a client has vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE) and after notifying the primary health care provider? A. Insert a Foley catheter. B. Initiate droplet precautions. C. Move the client to a private room. D. Use a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator.

Which describes the purpose of preoperative antibiotics for a client scheduled for a surgical resection of the colon and creation of a colostomy? A. To decrease peristalsis B. To minimize electrolyte imbalance C. To decrease bacteria in the intestines D. To treat inflammation caused by the malignancy

What labs should be done with amphotericin B?

CBC BUN Kidney function

What are the adverse rxns of amoxicillin?

CDAD SEIZURES SERUM SICKNESS ANAPHYLAXIS urticaria blood dyscrasias superinfection increased liver enzymes

What are the fluoroquinolones noted?

Ciprofloxacin (prototype), ofloxacin, moxifloxacin, levofloxacin, gemifloxacin

What screenings are used for osteoarthritis?

Clinical Assessment Radiological Studies CT, Arthroscopy, MRI rarely needed

How do you take ceftaroline?

Completing the course, even if feeling better

After a below-the-knee amputation, a client is refusing to eat, talk, or perform any rehabilitatie activities. Which approach would the nurse take when interacting with this client? A. Explain why there is a need to increase activity. B. Emphasize that with a prosthesis, there will be a return to the previous lifestyle. C. Appear cheerful and noncritical regardless of the client's response to attempts at intervention. D. Acknowledge that the client's withdrawal is an expected and necessary part of initial grieving.

Which type of delayed hypersensitivity reaction does the client pictured in the image likely have? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV

Which treatment strategy would benefit a client diagnosed with chlamydia? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Penicillin G B. Ceftriaxone C. Clotrimazole D. Doxycycline E. Azithromycin

D, E

What are the adverse rxns with doxycycline?

DRESS ERYTHEMA MULTIFORME EXOFOLIATIVE DERMATITIS SJS TOXIC EPIDERMAL NECROLYSIS CDAD HEPATOTOXICITY PANCREATITIS photosensitivity glossitis

What nonpharmacological therapies are used for osteoporosis?

Diet modifications -Increase calcium -Decrease sodium -Decrease alcohol Weight-bearing exercises -Prevent bone loss -Strengthen already weak bones Psychosocial support Fall prevention Stop smoking

What does metronidazole do?

Disrupts DNA and protein synthesis in susceptible organisms. (bactericidal)

What is the long acting tetracycline?

Doxycycline

What screenings are used for osteoporosis?

Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan Bone Mineral Density (BMD) Test Full history and physical examination

What is cefepime active against?

Enterobacter Haemophiles influenzae E.coli Klebsiella pneumoniae Neisseria Proteus Providencia Pseudomonas aeruginosa Serratia Moraxella catarrhalis

What causes osteoporosis?

Exact cause is unknown

What nonpharmacological therapies are used for osteoarthritis?

Exercise Weight loss Braces Foot orthoses Nutritional supplements PT/OT TENS unit Surgical procedures

What are the lab considerations for cefepime?

Fales positive Coombs test Increase ALT, AST, bilirubin, BUN, and serum creatinine

What is the brand name for metronidazole?

Flagyl

What are the narrow spectrum penicillins?

G+V

What is tetracycline used for?

Gonorrhea and syphilis Prevention of exacerbations of chronic bronchitis Treatment of acne Various infections: -Mycoplasma -Chlamydia -Rickettsia -Borrelia burgdorferi

What are the adverse rxns with griseofulvin?

HEPATOTOXICITY ERYTHEMA MULTIFORME STEVENS-JOHNSON SYNDROME TOXIC EPIDERMAL NECROLYSIS SERUM SICKNESS headache dizziness hearing loss diarrhea epigastric distress extreme thirst flatulence photosensitivity rashes leukopenia lupus-like syndrome

What are the adverse rxns for amphotericin B?

HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTIONS anxiety confusion headache insomnia dyspnea hypoxia wheezing chest pain hypotension tachycardia edema hypertension hyperbilirubinemia ↑ liver enzymes abdominal pain nephrotoxicity hematuria hyperglycemia hypocalcemia hypokalemia hypomagnesemia anemia leukopenia thrombocytopenia pruritus rashes phlebitis arthralgia myalgia chills fever acute infusion reactions

What is acyclovir used for?

Herpes simplex

How toxic is amphotericin B?

Highly toxic (most toxic in this unit)

What are the contraindications of imipenem?

Hypersensitivity Cross-sensitivity with penicillins and cephalosporins Pregnancy Children with CNS infections

How is cefepime administered?

IV, IM

What do bisphosphonates do?

Inhibit bone resorption increasing bone mass

What do "VIRS" do?

Inhibition of viral replication, decreased viral shedding, and reduced time for healing of lesions.

What do tetracyclines do?

Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at the level of the 30S bacterial ribosome. (bacteriostatic)

What does nystatin do?

Inhibits fungal wall synthesis leading to cell leakage (fungicidal or fungistatic)

What assessments should be done with nystatin?

Inspect oral mucous membranes before and frequently during therapy

How should nystatin be taken?

Instruct patient to take medication as directed (if a dose is missed, take as soon as remembered but not if almost time for next dose)

What are the adverse rxns of tetracycline?

Intracranial hypertension Diarrhea Esophagitis Photosensitivity Blood dyscrasias

Why do you not take gentamicin with loop diuretics?

It may increase ototoxicity

What are the contraindications for ceftaroline?

Known serious hypersensitivity to cephalosporins Pregnancy

What are the lab considerations with erythromycin?

Liver function

What are the lab considerations with imipenem?

May increase: BUN AST ALT LDH serum alkaline phosphatase bilirubin and creatinine May decrease: Hemoglobin and hematocrit concentrations

Why do you not take ciprofloxacin with tizanidine?

May ↑ risk of hypotension and sedation

What are the lab considerations with vancomycin?

Monitor for: Casts Albumin Cells in urine Decreased specific gravity CBC Renal function May cause increased BUN lvls

What is doxycycline used for?

Mycoplasma Chlamydia Rickettsia B. burgdorferi Inhalational and cutaneous anthrax Gonorrhea and syphilis Chronic bronchitis prophylaxis Treatment of acne Inflammatory lesions associated with rosacea Malaria prophylaxis Rocky Mountain spotted fever (<8y/o)

Should you admix imipenem with aminoglycosides?

Should you take doxycycline with calcium?

Should you use doxycycline while lactating?

Only if maternal benefit outweighs infant cost

What are the adverse rxns with nystatin?

Oral: stomach pain (large doses) contact dermatitis Stevens-Johnson syndrome Topical: burning itching local hypersensitivity reactions, redness stinging

How is doxycycline administered?

PO and IV

How is tetracycline administered?

What are the contraindications of tetracycline?

Pregnant/breast feeding women Children under 8 y/o (staining of teeth) Hypersensitivity

What position would the nurse utilize to assess the clients hip joint extension and buttocks

Prone

What is ribavirin used for?

RSV, chronic Hep C

What are the lab considerations with doxycycline?

Renal and hepatic function CBC

What are the lab considerations with tetracycline?

Renal and hepatic function CBC

What does Calcitonin-Salmon do?

Slows bone breakdown and increases bone density in the spine

What is vancomycin active against?

Staphylococci Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci Streptococcus pneumoniae Corynebacterium C. diff Enterococcus faecalis Enterococcus faecium

What is cephalexin active against?

Streptococcus pneumoniae group A beta-hemolytic streptococci staphylococci (including penicillinase-producing strains) E. coli Haemophilus influenzae (flu) Klebsiella pneumoniae (UTI) Moraxella catarrhalis Proteus Enterococcus *not active against anaerobes

What are the adverse rxns of erythromycin?

TORSADES DE POINTES CDAD HYPERSENSITIVITY RXNS ototoxicity abdominal pain infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis interstitial nephritis

What should a patient taking tetracycline do before treatment or surgery?

Tell HCP about medication

What sulfonamide is used for burns?

Topical silver sulfadiazine

What is trimethoprim used for?

Treatment of uncomplicated urinary tract infections. Treatment of uncomplicated otitis media in children. Prophylaxis of chronic recurrent urinary tract infections. Treatment of head lice.

What assessments should you do with trimethoprim?

UTI (fever, cloudy urine, frequency, urgency, pain and burning on urination) Obtain specimens for culture and sensitivity Monitor intake and output ratios (Fluid intake should be sufficient to maintain urine output of at least 1200-1500 mL daily)

What assessments do you do with tetracycline?

Vitals Appearance of wound, sputum, and stool WBC Culture and sensitivity

What assessments should you do with doxycycline?

Vitals Appearance of wound, sputum, and stool WBC Culture and sensitivity Monitor bowel function Assess for rash Assess IV site frequently

What assessments should you do with vancomycin?

Vitals Appearance of wound, sputum, and stool WBC Monitor IV site closely Audiometry Intake and output ratios Signs/symps of anaphylaxis (CDAD) Bowel sounds, frequency/consistency of stools, presence of blood in stool

What does chronic treatment of prednisone lead to?

adrenal suppression

What are the adverse rxns to trimethoprim?

altered taste epigastric discomfort glossitis drug-induced hepatitis pruritus rash megaloblastic anemia neutropenia thrombocytopenia fever

How should the patient take Penicillin G + V?

around the clock and finish completely, even if feeling better

If tendon pain occurs with ciprofloxacin, what should you avoid?

avoid exercise and use of affected area

What are the long acting glucocorticoids?

betamethasone and dexamethasone

What does amphotericin B do?

binds to fungi cell membrane, increasing permeability/leakage (Can be fungistatic or fungicidal)

What do carbapanems do? (imipenem)

binds to the bacterial cell wall, resulting in cell death (bactericidal)

What is the first line of therapy with osteoporosis?

bisphosphonates

What is the fourth generation cephalosporin?

cefepime

What is the third generation cephalosporin?

cefotaxime

What is the second generation cephalosporin?

cefoxitin

What is the fifth generation cephalosporin?

ceftaroline

What is the medicine of choice for osteoarthritis?

celecoxib

What is the first generation cephalosporin?

cephalexin

How should griseofulvin be taken?

complete full course of therapy; several wk of therapy may be necessary

What kind of antacids/medications should the patient avoid when taking ciprofloxacin?

containing calcium, magnesium, aluminum, iron, or zinc (should not be taken within 4 hr before and 2 hr after taking ciprofloxacin)

What does Denosumab do?

decreases osteoclast activity, monoclonal antibody

What are the adverse rxns of prednisone?

depression euphoria cataracts psychosis PEPTIC ULCERATION acne decreased wound healing ecchymoses (bruising) anorexia ADRENAL SUPPRESSION THROMBOEMBOLISM muscle wasting osteoporosis cushingoid appearance

What should the caregiver know about amphotericin B?

dilution, rate, and administration of drug and proper care of IV equipment

Why would you not use prednisone with live virus vaccines?

due to decreased antibody response and increased risk of adverse rxns

What can nystatin do to clothes or hair?

dye it

What does broad spectrum mean?

effect various groups of microorganisms; more toxic

What are the "AZOLES" noted?

fluconazole (prototype), itraconazole, ketoconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole

How should someone take care of dry mouth from medication?

frequent mouth rinses, good oral hygiene, and sugarless gum or candy

What signs/symp should a patient report to HCP when taking cefepime?

furry overgrowth on the tongue vaginal itching/discharge loose/foul-smelling stools fever blood, pus, or mucous in stool

What are contraindications of cefoxitin?

hypersensitivity to cephalosporins serious hypersensitivity to penicillins renal imparement history of GI disease

What are the contraindications for cefotaxime?

hypersensitivity to cephalosporins serious hypersensitivity to penicillins renal impairment history of GI disease

What is dexamethasone used for?

inflammation of the brain and spine, and eyes

What is prednisone used for?

inflammatory, allergic, hematologic, neoplastic, and autoimmune disorders; alternate day dosing in the management of chronic illness; adjunctive therapy of hypercalcemia; adjunctive management of nausea and vomiting during chemotherapy

What do fluroquinolones do?

inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase enzyme. (bactericidal)

What signs/symp should a patient report to HCP when taking ceftaroline?

loose/foul-smelling stools fever blood, pus, or mucous in stool

What is cefoxitin used for?

lower respiratory tract infections skin/skin structure infections urinary tract infections gynecological infections intra-abdominal infections septicemia preoperative prophylaxis

What are contraindications of Penicillin G + V?

previous hypersensitivity to penicillin severe renal insufficiency OB lactation

What causes osteoarthritis?

protective cartilage that cushions the ends of the bones wears down over time, joints become painful, swollen, and hard to move

What do glucocorticoids do? (patho)

raise blood glucose levels by stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver, stress hormones, affect fat/protein metabolism (low doses)

What should patients taking metronidazole for trichomoniasis do?

refrain from intercourse or use a condom to prevent reinfection (sexual partners may be asymptomatic sources of reinfection and should be treated concurrently)

Why do you not stop glucocorticoids suddenly?

results in adrenal insufficiency; must be tapered

What is amoxicillin used for?

skin/skin structure infections otitis media sinusitis respiratory infections genitourinary infections endocarditis prophylaxis postexposure inhalational anthrax prophylaxis management of ulcer disease due to H. pylori Lyme disease in children <8 yr

When taking amoxicillin, what should you teach patients with a history of rheumatic heart disease or a valve replacement?

the importance of using antimicrobial prophylaxis before invasive medical or dental procedures.

What is cefepime used for?

uncomplicated skin/skin structure infections bone and joint infections uncomplicated and complicated UTI Respiratory tract infections. complicated intra-abdominal infections septicemia febrile neutropenic patients

What is the use for neomycin?

used as an eye ointment for newborns

What signs/symp should a patient report to a HCP when taking erythromycin?

vomiting diarrhea severe abdominal pain yellow discoloration of the skin or eyes darkened urine pale stools unusual tiredness fever if stool contains blood, pus, or mucus

What signs/symp should a patient report to a HCP when taking ciprofloxacin?

●fever and diarrhea develop (especially if stool contains blood, pus, or mucus) ●hepatotoxicity (anorexia, jaundice, dark urine, pruritus, or tender abdomen) ●rash ●signs of hypersensitivity ●serious CNS effects ●peripheral neuropathy (pain, burning, tingling, numbness, and/or weakness, or other alterations in sensations including light touch, pain, temperature, position sense and vibratory sensation, and/or motor strength) ●tendon (shoulder, hand, Achilles, and other) pain swelling ●inflammation

Exam 3 Patho Pharm 1

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