Final Exam (15-17)

inversion(s)

A balancer chromosome includes a recessive lethal allele, a marker dominant allele, and ________.

reverse genetics

A genetic strategy that starts with knowing the DNA sequence and works toward identifying an associated phenotype is known as ________.

AGATCT (must be in this orientation)

A hypothetical restriction sequence is 5′TCTAGA3′. The palindromic sequence is 3′________5′.

B) histone acetylase

A region of chromatin has recently become DNAse I hypersensitive. Which enzyme has been activated to cause this change in chromatin structure? A) histone methyltransferase B) histone acetylase C) histone deacetylase D) phosphatase E) kinase

C) transposon insertion

A researcher wants to mutagenize an organism. He is not in need of a large number of mutants but is more concerned with being able to find and then to amplify the mutated sequence. Which of the following would therefore be more useful? A) ionizing radiation B) UV radiation C) transposon insertion D) a chemical mutagen E) search for spontaneous mutant

D) GUA GGG GGC UGU UAC

Because of redundancy in the genetic code, some amino acids can have more than one possible codon. Use the table above and select which of the answer choices is a possibility for the following amino acid sequence: valine, glycine, glycine, cysteine, tyrosine A) GUU GGC GGA UGA UAG B) GUA GGG GGG UGU UAC C) GUG GGG GGA UAC UAC D) GUA GGG GGC UGU UAC E) GAU GGC GGC UGU UAU

C) SWI/SNF complex

Chromatin remodeling involves both sliding and relocating of the nucleosomes. Which eukaryotic chromatin remodeling complex is likely involved? A) ISWI complex B) SWR1 complex C) SWI/SNF complex D) SHH complex E) Mig1 complex

recombination frequency

DNA markers that are found to segregate with a mutation of interest can be used to determine the mutation's distance from the markers by looking at what?

euchromatic

Demethylation and acetylation lead to open chromatin structure and are associated with ________ regions of genomes.

C) mRNAs

During RNAi, what do miRNAs target for destruction? A) heterochromatic regions of DNA B) CpG islands C) mRNAs D) histones E) ribosomes

B) it adds alkyl groups to bases.

EMS (ethylmethane sulfonate) is mutagenic because A) it breaks phosphodiester binds. B) it adds alkyl groups to bases. C) it forms crosslinks between DNA strands. D) it makes DNA more susceptible to radiation. E) it causes chromosomal deletions.

Its own DNA has been modified or the bases have been modified

Each restriction enzyme comes from a particular bacterial strain. Why does a restriction enzyme not destroy the bacterial strain's own DNA?

B) the finding that creb is highly conserved

Genes for regulatory elements, such as creb, were found to be important in animal learning. Which of the following would increase the probability that such an element is studied throughout the animal kingdom? A) its unique sequence in Drosophila B) the finding that creb is highly conserved C) the number of repeats of the creb gene D) the interaction of creb with cAMP E) the finding that creb activates odor perception

addition of oligonucleotides or linkers

How can bluntended DNA fragments be altered to allow them to be incorporated into a plasmid with sticky ends?

Use human cDNA as a probe

How can you use the known human cDNA gene sequence for cytC that you already have in an experiment(s) to identify and compare the sequences from other vertebrates?

B) abnormal limb development

If a mouse inherits a deletion in the SHH enhancer, what effect would you expect to see? A) enhanced limb development B) abnormal limb development C) position effect variegation D) increased β-globin production E) abnormal β-globin production (thalassemia)

polymorphisms (in HD patients)

In mapping the HD gene associated with Huntington disease, eventually researchers narrowed down their hunt to four candidate genes within the mapped region. How did they identify one of these as the definitive HD gene?

genetic mapping

In positional cloning, the researcher begins with a phenotype. To move toward identification of its DNA sequence, she must begin with what step?

UASG; Gal4

In the GAL gene system, ________ are cisacting regulatory elements, and ________ protein is a transacting regulatory protein

C) RNAi

Many types of cancer are known to over-express the receptor protein tyrosine kinase. Which molecular technique can be used to reduce expression of an oncogene in vitro? A) PCR B) DNAse sensitivity assay C) RNAi D) Southern blotting E) western blotting

E) DNAse

Molecular biologists can determine experimentally whether a region of DNA contains closed chromatin or open chromatin by assessing the sensitivity of the region to A) nucleosomes. B) histone deacetylase. C) RNA polymerase II. D) methyltransferase. E) DNAse

D) Use DNA from hair follicles of supposed zoo parents and of the supposed offspring to compare sequences amplified with primers for a highly polymorphic region

One use of PCR has been to monitor the trafficking of endangered organisms. Suppose that one suspect was accused of illegally importing a specific animal, but the suspect asserts that the young animal had been bred in this country from two resident zoo animals. How would you best proceed? A) Use blood cells to obtain DNA from the animals and look for sequences found only in illegally traded ones. B) Use DNA obtained from biopsy of the suspect organism and use a probe for infectious agents found more frequently in its native country. C) Use DNA obtained from the possibly imported animal and treat with restriction enzyme; use a probe for disease genes common in its native country. D) Use DNA from hair follicles of supposed zoo parents and of the supposed offspring to compare sequences amplified with primers for a highly polymorphic region E) Amplify highly polymorphic regions from zoo and native populations to compare with the suspicious one.

C) genomic imprinting.

Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder involving a partial deletion of chromosome 15q on the paternal chromosome. When both copies of a gene (or chromosome) are functional but only one is expressed, this is an example of A) position effect variegation. B) X inactivation. C) genomic imprinting. D) histone acetylation. E) chromatin modifications.

B) 1 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 1

Some restriction enzymes cut at specific and unambiguous sequences (e.g., NotI at GCGGCCGC). As such, the distance between two such sites in a large random DNA sequence is 48. However, the sequence recognized by XhoII is said to be ambiguous (PuGATCPy, where Pu = any purine and Py any pyrimidine). What, therefore, is the expected distance between two XhoII sites in a large random sequence? A) 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 B) 1 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 1 C) 2 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 2 D) 46 E) 42 × 22

cos (cohesive end sequences)

Specific sequences in the lambda genome that interact with coat proteins to package genomes into phage particles are known as ________ sites

transgenes (are active in most species/organisms)

Suppose a scientist wants to identify a gene in a particular plant species by transposon tagging, but he is initially stumped because he finds no active transposons. He hypothesizes, however, that he can introduce a transposon from another plant species. Why might this be possible?

B) insulator

The imprinting control region (ICR) involved in genomic imprinting on chromosome 15 is what type of sequence? A) enhancer B) insulator C) silencer D) promoter E) intronic

using a vector (to amplify this sequence) in an organism

To produce a molecular clone requires amplification of a sequence via PCR or what other process?

nucleosome sliding & repositioning

What are the two mechanisms by which chromatin remodelers can move nucleosomes?

A) chromatin in the promoter region is open, allowing access by transcription factors and RNA polymerase.

When CpG islands are unmethylated, A) chromatin in the promoter region is open, allowing access by transcription factors and RNA polymerase. B) chromatin in the promoter region is closed, preventing transcription factors and RNA polymerase from binding. C) chromatin in the enhancer region is closed, so they are unable to bind regulatory proteins to initiate transcription. D) DNAse hypersensitivity in that region of the chromosome is lost. E) genes downstream of the CpG islands cannot be expressed, because the promoter region is blocked by histones.

A) complementarity

Whether libraries are cDNA or genomic, whether amplification is based on PCR or cloning, and whether screening is done with northern or Southern blotting or probes, all are based on which of the following? A) complementarity B) complementation C) reverse transcription D) reverse translation E) gene expression

E) a single patient with a chromosomal translocation associated with the gene

Which of the following would make a human disordercausing allele or gene easiest to locate? A) a genomic library for the chromosome on which the gene is located B) a cDNA library for the chromosome on which the gene is located C) a group of 10 known candidate genes D) a transposon known to segregate with the gene E) a single patient with a chromosomal translocation associated with the gene

E) adults that mature in about 2 days

Among the attributes of model organisms, which of the following characteristics of C. elegans makes it useful for mutagenesis? A) hermaphrodite reproduction B) adults with ~1000 cells C) selffertilization of eggs with stored sperm D) lack of a Y chromosome to determine gender E) adults that mature in about 2 days

C) large number of easily visible phenotypes

Before Muller's discovery that radiation induces mutation, scientists had to work on mutations that were found solely by phenotype differences in natural populations. Which of the features of Drosophila made it a fortuitous choice for Morgan and his colleagues? A) having a long life cycle B) especially high rate of mutation C) large number of easily visible phenotypes D) well-known biochemical pathways E) the number of genes with only two alleles

B) most chemically induced changes are detectable only by sequencing.

Besides the obvious fact that chemical mutagens are dangerous to handle, another major disadvantage to their use is that A) most of these mutations are immediately lethal. B) most chemically induced changes are detectable only by sequencing. C) chemical mutagens activate transposons. D) two or more generations of further matings are required to isolate them. E) they alter all AT and CG base pairing.

environmental differences or variations

Conditional alleles result in phenotypic differences in permissive as opposed to restrictive conditions. What do these conditions have in common?

E) sequencing without the need to amplify the DNA

Current sequencing technologies have major advantages over the dideoxy method because they produce more sequence in less time and at less cost. Which of the following would provide further advantage? A) being able to produce finer analysis of smaller sequences B) the ability to produce primers for increasingly long sequences C) the ability to sequence noncoding regions D) sequencing very rare DNAs from degraded samples E) sequencing without the need to amplify the DNA

locus control regions (LCRs)

Eukaryotes use these highly specialized enhancer elements, which regulate the transcription of multiple genes packaged in complexes of closely related genes (e.g., β-globin)

two markers on either side of the mutation

For a contiguous sequence to be most useful in molecular mapping of a particular mutation, what should the contiguous sequence include?

E) 6

For the following gene, MspI and HpaII restriction sites and their positions are indicated here. Recall that HpaII is methylation sensitive, while MspI is not. If this gene is being actively transcribed, how many fragments would you expect from this restriction digest? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6

B) 4 bands = 100 bp, 200 bp, 800 bp, and 900 bp

For the following gene, MspI and HpaII restriction sites and their positions are indicated here. Recall that HpaII is methylation sensitive, while MspI is not.If this gene is methylated, which of the following combinations of DNA fragments would you expect from this restriction digest? A) 5 bands = 100 bp, 200 bp, 1000 bp, 1500 bp, and 1800 bp. B) 4 bands = 100 bp, 200 bp, 800 bp, and 900 bp. C) 3 bands = 200 bp, 500 bp, and 1300 bp. D) 1 band = 2000 bp. E) No bands = DNA will be completely digested.

mutant 3 (region 500-800)

For the following gene, which mutant likely has lost its enhancer? Mutant # Deletion Region % Transcription WT None 100% 1 1-200 150% 2 250-400 100% 3 500-800 50% 4 950-1100 0%

silencer

For the following gene, which type of regulatory sequence has likely been deleted in mutant 1? Mutant # Deletion Region % Transcription WT None 100% 1 1-200 150% 2 250-400 100% 3 500-800 50% 4 950-1100 0%

tissue-specific (lung) promoter

For the following gene, you notice the following results. Mutant # Deletion Region % T (lungs) %T (kidneys) WT None 100% 100% 1 1-200 150% 150% 2 250-400 100% 100% 3 500-800 50% 50% 4 950-1100 0% 100% What type of sequence has been mutated in mutant 4?

mediator

Gal4 binding leads to the formation of a multi-protein complex known as ________, which is an enhanceosome that forms after the activator protein binds.

transcriptional activation

Gal4 is mutated such that it still binds to the DNA but cannot interact with Gal80. What effect would you expect to see in the absence of galactose?

transcription is blocked

Gal80 is mutated such that it cannot interact with Gal3. What effect would you expect to see in the presence of galactose?

E) Gal80

Galactose is absent, but you find active transcription of the GAL genes. Which protein is likely mutated or absent to allow for constitutive transcription of the GAL genes? A) Gal2 B) Mig1 C) Gal4 D) Gal10 E) Gal80

F2

Identifying an autosomal recessive mutation in a mutagenic screen in Drosophila requires identification of a mutant in the F3 generation. If testing for a sexlinked recessive lethal mutation (e.g., cn l + using a balancer chromosome such as cnCyO), in which generation can lines with mutations be identified?

C) gain of function in disc B at the "wrong" location

If a gene in Drosophila is expressed only when an imaginal disc (A) begins to differentiate, it is referred to as a homeotic gene. Recessive mutations in such genes often result in loss of function so that the structure does not develop. If the gene is expressed, but in a different imaginal disc (B), what is the result? A) loss of function of disc B's primary gene B) gain of function of several inappropriate genes in disc A C) gain of function in disc B at the "wrong" location D) deregulation of gene expression throughout disc A E) deregulation of gene expression throughout disc B

A) These mutants can be used to identify the role of the gene in metabolism.

If a mutagenesis screen provides some number (e.g., 24) of alleles shown by complementation analysis to be in the same gene, which of the following is true? A) These mutants can be used to identify the role of the gene in metabolism. B) The gene being studied must be present in more than one copy per haploid genome. C) The gene, in whole or in part, must be involved in transformation. D) The gene must be highly conserved in evolution. E) The gene must be involved in regulating a signal pathway

A) No; the lethal allele can be recovered from heterozygous siblings.

If mutagenizing a number of Drosophila results in several observable phenotypes but also in several lethal mutations, does this mean that recessive lethal mutations cannot be studied further? A) No; the lethal allele can be recovered from heterozygous siblings. B) No; the lethal alleles can be sequenced from the other embryos. C) Yes; lethal alleles can be studied only if they are recessive. D) Yes; lethal alleles can be studied only if they are conditional. E) Yes; unless the lethal allele can be supplemented with a missing gene product.

D) lysine

If you want to affect chromatin packaging, which amino acid could you mutate to affect both histone acetylation and methylation patterns? A) arginine B) methionine C) histidine D) lysine E) asparagine

B) genetic mapping

In 1978, Arber, Smith, and Nathans won the Nobel Prize in Physiology and Medicine for work with restriction enzymes. Which of the following can still be performed without using these enzymes? A) PCR of whole genomes B) genetic mapping C) sequence cloning D) vector packaging E) making recombinant DNA

A) inversions

In Drosophila, mutation screening usually involves use of a balancer chromosome that includes three elements: a set of overlapping inversions, an easily recognized dominant mutation, and a recessive lethal mutation that prevents balancer homozygotes from surviving. Which one, or combination, of these elements is necessary and sufficient to suppress crossovers? A) inversions B) dominants C) lethal recessive D) inversions plus dominant E) lethal plus inversions

on the tissue the mRNA comes from or on the source of mRNA

In a cDNA library, not all expressed genes will be represented. On what does this depend?

A) There is more frequent unequal crossing over.

In a disease associated with a nucleotide repeat, anticipation is often noticed in subsequent generations, usually associated with a more severe phenotype. Which of the following is a more likely cause of anticipation? A) There is more frequent unequal crossing over. B) Subtle phenotypic nuances are more often sought by a physician. C) Family members are exposed to the same mutagens. D) Highly repeated sequences are expressed more often. E) The sequences have greater stability in later generations.

synthetic lethality or synthetic enhancement

In a given situation, reduced or missing function in gene A results in a viable but noticeable phenotype. The same is true for gene B. However, when both gene A and gene B products are reduced or missing in the same organism, the result is lethality. What is this called?

double digest or use both enzymes together

In a simple restriction mapping study, a sequence was cut by BamHI into one large and one small fragment. Cutting the same sequence with XhoI also results in two fragments. What can be done next to begin to map these sites?

Drosha

In animals, the ________ enzyme cuts primRNA to produce miRNA.

A) Different heritage groups have different levels of such polymorphisms.

In forensics, the laws in the United States and elsewhere allow the establishment of databases of PCR amplification of short tandem repeats (STRs) of the Y chromosome. Which of these statements would provide an appropriate basis for making such databases divided by ethnicity? A) Different heritage groups have different levels of such polymorphisms. B) It would be easier to evaluate suspects of different ethnicities. C) It would show detectives which ethnic category they should be looking for. D) Most crimes of certain types are found among certain groups. E) Y polymorphisms increase with the probability of criminal behavior

glucose-1-phosphate

In gal+ yeast, what is the product of the galactose utilization pathway?

B) cleavage of 24 amino acids from the N terminus to form proinsulin that is subsequently cleaved to make A and B chains

In nature, what is the order of events in processing the product of the gene for insulin? A) cleavage of 35 amino acids from the middle of the polypeptide to make two chains that are then joined by disulfide bonds B) cleavage of 24 amino acids from the N terminus to form proinsulin that is subsequently cleaved to make A and B chains C) removal of 5′ leader sequence from the mRNA, and splicing out of a large central intron to produce the mRNA that codes for the final form of polypeptide D) removal of large mRNA sequences by RNA editing, followed by splicing of the products of the two insulin genes E) transcription of the two insulin genes A and B, translation, and posttranslational joining of the two polypeptides

E) Some donor strands will be inserted with an incorrect orientation.

In producing a recombinant plasmid to be used to clone a given donor insert, it is possible to cut both the donor and plasmid with the same restriction enzyme, resulting in complementary sticky ends. Assuming plenty of plasmid DNA is available, why is further selection necessary before the introduction of the plasmid into a cellular system? A) Contamination will have introduced other donor inserts. B) Some donor inserts will be single stranded and deteriorate. C) Some donor inserts will be sensitive to particular antibiotics. D) Some donor pieces will remain uninserted. E) Some donor strands will be inserted with an incorrect orientation.

D) induction of and selection for a mutant allele with a known sequence, followed by screening for mutations of interest

In reverse genetics, what is the correct order in which the experimenter proceeds? A) silencing the genes in question using RNAi, followed by generating gain-of-function alleles B) screening genes via PCR, followed by deletion of the flanking sequences C) selection of a phenotypic alternative for the gene in question and sequencing its DNA D) induction of and selection for a mutant allele with a known sequence, followed by screening for mutations of interest E) random bombardment of the DNA with a known mutagen, followed by observation of offspring for newly acquired traits

B) The antibiotic resistance is encoded in the vector.

In selecting recombinant bacteria, cells are chosen that are resistant to a specific antibiotic. How are the bacteria made resistant? A) They are preselected for the experiment on this basis. B) The antibiotic resistance is encoded in the vector. C) The antibiotic resistance gene is encoded on the donor insert. D) Resistance is activated by the recombination event. E) Resistance is activated when the cells are provided with the antibiotic

Gal4

In the GAL gene system, which protein acts as an activator protein through its transcription-initiating effect?

Gal80

In the GAL gene system, which protein binds to the activation domain of the activator protein, ultimately blocking transcription in the absence of galactose?

C) centromere, telomeres, and yeast origin

In the construction of a YAC library, each chromosome has the advantage of being able to hold very long DNA sequences. However, besides selectable marker(s) the YAC vector must minimally include which of the following? A) a bacterial origin (ori) B) cos site(s) and origin C) centromere, telomeres, and yeast origin D) centromere and origin E) centromere and telomeres

B) Gal3

In the presence of galactose, you unexpectedly find that transcription is still blocked. Assuming Gal80 is present and functional, which other protein may be mutated to prevent transcriptional activation? A) Gal2 B) Gal3 C) Gal4 D) Mig1 E) Gal10

three

In the process of identifying mutations in animals, dominant mutations can be found after one generation of mating between the mutagenized male organism and wild-type female. To identify the non-sex-linked (autosomal) recessive mutants requires ________ generations

B) TDNA

In using Agrobacterium tumefaciens to transfer genes into plants, what is transferred from bacterium to plant? A) Ti plasmid B) TDNA C) opines D) only the recombining sequence E) the entire bacterium

deacetylation & methylation

In vertebrates and plants, what types of modifications to the N-terminal tails of histones lead to heterochromatin formation?

E) upstream activator sequence

In yeast, if you want to prevent the Gal4 regulatory protein from binding near each of the GAL genes, which sequence element would you target? A) core promoter B) proximal elements C) enhancer sequence D) homeodomain motif E) upstream activator sequence

PHO5

In yeast, which gene would you expect to be activated during phosphate starvation?

B) X inactivation

Inherited mutations in the Xist promoter lead to defects in which epigenetic process? A) RNAi B) X inactivation C) genomic imprinting D) position effect variegation E) methylation of CpG islands

B) cis-acting regulatory sequences

Regulatory regions of a eukaryotic gene all contain which of the following sequences, which act only on one copy of the chromosome? A) zinc fingers B) cis-acting regulatory sequences C) homeodomains D) transacting regulatory sequences E) leucine zippers

C) you need to see whether the Drosophila mutant disrupts the same metabolic pathway.

Suppose you have just discovered a Drosophila gene that has a sequence similar to a gene of interest in humans. You need to have mutants of the Drosophila gene because A) you need to see whether fly mutants have a defect in the same system. B) you need to see whether the mutant produces the same phenotype. C) you need to see whether the Drosophila mutant disrupts the same metabolic pathway. D) you want to compare the mutant Drosophila sequence to each mutant human sequence. E) you need to have as many alleles in Drosophila as you have found in humans.

insulator sequences

What are the protein-binding sequences that direct enhancers to interact with the intended promoter and that block communication between enhancers and other promoter?

TBP, GTF's, and Pol III

What are three proteins you would expect to find bound to the core promoter region in eukaryotes?

reduced transcription

What effect does methylation of CpG islands have on human promoters?

length (sizes) of recognition sequence or number of bases in recognition

What genetically determines the difference in frequency of restriction fragments from two different enzymes used on the same genome?

complementation

What kind of analysis is needed to determine whether two mutations are in the same gene or in different genes?

reverse translation

What method can you use to identify a gene when you know the amino acid sequence of a homologous protein?

partial digestion or using less of the enzyme

What technique of genomic library construction allows the genome to be cut by a given restriction enzyme at some but not all recognition sequences?

shotgun (sequencing)

Which approach for sequencing large DNA molecules uses fragmentation that produces random but overlapping pieces?

Dicer

Which enzyme cuts dsRNA into 2125 bp fragments during RNAi?

activator proteins

Which molecules bind regulatory sequences of DNA to encourage positive regulation of transcription?

A) Plants with genes for the toxin are eaten less often by insects, and therefore less insecticide is needed.

Which of the following is a possible advantage for the environment of having farmers use plants that genetically produce Bt toxin? A) Plants with genes for the toxin are eaten less often by insects, and therefore less insecticide is needed. B) Plants that produce Bt toxin must be grown from new seeds each season, and therefore fewer of them are planted. C) Bt toxin is advantageous to many species of invertebrates that grow in the same fields. D) Harvesting plants with these genes is less disturbing to the soil layers where they are planted. E) Plants with these genes must be sprayed with the organism, but need much less than other plants.

C) YACs

Which of the following vectors would be most efficient to use to amplify fragments ~300 kb in length? A) BACs B) plasmids C) YACs D) lambda phage E) cosmids

cytosines

Which of the four nucleotides are typically methylated in "islands," resulting in closed chromatin structure?

B) Mig1

Which protein binds to the silencer sequence and promotes transcriptional silencing in the presence of glucose? A) Gal2 B) Mig1 C) Gal4 D) Gal10 E) Gal80

RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC)

Which protein complex binds dsRNA fragments to generate ssRNAs for RNAi?

enhanceosome

Which protein complex directs DNA bending into loops that contact RNA polymerase and transcription factors bound at the core promoter or with protein complexes bound to proximal promoter elements?

C) open promoters

Which sequences would likely have both a nucleosome-depleted region (NDR) and a poly A/T tract to attract transcriptional activators to a transcription start sequence? A) chromatin modifiers B) enhancers C) open promoters D) closed promoters E) insulators

genomic

Which type of DNA library (genomic or cDNA) would include introns and promoters?

D) 400/300/900

You have a DNA sequence of 1600 bp. To characterize it, you decide to make a restriction map. Cutting with the first enzyme, you show by electrophoresis that the fragments produced are 400 and 1200 bp respectively. After using the second enzyme, you recover 700bp and 900bp fragments. After treatment with both enzymes, fragments were 300, 400, and 900 bp. Which is the correct map? A) 900 /400/3 B) 400/900/300 C) 300/400/900 D) 400/300/900 E) 400/100/300/900

C) Introduce the gene and necessary cis elements into Brassica, along with a reporter gene, then measure the vitamin E produced.

You have evidence that a gene, VTE4, of known sequence and well-understood transcriptional regulation, is available from another lab. The product of this gene enables seeds to produce a significantly increased amount of vitamin E from a substrate already produced in Brassica napus, the plant that gives us canola oil. To produce canola oil with increased vitamin E, how would you proceed? A) Select Brassica plants with the highest titer of the vitamin, isolate the genes responsible, and cause these genes to duplicate. B) Use a yeast system to engineer yeasts that produce the vitamin, and get manufacturers to add this to the canola oil during bottling. C) Introduce the gene and necessary cis elements into Brassica, along with a reporter gene, then measure the vitamin E produced. D) Clone VTE4 in A. tumefaciens and use these bacteria to produce transgenic Brassica. E) Introduce VTE4 into tomato plants or another food that humans eat more than Brassica

C) enhancer sequence

You have identified a mutation in a gene which also seems to decrease transcription of another gene 2000 bp away from the mutation site. What regulatory sequence, which may be found within another gene, has likely been mutated in this instance? A) core promoter B) proximal elements C) enhancer sequence D) homeodomain motif E) upstream activator sequence

Position effect variegation (PEV)

________ in Drosophila results from the movement of the transcriptionally active w+ allele into the centromeric region of the fruitfly X chromosome