EXSC 485
According to the Seventh Report of the Joint National Committee on Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Pressure, a "normal" blood pressure is a. <120 mm Hg systolic and <80 mm Hg diastolic b. 120-159 mm Hg systolic and 80-99 mm Hg diastolic c. <140 mm Hg systolic and <90 mm Hg diastolic d. 120-139 mm Hg systolic and 80-89 mm Hg diastolic
a. <120 mm Hg systolic and <80 mm Hg diastolic
A possible mechanism by which chronic exercise training may reduce resting blood pressure in a person with hypertension is ________. a. A reduced heart rate b. A lower stroke volume c. An increase in plasma renin d. A higher cardiac output
a. A reduced heart rate Blood pressure is the product of cardiac output and total peripheral resistance. A benefit of exercise training is a reduction in cardiac output and total peripheral resistance at any given workload, including rest. A lower dardiac output is probably owing to a reduction in heart rate as a result of an increased stroke volume and arteriovenous oxygen difference. Plasma renin is a catalyst for vasoconstriction. It is reduced,m not increased, with exercise training.
The American College of Sports Medicine recognizes the risk stratification procedures of which other organization? a. AACVPR b. NSCA c. ACE d. YMCA
a. AACVPR
All of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease can be modified by a regular and appropriate exercise training program except _____________. a. Advancing Age b. High-Density Lipoprotein Cholesterol c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Hypertension
a. Advancing Age A modifiable risk factor is one that be influenced by either surgical, pharmacologic, or behavioral intervention. Scientific studies have shown that a regular and appropriate exercise program can reduce the risk of developing DM, hypertension, and unfavorable HDL levels or it can be used as an adjunct treatment.
Which term is used to refer to a group of pulmonary disorders characterized by limitations in airflow that are not fully reversible? a. COPD b. asthma c. emphysema d. bronchitis
a. COPD Bronchitis and emphysema are all forms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Asthma is a separate category of pulmonary disease.
The goal of risk stratification is to _________. a. Increase the safety of exercise participation b. Determine prognosis c. Assess disease severity d. Confirm diagnosis
a. Increase the safety of exercise participation The goal of risk stratification is to increase the safety of exercise training in adult fitness and exercise-based cardiac rehabilitation programs. Initial risk stratification tables are available from the American College of Sports Medicine. Cardiac patients may be further stratified using tables available from the American Heart Association, and American Association of Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Rehabilitation. Although risk stratification is based on the likelihood of experiencing an untoward cardiac event, it does not attempt to diagnose disease, predict prognosis, or determine disease severity. Different nomograms and tables are available for such information.
Which of the following is a definition of moderate risk? a. Individuals who do not have signs/symptoms of or diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, but have two or more (i.e., ≥2) risk CVD factors b. Individuals who do not have signs/symptoms of or diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, and have less than two (i.e.,<2) CVD risk factors c. Individuals with more than three risk factors and who also exhibit symptoms of cardiovascular disease d. Individuals who have one or more signs/symptoms of or have diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease
a. Individuals who do not have signs/symptoms of or diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, but have two or more (i.e., ≥2) risk CVD factors
The relationship between heart rate (HR) and oxygen consumption in pulmonary cases is ________. a. Linear b.Nonlinear c. No relationship d. Exponential
a. Linear Patients with pulmonary disease and apparently healthy individuals have a linear increase in heart rate to oxygen consumption. With pulmonary disease, the patient will be limited by some mechanism that ultimately results in inefficient pulmonary gas exchange. An attempt to correct for this factor will be shown by a high ventilation per unit of oxygen consumed (VE/VO2), a high percentage of pulmonary ventilation to maximal voluntary ventilation (VE/MVV), and a high respiratory rate.
Which of the following is a definition of low risk? a. Individuals who do not have signs/symptoms of or diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, but have two or more (i.e., ≥2) risk CVD factors b. Individuals who do not have signs/symptoms of or diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, and have less than two (i.e.,<2) CVD risk factors c. Individuals with more than three risk factors and who also exhibit symptoms of cardiovascular disease d. Individuals who have one or more signs/symptoms of or have diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease
b. Individuals who do not have signs/symptoms of or diagnosed cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, and have less than two (i.e.,<2) CVD risk factors
What is the goal of ATP III when it comes to lowering the risk of cardiovascular disease? a. A combined total cholesterol <200 and an HDL cholesterol <40 b. LDL cholesterol <100 c. HDL cholesterol <40 d. Total cholesterol <210
b. LDL cholesterol <100
The energy system that can produce the largest amount of ATP is: a. Creatine phosphate b. Oxidative system c. Acid transfer phosphate d. Anaerobic glycolysis
b. Oxidative system
Which of the following statements is true concerning the pathophysiology of coronary artery disease? a. Injury to the artery wall begins in the media b. the endothelium takes up lipids, especially low-density lipoproteins c. atherosclerotic lesions are formed in the intima d. platelets and thrombi form in the adventitia
c. atherosclerotic lesions are formed in the intima Injury to the artery wall does not begin in the media but rather in the endothelial layer with subsequent platelet and clot formation. Monocytes adhere to the endothelium, move to the intima, and take up cholesterol. The adventitia, the outermost layer of the artery wall, is not involved in the development of atherosclerosis.
What should happen to undisclosed or unavailable CVD risk factor information? a. consider it only in the presence of other risk factors b. do not count it against the person c. count it as a risk factor except for prediabetes d. forget that it exists
c. count it as a risk factor except for diabetes
The primary effects of chronic exercise training on blood lipids include ___________. a. decreased total cholesterol and low-density lipoproteins b. decreased total cholesterol and increased high-density lipoproteins c. decreased triglycerides and increased high-density lipoproteins d. decreased high-density lipoprotein and increased low-density lipoproteins
c. decreased triglycerides and increased high-density lipoproteins Chronic exercise training has its greatest benefit on lowering triglycerides (TGs) and increasing high-density lipoproteins (HDL). Changes in total cholesterol or low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol are influenced more by dietary habits and body weight than by exercise training.
The most popular type of resistance training is: a. Plyometric b. Isometric c. Dynamic d. Tonometric
c. dynamic
Scientific evidence indicates neuromuscular exercise in older adults a. facilitates muscular strength, endurance, and power b. improves range of motion c. facilitates balance and agility d. promotes cardiovascular benefits
c. facilitates balance and agility
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the preparticipation health screening? a. Recognition of persons with clinically significant disease(s) or conditions who should participate in a community-based exercise program b. Recognition of persons with clinically significant disease(s) or conditions who should participate in a medically supervised exercise program c. Detection of individuals at increased risk for disease because of age, symptoms, and/or risk factors who should undergo a medical evaluation and exercise testing before initiating an exercise program or increasing the frequency and intensity of their current program d. Identification of individuals with medical contraindications for exclusion from exercise programs until those conditions have been abated or are under control
a. Recognition of persons with clinically significant disease(s) or conditions who should participate in a community-based exercise program
A classic sign of subendocardial ischemia is ________. a. ST segment depression b. ST segment elevation c. angina d. a pathological Q wave
a. ST segment depression A classic sign of MI ischemia is ST segment alteration. ST segment depression suggests subendocardial ischemia, whereas ST segment elevation indicates transmural ischemia, whereas ST segment elevation indicates transmural ischemia or acute MI. Pathologic Q waves point to transmural MI. Angina is a classic symptom, not a sign, of ischemia.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to exercise testing? a. Unstable angina b. Left main coronary stenosis c. Moderate stenotic valvular heart disease d. Electrolyte abnormalities (e.g., hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia)
a. Unstable angina
According to the risk classification criteria, a patient in the moderate risk category should have a. a medical examination prior to engaging in a vigorous exercise program b. a medical examination prior to engaging in an exercise program of any exercise intensity c. a medical examination and a graded exercise test prior to engaging in any form of exercise d. his or her medical insurance coverage examined closely before giving him or her a graded exercise test
a. a medical examination prior to engaging in a vigorous exercise program
Which physiologic responses would be expected to occur under conditions of high ambient temperature? a. decreased HR at rest b. decreased max HR c. increased HR at submax workload d. increased max O2
c. increased HR at submax workload Compared with a cool and dry environment, a higher metabolic cost exists at submaximal workloads when exercising in the heat and humidity. Thus, the exercise prescription should be altered by lowering the work intensity. Evaporation of sweat cools the skin; therefore, wiping away sweat would decrease evaporative cooling and heat loss. Heat loss by convection, such as that which occurs when a breeze is created by running can be beneficial but not unless the workload of activity is reduced. It is necessary to exercise in the heat and humidity to become acclimated to the environment; it will not occur by being sedentary.
One notable limitation of the PAR-Q is: a. less sensitive toward older individuals b. less sensitive toward men vs. women c. limited effectiveness to screen low-to-moderate risk individuals d. less sensitive toward women vs. men
c. limited effectiveness to screen low-to-moderate risk individuals
Wheezes, rales, and crackles come from the a. liver b. heart c. lungs d. pancreas
c. lungs
An individual has known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease if a physician has diagnosed all but which of the following conditions? a. pulmonary disease: COPD, asthma, interstitial lung disease, or cystic fibrosis b. metabolic disease: DM (type 1 or 2), and renal or liver disease c. meningococcal disease d. CVD: cardiac disease, peripheral artery disease, or cerebrovascular disease
c. meningococcal disease
Risk stratification of cardiac patients (patients with known disease) includes lowest risk, moderate risk, and high risk according to the AACVPR. Which of the following places a patient into the moderate-risk category? a. rest ejection fraction <40% b. functional capacity >/- 7 METS c. mild to moderate level of silent ischemia during exercise testing or recovery (ST-segment depression <2 mm from baseline d. presence of complex ventricular dysrhythmias during exercise testing or recovery
c. mild to moderate level of silent ischemia during exercise testing or recovery (ST-segment depression <2 mm from baseline
The PAR-Q is recommended as a minimal standard for entry into which type of activity a, easy b. vigorous c. moderate d. light
c. moderate
The ACSM/CDC joint position statement recommends moderate-intensity physical activity can be performed how often? a. 5 days/week b. every other day/week c. most, if not all, days of the week d. 4 days/week
c. most, if not all, days of the week
Potential exercise program participants should be screened for the presence, signs, symptoms, and/or risk factors of various cardiovascular, pulmonary, and metabolic diseases as well as other conditions (e.g., pregnancy, orthopedic injury) that require special attention to a. develop additional cost centers for your program b. increase revenue generation c. optimize safety during exercise testing d. increase the likelihood that participants will drop out
c. optimize safety during exercise testing
According to the AACVPR risk stratification criteria for patients with known CVD, individuals at high risk for exercise participation may exhibit any one or a combination of the following except a. presence of complex ventricular dysrhythmias during exercise testing or recovery b. high level of silent ischemia during exercise testing or recovery c. presence of normal hemodynamics with exercise testing or during recovery d. presence of angina or other significant symptoms at low levels of exertion or during recovery
c. presence of normal hemodynamics with exercise testing or during recovery
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of coronary artery disease? a. pain or discomfort (or other anginal equivalent) in the chest, neck, jaw, arms, or other areas that may result from ischemia b. shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion c. swollen hands d. dizziness or syncope
c. swollen hands
The process by which individuals are assigned a risk category is called risk classification, which is based on the presence or absence of all but which of the following? a. signs or symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease b. CVD risk factors c. the potential for developing risk factors d. known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease
c. the potential for developing risk factors
Which of the following drugs is used during acute MI to dissolve blood clots, restore blood flow, and limit myocardial necrosis? a. B-blockers b. coronary artery bypass graft surgery c. thrombolytic agent's therapy d. sestamibi
c. thrombolytic agent's therapy Administration of streptokinase or t-PA (recombinant tissue plasminogen activator) within the first 1-2 hours after an MI may dissolve the clot causing the injury. This type of therapy, called thrombolytic therapy, is designed to restore blood flow and limit myocardial necrosis.
Which term is used to describe angina pectoris that occurs without a precipitating event? a. stable b. silent c. variant d. typical
c. variant Hormonal imbalances associated with long-term secondary amenorrhea may affect the normal accumulation of bone tissue during growth, which may in turn increase the risk of bone fragility and osteoporosis.
T/F - body composition is a component of health related fitness
true
T/F - According to ACSM Risk Factor Thresholds, being a female over 45 y/o is considered a positive risk factor.
False
T/F - An elevated BMI and an excessive waist circumference count as two separate risk factors
False
T/F - When information regarding a specific risk factor is missing, the HFS should consider the missing information as a nonrisk factor
False
T/F - all physical activity is exercise
False
True / False - An exercise program should be progressed by adjusting each of the components of the FITT principle upward on a weekly basis.
False
True / False - For a HFS to determine if the cardiovascular response to exercise is appropriate, blood pressure need only be taken before and after exercise.
False
True / False - Muscle cells can store an unlimited amount of ATP.
False
Self-guided screening for physical activity can be best described as a. a self-report medical history or health risk appraisal that should be done by all people wishing to initiate a physical activity program and is completed with little or no input or supervision from an exercise or health/fitness professional b. often misunderstood by exercise professionals because it is inherently misunderstood by the client and it subject to the client not being truthful c. one whereby the health fitness/clinical assessment is conducted by and the exercise program is designed and supervised by appropriately trained personnel that possess academic training and practical/clinical knowledge, skills, and abilities d. one that is often conducted within the confines of a physicians office because of secrecy and patient confidentiality
a. a self-report medical history or health risk appraisal that should be done by all people wishing to initiate a physical activity program and is completed with little or no input or supervision from an exercise or health/fitness professional
At minimum, a Health History Questionnaire should assess: a. all of the above b. client's family history of disease c. client's current use of meds d. client's surgical history
a. all of the above
All of the following are possible causes of restrictive lung disease except ___________. a. cigarette smoke b. scoliosis c. obesity d. muscular dystrophy
a. cigarette smoke Restrictive lung disease can be caused by a variety of factors that compromise the ability of the lungs and rib cage to expand outward and upward including, for example, scoliosis, muscular dystrophy, and obesity. Cigarette smoke is risk factor for chronic obstructive lung disease, a condition characterized by inflammation of the airways and impaired gas exchange.
The relationship between PA and risk of CVD is: a. inverse b. direct c. null d. unknown
a. inverse
A transient deficiency of blood flow to the myocardium resulting from an imbalance between oxygen demand and oxygen supply is know as _________. a. ischemia b. infarction c. angina d. thrombosis
a. ischemia Myocardial ischemia occurs when the oxygen supply does not meet oxygen demand resulting from decreased blood flow to the myocardium. This is usually owing to atherosclerotic lesions reducing blood flow or coronary artery spasm, both of which are the result of atherosclerosis. This process often leads to angina (symptoms) or myocardial infarction caused by a thrombosis.
The metabolic syndrome is characterized by a constellation of metabolic risk factors in one individual. These metabolic risk factors include all of the following EXCEPT a. low LDL cholesterol b. elevated triglycerides c. high blood pressure d. abdominal obesity
a. low LDL cholesterol
Appropriate components of the medical history do NOT include a. questions about social support mechanisms b. previous physical examination findings c. history of symptoms d. a medical diagnosis
a. questions about social support mechanisms
Sudden cardiac death related to moderate intensity exercise is: a. rare b. common c. unknown d. the two are not related
a. rare
Which of the following is defined as a loss of consciousness? a. syncope b. orthopnea c. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea d. angina
a. syncope
Which of the following is the preferred method of prescribing exercise intensity? a. Talk test b. % Heart rate reserve (measured) c. Rating of perceived exertion (RPE) d. % Age predicted HRmax
b. % Heart rate reserve (measured)
What is the minimum number of calories (kcal) to be burned per week in exercise and physical activity that evidence demonstrates results in health/fitness benefits? a. 2000 kcal b. 1000 kcal c. 3500 kcal d. 500 kcal
b. 1000 kcal
The percentage of American children who are obese has increased by ___ times since the 1970s. a. 5 to 7 b. 2 to 4 c. 10 d. none; it has stayed the same
b. 2 to 4
The three pathways for energy (ATP) production include all except: a. Oxidative system b. Acid transfer phosphate c. Anaerobic glycolysis d. Creatine phosphate
b. Acid transfer phosphate
Which of the following is NOT a common spirometric test? a. Forced vital capacity (FVC) b. Arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) c. FEV1.0/FVC ratio d. Forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1.0)
b. Arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2)
Which is not part of a usual preparticipation screening? a. HR assessment b. ECG assessment c. resting BP assessment d. demographic data
b. ECG assessment
Which of the following lipids and lipoproteins is strongly and inversely associated with the risk for cardiovascular disease? a. Triglycerides b. HDL cholesterol c. Total cholesterol d. LDL cholesterol
b. HDL cholesterol
Which of the following is a NEGATIVE risk factor for CVD? a. BMI of 32 kg x m^-2 b. HDL cholesterol of 62 mg x dL^-1 (1.57 mmol x L^-1) c. waist girth of 103 cm d. total cholesterol of 200 mg x dL^-1 (5.18 mmol x L^-1)
b. HDL cholesterol of 62 mg x dL^-1 (1.57 mmol x L^-1)
Pulmonary function testing with spirometry is recommended for all smokers over the age of a. 55 yr b. 60 yr c. 45 yr d. 65 yr
c. 45 yr
T/F - A client with well-controlled exercise induced asthma, and no other notable risk factors, may be able to initiate exercise without first being screened by a physician.
True
T/F - Conditions that make the risk of exercise possibly greater than the benefits are referred to as contraindications
True
T/F - One of the main purposes of preparticipation screening is to minimize risk of physical activity
True
T/F - Physical activity has been noted to provide greater protective benefits against heart disease in older adults, rather than adults
True
True / False - Cardiorespiratory fitness is defined as the ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen to muscles.
True
True / False? Closed kinetic chain exercises more closely mimic everyday activities and include more functional movement patterns compared with open kinetic chain exercises.
True
What is the current state of knowledge on progression or regression of atherosclerosis in human coronary arteries? a. Regression of atherosclerosis has yet to observed in clinical studies. b. Regression of atherosclerosis has been observed in clinical studies. c. Progression of atherosclerosis begins at puberty. d. There is no difference in the rate of progression or regression between those who undergo usual medical care and those who aggressively control risk factors.
b. Regression of atherosclerosis has been observed in clinical studies. Clinical studies of cardiac patients have shown that long-term aggressive control of CAD risk factors can reduce or halt the rate of disease progression and may actually result in regression of atherosclerotic plaque. Individuals who aggressively attack, reduce, and control risk factors are more likely to see favorable results than individuals who undergo usual medical care. The process of atherosclerosis begins at birth.
What is the correct term and definition to describe a potential complication that may occur after an acute myocardial infarction (MI)? a. expansion - another MI b. aneurysm - bulging of the ventricular wall c. extension - left ventricular dilation d. rupture - left ventricular dilation
b. aneurysm - bulging of the ventricular wall A ventricular aneurysm is a bulging of the ventricular wall. Expansion is dilation of the left ventricle while extension is another MI. Rupture is an aneurysm that breaks open in the ventricular wall not the coronary artery.
All of the following are suggestive of cardiovascular and pulmonary disease except _________. a. A sharp, jabbing pain in the side when running b. dyspnea during strenuous exertion c. substernal burning that occurs during exertion and dissipates with the rest d. syncope during moderate-intensity exercise training
b. dyspnea during strenuous exertion Dyspnea (shortness of breath) commonly occurs during strenuous exertion in healthy, well-trained persons and during moderate exertion in healthy, untrained persons. It should be regarded as abnormal, however, when it occurs at a level of exertion that is not expected to evoke this symptom in a given individual. Underlying cardiac arrhythmias can cause palpitations, even at rest. Syncope is loss of consciousness ans is abnormal at rest or during any level of exertion. The location (substernal), character (burning), and provoking factor (exertion that dissipates with rest) of substernal burning are features of classic ischemia.
According to ACSM Risk Factor Thresholds, which is not considered a positive risk factor toward exercise participation? a. BMI of 25.0 to 29.9 kg m^2 b. fasting blood glucose greater than 100 mg dL^1 c. current cigarette smoker d. hypertension
b. fasting blood glucose greater than 100 mg dL^1
Cureton's primary area of research was a. CVD b. fitness training c. ACL injuries d. diabetes
b. fitness training
Murmurs, clicks, and gallop rhythms come from the a. lungs b. heart c. pancreas d. liver
b. heart
The only "negative" risk factor that can be identified during preparticipation screening: a. low LDL cholesterol (<100 mg dL) b. high HDL cholesterol (>/- 60 mg dL) c. high resting blood pressure d. low resting blood pressure
b. high HDL cholesterol (>/- 60 mg dL)
According to ACSM, which would not present a reason for recommending a diagnostic preparticipation exercise test a. advanced diabetes b. prehypertension c. current pulmonary disease d. previous diagnosis fo CVD
b. prehypertension
Intermittent claudication is defined as a. chronic pain in the chest that is often described as a dull ache b. the pain that occurs in a muscle with inadequate blood supply c. shortness of breath brought on by physical exertion d. shortness of breath occurring only in the recumbent position
b. the pain that occurs in a muscle with inadequate blood supply
Which is not considered a typical reason to conduct preparticipation screening? a. to benchmark for goal setting b. to generate income for an individual or facility c. to identify those with medical contraindications d. to identify those with significant, but not limiting medical concerns
b. to generate income for an individual or facility
Clinical decisions regarding blood pressure should be based on the average of a. two or more properly measured, seated blood pressure readings recorded during a single office visit b. two or more properly measured, seated blood pressure readings recorded during each of two or more office visits c. three blood pressure readings, one each in the supine, sitting, and standing positions d. multiple supine measurements taken over the course of a single office visit
b. two or more properly measured, seated blood pressure readings recorded during each of two or more office visits
Older adults can confer greater benefit by holding a stretch for a. 20 s b. 10 s c. 30-60 s d. 120 s
c. 30-60 s
A cardiac patient is taking a B-blocker medication. During an exercise test, you would expect _______________. a. No change in heart rate or blood pressure compared with a test without the medication b. ST segment depression because B-blockers depress ST segment on the resting ECG c. An increase in the anginal threshold compared with a test without the medication d. A slight decrease or no effect on blood pressure compared with a test without the medication
c. An increase in the anginal threshold compared with a test without the medication B-blockers increase the angina threshold by reducing myocardial oxygen demand at rest and during exercise. This occurs through a reduction in chronotropic (heart rate) and inotropic (strength of contraction) responses. Blood pressure is also reduced at rest and during exercise by a reduction in cardiac output (reduced chronotropic and inotropic response) and a reduction in total peripheral resistance. B-blockers do not produce ST segment changes on the resting ECG.
Body fat appears to be most dangerous when _________. a. Body fat exceeds 25% for males and 30% for females b. Weight for height exceeds 20% above recommended c. Central (android) obesity is present d. Body mass index exceeds 25 kg/m2
c. Central (android) obesity is present The distribution of body fat, rather than the overall quantity of fat, appears to be the most important predictor of the health risks associated with obesity. Individuals with abdominal fat (central obesity or android) are especially at increased risk for a variety of cardiovascular conditions than individuals with similar body fat levels but with more of their fat on the extremities. A waist-to-hip, or waist alone circumference can be used to assess risk of central obesity. Weight for height tables, body composition assessment, and body mass index provide indices of total excess weight or total fat weight, but do not provide a distribution of body fat.
Which of the following is diminished with obstructive airway diseases? a. Arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) b. Forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1.0) c. FEV1.0/FVC ratio d. Forced vital capacity (FVC)
c. FEV1.0/FVC ratio
ATP III designates which of the following as a nonmodifiable nonlipid risk factor for cardiovascular disease? a. Hypertension b. Physical inactivity c. Family history of premature cardiovascular disease d. Cigarette smoking
c. Family history of premature cardiovascular disease
A sedentary lifestyle ________________. a. Increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol b. Has little influence on mortality rates after an MI c. Has a risk similar to that of hypertension, high cholesterol, and cigarette smoking. d. Increases the sensitivity to insulin
c. Has a risk similar to that of hypertension, high cholesterol, and cigarette smoking. The risk ratios of hypertension (2.1), high cholesterol (2.4), cigarette smoking (2.5), and physical inactivity (1.9) are similar. A sedentary lifestyle is associated with low HDL cholesterol and sensitivity to insulin (higher plasma glucose values). Studies have shon that, after an MI, a regular exercise training program can significantly reduce mortality rates in these patients as compared with those who are less active after an MI.
Emerging risk factors for coronary artery disease include _____________. a. Advancing age, family history, and male gender b. Lipoprotein (a), advancing age, and male gender c. Homocysteine, lipoprotein (a), and fibrinogen d. Impaired fasting glucose, obesity, and hypertension
c. Homocysteine, lipoprotein (a), and fibrinogen Primary risk factors are those that have shown a consistent casual link over time and have been proved with much certainty (e.g., advancing age, obesity, hypertension). Emerging risk factors are those that have been shown to be related to an increased risk, but their link has not been causal or consistent in nature. Although such factors (e.g., homocysteine, lipoprotein (a), figrinogen) show promise as independent causes of CAD, additional studies are warranted to assess their complete significance to CAD.
Which is most true of the rest interval in resistance training? a. Longer rest accompanies muscular endurance training. b. Shorter rest accompanies muscular strength training. c. Longer rest accompanies muscular strength training. d. The rest interval is largely unimportant.
c. Longer rest accompanies muscular strength training.
Which answer below best describes the condition of asthma? a. Ventilatory dead space b. Alveolar destruction c. Narrowing of the bronchial airways d. Respiratory muscular atrophy
c. Narrowing of the bronchial airways Asthma is a narrowing or vasoconstriction of the bronchial airways that is initiated by some trigger such as, for example, dust or cigarette smoke. Destruction of the alveoli and impaired ventilation (dead space) is the pathophysiology of emphysema. When the muscles of respiration are comprised (e.g., muscular dystrophy), then restrictive lung disease can occur.
"Use it or lose it" refers to the training principle known as: a. Frequency b. Intensity c. Reversibility d. Progressive overload
c. Reversibility
The loss of elasticity (or "hardening") of the arteries is known as ________. a. atherosclerosis b. atheroma c. arteriosclerosis d. adventitia
c. arteriosclerosis Arteriosclerosis, also called "hardening" of the arteries, is a loss of arterial elasticity and is associated with aging. Atherosclerosis is a form of arteriosclerosis characterized by an accumulation of obstructive lesions within the arterial wall. The adventitia, the outermost layer of the artery wall, provides the media and intima with oxygen and other nutrients.
The EP-C can safely supervise exercise tests: a. that involve moderate-risk clients b. that involve high-risk clients c. that involve any clients, regardless of risk d. that involve low-risk clients
d. that involve low-risk clients
Which of the following statements concerning the surgical treatment of coronary artery disease is true? a. Atherectomy is a prerequisite requirement for percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty. b. Long-term outcome of laser angioplasty is unknown and, thus, rarely used. c. Venous grafts are significantly superior to arterial grafts in terms of patency. d. A coronary artery stent carries a lower rate of revascularization than does percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty.
d. A coronary artery stent carries a lower rate of revascularization than does percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty. Restenosis occurs within 6 months in approximately 30-50% of patients who have had a PTCA, whereas a stent has about a 25% failure rate and the drug-eluting stent having a restenosis rate in the low single digits. Atherectomy can be used along with PTCA and is useful when the PTCA catheter cannot pass through the artery, but atherectomy is not a prerequisite for PTCA. Internal mammary artery grafts are preferred over saphenous venous grafts because of superior patency (90% versus <50% at 10 years). About 25-50% of patients will experience a restenosis within 6 months of laser angioplasty.
The criteria for the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome includes the following _____________. a. Low high-density lipoprotein cholesterol, cigarette smoking, hypertension, and physical inativity b. Central obesity, elevated low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, diabetes, and physical inactivity c. Elevated total cholesterol, obesity, diabetes, and physical inactivity. d. Central obesity, elevated triglycerides and low high-density lipoprotein cholesterol, hypertension, and insulin resistance
d. Central obesity, elevated triglycerides and low high-density lipoprotein cholesterol, hypertension, and insulin resistance The metabolic syndrome is a cluster of lipid and nonlipid risk factors of metabolic origin. Excess body fat, particularly abdominal obesity, raised blood pressure, insulin resistance (with or without glucose intolerance), and dyslipidemia (elevated TG, and low HDL cholesterol) comprise this deadly quartet. The metabolic syndrome enhances the risk for heart disease exponentially.
Modifiable primary risk factors for coronary artery disease include __________. a. Tobacco smoking, dyslipidemia, hypertension, and homocysteine b. Hypertension, dyslipidemia, advancing age, and tobacco smoking c. Homocysteine, lipoprotein (a), C-reactive protein, and gender d. Obesity, diabetes mellitus, tobacco smoking, and sedentary lifestyle
d. Obesity, diabetes mellitus, tobacco smoking, and sedentary lifestyle The primary modifiable risk factors for CAD are tobacco smoking, dyslipidemia, hypertension, sedentary lifestyle, obesity, and DM. The primary nonmodifiable risk factors for CAD are advance age, male gender, and family history. Emerging risk factors for CAD are numerous and include, for example, homocysteine, fibrinogen tissue plasminogen activator, lipoprotein (a), and C-reactive protein.
Which of the following is not a valid guideline for prescription of muscular fitness training? a. Each muscle group should be trained for a total of two to four sets. b. Frequency of resistance training of each major muscle group should be 2-3 d · wk-1. c. Each set should consist of 8-12 repetitions. d. There should be at least 24 h separating exercise training sessions for the same muscle group.
d. There should be at least 24 h separating exercise training sessions for the same muscle group.
Which is most true of muscle fiber type? a. Type II fibers are highly oxidative, or depend on oxygen. b. Either type can be converted through resistance training. c. Type II fibers have smaller motor units compared to type I. d. Type II fibers are best for strength and power activities.
d. Type II fibers are best for strength and power activities.
Which of the following is not a component of physical fitness? a. muscle strength b. flexibility c. power d. ability
d. ability
Which of the following is a benefit of resistance training? a. Increased lean body mass b. Fewer cardiovascular disease events c. Improved blood glucose levels d. All of the above
d. all of the above
Dyspnea can be defined as a. syncope b. orthopnea c. substernal chest pain d. an abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing
d. an abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing
Which of the following individuals has a cardiovascular disease risk factor? a. someone who began a regular exercise program a year ago b. a client with a BMI of 24 c. a client with a BP of 138/82 mmHg d. cigarette smoker who quit 3 months ago
d. cigarette smokker who quit 3 months ago
Muscular fitness refers to the a. ability to run long distances with very little muscle fatigue b. combination of glycolytic and nonglycolytic enzymes working together c. ability to lift heavy objects d. combination of muscular strength, endurance, and power
d. combination of muscular strength, endurance, and power
Orthopnea refers to a. shortness of breath b. an unpleasant awareness of the forceful or rapid beating of the heart c. dull ache or "knifelike," sharp, stabbing pain in the chest d. dyspnea occurring at rest in the recumbent position
d. dyspnea occurring at rest in the recumbent position
After completing self-guided preparticipation health screening methods as the PAR-Q or AHA/ACSM Health/Fitness Facility Preparticipation Screening Questionnaire, the number of positive CVD risk factors should be a. divided by negative risk factors b. multiplied by negative risk factors c. subtracted from the number of negative risk factors d. summed
d. summed
