exam final

The nurse recognizes that a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period is: a. Nonreactive b. Positive c. Negative d. Reactive

ANS: D The NST is reactive (normal) when two or more FHR accelerations of at least 15 beats/min (each with a duration of at least 15 seconds) occur in a 20-minute period. A nonreactive result means that the heart rate did not accelerate during fetal movement. A positive result is not used with NST. Contraction stress test (CST) uses positive as a result term. A negative result is not used with NST. CST uses negative as a result term.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that amnioinfusion is used to treat: a. Variable decelerations. b. Late decelerations. c. Fetal bradycardia. d. Fetal tachycardia.

ANS: A Amnioinfusion is used during labor either to dilute meconium-stained amniotic fluid or to supplement the amount of amniotic fluid to reduce the severity of variable decelerations caused by cord compression. Amnioinfusion has no bearing on late decelerations, fetal bradycardia, or fetal tachycardia alterations in fetal heart rate (FHR) tracings.

Compared with contraction stress test (CST), nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment: a. Has no known contraindications. b. Has fewer false-positive results. c. Is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise. d. Is slightly more expensive.

ANS: A CST has several contraindications. NST has a high rate of false-positive results, is less sensitive than the CST, and is relatively inexpensive.

A nurse monitors all newborns in the NICU for hypoglycemia. Which manifestations could indicate hypoglycemia in one of the babies? (Select all that apply.) A. Apneic episodes B. None (asymptomatic) C. Eye rolling D. Lethargy E. Palmar sweating

ANS: A, B, C, D Apneic episodes, eye rolling, and lethargy are among the manifestations of hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemic infants can also be asymptomatic. Palmar sweating is indicative of pain.

The patient that you are caring for has severe preeclampsia and is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. You become concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits: a. A sleepy, sedated affect. c. Deep tendon reflexes of 2. b. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. d. Absent ankle clonus.

ANS: B A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory depression from magnesium toxicity. Because magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant, the client will most likely become sedated when the infusion is initiated. Deep tendon reflexes of 2 and absent ankle clonus are normal findings.

The perinatal nurse accurately defines postpartum hemorrhage to a group of nursing students by including a decrease in hematocrit levels from prebirth to postbirth by which percentage? A. 5% B. 8% C. 10% D. 15%

ANS: C Postpartum hemorrhage can be defined as a blood loss of greater than 500 mL after a vaginal birth or greater than 1,000 mL after a cesarean birth, a decrease in hematocrit levels by 10% from prebirth to postbirth levels, and the

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the characteristics of true labor contractions. The nurse evaluates the womans understanding of the instructions when she states, True labor contractions will: a. Subside when I walk around. b. Cause discomfort over the top of my uterus. c. Continue and get stronger even if I relax and take a shower. d. Remain irregular but become stronger.

ANS: C True labor contractions occur regularly, becoming stronger, lasting longer, and occurring closer together. They may become intense during walking and continue despite comfort measures. Typically true labor contractions are felt in the lower back, radiating to the lower portion of the abdomen. During false labor, contractions tend to be irregular and felt in the abdomen above the navel. Typically the contractions often stop with walking or a change of position.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that late fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are the result of: a. Altered cerebral blood flow. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. b. Umbilical cord compression. d. Meconium fluid.

ANS: C Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Umbilical cord compression would result in variable decelerations in the FHR. Meconium-stained fluid may or may not produce changes in the fetal heart rate, depending on the gestational age of the fetus and whether other causative factors associated with fetal distress are present.

As a perinatal nurse you realize that a fetal heart rate that is tachycardic, is bradycardic, or has late decelerations or loss of variability is nonreassuring and is associated with: a. Hypotension. c. Maternal drug use. b. Cord compression. d. Hypoxemia.

ANS: D Nonreassuring heart rate patterns are associated with fetal hypoxemia. Fetal bradycardia may be associated with maternal hypotension. Fetal variable decelerations are associated with cord compression. Maternal drug use is associated with fetal tachycardia.

A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that: a. Bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment. b. She will be unable to conceive in the future. c. A D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception. d. Hemorrhage is the major concern.

ANS: D Severe bleeding occurs if the fallopian tube ruptures. The recommended treatment is to remove the pregnancy before rupture in order to prevent hemorrhaging. If the tube must be removed, the womans fertility will decrease; however, she will not be infertile.

A 12-year-old child is in the hospital for an extended period of time. Which action by the nurse would most promote the childs sense of self-esteem? A. Allow the child to set a daily schedule for activities. B. Encourage the childs friend to come and visit. C. Have the child choose food from the menu. D. Let the parents have unlimited visitation time.

ANS: A A schedule enhances normalcy, and allowing the child to participate in setting the schedule will help boost self-esteem. The other actions are all good nursing interventions, but giving the child some control and encouraging participation will help self-esteem.

A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline of approximately 120 beats/min without any decelerations. The interpretation of this test is said to be: a. Negative. b. Positive. c. Satisfactory. d. Unsatisfactory.

ANS: A Adequate uterine activity necessary for a CST consists of the presence of three contractions in a 10-minute time frame. If no decelerations are observed in the FHR pattern with the contractions, the findings are considered to be negative. A positive CST indicates the presence of repetitive later FHR decelerations. Satisfactory and unsatisfactory are not applicable terms.

A nurse is preparing to dismiss a woman and her infant from the hospital. The woman is Rh(D)-negative and the infant is Rh(D)-positive. This was her first pregnancy. Which nursing action is most appropriate? A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) and document accurately. B. Assess the father to see if he has ever received an injection of RhoGAM. C. Educate the woman on the need for RhoGAM if she delivers an Rh(D)-negative baby. D. Instruct the woman to get RhoGAM with her next pregnancy, not for this one.

ANS: A Administering RhoGAM correctly and documenting it is a critical nursing action when indicated. An unsensitized Rh(D)-negative woman should be given RhoGAM within 72 hours of delivery of an Rh(D)-positive baby. RhoGAM is not administered to the father or to the baby. If an Rh(D)-negative woman gives birth to an Rh(D)-negative baby, she does not need RhoGAM. The woman should be tested for sensitivity during her next, and all subsequent, pregnancies.

A neonate whose mother is a drug addict is listless and sweating. What action by the nurse takes priority? A. Check the babys blood sugar. B. Have the mother hold the baby to her skin. C. Obtain an oxygen saturation. D. Place the baby on a cardiac monitor.

ANS: A Babies born of mothers who have used amphetamines during pregnancy may exhibit hypoglycemia, sweating, poor visual tracking, lethargy, and difficulty feeding. The nurse would conclude that the baby may be at risk for hypoglycemia because he or she has other manifestations of this syndrome and should check the blood sugar. If low, the blood glucose can be treated quickly. The other options may be valuable, but do not take priority over this assessment.

Your patient is being induced because of her worsening preeclampsia. She is also receiving magnesium sulfate. It appears that her labor has not become active despite several hours of oxytocin administration. She asks the nurse, Why is it taking so long? The most appropriate response by the nurse would be: a. The magnesium is relaxing your uterus and competing with the oxytocin. It may increase the duration of your labor. b. I dont know why it is taking so long. c. The length of labor varies for different women. d. Your baby is just being stubborn

ANS: A Because magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic agent, its use may increase the duration of labor. The amount of oxytocin needed to stimulate labor may be more than that needed for the woman who is not receiving magnesium sulfate. I dont know why it is taking so long is not an appropriate statement for the nurse to make. Although the length of labor does vary in different women, the most likely reason this womans labor is protracted is the tocolytic effect of magnesium sulfate. The behavior of the fetus has no bearing on the length

A woman is about to undergo an external version. What action by the nurse takes priority? A. Determine Rh status; give Rh immune globulin if needed. B. Explain the procedure to the woman and obtain consent. C. Offer emotional support to both the woman and her partner. D. Prepare to administer oxytocin (Pitocin) as per protocol.

ANS: A Because the version can cause feto-maternal bleeding, women who are Rh-negative should receive Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM). Offering emotional support is always important, but does not take priority over keeping the patient safe. The physician is responsible for explaining the procedure. Because uterine relaxation is important for a successful version, tocolytic medications may be given (not medications that increase uterine tone).

A normal uterine activity pattern in labor is characterized by: a. Contractions every 2 to 5 minutes. b. Contractions lasting about 2 minutes. c. Contractions about 1 minute apart. d. A contraction intensity of about 1000 mm Hg with relaxation at 50 mm Hg.

ANS: A Contractions normally occur every 2 to 5 minutes and last less than 90 seconds (intensity 800 mm Hg) with about 30 seconds in between (20 mm Hg or less).

A woman arrives at the birthing unit complaining of frequent strong contractions that begin in her back and cannot be relieved by walking or changing positions. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? A. Assess the woman for rupture of membranes. B. Immediately notify the womans primary care provider. C. Reassure the woman and send her home. D. Review the signs of true labor with the woman.

ANS: A Distinguishing true labor from false labor can be difficult. True labor contractions occur with regularity, increased in frequency and duration, and usually begin in the womans lower back and radiate to the abdomen. Based on the womans description, the contractions likely are indicative of true labor, so she should be assessed further, including assessment for rupture of membranes. There is no urgent need to notify her primary care provider until further assessment is completed. She should not be sent home, nor does she need more education on the signs of true labor.

The nurse caring for the laboring woman should understand that early decelerations are caused by: a. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. b. Umbilical cord compression. d. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

ANS: A Early decelerations are the fetuss response to fetal head compression. Variable decelerations are associated with umbilical cord compression. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. Spontaneous rupture of membranes has no bearing on the fetal heart rate unless the umbilical cord prolapses, which would result in variable or prolonged bradycardia.

The theorist who viewed developmental progression as a lifelong series of conflicts that need resolution is: a. Erikson. c. Kohlberg. b. Freud. d. Piaget.

ANS: A Erik Erikson viewed development as a series of conflicts affected by social and cultural factors. Each conflict must be resolved for the child to progress emotionally, with unsuccessful resolution leaving the child emotionally disabled. Sigmund Freud proposed a psychosexual theory of development. He proposed that certain parts of the body assume psychological significance as foci of sexual energy. The foci shift as the individual moves through the different stages (oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital) of development. Lawrence Kohlberg described moral development as having three levels (preconventional, conventional, and postconventional). His theory closely parallels Piagets. Jean Piagets cognitive theory interprets how children learn and think and how this thinking progresses and differs from adult thinking. Stages of his theory include sensorimotor, preoperations, concrete operations, and formal operations.

A woman with severe preeclampsia has been receiving magnesium sulfate by intravenous infusion for 8 hours. The nurse assesses the woman and documents the following findings: temperature of 37.1 C, pulse rate of 96 beats/min, respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP) of 155/112 mm Hg, 3+ deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The nurse calls the physician, anticipating an order for: a. Hydralazine. c. Diazepam. b. Magnesium sulfate bolus. d. Calcium gluconate.

ANS: A Hydralazine is an antihypertensive commonly used to treat hypertension in severe preeclampsia. Typically it is administered for a systolic BP greater than 160 mm Hg or a diastolic BP greater than 110 mm Hg. An additional bolus of magnesium sulfate may be ordered for increasing signs of central nervous system irritability related to severe preeclampsia (e.g., clonus) or if eclampsia develops. Diazepam sometimes is used to stop or shorten eclamptic seizures. Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. The client is not currently displaying any signs or symptoms of magnesium toxicity.

Which infant would be more likely to have Rh incompatibility? a. Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor b. Infant who is Rh negative and whose mother is Rh negative c. Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and heterozygous for the Rh factor d. Infant who is Rh positive and whose mother is Rh positive

ANS: A If the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor, all the children will be Rh positive. Only Rh-positive children of an Rh-negative mother are at risk for Rh incompatibility. If the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive and heterozygous for the factor, there is a 50% chance that each infant born of the union will be Rh positive and a 50% chance that each will be born Rh negative.

In planning care for women with preeclampsia, nurses should be aware that: a. Induction of labor is likely, as near term as possible. b. If at home, the woman should be confined to her bed, even with mild preeclampsia. c. A special diet low in protein and salt should be initiated. d. Vaginal birth is still an option, even in severe cases.

ANS: A Induction of labor is likely, as near term as possible; however, at less than 37 weeks of gestation, immediate delivery may not be in the best interest of the fetus. Strict bed rest is becoming controversial for mild cases; some women in the hospital are even allowed to move around. Diet and fluid recommendations are much the same as for healthy pregnant women, although some authorities have suggested a diet high in protein. Women with severe preeclampsia should expect a cesarean delivery.

In assessing the knowledge of a pregestational woman with type 1 diabetes concerning changing insulin needs during pregnancy, the nurse recognizes that further teaching is warranted when the client states: a. I will need to increase my insulin dosage during the first 3 months of pregnancy. b. Insulin dosage will likely need to be increased during the second and third trimesters. c. Episodes of hypoglycemia are more likely to occur during the first 3 months. d. Insulin needs should return to normal within 7 to 10 days after birth if I am bottle-feeding.

ANS: A Insulin needs are reduced in the first trimester because of increased insulin production by the pancreas and increased peripheral sensitivity to insulin. Insulin dosage will likely need to be increased during the second and third trimesters, Episodes of hypoglycemia are more likely to occur during the first 3 months, and Insulin needs should return to normal within 7 to 10 days after birth if I am bottle-feeding are accurate statements and signify that the woman has understood the teachings regarding control of her diabetes during pregnancy.

What PPH conditions are considered medical emergencies that require immediate treatment? a. Inversion of the uterus and hypovolemic shock b. Hypotonic uterus and coagulopathies c. Subinvolution of the uterus and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura d. Uterine atony and disseminated intravascular coagulation

ANS: A Inversion of the uterus and hypovolemic shock are considered medical emergencies. Although hypotonic uterus and coagulopathies, subinvolution of the uterus and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, and uterine atony and disseminated intravascular coagulation are serious conditions, they are not necessarily medical emergencies that require immediate treatment.

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) for five sequential contractions begins to decelerate late in the contraction, with the nadir of the decelerations occurring after the peak of the contraction. The nurses first priority is to: a. Change the womans position. b. Notify the care provider. c. Assist with amnioinfusion. d. Insert a scalp electrode.

ANS: A Late decelerations may be caused by maternal supine hypotension syndrome. They usually are corrected when the woman turns on her side to displace the weight of the gravid uterus from the vena cava. If the fetus does not respond to primary nursing interventions for late decelerations, the nurse would continue with subsequent intrauterine resuscitation measures, including notifying the care provider. An amnioinfusion may be used to relieve pressure on an umbilical cord that has not prolapsed. The FHR pattern associated with this situation most likely reveals variable deceleration. A fetal scalp electrode would provide accurate data for evaluating the well-being of the fetus; however, this is not a nursing intervention that would alleviate late decelerations, nor is it the nurses first priority.

A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates. A nonstress test (NST) in the obstetricians office revealed a nonreactive tracing. On artificial rupture of membranes, thick, meconium-stained fluid was noted. The nurse caring for the infant after birth should anticipate: a. Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin. b. Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress syndrome. c. Golden yellow- to green stainedskin and nails, absence of scalp hair, and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat. d. Hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, and an alert, wide-eyed appearance.

ANS: A Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin are consistent with a postmature infant. Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress syndrome would be consistent with a very premature infant. The skin may be meconium stained, but the infant would most likely have longer hair and decreased amounts of subcutaneous fat. Postmaturity with a nonreactive NST would indicate hypoxia. Signs and symptoms associated with fetal hypoxia are hypoglycemia, temperature instability, and lethargy.

14. The nurse is observing parents playing with their 10-month-old daughter. What should the nurse recognize as evidence that the child is developing object permanence? a. She looks for the toy the parents hide under the blanket. b. She returns the blocks to the same spot on the table. c. She recognizes that a ball of clay is the same when flattened out. d. She bangs two cubes held in her hands.

ANS: A Object permanence is the realization that items that leave the visual field still exist. When the infant searches for the toy under the blanket, it is an indication that object permanence has developed. Returning blocks to the same spot on a table is not an example of object permanence. Recognizing a ball of clay is the same when flat is an example of conservation, which occurs during the concrete operations stage from 7 to 11 years. Banging cubes together is a simple repetitive activity characteristic of developing a sense of cause and effect.

What nursing diagnosis would be the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia? a. Risk for injury to the fetus related to uteroplacental insufficiency b. Risk for eclampsia c. Risk for deficient fluid volume related to increased sodium retention secondary to administration of MgSO4 d. Risk for increased cardiac output related to use of antihypertensive drugs

ANS: A Risk for injury to the fetus related to uteroplacental insufficiency is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client scenario. Other diagnoses include Risk to fetus related to preterm birth and abruptio placentae. Eclampsia is a medical, not a nursing, diagnosis. There would be a risk for excess, not deficient, fluid volume related to increased sodium retention. There would be a risk for decreased, not increased, cardiac output related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.

Early postpartum hemorrhage is defined as a blood loss greater than: a. 500 mL in the first 24 hours after vaginal delivery. b. 750 mL in the first 24 hours after vaginal delivery. c. 1000 mL in the first 48 hours after cesarean delivery. d. 1500 mL in the first 48 hours after cesarean delivery.

ANS: A The average amount of bleeding after a vaginal birth is 500 mL. Blood loss after a cesarean birth averages 1000 mL. Early postpartum hemorrhage occurs in the first 24 hours, not 48 hours. Late postpartum hemorrhage is 48 hours and later.

In evaluating the effectiveness of oxytocin induction, the nurse would expect: a. Contractions lasting 40 to 90 seconds, 2 to 3 minutes apart. b. The intensity of contractions to be at least 110 to 130 mm Hg. c. Labor to progress at least 2 cm/hr dilation. d. At least 30 mU/min of oxytocin will be needed to achieve cervical dilation.

ANS: A The goal of induction of labor would be to produce contractions that occur every 2 to 3 minutes and last 60 to 90 seconds. The intensity of the contractions should be 40 to 90 mm Hg by intrauterine pressure catheter. Cervical dilation of 1 cm/hr in the active phase of labor would be the goal in an oxytocin induction. The dose is increased by 1 to 2 mU/min at intervals of 30 to 60 minutes until the desired contraction pattern is achieved. Doses are increased up to a maximum of 20 to 40 mU/min.

In which situation is there the greatest risk that a newborn infant will have a congenital heart defect (CHD)? a. Trisomy 21 detected on amniocentesis b. Family history of myocardial infarction c. Father has type 1 diabetes mellitus d. Older sibling born with Turners syndrome

ANS: A The incidence of congenital heart disease is approximately 50% in children with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome). A family history of congenital heart disease, not acquired heart disease, increases the risk of giving birth to a child with CHD. Infants born to mothers who are insulin dependent have an increased risk of CHD. Infants identified as having certain genetic defects, such as Turners syndrome, have a higher incidence of CHD.

A child will be hospitalized in the following week. In order to decrease the childs and parents stress related to the hospitalization, which action by the clinic nurse would be most helpful? A. Arrange for the family to visit the hospital and have a tour. B. Give the family written information on visiting hours. C. Introduce the family to another family whose child is hospitalized. D. Suggest the family take a break and not stay with the child.

ANS: A There are several ways to decrease the stress of a planned hospitalization, one of which is to arrange a visit to the hospital where all involved can have a tour and visit the unit where the child will be staying. Written information is always good, but is not the best way to diminish stress. Some families may be open to being introduced to others, but the nurse must take care to obtain permission first or risk a HIPAA violation. Parents are the main source of comfort for their children, so often a parent will stay with a hospitalized child.

A pregnant woman is in her third trimester. She asks the nurse to explain how she can tell true labor from false labor. The nurse would explain that true labor contractions: a. Increase with activity such as ambulation. b. Decrease with activity. c. Are always accompanied by the rupture of the bag of waters. d. Alternate between a regular and an irregular pattern.

ANS: A True labor contractions become more intense with walking. False labor contractions often stop with walking or position changes. Rupture of membranes may occur before or during labor. True labor contractions are regular.

A woman gave birth to an infant boy 10 hours ago. Where would the nurse expect to locate this womans fundus? a. One centimeter above the umbilicus b. Two centimeters below the umbilicus c. Midway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis d. Nonpalpable abdominally

ANS: A Within 12 hours after delivery the fundus may be approximately 1 cm above the umbilicus. The fundus descends about 1 to 2 cm every 24 hours. Within 12 hours after delivery the fundus may be approximately 1 cm above the umbilicus. By the sixth postpartum week the fundus normally is halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. The fundus should be easily palpated using the maternal umbilicus as a reference point.

A nurse is teaching parents about appropriate discipline for their toddler. Which information is appropriate for the nurse to include in the session? (Select all that apply.) A. Be firm and specific but respectful. B. Deliver consequences immediately. C. Tie consequences to the action if possible. D. Time-outs are 5 minutes for each year of life. E. Try to anticipate and avoid tantrums.

ANS: A, B, C, E Effective discipline involves parents being firm and specific. They should be respectful and speak as they would want to be spoken to. The most effective consequences are delivered immediately and are tied to the action in a logical way. If parents can recognize triggers for temper tantrums, they can avoid them (e.g., a child who is tired needs a nap or bedtime). A rule of thumb for time-out is 1 minute for each year of life.

The nurse is assessing a woman in the immediate postpartum period. The patients respiratory rate is 22 breaths/minute. The most important aspects of nursing care would be to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Assess and provide pain management. B. Assess the patients blood pressure and pulse. C. Increase the patients fluid intake. D. Notify the provider for continued tachypnea. E. Provide ongoing physical assessment.

ANS: A, B, D, E During the immediate postpartal period, the respiratory rate should remain within the normal range of 12 to 20 respirations per minute. However, slightly elevated respirations may occur due to pain, fear, excitement, exertion, or excessive blood loss. The nurse should assess and treat any pain. Taking the pulse and blood pressure can provide information on the patients hemodynamic status. If tachypnea continues despite appropriate interventions, the provider should be notified. Ongoing physical assessment is part of postpartum care.

The reported incidence of ectopic pregnancy in the United States has risen steadily over the past 2 decades. Causes include the increase in STDs accompanied by tubal infection and damage. The popularity of contraceptive devices such as the IUD has also increased the risk for ectopic pregnancy. The nurse who suspects that a patient has early signs of ectopic pregnancy should be observing her for symptoms such as (Select all that apply): a. Pelvic pain b. Abdominal pain c. Unanticipated heavy bleeding d. Vaginal spotting or light bleeding e. Missed period

ANS: A, B, D, E A missed period or spotting can easily be mistaken by the patient as early signs of pregnancy. More subtle signs depend on exactly where the implantation occurs. The nurse must be thorough in her assessment because pain is not a normal symptom of early pregnancy. As the fallopian tube tears open and the embryo is expelled, the patient often exhibits severe pain accompanied by intraabdominal hemorrhage. This may progress to hypovolemic shock with minimal or even no external bleeding. In about half of women, shoulder and neck pain results from irritation of the diaphragm from the hemorrhage.

A nurse is working with a nulliparous woman diagnosed with placenta previa. What interventions should the nurse plan to implement if necessary? (Select all that apply.) A. Educate the woman about prenatal iron supplements. B. Facilitate informed consent for blood. C. Educate the woman about the need for a forceps delivery. D. Explain that she will undergo a planned delivery at 34-35 weeks. E. Advise the woman that a vaginal birth may be possible.

ANS: A, B, E Interventions that are appropriate for women diagnosed with placenta previa include instruction about the need for prenatal iron and folic acid supplementation. Hemorrhage is possible, so a consent form for blood products may be needed. A forceps delivery is not indicated. Women with suspected placenta accreta should be delivered between 34 and 35 weeks; those with placenta previa should be delivered at 36 to 37 weeks. Women diagnosed with a partial or marginal placenta previa who have no bleeding or minimal bleeding may be allowed to attempt a vaginal birth.

A postpartum woman who had a prolonged labor presents to the clinic complaining of abdominal pain, high fevers with chills, and back pain. The nurse notes the patients heart rate is 142 beats/minute, and her abdomen is tender with hypoactive bowel sounds. The patient will be admitted, and when giving report to the hospital nurse, the clinic nurse advises that the patient will probably receive what initial treatment? (Select all that apply.) A. Antibiotics B. Coumadin C. Forced fluids D. Heparin E. Ibuprofen (Motrin)

ANS: A, C, D, E This woman has manifestations of a septic pelvic thrombophlebitis. Initial treatment includes rest; compression stockings; a high-protein, high vitamin C diet; antibiotics; increased fluids; heparin; and ibuprofen for fever and pain. Coumadin may be needed for long-term therapy but not as a first-line treatment.

A baby was born 4 days ago at 34 weeks gestation and is receiving phototherapy for neonatal jaundice. The baby has symptoms of temperature instability, dry skin, poor feeding, lethargy, and irritability. What are the nurses priority nursing interventions? (Select all that apply.) A. Assess the babys temperature to check for hypothermia. B. Check to make sure the infants face mask stays in place. C. Educate the mother to feed the child every 2 hours. D. Verify laboratory results to check for hypoglycemia. E. Verify laboratory results to check for hypomagnesemia

ANS: A, D Priority nursing actions for the baby undergoing phototherapy include keeping the baby warm, as hypothermia can occur due to exposure, and ensuring the baby receives adequate nutrition. Bilirubin is excreted in the stool. Proper nutrition will also help maintain fluid status. Keeping the babys mask in place is an important safety action to prevent eye damage, but is not related to this babys signs. Hypoglycemia can occur with poor nutrition. Magnesium levels are not affected by jaundice.

22. A woman is 10 hours postpartum after an uncomplicated vaginal birth. She has voided four times, and each time the volume is less than 100 mL. What action by the nurse is best? A. Ask the woman to keep a voiding log for 24 hours. B. Palpate the fundus and assess the amount of lochia present. C. Request an order for a straight catheterization. D. Run the water in the bathroom faucet during voiding attempts.

ANS: B Women who have recently given birth are at risk for urinary stasis and retention, which can lead to a boggy uterus and increased lochia. Frequently voiding 150 mL or less is a sign of urinary stasis and retention. The nurse should assess these factors first. The woman may need assistance when ambulating to the bathroom, or the nurse may need to run the water in the bathroom faucet during voiding attempts. A last resort is straight catheterization for severe urinary retention. Because the woman should be on intake and output assessments, a voiding log will not be helpful.

. A parent is frustrated that her toddler wants to do everything on his own and in my way. The parent wants to know the appropriate way to discipline the child for not obeying and allowing the parent to dress him quickly in the morning. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? A. At this stage in life, discipline is not very effective and will frustrate you both more. B. I know its frustrating, but being independent is a very important job at this age. C. Put him in a time-out, and because he is 2 years old, have him in time-out for 2 minutes. D. You really need to allow your child to be independent as much as possible.

ANS: B According to Eriksons theory, between 1 and 3 years of age, children are in the stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt. It is the time for the child to establish willpower, determination, and a can-do attitude about self. Discipline can be effective at this age. The parent should not be instructed to put the child in time-out for developmentally appropriate behavior. Simply telling the parent she should let the child be independent does nothing to reduce frustration, as the parent does not know the rationale behind it.

Which statement is true about toy safety? a. Adults should be the only ones who select toys. b. Adults should be alert to notices of recalls by manufacturers. c. Government agencies inspect all toys on the market. d. Evaluation of toy safety is a joint effort between children and adults.

ANS: B Adults should be involved in the selection of toys for children to ensure that they are safe and age appropriate. Once the child is using a toy, the adult should be alert to manufacturer recalls. The child and adult should be involved in the joint process of toy selection. Government agencies do not inspect all toys for sale. The U.S. Consumer Products Safety Commission does keep track of potentially dangerous and recalled toys. Children do not have the ability to determine the safety of a toy. It is the adults responsibility.

With regard to the postpartum uterus, nurses should be aware that: a. At the end of the third stage of labor it weighs approximately 500 g. b. After 2 weeks postpartum it should not be palpable abdominally. c. After 2 weeks postpartum it weighs 100 g. d. It returns to its original (prepregnancy) size by 6 weeks postpartum

ANS: B After 2 weeks postpartum, the uterus should not be palpable abdominally; however, it has not yet returned to its original size. At the end of the third stage of labor, the uterus weighs approximately 1000 g. It takes 6 full weeks for the uterus to return to its original size. After 2 weeks postpartum the uterus weighs about 350 g, not its original size. The normal self destruction of excess hypertrophied tissue accounts for the slight increase in uterine size after each pregnancy.

Which instructions should be included in the discharge teaching plan to assist the patient in recognizing early signs of complications? a. Palpate the fundus daily to ensure that it is soft. b. Notify the physician of any increase in the amount of lochia or a return to bright red bleeding. c. Report any decrease in the amount of brownish red lochia. d. The passage of clots as large as an orange can be expected.

ANS: B An increase in lochia or a return to bright red bleeding after the lochia has become pink indicates a complication. The fundus should stay firm. The lochia should decrease in amount over time. Large clots after discharge are a sign of complications and should be reported.

A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 3-ounce infant boy 2 hours ago. The nurse determines that the womans bladder is distended because her fundus is now 3 cm above the umbilicus and to the right of the midline. In the immediate postpartum period, the most serious consequence likely to occur from bladder distention is: a. Urinary tract infection. b. Excessive uterine bleeding. c. A ruptured bladder. d. Bladder wall atony.

ANS: B Excessive bleeding can occur immediately after birth if the bladder becomes distended because it pushes the uterus up and to the side and prevents it from contracting firmly. A urinary tract infection may result from overdistention of the bladder, but it is not the most serious consequence. A ruptured bladder may result from a severely overdistended bladder. However, vaginal bleeding most likely would occur before the bladder reaches this level of overdistention. Bladder distention may result from bladder wall atony. The most serious concern associated with bladder distention is excessive uterine bleeding.

A woman delivered a 9-lb, 10-oz baby 1 hour ago. When you arrive to perform her 15-minute assessment, she tells you that she feels all wet underneath. You discover that both pads are completely saturated and that she is lying in a 6-inch-diameter puddle of blood. What is your first action? a. Call for help. b. Assess the fundus for firmness. c. Take her blood pressure. d. Check the perineum for lacerations.

ANS: B Firmness of the uterus is necessary to control bleeding from the placental site. The nurse should first assess for firmness and massage the fundus as indicated. Assessing blood pressure is an important assessment with a bleeding patient; however, the top priority is to control the bleeding. If bleeding continues in the presence of a firm fundus, lacerations may be the cause.

A pediatric nurse examines a 7-year-old at a well-child visit. Based on Eriksons theory, which basic task does the nurse anticipate for this child? A. Balance independence and self-sufficiency against uncertainty and misgiving. B. Develop a sense of confidence through mastery of different tasks. C. Develop resourcefulness to achieve and learn new things without self-reproach. D. Recognize there are people in his or her life who can be trusted to take care of basic needs.

ANS: B In the trust vs. mistrust stage (birth to 1 year), the task is for the child to recognize that there are people in his or her life (parents) who can be trusted to take care of his or her basic needs. In the autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage (1 to 3 years), the task is for the child to balance independence and self-sufficiency against the predictable sense of uncertainty and misgiving when placed in lifes situations. In the initiative vs. guilt stage (3 to 6 years), the childs task is to develop resourcefulness to achieve and learn new things without receiving self-reproach. In the accomplishment/industry vs. inferiority stage (6 to 12 years), the child develops a sense of confidence through mastery of tasks.

By the time children reach their twelfth birthday, they should have learned to trust others and should have developed a sense of: a. Identity. b. Industry. c. Integrity. d. Intimacy.

ANS: B Industry is the developmental task of school-age children. By age 12 years, children engage in tasks that they can carry through to completion. They learn to compete and cooperate with others, and they learn rules. Identity versus role confusion is the developmental task of adolescence. Integrity and intimacy are not developmental tasks of childhood.

The nurse expects to administer an oxytocic (e.g., Pitocin, Methergine) to a woman after expulsion of her placenta to: a. Relieve pain. c. Prevent infection. b. Stimulate uterine contraction. d. Facilitate rest and relaxation.

ANS: B Oxytocics stimulate uterine contractions, which reduce blood loss after the third stage of labor. Oxytocics are not used to treat pain or prevent infection. They cause the uterus to contract, which reduces blood loss. Oxytocics do not facilitate rest and relaxation.

The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is: a.Bleeding. b.Intense abdominal pain. c.Uterine activity. d.Cramping.

ANS: B Pain is absent with placenta previa and may be agonizing with abruptio placentae. Bleeding may be present in varying degrees for both placental conditions. Uterine activity and cramping may be present with both placental conditions.

A patient in the prenatal clinic had a negative rubella titer. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? A. Have the laboratory draw rubella titers as a double-check. B. Instruct the woman to avoid anyone who may have the disease. C. Prepare to administer a rubella vaccination to the woman. D. Reassure the woman that rubella has few fetal consequences.

ANS: B Rubella (German measles) can cause fetal abnormalities if the pregnant woman contracts it during the first trimester, so all pregnant women are screened for immunity. A positive test means the woman is immune to the disease, whereas a negative test indicates susceptibility to it. The woman needs to avoid people who may be ill with rubella and be immunized after her delivery. There is no need for a double check of the results.

The primary nursing intervention necessary to prevent bacterial endocarditis is to: a. Institute measures to prevent dental procedures. b. Counsel parents of high risk children about prophylactic antibiotics. c. Observe children for complications such as embolism and heart failure. d. Encourage restricted mobility in susceptible children.

ANS: B The objective of nursing care is to counsel the parents of high risk children about both the need for prophylactic antibiotics for dental procedures and the necessity of maintaining excellent oral health. The childs dentist should be aware of the childs cardiac condition. Dental procedures should be done to maintain a high level of oral health. Prophylactic antibiotics are necessary. Observing for complications and encouraging restricted mobility in susceptible children should be done, but maintaining good oral health and using prophylactic antibiotics are most important.

The nurse is caring for a client whose labor is being augmented with oxytocin. He or she recognizes that the oxytocin should be discontinued immediately if there is evidence of: a. Uterine contractions occurring every 8 to 10 minutes. b. A fetal heart rate (FHR) of 180 with absence of variability. c. The clients needing to void. d. Rupture of the clients amniotic membranes

ANS: B This FHR is nonreassuring. The oxytocin should be discontinued immediately, and the physician should be notified. The oxytocin should be discontinued if uterine hyperstimulation occurs. Uterine contractions that are occurring every 8 to 10 minutes do not qualify as hyperstimulation. The clients needing to void is not an indication to discontinue the oxytocin induction immediately or to call the physician. Unless a change occurs in the FHR pattern that is nonreassuring or the client experiences uterine hyperstimulation, the oxytocin does not need to be discontinued. The physician should be notified that the clients membranes have ruptured.

A nurse is assessing a newborn who is jittery, diaphoretic, and hypothermic, and has poor feeding. What laboratory value would the nurse correlate with this condition? A. Bilirubin: 5 mg/dL B. Blood glucose: 32 mg/dL C. Hematocrit: 50% D. White blood cell count: 25,000/mm3

ANS: B This infant has signs of hypoglycemia, confirmed with a blood glucose level below 40 mg/dL (normal is 40-60 mg/dl). The other laboratory values are normal for a neonate.

A mother reports that her 6-year-old child is highly active and irritable and that she has irregular habits and adapts slowly to new routines, people, or situations. According to Chess and Thomas, which category of temperament best describes this child? a. Easy child c. Slow-to-warm-up child b. Difficult child d. Fast-to-warm-up child

ANS: B This is a description of difficult children, who compose about 10% of the population. Negative withdrawal responses are typical of this type of child, who requires a more structured environment. Mood expressions are usually intense and primarily negative. These children exhibit frequent periods of crying and often violent tantrums. Easy children are even tempered, regular, and predictable in their habits. They are open and adaptable to change. Approximately 40% of children fit this description. Slow-to-warm-up children typically react negatively and with mild intensity to new stimuli and adapt slowly with repeated contact. Approximately 10% of children fit this description. Fast-to-warm-up children is not one of the categories identified by Chess and Thomas.

2. A steady trickle of bright red blood from the vagina in the presence of a firm fundus suggests: a. Uterine atony. b. Lacerations of the genital tract. c. Perineal hematoma. d. Infection of the uterus.

ANS: B Undetected lacerations will bleed slowly and continuously. Bleeding from lacerations is uncontrolled by uterine contraction. The fundus is not firm in the presence of uterine atony. A hematoma would develop internally. Swelling and discoloration would be noticeable; however, bright bleeding would not be. With an infection of the uterus there would be an odor to the lochia and systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman realizes that variable fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are caused by: a. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. b. Umbilical cord compression. d. Fetal hypoxemia.

ANS: B Variable decelerations can occur any time during the uterine contracting phase and are caused by compression of the umbilical cord. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. Fetal hypoxemia would result in tachycardia initially and then bradycardia if hypoxia continues.

As relates to rubella and Rh issues, nurses should be aware that: a. Breastfeeding mothers cannot be vaccinated with the live attenuated rubella virus. b. Women should be warned that the rubella vaccination is teratogenic, and that they must avoid pregnancy for 1 month after vaccination. c. Rh immune globulin is safely administered intravenously because it cannot harm a nursing infant. d. Rh immune globulin boosts the immune system and thereby enhances the effectiveness of vaccinations.

ANS: B Women should understand they must practice contraception for 1 month after being vaccinated. Because the live attenuated rubella virus is not communicable in breast milk, breastfeeding mothers can be vaccinated. Rh immune globulin is administered intramuscularly; it should never be given to an infant. Rh immune globulin suppresses the immune system and therefore could thwart the rubella vaccination.

At 35 weeks of pregnancy a woman experiences preterm labor. Tocolytics are administered and she is placed on bed rest, but she continues to experience regular uterine contractions, and her cervix is beginning to dilate and efface. What would be an important test for fetal well-being at this time? a. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) b. Ultrasound for fetal size c. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity d. Nonstress test (NST)

ANS: C Amniocentesis would be performed to assess fetal lung maturity in the event of a preterm birth. Indications for PUBS include prenatal diagnosis or inherited blood disorders, karyotyping of malformed fetuses, detection of fetal infection, determination of the acid-base status of a fetus with intrauterine growth restriction, and assessment and treatment of isoimmunization and thrombocytopenia in the fetus. Typically, fetal size is determined by ultrasound during the second trimester and is not indicated in this scenario. NST measures the fetal response to fetal movement in a noncontracting mother.

The priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion is: a. Measuring urinary output. b. Increasing infusion rate every 30 minutes. c. Monitoring uterine response. d. Evaluating cervical dilation.

ANS: C Because of the risk of hyperstimulation, which could result in decreased placental perfusion and uterine rupture, the nurses priority intervention is monitoring uterine response. Monitoring urinary output is also important; however, it is not the top priority during the administration of Pitocin. The infusion rate may be increased after proper assessment that it is an appropriate interval to do so. Monitoring labor progression is the standard of care for all labor patients.

A woman arrives for evaluation of her symptoms, which include a missed period, adnexal fullness, tenderness, and dark red vaginal bleeding. On examination the nurse notices an ecchymotic blueness around the womans umbilicus and recognizes this assessment finding as: a. Normal integumentary changes associated with pregnancy. b. Turners sign associated with appendicitis. c. Cullens sign associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. d. Chadwicks sign associated with early pregnancy.

ANS: C Cullens sign, the blue ecchymosis seen in the umbilical area, indicates hematoperitoneum associated with an undiagnosed ruptured intraabdominal ectopic pregnancy. Linea nigra on the abdomen is the normal integumentary change associated with pregnancy. It manifests as a brown, pigmented, vertical line on the lower abdomen. Turners sign is ecchymosis in the flank area, often associated with pancreatitis. Chadwicks sign is the blue-purple color of the cervix that may be seen during or around the eighth week of pregnancy.

With regard to amniocentesis, nurses should be aware that: a. Because of new imaging techniques, amniocentesis is now possible in the first trimester. b. Despite the use of ultrasound, complications still occur in the mother or infant in 5% to 10% of cases. c. The shake test, or bubble stability test, is a quick means of determining fetal maturity. d. The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid is always cause for concern.

ANS: C Diluted fluid is mixed with ethanol and shaken. After 15 minutes, the bubbles tell the story. Amniocentesis is possible after the fourteenth week of pregnancy when the uterus becomes an abdominal organ. Complications occur in less than 1% of cases; many have been minimized or eliminated through the use of ultrasound. Meconium in the amniotic fluid before the beginning of labor is not usually a problem.

Fetal bradycardia is most common during: a. Intraamniotic infection. b. Fetal anemia. c. Prolonged umbilical cord compression. d. Tocolytic treatment using terbutaline.

ANS: C Fetal bradycardia can be considered a later sign of fetal hypoxia and is known to occur before fetal death. Bradycardia can result from placental transfer of drugs, prolonged compression of the umbilical cord, maternal hypothermia, and maternal hypotension. Intraamniotic infection, fetal anemia, and tocolytic treatment using terbutaline would most likely result in fetal tachycardia.

The nurse is providing genetic counseling for an expectant couple who already have a child with trisomy 18. The nurse should: a. Tell the couple they need to have an abortion within 2 to 3 weeks. b. Explain that the fetus has a 50% chance of having the disorder. c. Discuss options with the couple, including amniocentesis to determine whether the fetus is affected. d. Refer the couple to a psychologist for emotional support.

ANS: C Genetic testing, including amniocentesis, would need to be performed to determine whether the fetus is affected. The couple should be given information about the likelihood of having another baby with this disorder so that they can make an informed decision. A genetic counselor is the best source for determining genetic probability ratios. The couple eventually may need emotional support, but the status of the pregnancy must be determined first.

The labor of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is going to be induced. Before initiating the Pitocin infusion, the nurse reviews the womans latest laboratory test findings, which reveal a platelet count of 90,000, an elevated aspartate transaminase (AST) level, and a falling hematocrit. The nurse notifies the physician because the laboratory results are indicative of: a. Eclampsia. b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). c. HELLP syndrome. d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia.

ANS: C HELLP syndrome is a laboratory diagnosis for a variant of severe preeclampsia that involves hepatic dysfunction characterized by hemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). Eclampsia is determined by the presence of seizures. DIC is a potential complication associated with HELLP syndrome. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is the presence of low platelets of unknown cause and is not associated with preeclampsia.

An infant was born 2 hours ago at 37 weeks of gestation and weighing 4.1 kg. The infant appears chubby with a flushed complexion and is very tremulous. The tremors are most likely the result of: a. Birth injury. c. Hypoglycemia. b. Hypocalcemia. d. Seizures.

ANS: C Hypoglycemia is common in the macrosomic infant. Signs of hypoglycemia include jitteriness, apnea, tachypnea, and cyanosis.

A nurse is teaching a woman pregnant in the second trimester who has been diagnosed with a partial placenta previa. Which information is most important to document? A. Patient and partner show no anxiety or helplessness and were given educational support material. B. Patient instructed that bleeding may occur as placenta totally covers the cervical os. C. Patient instructed to tell all health-care providers that vaginal exams are prohibited. D. Patient received information about placenta previa and understood it well.

ANS: C If the patient needs care from another health-care provider, she must tell him or her that due to her placenta previa, all vaginal exams are prohibited. This is an important safety measure that must be taught and clearly documented. Assessing (and documenting) the psychosocial status of the patient and partner are important too, but safety takes priority. A partial placental previa only partly covers the cervical os. The statement that the patient received information and understood it well is vague and does not constitute an example of acceptable charting.

Magnesium sulfate is given to women with preeclampsia and eclampsia to: a. Improve patellar reflexes and increase respiratory efficiency. b. Shorten the duration of labor. c. Prevent and treat convulsions. d. Prevent a boggy uterus and lessen lochial flow.

ANS: C Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice to prevent convulsions, although it can generate other problems. Loss of patellar reflexes and respiratory depression are signs of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can increase the duration of labor. Women are at risk for a boggy uterus and heavy lochial flow as a result of magnesium sulfate therapy.

Methotrexate is recommended as part of the treatment plan for which obstetric complication? a. Complete hydatidiform mole c. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy b. Missed abortion d. Abruptio placentae

ANS: C Methotrexate is an effective, nonsurgical treatment option for a hemodynamically stable woman whose ectopic pregnancy is unruptured and less than 4 cm in diameter. Methotrexate is not indicated or recommended as a treatment option for complete hydatidiform mole, missed abortion, and abruptio placentae.

The nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that contraction stress test (CST): a. Sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation. b. Is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated. c. Is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions. d. Is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured.

ANS: C No late decelerations is good news. Vibroacoustic stimulation is sometimes used with NST. CST is invasive if stimulation is by intravenous oxytocin but not if by nipple stimulation and is contraindicated if the membranes have ruptured.

A postpartum woman is Rho(D)-negative and needs an injection of Rho(D) immune globulin. Which of the following doses would the perinatal nurse expect to be ordered? A. 120 g B. 250 g C. 300 g D. 350 g

ANS: C Nonsensitized women who are Rho(D)-negative and have given birth to an Rh(D)-positive infant should receive 300 g of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) within 72 hours after giving birth. RhoGAM should be given whether or not the mother received RhoGAM during the antepartum period. In some situations (e.g., hemorrhage, exchange of maternalfetal blood), a larger dose of RhoGAM may be indicated.

A woman who has recently given birth complains of pain and tenderness in her leg. On physical examination the nurse notices warmth and redness over an enlarged, hardened area. The nurse should suspect__________ and should confirm the diagnosis by ___________. a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation; asking for laboratory tests b. von Willebrand disease; noting whether bleeding times have been extended c. Thrombophlebitis; using real-time and color Doppler ultrasound d. Coagulopathies; drawing blood for laboratory analysis

ANS: C Pain and tenderness in the extremities, which show warmth, redness, and hardness, likely indicate thrombophlebitis. Doppler ultrasound is a common noninvasive way to confirm diagnosis.

A woman calls the prenatal clinic to inquire if she should have the seasonal influenza vaccination. What advice should the nurse provide? A. Flu does not cause many problems in pregnancy. B. No, vaccinations are not safe in pregnancy. C. Yes, you should get the flu vaccination. D. You should wait until your third trimester.

ANS: C Pregnant women who contract influenza have an increased risk of both needing medical care and requiring hospitalization. Vaccination against influenza is considered safe throughout pregnancy and preventing this disease is an essential element of prenatal care. The most effective way to prevent contracting influenza is through immunization.

A primigravida is being monitored in her prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. What finding should concern her nurse? a. Blood pressure (BP) increase to 138/86 mm Hg b. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks c. A dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine d. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day

ANS: C Proteinuria is defined as a concentration of 1+ or greater via dipstick measurement. A dipstick value of 3+ should alert the nurse that additional testing or assessment should be made. Generally, hypertension is defined as a BP of 140/90 or an increase in systolic pressure of 30 mm Hg or in diastolic pressure of 15 mm Hg. Preeclampsia may be manifested as a rapid weight gain of more than 2 kg in 1 week. Edema occurs in many normal pregnancies and in women with preeclampsia. Therefore, the presence of edema is no longer considered diagnostic of preeclampsia.

The nurse recognizes that a woman is in true labor when she states: a. I passed some thick, pink mucus when I urinated this morning. b. My bag of waters just broke. c. The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together. d. My baby dropped, and I have to urinate more frequently now.

ANS: C Regular, strong contractions with the presence of cervical change indicate that the woman is experiencing true labor. Loss of the mucous plug (operculum) often occurs during the first stage of labor or before the onset of labor, but it is not the indicator of true labor. Spontaneous rupture of membranes often occurs during the first stage of labor, but it is not the indicator of true labor. The presenting part of the fetus typically becomes engaged in the pelvis at the onset of labor, but this is not the indicator of true labor.

Nurses should be aware that HELLP syndrome: a. Is a mild form of preeclampsia. b. Can be diagnosed by a nurse alert to its symptoms. c. Is characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. d. Is associated with preterm labor but not perinatal mortality.

ANS: C The acronym HELLP stands for hemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). HELLP syndrome is a variant of severe preeclampsia. HELLP syndrome is difficult to identify because the symptoms often are not obvious. It must be diagnosed in the laboratory. Preterm labor is greatly increased, and so is perinatal mortality.

A pregnant woman has been receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion for treatment of severe preeclampsia for 24 hours. On assessment the nurse finds the following vital signs: temperature of 37.3 C, pulse rate of 88 beats/min, respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP) of 148/90 mm Hg, absent deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The client complains, Im so thirsty and warm. The nurse: a. Calls for a stat magnesium sulfate level. b. Administers oxygen. c. Discontinues the magnesium sulfate infusion. d. Prepares to administer hydralazine.

ANS: C The client is displaying clinical signs and symptoms of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium should be discontinued immediately. In addition, calcium gluconate, the antidote for magnesium, may be administered. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive commonly used to treat hypertension in severe preeclampsia. Typically it is administered for a systolic BP greater than 160 mm Hg or a diastolic BP greater than 110 mm Hg.

Which action is correct when palpation is used to assess the characteristics and pattern of uterine contractions? a. Place the hand on the abdomen below the umbilicus and palpate uterine tone with the fingertips. b. Determine the frequency by timing from the end of one contraction to the end of the next contraction. c. Evaluate the intensity by pressing the fingertips into the uterine fundus. d. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes throughout the first stage of labor.

ANS: C The nurse or primary care provider may assess uterine activity by palpating the fundal section of the uterus using the fingertips. Many women may experience labor pain in the lower segment of the uterus that may be unrelated to the firmness of the contraction detectable in the uterine fundus. The frequency of uterine contractions is determined by palpating from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. Assessment of uterine activity is performed in intervals based on the stage of labor. As labor progresses this assessment is performed more frequently.

What is an advantage of external electronic fetal monitoring? a. The ultrasound transducer can accurately measure short-term variability and beat-to-beat changes in the fetal heart rate. b. The tocotransducer can measure and record the frequency, regularity, intensity, and approximate duration of uterine contractions (UCs). c. The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity during the first stage of labor. d. Once correctly applied by the nurse, the transducer need not be repositioned even when the woman changes positions.

ANS: C The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity during the first stage of labor, particularly when the membranes are intact. Short-term changes cannot be measured with this technology. The tocotransducer cannot measure and record the intensity of UCs. The transducer must be repositioned when the woman or fetus changes position.

A hospitalized 11-year-old child turns down opportunities to play or engage in diversionary activities. When questioned, the child states Im bad at that or I cant do anything. What action by the nurse is best? A. Arrange a pediatric psychology consultation. B. Assess the child for emotional abuse at home. C. Consult the child developmental specialist. D. Document the statements in the childs char

ANS: C This 11-year-old child is in the Erikson stage of industry versus inferiority, and it seems he or she has not mastered tasks and developed a sense of self-confidence. Illness can frequently disrupt growth and behavior, and the child developmental specialist is a vital resource in meeting the developmental needs of the hospitalized child. Documentation should always be accurate and thorough, but simply documenting the statements will not help resolve the problem. The child may or may not need a psychology consultation or an abuse assessment, but the focus is on helping the child meet developmental milestones.

A mother brings her 1-year-old child to the pediatric clinic and appears frustrated and stressed. During the assessment, the mother states she tries to give her child exposure to new situations and people several times a week, but the outings always end with the child screaming and crying. Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate? A. Keep trying; new situations are so stimulating for children. B. Stop taking your child to new places and meeting new people. C. Use an established routine and add new experiences slowly. D. Your child will soon become used to such daily activity.

ANS: C This child displays difficulty with adapting to new situations. The mothers attempts to provide new experiences are antagonizing the childs natural temperament. According to the temperament theory of Thomas, Chess, and Birch, the mother should provide structure with limited variation in this slow-to-adapt childs daily activities.

A hospitalized diabetic child is sweating, nauseated, and has a headache. What action by the nurse takes priority? A. Administer sliding-scale insulin. B. Call laboratory for a stat blood sugar. C. Give the child some orange juice. D. Perform a urine ketone test.

ANS: C This child is exhibiting signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should first treat the child instead of waiting for the laboratory to come draw blood. If the nurse has bedside glucose monitoring available, check the glucose first, then treat, but do not wait the several minutes it will take for phlebotomy. Because the child has low blood sugar, do not give insulin. Do not delay by trying to get a urine sample; also, ketones are present in hyperglycemia.

A nurse has admitted a woman pregnant in her third trimester with moderate vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain. After assessing maternal vital signs, obtaining the fetal heart rate, and starting an IV line, which action should the nurse do next? A. Administer betamethasone (Celestone) just prior to delivery. B. Discuss pros and cons of continuous fetal monitoring. C. Facilitate laboratory work, including blood type and screen. D. Obtain informed consent for emergent delivery.

ANS: C Women who present with third-trimester vaginal bleeding should be examined carefully for placenta previa or abruptio placentae. Bleeding accompanied by abdominal pain is the classic sign of placental abruption. Care includes obtaining maternal vital signs, assessing fetal heart rate, and starting an IV for fluid resuscitation or transfusion if needed. Blood work should be obtained for CBC, type and screen, coagulation studies, and a Kleihauer Betke determination, Betamethasone is given if delivery is not imminent. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring is the standard of care, and although the nurse should educate the patient on its use, this discussion does not take priority over obtaining diagnostic laboratory studies. An emergent delivery is a possible (not certain) outcome, but obtaining consent does not take priority over the diagnostic blood work.

The nurse explains to a newly diagnosed pregnant woman at 10 weeks gestation that her rubella titer indicates that she is not immune. Which of the following should the nurse teach the patient? (Select all that apply.) A. Avoid contact with all children until after you have given birth. B. Be retested in 3 months and obtain the vaccination if not immune. C. Do not become pregnant for 4 weeks after you receive the vaccination. D. Receive the rubella vaccine during the postpartum period. E. Seek medical care immediately for fever, runny nose, or rash.

ANS: C, D Rubella (German measles) is one of the most commonly recognized viral infections known to cause congenital problems. If a woman contracts rubella during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, the fetus has a 90% chance of being adversely affected. A maternity patient who is not immune to rubella should be offered the rubella immunization following childbirth, ideally prior to hospital discharge. She should also be taught to avoid becoming pregnant for at least 4 weeks after the immunization. The patient should report signs or symptoms of rubella during pregnancy to her health-care provider, but she does not need to seek medical care immediately. Avoiding contact with all children is unreasonable. There is no reason to be retested in 3 months, because she cannot receive the vaccination until after she has given birth.

Changes in blood volume after childbirth depend on several factors such as blood loss during childbirth and the amount of extravascular water (physiologic edema) mobilized and excreted. A postpartum nurse anticipates blood loss of (Select all that apply): a. 100 mL b. 250 mL or less c. 300 to 500 mL d. 500 to 1000 mL e. 1500 mL or greater

ANS: C, D The average blood loss for a vaginal birth of a single fetus ranges from 300 to 500 mL (10% of blood volume). The typical blood loss for women who gave birth by cesarean is 500 to 1000 mL (15% to 30% of blood volume). During the first few days after birth the plasma volume decreases further as a result diuresis. Pregnancy-induced hypervolemia (an increase in blood volume of at least 35%) allows most women to tolerate considerable blood loss during childbirth.

The most common cause of decreased variability in the fetal heart rate (FHR) that lasts 30 minutes or less is: a. Altered cerebral blood flow. b. Fetal hypoxemia. c. Umbilical cord compression. d. Fetal sleep cycles.

ANS: D A temporary decrease in variability can occur when the fetus is in a sleep state. These sleep states do not usually last longer than 30 minutes. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Fetal hypoxemia would be evidenced by tachycardia initially and then bradycardia. A persistent decrease or loss of FHR variability may be seen. Umbilical cord compression would result in variable decelerations in the FHR.

The predominant characteristic of the intellectual development of the child ages 2 to 7 years is egocentricity. What best describes this concept? a. Selfishness c. Preferring to play alone b. Self-centeredness d. Inability to put self in anothers place

ANS: D According to Piaget, this age child is in the preoperational stage of development. Children interpret objects and events not in terms of their general properties but in terms of their relationships or their use to them. This egocentrism does not allow children of this age to put themselves in anothers place. Selfishness, self- centeredness, and preferring to play alone do not describe the concept of egocentricity.

14. Postbirth uterine/vaginal discharge, called lochia: a. Is similar to a light menstrual period for the first 6 to 12 hours. b. Is usually greater after cesarean births. c. Will usually decrease with ambulation and breastfeeding. d. Should smell like normal menstrual flow unless an infection is present.

ANS: D An offensive odor usually indicates an infection. Lochia flow should approximate a heavy menstrual period for the first 2 hours and then steadily decrease. Less lochia usually is seen after cesarean births and usually increases with ambulation and breastfeeding.

When a nulliparous woman telephones the hospital to report that she is in labor, the nurse initially should: a. Tell the woman to stay home until her membranes rupture. b. Emphasize that food and fluid intake should stop. c. Arrange for the woman to come to the hospital for labor evaluation. d. Ask the woman to describe why she believes she is in labor.

ANS: D Assessment begins at the first contact with the woman, whether by telephone or in person. By asking the woman to describe her signs and symptoms, the nurse can begin the assessment and gather data. The amniotic membranes may or may not spontaneously rupture during labor. The client may be instructed to stay home until the uterine contractions become strong and regular. The nurse may want to discuss the appropriate oral intake for early labor such as light foods or clear liquids, depending on the preference of the client or her primary health care provider. Before instructing the woman to come to the hospital, the nurse should initiate the assessment during the telephone interview.

Your patient has been receiving magnesium sulfate for 20 hours for treatment of preeclampsia. She just delivered a viable infant girl 30 minutes ago. What uterine findings would you expect to observe/assess in this client? a. Absence of uterine bleeding in the postpartum period b. A fundus firm below the level of the umbilicus c. Scant lochia flow d. A boggy uterus with heavy lochia flow

ANS: D Because of the tocolytic effects of magnesium sulfate, this patient most likely would have a boggy uterus with increased amounts of bleeding and a heavy lochia flow in the postpartum period.

Which maternal event is abnormal in the early postpartum period? a. Diuresis and diaphoresis b. Flatulence and constipation c. Extreme hunger and thirst d. Lochial color changes from rubra to alba

ANS: D For the first 3 days after childbirth, lochia is termed rubra. Lochia serosa follows, and then at about 11 days, the discharge becomes clear, colorless, or white. Diuresis and diaphoresis are the methods by which the body rids itself of increased plasma volume. Urine output of 3000 mL/day is common for the first few days after delivery and is facilitated by hormonal changes in the mother. Bowel tone remains sluggish for days. Many women anticipate pain during defecation and are unwilling to exert pressure on the perineum. The new mother is hungry because of energy used in labor and thirsty because of fluid restrictions during labor.

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is an important biochemical marker for pregnancy and the basis for many tests. A maternity nurse should be aware that: a. hCG can be detected 2.5 weeks after conception. b. The hCG level increases gradually and uniformly throughout pregnancy. c. Much lower than normal increases in the level of hCG may indicate a postdate pregnancy. d. A higher than normal level of hCG may indicate an ectopic pregnancy or Down syndrome.

ANS: D Higher levels also could be a sign of multiple gestation. hCG can be detected 7 to 8 days after conception. The hCG level fluctuates during pregnancy: peaking, declining, stabilizing, and increasing again. Abnormally slow increases may indicate impending miscarriage.

A woman with preeclampsia has a seizure. The nurses primary duty during the seizure is to: a. Insert an oral airway. b. Suction the mouth to prevent aspiration. c. Administer oxygen by mask. d. Stay with the client and call for help.

ANS: D If a client becomes eclamptic, the nurse should stay her and call for help. Insertion of an oral airway during seizure activity is no longer the standard of care. The nurse should attempt to keep the airway patent by turning the clients head to the side to prevent aspiration. Once the seizure has ended, it may be necessary to suction the clients mouth. Oxygen would be administered after the convulsion has ended.

A woman gave birth to a healthy infant boy 5 days ago. What type of lochia would the nurse expect to find when assessing this woman? a. Lochia rubra b. Lochia sangra c. Lochia alba d. Lochia serosa

ANS: D Lochia serosa, which consists of blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris, generally occurs around day 3 or 4 after childbirth. Lochia rubra consists of blood and decidual and trophoblastic debris. The flow generally lasts 3 to 4 days and pales, becoming pink or brown. There is no such term as lochia sangra. Lochia alba occurs in most women after day 10 and can continue up to 6 weeks after childbirth.

A nurse is assessing several children during a shift at the well-child clinic. Which child demonstrates successful resolution of the Erikson stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt? A. A 15-month-old playing on the floor with supervision B. An 18-month-old being consistently consoled by her father C. A 20-month-old using building blocks with her grandfather D. A 24-month-old being allowed to independently dress himself

ANS: D The Erikson stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt occurs during the ages of 1 to 3. During this stage, the child develops a can-do attitude and wishes to be independent. A child who does not successfully meet the tasks of this stage will suffer from self-doubt later on. The most independent child in the options is the 24-month-old dressing independently. This child is mastering the tasks of this developmental stage.

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor whose labor is being induced, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) begins to decelerate at the onset of several contractions and returns to baseline before each contraction ends. The nurse should: a. Change the womans position. b. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion. c. Insert an internal monitor. d. Document the finding in the clients record.

ANS: D The FHR indicates early decelerations, which are not an ominous sign and do not require any intervention. The nurse should simply document these findings.

A pregnant woman at 37 weeks of gestation has had ruptured membranes for 26 hours. A cesarean section is performed for failure to progress. The fetal heart rate (FHR) before birth is 180 beats/min with limited variability. At birth the newborn has Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at 1 and 5 minutes and is noted to be pale and tachypneic. On the basis of the maternal history, the cause of this newborns distress is most likely to be: a. Hypoglycemia. c. Respiratory distress syndrome. b. Phrenic nerve injury. d. Sepsis.

ANS: D The prolonged rupture of membranes and the tachypnea (before and after birth) both suggest sepsis. An FHR of 180 beats/min is also indicative. This infant is at high risk for sepsis.

A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery. After stabilization the infant is weighed, and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 pounds, 6 ounces). The nurses most appropriate action is to: a. Leave the infant in the room with the mother. b. Take the infant immediately to the nursery. c. Perform a gestational age assessment to determine whether the infant is large for gestational age. d. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently and observe closely for signs of hypoglycemia.

ANS: D This infant is macrosomic (more than 4000 g) and is at high risk for hypoglycemia. Blood glucose levels should be monitored frequently, and the infant should be observed closely for signs of hypoglycemia. Observation may occur in the nursery or in the mothers room, depending on the condition of the fetus. Regardless of gestational age, this infant is macrosomic.

A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The fetal heart rate has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. The nurse should expect the woman to be: a. Admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth. b. Admitted for extended observation. c. Discharged home with a sedative. d. Discharged home to await the onset of true labor.

ANS: D This situation describes a woman with normal assessments who is probably in false labor and will likely not deliver rapidly once true labor begins. There is no indication that further assessments or observations are indicated; therefore, the patient will be discharged along with instructions to return when contractions increase in intensity and frequency. Neither a cesarean birth nor a sedative is required at this time.

A woman at 39 weeks of gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birth unit. She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1 to 2 minutes; dark red vaginal bleeding; and a tense, painful abdomen. The nurse suspects the onset of: a. Eclamptic seizure. c. Placenta previa. b. Rupture of the uterus. d. Placental abruption.

ANS: D Uterine tenderness in the presence of increasing tone may be the earliest finding of premature separation of the placenta (abruptio placentae or placental abruption). Women with hypertension are at increased risk for an abruption. Eclamptic seizures are evidenced by the presence of generalized tonic-clonic convulsions. Uterine rupture manifests as hypotonic uterine activity, signs of hypovolemia, and in many cases the absence of pain. Placenta previa manifests with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding.

The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The woman has smoked throughout the pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are suggestive of growth restriction in the fetus. In addition to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what other tool would be useful in confirming the diagnosis? a. Doppler blood flow analysis b. Contraction stress test (CST) c. Amniocentesis d. Daily fetal movement counts

Doppler blood flow analysis

antibiotics used in children. there's an antibiotic specifically that we should not use in a certain age group of children. and why won't we use that antibiotic. what can happen if we use this specific antibiotic with kiddos.

antibiotics: tetracycline and doxycycline

What is an expected characteristic of amniotic fluid? a. Deep yellow color b. Pale, straw color with small white particles c. Acidic result on a Nitrazine test d. Absence of ferning

Pale, straw color with small white particles

placenta previa, what are interventions for that? if we suspect that Mom has placenta previa? What do we do with that patient? what kind of shock can this patient go into? what is our treatment for placenta previa?

_Placenta previa (pluh-SEN-tuh PREH-vee-uh) occurs when a baby's placenta partially or totally covers the mother's cervix — the outlet for the uterus. Placenta previa can cause severe bleeding during pregnancy and delivery. If you have placenta previa, you might bleed throughout your pregnancy and during your delivery. _There is no medical or surgical treatment to cure placenta previa, but there are several options to manage the bleeding caused by placenta previa. Management of the bleeding depends on various factors, including: The amount of bleeding. Whether the bleeding has stopped.