FIN 3403-Exam 2 Study Guide

A $1,000 face value bond can be redeemed early at the issuer's discretion for $1,030, plus any accrued interest. The additional $30 is called the: A. Dirty price. B. Redemption value. C. Call premium. D. Original-issue discount. E. Redemption discount.

C. Call premium.

All else constant, a bond will sell at _____ when the coupon rate is _____ the yield to maturity. A. a premium; less than B. a premium; equal to C. a discount; less than D. a discount; higher than E. par; less than

C. a discount; less than

The bond market requires a return of 9.8 percent on the five-year bonds issued by JW Industries. The 9.8 percent is referred to as which one of the following? A. Coupon rate. B. Face rate. C. Call rate. D. Yield to maturity. E. Current yield.

D. Yield to maturity.

A sinking fund is managed by a trustee for which one of the following purposes? A. Paying bond interest payments. B. Early bond redemption. C. Converting bonds into equity securities. D. Paying preferred dividends. . E. Reducing bond coupon rates.

B. Early bond redemption.

Bert owns a bond that will pay him $75 each year in interest plus a $1,000 principal payment at maturity. What is the $1,000 called? A. Coupon. B. Face value. C. Discount. D. Yield. E. Dirty price.

B. Face value.

The Fisher effect primarily emphasizes the effects of _____ on an investor's rate of return. A. Default. B. Inflation. C. Interest rate changes. D. market movements E. The time to maturity.

B. Inflation.

Bonds issued by the U.S. government: A. Are considered to be free of interest rate risk. B. Generally have higher coupons than comparable bonds issued by a corporation. C. Are considered to be free of default risk. D. Pay interest that is exempt from federal income taxes. E. Are called "munis."

C. Are considered to be free of default risk.

You expect interest rates to decline in the near future even though the bond market is not indicating any sign of this change. Which one of the following bonds should you purchase now to maximize your gains if the rate decline does occur? A. Short-term; low coupon. B. Short-term; high coupon. C. Long-term; zero coupon. D. Long-term; low coupon. E. Long-term; high coupon.

C. Long-term; zero coupon.

The taxability risk premium compensates bondholders for which one of the following? A. Yield decreases in response to market changes. B. Lack of coupon payments. C. Possibility of default. D. A bond's unfavorable tax status. E. Decrease in a municipality's credit rating.

D. A bond's unfavorable tax status.

A bond that has only one payment, which occurs at maturity, defines which one of these types of bonds? A. Debenture. B. Callable. C. Floating-rate. D. Junk. E. Zero coupon.

E. Zero coupon.

The break-even tax rate between a taxable corporate bond yielding 7 percent and a comparable nontaxable municipal bond yielding 5 percent can be expressed as: A. .05 / (1 - t*) = .07. B. .05 - (1 - t*) = .07. C. .07 + (1 - t*) = .05. D. .05 (1 - t*) = .07. E. .05 (1 + t*) = .07.

A. .05 / (1 - t*) = .07.

Nadine is a retired widow who is financially dependent upon the interest income produced by her bond portfolio. Which one of the following bonds is the least suitable for her to own? A. 7- year income bond. B. 5-year TIPS. C. 10-year AAA coupon bond. D. 5-year floating rate bond. E. 6-year, high-coupon, put bond.

A. 7- year income bond.

Allison just received her semiannual payment of $35 on a bond she owns. Which term refers to this payment? A. Coupon. B. Face value. C. Discount. D. Call premium. E. Yield.

A. Coupon.

Which one of the following premiums is compensation for the possibility that a bond issuer may not pay a bond's interest or principal payments as expected? A. Default risk. B. Taxability. C. Liquidity. D. Inflation. E. Interest rate risk.

A. Default risk.

Real rates are defined as nominal rates that have been adjusted for which of the following? A. Inflation. B. Default risk. C. Accrued interest. D. Interest rate risk. E. Both inflation and interest rate risk.

A. Inflation.

Last year, Lexington Homes issued $1 million in unsecured, noncallable debt. This debt pays an annual interest payment of $55 and matures six years from now. The face value is $1,000 and the market price is $1,020. Which one of these terms correctly describes a feature of this debt? A. Note. B. Discount bond. C.Semiannual coupon D. Trust deed. E. Collateralized.

A. Note.

The items included in an indenture that limit certain actions of the issuer in order to protect a bondholder's interests are referred to as the: A. Protective covenants. B. Bylaws. C. Legal bounds. D. Trust deed. E. Trustee relationships.

A. Protective covenants.

A "fallen angel" is a bond that has moved from: A. Investment grade to speculative grade. B. Being a long-term obligation to being a short-term obligation. C. Being a premium bond to being a discount bond. D. Senior status to junior status for liquidation purposes. E. Being publicly traded to being privately traded.

A. Investment grade to speculative grade.

Which one of the following bonds is the least sensitive to interest rate risk? A. 3-year; 4 percent coupon. B. 3-year; 6 percent coupon. C. 5-year; 6 percent coupon. D. 7-year; 6 percent coupon. E. 7-year; 4 percent coupon.

B. 3-year; 6 percent coupon.

Al is retired and his sole source of income is his bond portfolio. Although he has sufficient principal to live on, he only wants to spend the interest income and thus is concerned about the purchasing power of that income. Which one of the following bonds should best ease Al's concerns? A. 6-year coupon bonds B. 5-year TIPS C. 20-year coupon bonds 220 D. 5-year municipal bonds E. 7- year income bonds

B. 5-year TIPS

Which one of these statements is correct? A. Most long-term bond issues are referred to as unfunded debt. B. Bonds provide tax benefits to issuers. C. The risk of a firm financially failing decreases when a firm issues bonds. D. All bonds are treated equally in a bankruptcy proceeding. E. A debenture is a senior secured debt.

B. Bonds provide tax benefits to issuers.

A bond that can be paid off early at the issuer's discretion is referred to as being which type of bond? A. Par value. B. Callable. C. Senior. D. Subordinated. E. Unsecured.

B. Callable.

The interest rate risk premium is the: A. Additional compensation paid to investors to offset rising prices. B. Compensation investors demand for accepting interest rate risk. C. Difference between the yield to maturity and the current yield. D. Difference between the market interest rate and the coupon rate. E. Difference between the coupon rate and the current yield.

B. Compensation investors demand for accepting interest rate risk.

The yields on a corporate bond differ from those on a comparable Treasury security primarily because of: A. Interest rate risk and taxes. B. Taxes and default risk. C. Default and interest rate risks. D. Liquidity and inflation rate risks. E. Default, inflation, and interest rate risks.

B. Taxes and default risk.

Which one of these is a negative covenant that might be found in a bond indenture? A. The company shall maintain a current ratio of 1.1 or higher. B. The company cannot lease any major assets without bondholder approval. C. The company must maintain the loan collateral in good working order. D. The company shall provide audited financial statements in a timely manner. E. The company shall maintain a cash surplus of $100,000 at all times.

B. The company cannot lease any major assets without bondholder approval.

A corporate bond with a 6 percent coupon was issued last year. Which one of these would apply to this bond today if the current yield to maturity is 7 percent? A. The bond is currently selling at a premium. B. The current yield exceeds the coupon rate. C. The bond is selling at par value. D. The current yield exceeds the yield-to-maturity. E. The coupon rate has increased to 7 percent.

B. The current yield exceeds the coupon rate.

Which one of these is most apt to be included in a bond's indenture one year after the bond has been issued? A. Current yield. B. Written record of all the current bond holders. . C. List of collateral used as bond security. D. Current market price. E. Price at which a bondholder can resell the bond to another bondholder

C. List of collateral used as bond security.

The current yield is defined as the annual interest on a bond divided by which one of the following? A. Coupon rate. B. Face value. C. Market price. D. Call price. E. Par value.

C. Market price.

A note is generally defined as: A. A secured bond with an initial maturity of 10 years or more. B. A secured bond that initially matures in less than 10 years. C. Any bond secured by a blanket mortgage. D. An unsecured bond with an initial maturity of 10 years or less. E. Any bond maturing in 10 years or more.

D. An unsecured bond with an initial maturity of 10 years or less.

You are trying to compare the present values of two separate streams of cash flows that have equivalent risks. One stream is expressed in nominal values and the other stream is expressed in real values. You decide to discount the nominal cash flows using a nominal annual rate of 8 percent. What rate should you use to discount the real cash flows? A. 8 percent. B. EAR of 8 percent compounded monthly. C. Comparable risk-free rate. D. Comparable real rate. E. Nominal rate-risk-free rate

D. Comparable real rate.

The collar of a floating-rate bond refers to the minimum and maximum: A. Call periods. B. Maturity dates. C. Market prices. D. Coupon rates. E. yields to maturity.

D. Coupon rates.

Treasury bonds are: A. Issued by any governmental agency in the U.S. B. Issued only on the first day of each fiscal year by the U.S. Department of Treasury. C. Bonds that offer the best tax benefits of any bonds currently available. D. Generally issued as semiannual coupon bonds. E. Totally risk-free.

D. Generally issued as semiannual coupon bonds.

Hot Foods has an investment-grade bond issue outstanding that pays $30 semiannual interest payments. The bonds sell at par and are callable at a price equal to the present value of all future interest and principal payments discounted at a rate equal to the comparable Treasury rate plus .50 percent. Which one of the following correctly describes this bond? A. The bond rating is B. B. Market value is less than face value. C. The coupon rate is 3 percent. D. It has a "make whole" call price. E. Variable Interest payments are variable.

D. It has a "make whole" call price.

DLQ Inc. bonds mature in 12 years and have a coupon rate of 6 percent. If the market rate of interest increases, then the: A. Coupon rate will also increase. B. Current yield will decrease. C. Yield to maturity will be less than the coupon rate. D. Market price of the bond will decrease. E. Coupon payment will increase.

D. Market price of the bond will decrease.

Which one of the following rates represents the change, if any, in your purchasing power as a result of owning a bond? A. Risk-free rate. B. Realized rate. C. Nominal rate. D. Real rate. E. Current rate.

D. Real rate.

A call-protected bond is a bond that: A. Is guaranteed to be called. B. Can never be called. C. Is currently being called. D. Is callable at any time. E. Cannot be called at this point in time.

E. Cannot be called at this point in time.

You own a bond that has a 6 percent annual coupon and matures five years from now. You purchased this 10-year bond at par value when it was originally issued. Which one of the following statements applies to this bond if the relevant market interest rate is now 5.8 percent? A. The current yield-to-maturity is greater than 6 percent. B. The current yield is 6 percent. C. The next interest payment will be $30. D. The bond is currently valued at one-half of its issue price. E. You will realize a capital gain on the bond if you sell it today.

E. You will realize a capital gain on the bond if you sell it today.

Recently, you discovered a convertible, callable bond with a 5 percent semiannual coupon. If you purchase this bond you will have the right to: A. Force the issuer to repurchase the bond prior to maturity. B. Convert the bond into equity shares. C. Defer all taxable income until the bond matures. D. Convert the bond into a 5 percent perpetuity. E. Have the principal amount adjusted for inflation.

B. Convert the bond into equity shares.

Which one of the following relationships applies to a par value bond? A. Yield to maturity > current yield > coupon rate. B. Coupon rate = current yield = yield-to-maturity. C. Coupon rate > yield-to-maturity > current yield. D. Coupon rate < yield to maturity < current yield. E. Coupon rate > current yield > yield to maturity.

B. Coupon rate = current yield = yield-to-maturity.

Road Hazards has 12-year bonds outstanding. The interest payments on these bonds are sent directly to each of the individual bondholders. These direct payments are a clear indication that the bonds can accurately be defined as being issued: A. At par. B. In registered form. C. In street form. D. As debentures. E. As callable bonds.

B. In registered form.

As a bond's time to maturity increases, the bond's sensitivity to interest rate risk: A. Increases at an increasing rate. B. Increases at a decreasing rate. C. Increases at a constant rate. D. Decreases at an increasing rate. E. Decreases at a decreasing rate.

B. Increases at a decreasing rate.

Which one of the following risks would a floating-rate bond tend to have less of as compared to a fixed-rate coupon bond? A. Real rate risk B. Interest rate risk C. Default risk D. Liquidity risk E. Taxability risk

B. Interest rate risk

A bond that is payable to whomever has physical possession of the bond is said to be in: A. New-issue condition. B. Registered form. C. Bearer form. D. Debenture status. E. Collateral status.

C. Bearer form.

The price sensitivity of a bond increases in response to a change in the market rate of interest as the: A. Coupon rate increases. B. Time to maturity decreases. C. Coupon rate decreases and the time to maturity increases. D. Time to maturity and coupon rate both decrease. E. Coupon rate and time to maturity both increase.

C. Coupon rate decreases and the time to maturity increases.

A bond's coupon rate is equal to the annual interest divided by which one of the following? A. Call price. B. Current price. C. Face value. D. Clean price. E. Dirty price.

C. Face value.

Which one of the following risk premiums compensates for the inability to easily resell a bond prior to maturity? A. Default risk. B. Taxability. C. Liquidity. D. Inflation. E. Interest rate risk.

C. Liquidity.

Last year, you purchased a TIPS at par. Since that time, both market interest rates and the inflation rate have increased by .25 percent. Your bond has most likely done which one of the following since last year? A. Decreased in value due to the change in inflation rates. B. Experienced an increase in its bond rating. C. Maintained a fixed real rate of return. D. Increased in value in response to the change in market rates. E. Increased in value due to a decrease in time to maturity.

C. Maintained a fixed real rate of return.

The bond principal is repaid on which one of these dates? A. Coupon date. B. Yield date. C. Maturity date. D. Dirty date. E. Clean date.

C. Maturity date.

Municipal bonds: A. Are totally risk free. B. Generally have higher coupon rates than corporate bonds. C. Pay interest that is federally tax free. D. Are rarely callable. E. Are free of default risk.

C. Pay interest that is federally tax free.

Which one of the following statements concerning bond ratings is correct? A. Investment grade bonds are rated BB or higher by Standard amp; Poor's. B. Bond ratings assess both interest rate risk and default risk. C. Split-rated bonds are called crossover bonds. D. The highest rating issued by Moody's is AAA. E. A "fallen angel" is a term applied to all "junk" bonds.

C. Split-rated bonds are called crossover bonds.

The pure time value of money is known as the: A. Liquidity effect. B. Fisher effect. C. Term structure of interest rates. D. Inflation factor. E. Interest rate factor.

C. Term structure of interest rates

Round Dot Inns is preparing a bond offering with a coupon rate of 6 percent, paid semiannually, and a face value of $1,000. The bonds will mature in 10 years and will be sold at par. Given this, which one of the following statements is correct? A. The bonds will become discount bonds if the market rate of interest declines. B. The bonds will pay 10 interest payments of $60 each. C. The bonds will sell at a premium if the market rate is 5.5 percent. D. The bonds will initially sell for $1,030 each. E. The final payment will be in the amount of $1,060.

C. The bonds will sell at a premium if the market rate is 5.5 percent.

Which one of the following statements is false concerning the term structure of interest rates? A. Expectations of lower inflation rates in the future tend to lower the slope of the term structure of interest rates. B. The term structure of interest rates includes both an inflation premium and an interest rate risk premium. C. The term structure of interest rates and the time to maturity are always directly related. D. The real rate of return has minimal, if any, affect on the slope of the term structure of interest rates. E. The interest rate risk premium increases as the time to maturity increases.

C. The term structure of interest rates and the time to maturity are always directly related.

A premium bond that pays $60 in interest annually matures in seven years. The bond was originally issued three years ago at par. Which one of the following statements is accurate in respect to this bond today? A. The face value of the bond today is greater than it was when the bond was issued. B. The bond is worth less today than when it was issued. C. The yield-to-maturity is less than the coupon rate. D. The coupon rate is greater than the current yield. E. The yield-to-maturity equals the current yield.

C. The yield-to-maturity is less than the coupon rate.

Kurt has researched T-Tek and believes the firm is poised to vastly increase in value. He has decided to purchase T-Tek bonds as he needs a steady stream of income. However, he still wishes that he could share in the firm's success along with the shareholders. Which one of the following bond features will help him fulfill his wish? A. Put provision. B. Positive covenant. C. Warrant. D. Crossover rating. E. Call provision.

C. Warrant.

A bond has a market price that exceeds its face value. Which one of these features currently applies to this bond? A. Discount bond. B. Yield to maturity equal to the current yield. C. Yield to maturity less than the coupon rate. D. Current yield greater than coupon rate. E. Currently selling at par.

C. Yield to maturity less than the coupon rate.

Which one of the following relationships is stated correctly? A. The coupon rate exceeds the current yield when a bond sells at a discount. B. The call price must equal the par value. C. An increase in market rates increases the market price of a bond. D. Decreasing the time to maturity increases the price of a discount bond, all else constant. E. Increasing the coupon rate decreases the current yield, all else constant.

D. Decreasing the time to maturity increases the price of a discount bond, all else constant.

A newly issued bond has a 7 percent coupon with semiannual interest payments. The bonds are currently priced at par. The effective annual rate provided by these bonds must be: A. 3.5 percent. B. Greater than 3.5 percent but less than 7 percent. C. 7 percent. D. Greater than 7 percent. E. Less than 3.5 percent.

D. Greater than 7 percent.

A zero coupon bond: A. Is sold at a large premium. B. Pays interest that is tax deductible to the issuer at the time of payment. C. Can only be issued by the U.S. Treasury. D. Has more interest rate risk than a comparable coupon bond. E. Provides no taxable income to the bondholder until the bond matures.

D. Has more interest rate risk than a comparable coupon bond.

A deferred call provision is which one of the following? A. Requirement that a bond issuer pay the current market price, plus accrued interest, should the firm decide to call a bond. B. Ability of a bond issuer to delay repaying a bond until after the maturity date should the issuer so opt. C. Prohibition placed on an issuer which prevents that issuer from ever redeeming bonds prior to maturity. D. Prohibition which prevents bond issuers from redeeming callable bonds prior to a specified date. E. Requirement that a bond issuer pay a call premium that is equal to or greater than one year's coupon should that issuer decide to call a bond.

D. Prohibition which prevents bond issuers from redeeming callable bonds prior to a specified date.

The Fisher effect is defined as the relationship between which of the following variables? A. Default risk premium, inflation risk premium, and real rates B. Nominal rates, real rates, and interest rate risk premium C. Interest rate risk premium, real rates, and default risk premium D. Real rates, inflation rates, and nominal rates E. Real rates, interest rate risk premium, and nominal rates

D. Real rates, inflation rates, and nominal rates

Protective covenants: A. Apply to short-term debt issues but not to long-term debt issues. B. Only apply to privately issued bonds. C. Are a feature found only in government-issued bond indentures. D. Only apply to bonds that have a deferred call provision. E. Are primarily designed to protect bondholders.

E. Are primarily designed to protect bondholders.

Which one of the following applies to a premium bond? A. Yield to maturity > current yield > coupon rate. B. Coupon rate = current yield = yield-to-maturity. C. Coupon rate > yield-to-maturity > current yield. D. Coupon rate < yield to maturity < current yield. E. Coupon rate > current yield > yield to maturity.

E. Coupon rate > current yield > yield to maturity.

Jason's Paints just issued 20-year, 7.25 percent, unsecured bonds at par. These bonds fit the definition of which one of the following terms? A. Note. B. Discounted. C. Zero-coupon. D. Callable. E. Debenture.

E. Debenture.

Callable bonds generally: A. Grant the bondholder the option to call the bond anytime after the deferment period. B. Are callable at par as soon as the call-protection period ends. C. Are called when market interest rates increase. D. Are called within the first three years after issuance. E. Have a sinking fund provision.

E. Have a sinking fund provision.

Cat bonds are primarily designed to help: A. Municipalities survive economic recessions. B. Corporations respond to overseas competition. C. The federal government cope with huge deficits. D. Corporations recover from involuntary reorganizations. E. Insurance companies fund excessive claims.

E. Insurance companies fund excessive claims.

Which bond would you generally expect to have the highest yield? A. Risk-free Treasury bond B. Nontaxable, highly liquid bond C. Long-term, high-quality, tax-free bond D. Short-term, inflation-adjusted bond E. Long-term, taxable junk bond

E. Long-term, taxable junk bond

A Treasury yield curve plots Treasury interest rates relative to which one of the following? A. Market rates. B. Comparable corporate bond rates. C. The risk-free rate. D. Inflation. E. Maturity.

E. Maturity.

Interest rates that include an inflation premium are referred to as: A. Annual percentage rates. B. Stripped rates. C. Effective annual rates. D. Real rates. E. Nominal rates.

E. Nominal rates.

Which one of the following statements is correct? A. The risk-free rate represents the change in purchasing power. B. Any return greater than the inflation rate represents the risk premium. C. Historical real rates of return must be positive D. Nominal rates exceed real rates by the amount of the risk-free rate. E. The real rate must be less than the nominal rate given a positive rate of inflation.

E. The real rate must be less than the nominal rate given a positive rate of inflation.