Exam II Pharmacology 807

When describing the action of decongestants, a nurse integrates knowledge of this class of drugs, identifying which mechanism? Vasoconstriction of small blood vessels of the nasal membranes Selectively binding to peripheral H1 receptors Nonselectively binding to central and peripheral H1 receptors Anesthetizing stretch receptors in the respiratory passages

VASOCONSTRICTION Vasoconstriction of small blood vessels of the nasal membranes is the mechanism of action for decongestants. First-generation antihistamines act to nonselectively bind to peripheral H1 receptors; the mechanism of action for second-generation antihistamines is to selectively bind to peripheral H1 receptors only; and peripherally acting antitussives anesthetize stretch receptors in the respiratory passages.

A patient presents at the clinic with sneezing and coughing. He is diagnosed with the common cold. Which type of microorganism causes the common cold? Gram-positive bacteria Gram-negative bacteria Virus Fungus

VIRUS The common cold, a viral infection of the upper respiratory tract, is the most common respiratory tract infection. The common cold is not caused by gram-negative or gram-positive bacteria. Fungal infections are not the cause of the common cold.

Which would be most important to include when teaching a patient about using psyllium? Taking the agent with a large amount of water Taking the agent at bedtime Taking other prescribed drugs along with the psyllium Limiting the use of high fiber foods

WATER A large amount of water is needed to prevent the laxative from swelling into a gelatin-like mass in the esophagus that could lead to obstruction. Psyllium can be taken any time, 1 to 3 times per day. Bulk laxatives, like psyllium, can increase the motility of the GI tract and interfere with the timing or process of absorption. Administration of other drugs with psyllium should be separated by at least 30 minutes. It would be important to encourage the patient to ingest high fiber foods to promote bowel evacuation and reduce the need for psyllium.

A client with a history of heart failure is being treated with digoxin. The nurse knows that this medication increases the force of contractions of the heart. What effect improves the contractility of the heart? positive chronotropic effect positive inotropic effect negative inotropic effect negative dromotropic effect

+ INOTROPIC EFFECT In heart failure, digoxin exerts cardiotonic or positive inotropic effect that improves the contractility and pumping ability of the heart. A positive chronotropic effect accelerates the rate of the heart, which is not recommended in a client with heart failure. A negative inotropic effect accelerates the heart, which is not recommended in a client with heart failure. A negative dromotropic effect changes the conductivity of muscle fiber, increasing heart rate.

Which nursing diagnosis would provide the clearest indication for the administration of inhaled acetylcysteine? ineffective airway clearance impaired tissue perfusion ineffective breathing pattern risk for infection

AIRWAY CLEARANCE Acetylcysteine reduces the viscosity of mucous secretions with the ultimate goal of allowing the client to establish and maintain a clear airway. This drug does not directly influence the pattern of breathing. Impaired tissue perfusion can have multiple causes, many of which are unrelated to the presence of mucus secretions.

How do inhaled corticosteroid agents assist in the treatment of asthma? Inhaled corticosteroid agents will depress the central nervous system. Inhaled corticosteroid agents will reduce respiratory rate. Inhaled corticosteroid agents will reduce bronchodilation. Inhaled corticosteroid agents will reduce airway inflammation.

AIRWAY INFLAMMATION Inhaled corticosteroid agents suppress the release of inflammatory mediators, block the generations of cytokines, and decrease the recruitment of airway eosinophils. Inhaled corticosteroid agents do not depress the central nervous system or affect either bronchodilation or constriction.

A client asks, "What is the difference between antitussive medications and expectorants?" What information should the nurse's response be based upon? Antitussives suppress coughing while expectorants loosen bronchial secretions. Both drug types loosen bronchial secretions for ease of removal. Antitussives liquefy bronchial secretions while expectorants assist in the expectoration of those secretions. Antitussives kill cold viruses while expectorants liquefy bronchial secretions.

ANTITUS=SUPPRESS EXPECT=LOOSEN Antitussive agents suppress cough by depressing the cough center in the medulla oblongata or the cough receptors in the throat, trachea, or lungs. Expectorants are agents given orally to liquefy respiratory secretions and allow for their easier removal.

A client with chronic bronchial asthma is prescribed montelukast. What will the nurse instruct the client to avoid taking? Aspirin Penicillin Sertraline Nifedipine

ASPIRIN The nurse would instruct the client to avoid aspirin, which might cause an increased montelukast level and toxicity. The other options do not cause drug-drug interactions with montelukast.

An instructor is describing the unique characteristic of cells of the conducting system, explaining that these cells can generate action potentials without outside stimulation. The instructor is describing: Conductivity Contractility Automaticity Capacitancy

AUTOMATICITY Automaticity is the cell's ability to generate action potentials or electrical impulses without being excited to do so by external stimuli. Conductivity refers to the ability of the cells to conduct this action potential. Contractility refers to the unified contraction of the atria and ventricles to move blood through the vascular system. Capacitancy refers to the venous system, which is distensible and flexible and able to hold large amounts of blood.

Because of the possible adverse effects of long-term proton pump inhibitor (PPI) use, the nurse practitioner should focus on what assessment in a 72-year-old client? bone density dental health joint mobility integumentary system

BONE DENSITY Long-term use of PPIs is associated with increased risk of hip fractures in people older than 50 years of age; the risk of fractures increases the longer the medications are taken and is greater in people who take higher dosages of PPIs. Bone density assessment may thus be warranted. None of the other options are associated with this class of medications.

Before administering alosetron, the nurse should ensure that the client has been made aware of what potentially severe adverse effect? bowel obstruction blood dyscrasias anal fissures diverticulosis

BOWEL OBSTRUCTION Severe constipation, with possible obstruction, perforation, and hemorrhage, is the most common problem resulting from alosetron. None of the other options are associated with this medication.

A patient is administered diltiazem (Cardizem) IV followed by propranolol (Inderal) IV. What effect will this medication combination produce? Hypertensive crisis Anaphylaxis Heart block Bradycardia

BRADY Diltiazem administered with propranolol intravenously will produce potentially fatal bradycardia and hypotension. The administration of IV diltiazem and propranolol will not produce hypertensive crisis, anaphylaxis, or heart block.

When describing the drugs classified as class IV antiarrhythmics, the nurse would identify these as: calcium channel blockers. beta blockers. cardiac glycosides. vasodilators.

CCBS Class IV antiarrhythmics include calcium channel blockers. Beta blockers are class II antiarrhythmics. Cardiac glycosides, such as digoxin may be used as an antiarrhythmic, but are not classified as class I, II, III, or IV. Vasodilators are not used as antiarrhythmics.

Which assessment would be considered a priority for a client receiving amiodarone? urine outputs heart rate checks lung sounds muscle rigidity

CHECK HR An effect of the medication is to increase the ventricular fibrillation threshold. The nurse assesses the client's heart rate and the cardiac rhythm; the heart rate and rhythm should be regular, with a rate between 60 and 100 beats per minute. It is important to assess urine output, but it is not the primary focus since renal function is not the focus of the therapy. Amiodarone may diminish lungs sounds, but it will not cause an increase in lung sounds. The effect of amiodarone is to decrease muscle strength, not cause rigidity.

A client is given theophylline to treat acute asthma symptoms. Which food should the client avoid? Chocolate Bananas Orange juice Cranberry juice

CHOCOLATE Chocolate contains caffeine and is also a xanthine; thus chocolate should be avoided when the client is taking theophylline. Restriction of bananas, orange juice, and cranberry juice is not required.

A client has been administered nesiritide to manage symptoms of acute heart failure. What is the primary action of this drug? exhibits mild inotropic action and decreased platelet aggregation compensates for cardiac deterioration by reducing preload and afterload corrects hyperthyroidism by inhibiting synthesis of the thyroid hormone increases the concentration of acetylcholine to potentiate the action of ACE

COMPENSATES Nesiritide compensates for cardiac deterioration by reducing preload and afterload. Dipyridamole exhibits mild inotropic action and decreased platelet aggregation. It would not be used in acute heart failure. Methimazole corrects hyperthyroidism by inhibiting synthesis of the thyroid hormone. Physostigmine increases the concentration of acetylcholine to potentiate the action of ACE on the skeletal muscle.

A patient is having an allergic reaction to mold. The patient describes chest tightness and difficulty breathing. Which of the following body effects are occurring? Contraction of smooth muscle in the bronchi Suppression of the vagus nerve endings producing tachycardia Decreased permeability of the veins and capillaries Decreased secretion of the mucous glands

CONTRACTION An allergic reaction produces contraction of the smooth muscle in the bronchi and bronchioles. The patient will have stimulation, not suppression, of the vagus nerve endings. The patient will have increased, not decreased, permeability of the veins and capillaries. The patient will have increased secretion from the mucous glands, producing nasal congestion.

A group of students are reviewing the various drugs that affect inflammation. The students demonstrate understanding when they identify which agent as a mast cell stabilizer? Cromolyn Montelukast Calfactant Triamcinolone

CROMOLYN Cromolyn is a mast cell stabilizer. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist. Calfactant is a lung surfactant. Triamcinolone is an inhaled steroid.

Which client statement suggests a need for additional education on the second-generation antihistamine prescribed for the client? "I know these can be a bit expensive, but hopefully it will be worth it for me." "I'm really hoping that these pills will cure my allergies before summer starts." "I'll check with my health care provider to make sure that the diet supplements I'm taking are okay to take at the same time as these pills." "It's handy that I don't necessarily have to take these pills at bedtime."

CURE ALLERGIES Antihistamines mitigate the signs and symptoms of allergies, but they do not cure the problem. Second-generation antihistamines are more expensive than earlier drugs. It is prudent to screen for potential interactions with herbal remedies. Because second-generation drugs do not cause sedation, they may generally be taken at any time.

The nurse would caution a client with which condition against frequent use of milk of magnesia for treatment of constipation? The client with constipation caused by the use of opioid analgesics The client with decreased renal function The client with decreased liver function The client with chronic constipation

DEC RENAL FN Clients with decreased renal function may develop hypermagnesemia if mail of magnesia is used frequently.

A client prescribed codeine for a persistent, debilitating cough tells the nurse, "I was sure that codeine was a narcotic that people take for pain." The nurse should cite what mechanism of action when describing this use of codeine? depression of the cough center in the medulla oblongata vasodilation of the alveolar capillaries stimulation of the reticular activating system (RAS) desensitization of the cough receptors in the sinuses and trachea

DEPRESSION Antitussives such as codeine suppress cough by depressing the cough center in the medulla oblongata. They do not influence blood flow or desensitize peripheral cough receptors. The RAS is not involved in the cough reflex.

The nurse should educate the client prescribed a stimulant cathartic to be alert for which common adverse effect? nausea vomiting diarrhea rectal bleeding

DIARRHEA The stimulant cathartics are the strongest and most abused laxative products. These drugs act by irritating the GI mucosa and pulling water into the bowel lumen. As a result, feces are moved through the bowel too rapidly to allow colonic absorption of fecal water, so a watery stool is eliminated. Nausea, vomiting, and rectal bleeding should not routinely occur.

A client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease develops nausea and vomiting. Promethazine may be contraindicated because it depletes levels of what neurotransmitter? acetylcholine serotonin dopamine adenosine

DOPA Promethazine and other phenothiazines have widespread effects on the body. The therapeutic effects in nausea and vomiting are attributed to their ability to block dopamine from receptor sites in the brain and chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ). This blockage of dopamine has the potential to exacerbate parkinsonian effects.

A client has an elevated BUN. The client has been prescribed digoxin for heart failure. What aspect of care is the priority regarding this client? The client should be taught to increase sodium in the diet. The dose should be increased when the heart rate is below 60. The dose should be decreased in this client. The dosage should be 1.0 mg per mouth daily.

DOSE The dose must be reduced in the presence of renal failure because most of the digoxin is excreted unchanged by the kidneys, leading to drug accumulation and toxicity. The client should be taught to limit sodium intake in the diet. The client's heart rate should remain above 60. If the heart rate falls below 60, the digoxin should be held. The dose of 1.0 mg is too large for a client with altered renal function.

The nurse instructs the patient to use over-the-counter ranitidine (Zantac) instead of cimetidine (Tagamet). What risk is decreased when using ranitidine over cimetidine? Headache Drug-to-drug interaction Diarrhea Bradycardia

DRUG2DRUG Ranitidine causes fewer drug interactions than cimetidine. Ranitidine possesses the following adverse effects: headache, diarrhea, and bradycardia.

The staff educator is presenting a workshop on aging and the changes in the human body. The staff educator talks about the gerontologic considerations in the cardiovascular system. The educator points out that there are alterations in the generation of conduction of impulses in the SA node. What do these changes lead to? Cardiac gallop Tachycardia Cardiac dysrhythmias Heart murmurs

DYSRHYTHMIAS Alterations in the generation of conduction of impulses in the heart cause arrhythmias (dysrhythmias), which can upset the normal balance in the cardiovascular system and lead to a decrease in cardiac output, affecting all of the cells of the body.

The nurse has a prescription to administer a saline cathartic to a client who has a history of congestive heart failure (CHF). Why is this type of cathartic contraindicated with this client? The client is at risk for hypomagnesemia. The client is at risk for excess fluid volume. The client is at risk for hypochloremia. The client is at risk for hyperphosphatemia.

FLUID VOLUME Clients with congestive heart failure are at risk for fluid retention and edema with sodium-containing cathartics. The client diagnosed with CHF is not at risk for hypomagnesemia, hypochloremia, or hyperphosphatemia from the administration of a saline cathartic.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving ondansetron for nausea associated with chemotherapy. The nurse would teach the client that what adverse effect may occur with this medication? Weakness and rash Urinary incontinence and photosensitivity Headache and dizziness Fever and diarrhea

HA & DIZZINESS Clients receiving ondansetron most commonly experience headache, dizziness, and myalgia. Rash, fever, diarrhea, and incontinence are unlikely.

The nurse should be aware that the combination of omeprazole and warfarin creates a risk of what adverse reaction? hemorrhage fluid volume excess venous thromboembolism rebound gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

HEMORRHAGE Omeprazole increases blood levels of the anticoagulant warfarin thus creating a risk for bleeding. Such an elevation in warfarin would not increase the risk for the development of any of the other options.

The nursing instructor is teaching their lab students the best position for the administration of nasal sprays. What position would the instructor teach the students? Supine Semi-Fowler's High Fowler's Side-lying

HIGH-FOWLER'S Teach the patient to sit upright and press a finger over one nare to close it.

What is the chemical mediator released in immune and inflammatory response to allergic reactions? norepinephrine mast cells epinephrine histamine

HISTAMINE Histamine is the chemical mediator released in immune and inflammatory responses. Histamine is discharged from mast cells and basophils in response to certain stimuli (e.g., allergic reactions, cellular injury, extreme cold). This histamine is discharged by mast cells. Epinephrine is the drug of choice for treating severe anaphylaxis. Norepinephrine is a chemical released from the sympathetic nervous system in response to stress.

The nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed an antiarrhythmic agent. What nursing assessment should the nurse prioritize? Mental status Breath sounds and respiratory rate Apical heart rate and blood pressure Activity level and exercise tolerance

HR + BP The nurse should continually monitor cardiac rate and rhythm when administering an antiarrhythmic agent to detect potentially serious adverse effects and to evaluate drug effectiveness. Activity level, respiratory status, and cognition are all relevant assessments, but cardiac assessment is a key priority.

Increased cardiac workload with left-sided heart failure can result in which change to the myocardial cells? Hyperplasia Atrophy Hypertrophy Dysplasia

HYPERTROPHY Myocardial hypertrophy is a compensatory mechanism in heart failure as the heart attempts to maintain adequate pumping ability. Paradoxically, hypertrophy can gradually decrease cardiac efficiency.

A client who has been prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin) is also taking furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg daily. Which electrolyte imbalances will precipitate the client to develop digoxin toxicity? Hyperkalemia Hypokalemia Hypermagnesemia Hyponatremia

HYPOKALEMIA Hypokalemia will contribute to the client developing digoxin toxicity. Hyperkalemia, hypermagnesemia, and hyponatremia will not contribute to the development of digoxin toxicity.

What class of antiarrhythmics blocks potassium channels, prolonging phase 3 of the action potential and slowing the rate and conduction of the heart? I II III IV

III The class III antiarrhythmics block potassium, prolonging phase 3 of the action potential, which prolongs repolarization and slows the rate and conduction of the heart. Class I drugs block the sodium channels in the cell membrane during an action potential. Class II drugs are beta-adrenergic blockers that block beta-receptors, causing a depression of phase 4 of the action potential. Class IV drugs block calcium channels in the cell membrane, leading to a depression of depolarization and a prolongation of phases I and II of repolarization, which slows automaticity.

A client has hypertension and wants to take a nasal decongestant for cold symptoms. Which statement by the nurse indicates the effect of hypertensive medications on hypertension? "The administration of a nasal decongestant will increase blood pressure due to vasoconstriction of blood vessels." "The administration of a nasal decongestant will cause bradycardia and increase peripheral blood pressure." "The administration of a nasal decongestant will decrease the thyroid production and increase blood pressure." "The administration of nasal decongestant will act on the central nervous system to cause vasodilation of blood vessels."

INC BP "The administration of nasal decongestants will increase blood pressure due to vasoconstriction of blood vessels" is indicative of good client teaching. Nasal decongestants do not cause bradycardia to increase blood pressure. The administration of nasal decongestants will not decrease thyroid production and increase blood pressure. The administration of a nasal decongestant does not act on the central nervous system.

A client with a diagnosis of asthma has been prescribed ipratropium 2 puffs QID. What is the most likely goal of this treatment? promoting short-term relief of acute asthma symptoms relieving acute bronchoconstriction promoting long-term management of asthma symptoms promoting blood flow in the alveolar capillaries

LONG-TERM The anticholinergic bronchodilators are most useful in the long-term management of asthma and other conditions producing bronchoconstriction. These drugs are not used in the management of acute exacerbations of asthma. They do not promote alveolar blood flow.

Defecation is normally stimulated by what physiologic trigger? movements and reflexes in the gastrointestinal tract stimulation from the medulla oblongata synthesis and release of digestive enzymes changes in the osmolarity of bowel contents

MOVEMENTS/REFLEXES GI TRACT Defecation is normally stimulated by movements and reflexes in the gastrointestinal tract. It does not result from changes in osmolarity, central nervous system (CNS) stimulation of the medulla, or the release of digestive enzymes.

An adult client with a long-standing dysrhythmia has been taking oral propranolol for the last several months, resulting in acceptable symptom control. What is a priority teaching point for the nurse to communicate to this client? the need to measure the radial pulse for 1 minute prior to each dose of propranolol the importance of not stopping the medication abruptly the need to avoid taking over-the-counter antacids the need to limit intake of high-potassium foods

NOT STOP ABRUPTLY Clients need to realize that they should not stop taking propranolol abruptly because this action can cause the dysrhythmia to worsen. There is no need to restrict potassium intake, to avoid antacids, or to measure the radial pulse prior to each dose of propranolol.

The nurse is educating an older adult client diagnosed with rhinosinusitis in an outpatient clinic about the prescribed topical oxymetazoline. The client has a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease. Which statement made by the client establishes the need for further clarification? "I will blow my nose before using the nasal spray." "I will rinse the spray tip off after each use." "I can take over-the-counter pseudoephedrine, too." "The drug is used no longer than 3 days."

PSEUDOEPHEDRINE The nurse needs to clarify the statement that the client made regarding taking pseudoephedrine PO in addition to the nasal spray the prescriber provided. The client has a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease, both contraindications for the adrenergic drug, pseudoephedrine. Pseudoephedrine would increase blood pressure, heart rate, and cause heart muscle irritability. Topical decongestants are chosen for clients with cardiovascular disease for this reason. The other statements are correct. Blowing the nose clears the passage, so the drug is more effective. The spray tip needs rinsed off after each use. The drug causes rebound congestion if used more often than recommended on the package or longer than 3 days.

The client has Maalox ordered for administration before meals. Which condition is contraindicated with the administration of Maalox? Hypertension Heart rate of 68 Renal dysfunction Stress ulcer

RENAL DYS Magnesium-based antacids are contraindicated in clients with renal failure. Magnesium-based antacids are not contraindicated with hypertension, regular heart rate, or stress ulcer.Magnesium-based antacids are contraindicated in clients with renal failure. Magnesium-based antacids are not contraindicated with hypertension, regular heart rate, or stress ulcer.

You are teaching an obese client with compensated heart failure how to manage his condition with both prescribed drug therapy and nonpharmacologic measures. What modifications would you suggest that your client make to his diet? Restrict sodium, eliminate fat, reduce calories Maintain sodium, reduce fat, maintain calories Eliminate sodium, reduce fat, maintain calories Restrict sodium, reduce fat and calories

RESTRICT:Na REDUCE:FAT+CAL Clients managing their heart failure should restrict dietary sodium intake to reduce edema and other symptoms; restriction typically does not need to be severe. Overweight and obese clients should reduce caloric intake to lose weight, which can decrease systemic vascular resistance and myocardial oxygen demand. Although a reduction of dietary fat (particularly saturated fat) can aid in weight loss and health maintenance, eliminating dietary fat is neither practical nor healthy.

When providing client education relative to an inhaled glucocorticoid, the nurse should include which instruction to prevent a common side effect of the medication? "Do not eat or drink anything for 20 minutes after using the inhaler." "While using the inhaler, inhale as quickly as possible." "Rinse your mouth completely after using the inhaler." "Forcefully exhale after using the inhaler."

RINSE MOUTH To prevent thrush, after using the medicine, the client should rinse his or her mouth with water and spit it out. The other options relate to the administration of the medication and present inaccurate information.

An adult hospital client has been experiencing intractable nausea and vomiting for several hours, so the nurse has obtained a prescription for an antiemetic from the primary care provider. The prescription reads: "Promethazine 25 mg subcutaneously every 6 hours PRN." The nurse should contact the care provider to question what aspect of this prescription? the drug the dose the route the frequency

ROUTE A black box warning alerts nurses that promethazine is contraindicated for subcutaneous administration. The other parameters of the prescription are within recommendations.

A gerontological nurse has encouraged a group of caregivers who work with older adults to avoid administering first-generation H1 receptor antagonists to their clients. The nurse's cautionary message is an acknowledgment of what possible nursing diagnosis? Risk for infection related to adverse effects of antihistamines Risk for falls related to sedation Risk for deficient fluid volume related to diuresis Risk for impaired skin integrity related to urticaria

SEDATION First-generation antihistamines cause drowsiness and impaired cognition that can result in falls. These drugs doare not known to cause diuresis, impaired skin integrity, or infection.

The client has been prescribed diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) for diarrhea. The nurse recognizes that this drug is effective against diarrhea because of which action? Slows peristalsis by acting on the smooth muscles of the intestine Anti-inflammatory effects allowing absorption of fluids Antimicrobial effects Decreases GI secretions

SLOWS PERISTALSIS Diphenoxylate with atropine is chemically related to opioid drugs; therefore, they decrease intestinal peristalsis, which often is increased when the client has diarrhea.

A postoperative surgical client, prescribed twice-daily administration of docusate sodium, is concerned about developing diarrhea. What should the nurse teach the client about docusate sodium? "This medication will only soften your stools over the next couple of days." "You'll usually have a bowel movement within 2 to 3 hours of taking this." "This medication will cause your bowels to contract more strongly than they normally do." "This drug will help you pass regular stools while you're in the hospital, but you should not take it for more than 5 days."

SOFTEN STOOL Surfactant laxatives (e.g., docusate calcium or docusate sodium) decrease the surface tension of the fecal mass to allow water to penetrate into the stool. They also act as a detergent to facilitate admixing of fat and water in the stool. As a result, stools are softer and easier to expel. These agents have little, if any, laxative effect. Their main value is to prevent straining while expelling stool. They usually act within 1 to 3 days and should be taken daily.

A client is being assessed by the home care nurse on the appropriate use of her metered-dose inhalers. Instructions concerning which intervention will assist a client in the proper administration of the metered-dose inhaler? using a spacer administrating corticosteroid first pushing fluids exhaling immediately after administration

SPACER The client should be instructed to use a spacer to increase compliance and accuracy of administration. An asthma spacer is an add-on device used to increase the ease of administering aerosolized medication from a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). The corticosteroid should be administered after the bronchodilator. The increase in fluids will not affect the administration of the inhaler. The client should hold his or her breath for several seconds after administration of the inhaler.

A client prescribed albuterol should be educated on identifying and managing which adverse reaction? polydipsia tachycardia hypotension diarrhea

TACHY The symptoms of cardiac stimulation, including tachycardia, are noted with the administration of albuterol. The client will not experience polydipsia, hypotension, or diarrhea because of the effects of albuterol.

A client, prescribed an antihistamine for nausea, should be monitored for which adverse effect of this classification of medication? diarrhea prolonged QRS complex urinary retention inverted T wave

URINE RETENTION Adverse anticholinergic effects of antihistamines are dizziness, confusion, dry mouth, and urinary retention. Urinary incontinence, prolonged QRS complex, and inverted T wave are not adverse effects of antihistamines.