final review

Disinfectants known as (alcohols/oxidizers/aldehydes) have the chemical group -CHO, which reacts with and damages both proteins and nucleic acids.

aldehydes

The _________________ of a transfer RNA molecule is complementary to a codon in a messenger RNA molecule.

anticodon

an atom or molecule becomes a(n) (anion/ion/cation) when it loses an electron to a more electronegative molecule.

cation

The mechanical process of ___________ includes hand washing and scrubbing of surfaces. ____________ destroy microbes on non-living objects while ___________ reduce the possibility of infection. degerming disinfectants antisepsis aseptic

degerming disinfectants antisepsis

Heavy metal and oxidizing agent disinfectants damage (DNA/enzymes/membranes), interfering with microbial metabolism.

enzymes

Animal viruses have the same five basic steps in their replication pathways as bacteriophages- -that is, 1. attachment, 2. entry, 3. synthesis, 4. assembly, and 5. release. However, there are significant differences in the replication of animal viruses-_-list three differences (for example, identify the different modes of entry).

glycoproteins direct penetration release from nucleus

Understanding the differences and similarities between eukaryotic and prokaryotic structures provides insight into potential treatments against pathogens. For instance, antibiotics can _________ protein formation by binding the _______________ subunits. inhibit promote eukaryotic ribosome small units bacterial ribosomal archaeal ribosomal subunits induce

inhibit bacterial ribosomal

What are prions?

misfolded Proteins

A (missense/nonsense/silent) mutation of a gene usually produces a nonfunctional polypeptide.

nonsense

A(n) ________________ is a set of prokaryotic genes that are regulated and transcribed as a unit.

operon

A feature of both restriction enzymes and CRISPR systems is the recognition of (palindromes/primers/spacers)

palindromes

Beta-carotene, the biochemical precursor to vitamin A, can be added to rice by using (sequencing/cloning/recombinant) DNA technology, thereby increasing its nutritional value.

recombinant

Rifampin is an antibiotic that targets ___________. Tetracycline binds the A site of the ribosome, thereby halting ____________. repication transcription translation termination

transcription. translation

Nucleic acid molecules used to deliver new genes to cells are called (plasmids/vectors/clones).

vectors

The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA? A) +ssRNA viruses B) retroviruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) dsRNA viruses E) ssDNA viruses

A) +ssRNA viruses

Isotopes of an element have A) A different number of neutrons B) A different number of protons C) The same number of neutrons D) A different number of electrons

A) A different number of neutrons

What is the difference between a missense mutation and a nonsense mutation? A) A missense mutation codes for an amino acid that is incorrect for the polypeptide, while a nonsense mutation changes a codon for an amino acid into a stop codon. B) A missense mutation codes for an amino acid that is incorrect for the polypeptide, whereas a nonsense mutation changes a stop codon into a codon for an amino acid. C) A missense mutation is a change in nucleotide sequence that does not change the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide, while a nonsense mutation changes the codon to code for a different amino acid. D) A missense mutation changes the code for an amino acid into a stop codon, whereas a nonsense mutation changes the code for one amino acid into the code for a different one.

A) A missense mutation codes for an amino acid that is incorrect for the polypeptide, while a nonsense mutation changes a codon for an amino acid into a stop codon.

Amino acids can combine with either hydroxyl or hydrogen ions. As a result, they can function as A) Buffers B) Transfer groups C) Solvents D) Salts

A) Buffers

The media often reports case fatality rate (CFR), which is not the same as the infection fatility rate (IFR). Which of the following statements is true? A) CFR is the number of deaths per the number of diagnosed cases. B) IFR is the number of deaths per total number of diagnosed cases C) IFR is the total number of deaths in the population

A) CFR is the number of deaths per the number of diagnosed cases.

Which bacterial genus is a source of common antibiotics? A) Streptomyces B Staphylococcus C) Mycobacterium D) Lactobacillus

A) Streptomyces

Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is FALSE? A) T lymphocytes produce antibody molecules. B) T lymphocytes directly attack cells and produce the cell-mediated immune response. C) T lymphocytes mature in the thymus. D) T lymphocytes have T cell receptors (TCRs) that recognize unique antigens. E) T lymphocytes require antigen presentation to become activated.

A) T lymphocytes produce antibody molecules.

Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion? A) Tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes. B) A mucus layer traps and removes microbes. C) Tears mechanically flush particles from the eyes. D) Tears contain lysozyme and salt. E) Tears and mucus combine to trap microbes and remove them.

A) Tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes.

To determine the thermal death point, one would need to know A) The lowest temperature that kills 90% cells in a broth in 10 minutes. B) The carrying capacity, time, and temperature to kill all cells. C) The least amount of time needed to kill all cells at 100C. D) The constant death rate.

A) The lowest temperature that kills 90% cells in a broth in 10 minutes.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of saturated fats? A) They contain at least one double bond. B) Their fatty acids pack tightly together. C) They are usually solid at room temperature. D) They are a form of stored energy.

A) They contain at least one double bond.

Biofilms provide an alternative means for bacteria to attach to surfaces within the body. A) True B) False

A) True

The adaptive immune response requires exposure to specific epitopes for activation. A) True B) False

A) True

Which four of the 92 naturally occurring elements make up approximately 96% of the human body's mass? A) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen B) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen C) carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium D) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen E) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen

A) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen

Agents that break down lipids can damage (select all that apply) A) cells. B) non-enveloped viruses C)bacterial endospores. D) enveloped viruses.

A) cells. D) enveloped viruses.

The study of microbiology involves all of the following EXCEPT ________ A) characterization of the tissues and organs of the human body B) understanding more about chemical reactions inside a cell C) research on infectious disease agents D) understanding how the immune system works

A) characterization of the tissues and organs of the human body

When conducting an experiment, it is generally necessary to include ________ groups that are treated the same as treatment groups except for the condition being tested. A) control B) experimental C) variable D) hypothetical

A) control

Creating conditions in the laboratory that promote the growth of some microbes while inhibiting the growth of others is called A) enrichment culturing. B) complex culturing. C) transport conditions. D) reducing conditions.

A) enrichment culturing.

In early spring 2009, the CDC reported several dozen cases of novel H1N1 influenza ("swine flu"') in the United States. By the end of the year millions of people had been infected. The pattern of novel H1N1 cases in the United States represents a(n) _____ disease. A) epidemic B) endemic C) sporadic D) pandemic E) opportunistic

A) epidemic

Which of the following types of microbes might be found in a boiling hot spring? A) hyperthermophiles B) halophiles C) non-thermophiles D) phototrophic bacteria E) methanogens

A) hyperthermophiles

The horizontal transfer process known as transduction A) involves a virus. B) requires a pilus. C) requires a cell to be "competent." D) requires a plasmid. E) involves a mutagen.

A) involves a virus.

Which of the following enzymes adds a phosphate group to target proteins? A) kinase B) phosphatase C) G protein-coupled receptor D) adenylyl cyclase

A) kinase

During mitosis, the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell during A) metaphase. B) prophase. C) telophase. D) anaphase.

A) metaphase.

Tumors invade other organs and tissues in a process called A) metastasis. B) latency. C) budding. D) neoplasia. E) uncoating

A) metastasis.

The smallest amount of an antimicrobial drug that will inhibit growth and reproduction of a microbe is expressed as the _____. A) minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) B) minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC) C) narrow spectrum D) efflux rate

A) minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

Lynn Margulis is credited with formulating the endosymbiotic theory, which says A) mitochondria and chloroplasts in modern day eukaryotic cells descended from free-living bacteria that were engulfed by other prokaryotic cells 2 to 3 billion years ago. B) eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells due to competition for resources in the harsh environment of a barren Earth before its atmosphere contained oxygen. C) eukaryotic cells are the evolutionary ancestors of modern day bacteria.

A) mitochondria and chloroplasts in modern day eukaryotic cells descended from free-living

In the process of _____ microbes detect the presence and density of other microbes and modify their metabolic activity in response. A) quorum sensing B) synergy C) antagonism D) symbiosis E) mutualism

A) quorum sensing

The therapeutic window of an antimicrobial is the A) range of concentrations at which the antimicrobial is both effective and non-toxic. B) ratio of the concentration of antimicrobial in the blood to the oral dose. C) length of time the medication persists in the body after a single dose. D) ratio of the dose a patient can tolerate to the effective dose. E) range of microorganisms the antimicrobial effects.

A) range of concentrations at which the antimicrobial is both effective and non-toxic.

The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because A) red blood cells do not produce MHC and, therefore, do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen. B) RBCs normally produce cytokines necessary for adaptive immune response, which this infection prevents. C) complement cannot effectively destroy RBCs D) RBCs never enter lymphoid tissue.

A) red blood cells do not produce MHC and, therefore, do not display the fact that they

Ultra-high-temperature sterilization effectively A) removes all microbes that cause diseases or spoilage. B) reduces microbes that cause spoilage. C) reduces microbes that cause disease. D) removes only mesophilic microbes. E) reduces microbes that cause disease or spoilage.

A) removes all microbes that cause diseases or spoilage.

Which of the following is found in RNA but not DNA? A) ribose B) cytosine C) deoxyribose D) adenine E) phosphate

A) ribose

If a hospital patient is mistakenly given an intravenous hypertonic saline solution instead of an isotonic saline solution, the patient's red blood cells will A) shrink and collapse. B) release water to the plasma against its concentration gradient. C) absorb water from the plasma and eventually burst. D) transport equal amounts of water across the cell membrane in both directions. E) work with white blood cells to maintain the water level in the plasma.

A) shrink and collapse.

During which of the following processes is CO2 produced? A) the Krebs cycle B) glycolysis C) the electron transport chain

A) the Krebs cycle

The phenomenon known as chemotaxis is defined as A) the movement of a cell toward or away from a chemical stimulus. B) the squeezing of cells through the lining of capillaries. C) the coating of a pathogen by complement. D) an increase in allergies and helminth infection. E) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.

A) the movement of a cell toward or away from a chemical stimulus.

Thymine dimer mutations can be caused by A) ultraviolet light B) gamma rays C) benzopyrene D) nitrous acid E) nucleotide analogs

A) ultraviolet light

Disinfectants are A) used on inanimate surfaces. B) effective in destroying endospores. C) used for sterilization. D) used on living tissue. E) are only effective for short periods of time (seconds to minutes).

A) used on inanimate surfaces.

Which of the following are NOT a characteristic of viruses? A. They are visible with a light microscope B. They are obligatory parasites C. They are acellular D. They are typically smaller than prokaryotic cells E. They are compromised of genetic material and protein

A. They are visible with light under a microscope

The process of heating food just enough to kill microbes without changing the food's basic quality is termed A. pasteurization B. fermentation C. respiration D. transformation

A. pasteurazation

Semmelweis, Lister, and Nightingale

Applied aseptic medical techniques and hygiene to reduce hospital-aquired infections

During translation, a t-RNA enters the ribosomal ________ site, moves into the ________ site where the ___________ is transferred to the growing polypeptide. A) E; P; anticodon B) A; P; amino acid C) P; A; codon D) A; P; nucleotide

B) A; P; amino acid

Plasma cells produce ____ molecules. A) Antigen B) Antibody C) Cytotoxic D) Apoptotic

B) Antibody

The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are A) NK lymphocytes and neutrophils. B) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes. C) macrophages and eosinophils. D) macrophages and neutrophils. E) neutrophils and dendritic cells.

B) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes.

The MMR vaccine is an example of a(n) _____ vaccine. A) Inactivated B) Combination C)Attenuated

B) Combination

Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis? A) Dehydration reactions split water molecules and add hydroxyl groups to polymers, and hydrolysis reactions remove hydroxyl groups from polymers. B) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down polymers. C) Dehydration reactions break down polymers, and hydrolysis reactions create monomers. D) Dehydration reactions create monomers, and hydrolysis reactions assemble polymers.

B) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down

_____________ diseases are new to a population or are rapidly increasing in incidence or geographic range and are of particular concern to health care workers today. A) Pandemic B) Emerging C) Biohazardous D) Metabolic

B) Emerging

Genes that play a role in proper cell division but may also play a role in some types of cancer are called oncogenes. A) True B) False

B) False

The application of pasteurization is illustrated in which of the following? A) An autoclave is used to prepare nutrient agar. B) Heat is used to kill potential pathogens in apple juice. C) A public toilet is treated with disinfectants. D) A nurse prepares an injection site with an alcohol swab. E) A surgeon washes her hands before surgery.

B) Heat is used to kill potential pathogens in apple juice.

How does resistance to drugs spread in bacterial populations? A) Genetic recombination during sexual reproduction B) Horizontal gene transfer between bacteria spreads R (resistance) plasmids C) Exposure to drugs induces immunity. D) Exposure to drugs causes mutations in bacterial genes. E) Exposure to drugs alters gene expression in bacteria.

B) Horizontal gene transfer between bacteria spreads R (resistance) plasmids

Which of the following lists stages of a lytic replication cycle in order, from earliest to latest stages? (INSERT IMAGE) A) III, II, V, I, IV B) III, V, I, II, IV C) I, III, V, II, IV D) V, III, I, IV, I

B) III, V, I, II, IV

Why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved? A) It is highly conserved and produces much less ATP than does oxidative phosphorylation. B) It is highly conserved, does not involve organelles or specialized structures, does not require oxygen, and is present in all living organisms. C) It is found in prokaryotic cells but not in eukaryotic cells. D) It relies on chemiosmosis, which is a metabolic mechanism present only in prokaryotic cells.

B) It is highly conserved, does not involve organelles or specialized structures, does not

Why might a severe fever result in death if it is not brought under control? A) It may destroy the primary structure of cellular enzymes. B) It may alter the tertiary and quaternary structures of cellular enzymes. E) It may increase the rate of cellular chemical reactions. D) It may result in the consumption of excess ATP.

B) It may alter the tertiary and quaternary structures of cellular enzymes.

Are most chemical reactions at equilibrium in living cells? A) Yes B) No

B) No

What is the role of a dendritic cell? A) Secreting toxins against viruses B) Phagocytizing invading cells and acting as messengers to cells of adaptive immunity C) Releasing histamine D) Binding iron and inhibit microbial growth

B) Phagocytizing invading cells and acting as messengers to cells of adaptive immunity

A patient develops a severe rash and has problems breathing shortly after beginning antibiotic therapy for a respiratory infection. Which of the following is the best explanation for why this occurred? A) The antibiotic disrupted the normal flora allowing opportunistic bacteria to invade. B) The patient is allergic to the antibiotic. C) The patient is showing signs of drug toxicitiy. D) The microbe causing the infection has become antibiotic resistant.

B) The patient is allergic to the antibiotic.

The biochemical reactions that synthesize DNA, RNA, and proteins in cells are anabolic or catabolic? Do they require energy or produce energy? A) They are catabolic reactions and produce energy. B) They are anabolic reactions and require energy. C) They are catabolic reactions and require energy. D) They are anabolic reactions and produce energy.

B) They are anabolic reactions and require energy.

Which of the following is a primary advantage of semisynthetic drugs? A) They must be administered intravenously. B) They are more effective than the unmodified natural antibiotics. C) They are less stable and consequently have fewer side effects. D) They work faster.

B) They are more effective than the unmodified natural antibiotics.

What type of clinical specimen is collected through the clean catch method? A) Blood B) Urine C) Skin D) Gastrointestinal fluids

B) Urine

Which of the following BEST describes why it is difficult to develop antiviral drugs? A) Antiviral drugs are very easy to develop and have no side effects. B) Viruses are hard to target because they use the host cell's enzymes and ribosomes to metabolize and replicate. C) Viruses are too small to be targeted by drugs. D) Viral infections usually clear up on their own with no problems.

B) Viruses are hard to target because they use the host cell's enzymes and ribosomes to metabolize and replicate.

Carbonic acid (H2CO3) serves as a buffer in human blood. Carbonic acid is a weak acid that dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO-3) and a hydrogen ion (H+) Thus, a decrease in blood pH (more acidic) would result in: A) an increase in the concentration of H2C03 and a decrease in the concentration of HCO-3 B) a decrease in the concentration of H2C03 and an increase in the concentration of HCO-3 C) a decrease in the concentrations of H2C03 and HCO-3

B) a decrease in the concentration of H2C03 and an increase in the concentration of HCO-3

The type(s) of bond produced when atoms share electrons equally is/are A) an ionic bond. B) a nonpolar covalent bond. C) a hydrogen bond. D) a polar covalent bond. E) both polar covalent and ionic bonds.

B) a nonpolar covalent bond.

What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases? A) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins B) active immunization by vaccination C) autoimmunization D) variolation E) immune testing

B) active immunization by vaccination

A pathogen is best described as A) a microorganism that may cause a disease under certain circumstances. B) any microorganism that causes disease. C) an organism that remains in the body for a short time. D) a source of microbial contamination. E) a microorganism that remains with the person throughout life.

B) any microorganism that causes disease.

Bacterial plasmids A) can replicate autonomously. B) are small circular DNA molecules that can replicate autonomously. C) are small circular DNA molecules. D) carry genes for essential metabolic functions.

B) are small circular DNA molecules that can replicate autonomously.

Which of the following would be the correct sequence on how to construct a recombinant DNA molecule?Use the following: a. ligation of desired gene to plasmid DNA b. introduction of the plasmid into bacteria c. restriction enzymes cut gene of interest and plasmid DNA d. growth of cells on an antibiotic-containing medium A) b, c, a, d B) c, a, b, d C) a, d, c, b D) d, a, b, c

B) c, a, b, d

Fats, proteins, and complex carbohydrates are all synthesized by A) catabolic reactions. B) dehydration synthesis. C) hydrolytic reactions. D) exchange reactions

B) dehydration synthesis.

Some bacteria are resistant to antimicrobials due to the activity of ____ which removes many of them. A) ribosomes B) efflux pumps C) porins D) lipopolysaccharides E) plasmids

B) efflux pumps

Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen present are A) obligate anaerobes. B) either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes. C) obligate aerobes. D) aerotolerant anaerobes.

B) either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes.

Seventy percent alcohol is effective against A) prions. B) enveloped viruses. C) protozoan cysts. D) non-enveloped viruses. E) bacterial endospores.

B) enveloped viruses.

Which of the following cells increase in number during an infection with parasitic worms? A) basophils B) eosinophils C) macrophages D) lymphocytes E) neutrophils

B) eosinophils

Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is to anabolism as _____ is to ______. A) exergonic; spontaneous B) exergonic; endergonic C) free energy; entropy D) work; energy

B) exergonic; endergonic

Diseases that are induced by modern medical procedures are referred to as ____ infections. A) endogenous B) iatrogenic C) exogenous D) subacute

B) iatrogenic

Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis? A) the shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit B) interference with alanine-alanine bridges C) movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next D) the tRNA docking site

B) interference with alanine-alanine bridges

An acid A) reacts with strong bases to create a buffered solution. B) is a substance that donates hydrogen ions to a solution C) increases the pH when added to an aqueous solution. D) is a substance that accepts hydrogen ions in a solution

B) is a substance that donates hydrogen ions to a solution

Reactions in which atoms are rearranged within a molecule are catalyzed by A) ligases. B) isomerases. C) transferases. D) polymerases. E) hydrolases.

B) isomerases.

The Pfizer and Moderna vaccines use ____ to provide information for the synthesis of the _____. A) mRNA: viruses B) mRNA; spike proteins C) DNA; spike proteins D) Dead viruses; antibiotics

B) mRNA; spike proteins

A molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is most likely a A) hydrocarbon B) monosaccharide. C) lipid. D) glycerol.

B) monosaccharide.

In glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, electrons are removed from glucose and taken up by molecules like NAD. In such a reaction, glucose is being _____ and NAD+ is being _____ A) reduced, oxidized B) oxidized, reduced C) phosphorylated, oxidized D) phosphorylated, reduced E) reduced, phosphorylated

B) oxidized, reduced

Chagas' disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which type of exposure does this represent? A) skin portal B) parenteral route C) contact D) mucous membrane portal E) fomite

B) parenteral route

During gel electrophoresis, molecules are separated based on size, charge, and shape. DNA molecules move toward the ________ electrode because they have an overall ________ charge. A) negative; negative B) positive; negative C) negative; positive D) negative and positive; neutral E) positive; positive

B) positive; negative

Viruses are considered acellular, but what is one component viruses share with cells? A) presence of organelles B) presence of nucleic acid C) ability to metabolize D) presence of endoplasmic reticulum

B) presence of nucleic acid

To combat a viral infection, bacteria may produce A) antibiotics that destroy the virus. B) restriction enzymes that act like molecular scissors, destroying the viral nucleic acid. C) plaques D) tumor cells

B) restriction enzymes that act like molecular scissors, destroying the viral nucleic acid.

If the codon CUU is changed to CUA, it still codes for the amino acid leucine; this is an example of a A) dimer formation. B) silent mutation. C) frameshift mutation. D) nonsense mutation. E) missense mutation.

B) silent mutation.

Which of the following is the best definition of "microbial antagonism"? A) the presence of pathogens on the surface of the skin, which will invade the body through abrasions B) the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body C) the presence of normal microbiota that can become pathogens under certain conditions D) the ability of microbiota to mutate into pathogens

B) the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body

The bacterial glycocalyx capsule of a cell performs all of the following functions EXCEPT A) anchoring cells to each other. B) transfer of genetic material between cells. C) protection against dehydration. D) evade phagocytosis

B) transfer of genetic material between cells.

Water has an unusually high specific heat. This is directly related to which of the following? A) At its boiling point, water changes from liquid to vapor. B)More heat is required to raise the temperature of water. C) lce floats in liquid water. D) Salt water freezes at a lower temperature than pure water.

B)More heat is required to raise the temperature of water.

Microbes considered extremely contagious and deadly are studied under conditions of ________ containment. BSL-1 BSL-3 BSL-2 BSL-4

BSL-4

Glycolysis results in a net production of which of the following molecules from each molecule of glucose? A) 2 NAD+, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP B) NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 4 ATP C) 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP D) 6 CO2, 2 pyruvate, and 30 ATP

C) 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP

Which of the following is both a codon for the amino acid, methionine, and a start signal? A) UGA B) GAU C) AUG D) UAG E) AAA

C) AUG

An antimicrobial that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following? A) Cytoplasmic membrane proteins lose their function. B) No change in bacterial cell activity. C) Bacterial cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure. D) Bacteria cannot attach to their hosts.

C) Bacterial cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure.

Which molecule shown in Figure 2 has a carbonyl functional group in the form of a ketone? (INSERT PICTURE) A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

C) C

Select the correct method for writing the binomial name of the North American opossum. A) Didelphis Virginiana B) D. virginiana C) Didelphis virginiana D) Didelphidae didelphis virginiana

C) Didelphis virginiana

Carbohydrate utilization broths, which are fermentation broths, are primarily in a category of culture media called A) Selective B) Enriched C) Differential D) Fastiduous

C) Differential

Toxins that affect the lining of the digestive tract are A) Endotoxins B) Exotoxins C) Enterotoxins D) Gastrotoxins

C) Enterotoxins

__________ can be used to advise prospective parents about their risk of transmitting genetic disorders, such as Huntington's disease, to their offspring. A) Polymerase chain reaction B) Gene therapy C) Genetic screening D) Vaccine production

C) Genetic screening

Approximately 15 years ago, measles was declared eliminated in the U.S. However, five years ago, there were outbreaks in Texas, California, and other states. Why are outbreaks occurring? A) The virus that causes measles has mutated. B) The virus that causes measles has mutated, and the vaccination is no longer effective. C) People are electing not to receive the vaccination. D) Herd immunity only affects vaccinated persons.

C) People are electing not to receive the vaccination.

Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes insert ______ into the membranes of the cells they target as a first step in killing. A) CD95 B) Lectin C) Perforin D) Granzyme

C) Perforin

Which technique uses probes to identify specific DNA fragments that have been separated by electrophoresis. A) Western blotting B) Northern blotting C) Southern blotting D) ELISA

C) Southern blotting

When a patient is given an antibiotic targeting a Gram negative bacterial infection, they may experience an increase in inflammation and fever. Which statement below best describes what may be happening? A) The patient is having an allergic reaction to the antibiotic. B) The lysis of the cells releases NAG and NAM from the cell wall. C) The lysis of the cell releases the endotoxin, lipid A, from the lipopolysaccharide layer. D) The patient's cells are reacting to the antibiotic.

C) The lysis of the cell releases the endotoxin, lipid A, from the lipopolysaccharide layer.

Why is it difficult for protons (H+) to move across phospholipid bilayer membranes? A) Protons are too large to pass through the membrane. B) Protons are too hydrophobic to pass through membranes. C) The positive charge on protons prevents them from passing through the hydrophobic interior of membranes. D) There are no proteins in membranes to allow protons through.

C) The positive charge on protons prevents them from passing through the hydrophobic interior of membranes.

Ibuprofen is a drug commonly used to relieve inflammation and pain. It is a mixture of two enantiomers, which are molecules that A) have identical chemical formulas but differ in the branching of their carbon skeletons. B) exist in either linear chain or ring forms. C) are mirror images of one another. D) differ in the arrangement of atoms around their double bonds.

C) are mirror images of one another.

A(n) _____ is a virus that infects bacterial cells A) prion B) nucleocapsid C) bacteriophage D) envelope E) virion

C) bacteriophage

Hydrogen bonds are found in all of the following EXCEPT A) in the DNA double helix between nucleotides. By between water molecules. C) between phosphates in ATP. D) in a-helices and b-pleated sheets of protein secondary structures.

C) between phosphates in ATP.

Autoclaves increase temperatures higher than that of boiling water A) by increasing the time of exposure B) It is not possible to reach temperatures higher than boiling. C) by increasing the pressure D) by applying nonionizing radiation

C) by increasing the pressure

Which of the following processes occurs in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes? A) translation B) transcription C) capping D) gene regulation E) DNA replication

C) capping

Which of the following infectious particles is most susceptible to damage? A) naked capsid virus B) bacteriophage C) enveloped virus D) prions E) both naked capsid viruses and prions

C) enveloped virus

The _______ of an virus determines the type of cell it enters. A) nucleic acid B) shape C) glycoproteins D) lipid molecules E) matrix proteins

C) glycoproteins

Most broad-spectrum antibiotics act by A) disrupting the cytoplasmic membrane. B) inhibiting metabolic pathways. C) inhibiting protein synthesis. D) inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis.

C) inhibiting protein synthesis.

The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of A) species immunity. B) microbial antagonism. C) innate immunity. D) adaptive immunity.

C) innate immunity.

During which growth phase are bacteria more susceptible to antimicrobial drugs? A) stationary phase B) lag phase C) log phase D) death phase E) The susceptibility is the same for all phases.

C) log phase

Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as ______ responses. A) autoimmune B) third-degree immune C) memory D) primary immune E) allergic

C) memory

Acetyl CoA binds with ____, initiating the citric acid cycle. A) NADH B) citrate C) oxaloacetate D) succinyl E) malate

C) oxaloacetate

The electron transport chain provides the energy for A) beta-oxidation. B) photophosphorylation. C) oxidative phosphorylation. D) anabolic reactions. E) substrate-level phosphorylation.

C) oxidative phosphorylation.

Infectious agents that are the most resistant to antimicrobial agents or processes are A) retroviruses B) biofilms C) prions D) endospores

C) prions

Mutagens are useful in biotechnology research for A) producing DNA fragments for cloning. B) selecting genetic mutants resistant to radioactivity. C) producing organisms with altered phenotypes. D) removing undesirable traits from microbes. E) producing new organisms which have beneficial traits from two or more organisms.

C) producing organisms with altered phenotypes.

Amoxicillin is very effective for treating infections with Gram-positive bacteria but rarely causes side effects in humans. This is an example of A) altruism. B) antibiotic resistance. C) selective toxicity. D) narrow spectrum of action.

C) selective toxicity.

Symptoms are A) objective manifestations of a disease that can be observed by others. B) characteristics of a disease, such as sweating. C) subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel. D) objective manifestations of a disease that can be measured.

C) subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel.

The absence of ____ leaves obligate anaerobes susceptible to killing by oxygen. A) carotenoids B) vitamin E C) superoxide dismutase D) peroxidase

C) superoxide dismutase

The enzyme reverse transcriptase A) synthesizes RNA from an RNA template. B) synthesizes RNA from a DNA template. C) synthesizes DNA from an RNA template. D) can synthesize DNA or RNA from an RNA template. E) synthesizes DNA to repair gaps in a DNA strand.

C) synthesizes DNA from an RNA template.

Opsonization is A) the sticking of monocytes to the wall of the blood vessels at the site of infection. B) phagocyte receptors detecting PAMPs. C) the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis D) nonspecific leukocyte secretion of toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells E) damage resulting in cell lysis.

C) the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis

What is the purpose of fermentation reactions? A) to make alcohol or lactic acid that cells can metabolize for energy under anaerobic conditions B) to make additional ATP when respiration can not make ATP fast enough C) to oxidize NADH to NAD+ so glycolysis can continue D) to slow down cellular oxygen consumption when oxygen is scarce

C) to oxidize NADH to NAD+ so glycolysis can continue

Most ATP produced in our bodies is made A) by glycolysis. B) in the citric acid cycle. C) using ATP synthase. D) from photosynthesis. E) by burning fat

C) using ATP synthase.

The carbon atoms in organic molecules typically form A) Four hydrogen bonds B) Multiple ionic or hydrogen bonds C)Four nonpolar covalent bonds D) Four polar covalent bonds

C)Four nonpolar covalent bonds

If glucose is unavailable, aerobic respiration may occur with A) proteins. B) carbohydrates, including starch and glycogen. C) fats. D) All answers are correct.

D) All answers are correct.

Mitochondria A) Can replicate independently of the cell B) Can synthesize proteins C) Convert chemical energy to ATP D) All of the above are correct

D) All of the above are correct

The tendency of water molecules to stay close to each other as a result of hydrogen bonding ________ A) provides the surface tension that allows leaves to float on water B) is called cohesion C) acts to moderate temperature D) All of the responses are correct.

D) All of the responses are correct.

High cholesterol levels are considered a major risk for heart disease. If it is detrimental to human health, why does the body make cholesterol in the first place? A) Cholesterol is the basis for many important molecules like steroids and sex hormones. B) Cholesterol is necessary for cell membrane stability. C) Cholesterol is not important for humans anymore. It is a holdover from hunter-gatherer days when food was scarce. D) Both A and B are correct. E) None of the above is correct.

D) Both A and B are correct.

How does the formation of covalent bonds differ from the formation of ionic bonds between two atoms? A) Covalent bonds involve sharing pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of single electrons between atoms. B) Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons from one atom to another; ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between atoms. C) Covalent bonds are formed between atoms to form molecules; ionic bonds are formed between atoms to form compounds. D) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.

D) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.

DNA replication is considered semi-conservative. Which statement best describes the phenomenon? A) The cell proofreads its newly synthesized DNA only part of the time. B) each strand of a double-stranded DNA molecule is replicated differently. C) A, T, G, C are constantly being recycled as cells make DNA. D) Each daughter DNA molecule is composed of one original strand and one new strand. E) the sequence of a DNA molecule is preserved as it is being replicated.

D) Each daughter DNA molecule is composed of one original strand and one new strand.

A new influenza strain appears and is spreading rapidly. What measures might be taken by public health agencies to stop the spread? A) Facilitate access to vaccines. B) Identify and treat people who are infected. C Educate members of the public about ways to protect themselves. D) Educate the public, promote vaccination, and treat those who are infected. E) Shut down public transportation.

D) Educate the public, promote vaccination, and treat those who are infected.

Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE? A) It can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms. B) It can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen. C) It is safer than an attenuated vaccine. D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen.

D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen.

Which of the following is NOT a desirable characteristic of an ideal antimicrobial agent? A) It acts quickly. B) It is inexpensive. C) It is harmless to humans. D) It only arrests growth of vegetative cells. E) It is stable during storage.

D) It only arrests growth of vegetative cells.

Cells of the second line of defense called _____ recognize and kill virus-infected cells. A) basophils B) eosinophils C) macrophages D) NK cells E) dendritic cells

D) NK cells

All of the following are functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum EXCEPT A) Lipid synthesis B) Detoxify toxins C) Metabolize glycogen to glucose D) Package proteins for endocytosis

D) Package proteins for endocytosis

Which of the steps in Koch's postulates cannot always be performed? A) The suspected causative agent must be found in every case of the disease. B) The agent must be isolated and grown outside the host. C) The agent must not be present in healthy hosts. D) The agent is introduced to a healthy host.

D) The agent is introduced to a healthy host.

Starch and glycogen, both polysaccharides, differ in their functions in that starch is __________ whereas glycogen is ______________. A) The main component for plant structure; an energy storage for animals. B) A structural material found in plants; a form of external support for animals C) A temporary storage for glucose molecules; a highly stable compound that store complex lipids. D) The principal energy storage compound for plants; the main energy storage for animals.

D) The principal energy storage compound for plants; the main energy storage for animals.

Which of the following statements concerning enzymes is FALSE? A) They can be used to catalyze a chemical reaction over and over again. B) They can be denatured if the pH of their environment is too high or too low. C) They are usually, but not always, proteins. D) They always function best at 37°C. E) They form a temporary intermediate compound with a substrate.

D) They always function best at 37°C.

Which of the following is not true about ATP molecules A) They have three phosphate groups B) They contain high-energy bonds C) They may function as coenzymes D) They are a long-term energy storage molecule

D) They are a long-term energy storage molecule

Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE? A) They can prevent virus attachment to host cells. B) They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes. C) They can facilitate cytotoxic attack by natural killer lymphocytes. D) They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens.

D) They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens.

An acute viral disease is the likely result of _____ infection. A) a persistent B) a latent C) a lysogenic D) a lytic

D) a lytic

The valence electrons of an atom represents its A) atomic mass. B) isotopic state. C) electronegativity. D) ability to interact with other atoms.

D) ability to interact with other atoms.

A(n) _____ is a complex community of various types of microbes that adhere to surfaces. A) colony B) inoculum C) aggregate D) biofilm E) CFU

D) biofilm

Which of the following is/are common to chemiosmosis and the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? A) electron transport only B) reduction of NADP+ only C) a proton gradient only D) both electron transport and a proton gradient

D) both electron transport and a proton gradient

Many vitamins are important ____ of enzymes A) competitive inhibitors B) protein cofactors C) allosteric inhibitors D) coenzymes E) activators

D) coenzymes

Aerosols may be involved in ______ transmission of pathogens. A) vector B) direct C) waterborne D) droplet E) fecal-oral

D) droplet

Contamination with _______ is a concern because they are highly resistant to killing. A) archaea B) vibrios C) vegetative cells D) endospores

D) endospores

The mechanism by which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes an earlier step in the pathway is most precisely described as A) competitive inhibition. B) cooperativity inhibition. C) irreversible inhibition. D) feedback inhibition.

D) feedback inhibition.

Which of the following microbial control methods does not kill microbes or inhibit their growth, but instead removes them physically from the sample? A) lyophilization B) nonionizing radiation C) dessication D) filtration

D) filtration

Replacing a patient's defective gene with a fragment containing a functional gene is A) genomics. B) gene mapping. C) gene selection. D) gene therapy. E) gene cloning.

D) gene therapy.

The conversion of amino acids to carbohydrates is an example of A) beta-oxidation. B) substrate-level phosphorylation. C) amination. D) gluconeogenesis. E) electron transport.

D) gluconeogenesis.

During DNA replication, the enzyme __________, breaks ___________ bonds between the double strands. A) helicase; phosphodiester B) topoisomerase; covalent C) polymerase; hydrogen D) helicase, hydrogen

D) helicase,hydrogen

A microorganism found living under conditions of high ____ is a barophile A) oxygen concentrations B) carbon dioxide levels C) pH values D) hydrostatic pressure E) salt concentrations

D) hydrostatic pressure

The cell illustrated in Figure 3 is in a(n) _______ environment. (INSERT PICTURE) A) fluid mosaic B) hypertonic C) isotonic D) hypotonic E) passive

D) hypotonic

Fever is beneficial during bacterial infection because the higher temperature A) increases sweating and consequently the barrier effect. B) inactivates interferons. G) Inhibits microbial death D) increases the effectiveness of interferons, and inhibits microbial death E) increases the effectiveness of interferons, and inhibits microbial death, and causes tissue and organ damage

D) increases the effectiveness of interferons, and inhibits microbial death

Prokaryotes produce the majority of their ATP A) on the thylakoids. B) in the cytosol. C) on ribosomes. D) on the cell membrane E) on the inner mitochondrial membrane.

D) on the cell membrane

Class II MHC are found on A) red blood cells. B) the skin. C) muscle cells. D) professional antigen-presenting cells (APC). E) cytoplasmic membranes of nucleated cells

D) professional antigen-presenting cells (APC).

Reverse transcriptase is associated with which of the following? A) dsDNA viruses B) dsRNA viruses C) -SSRNA viruses D) retroviruses E) +ssRNA viruses

D) retroviruses

Which of the following procedures is currently the standard test used in the United States for evaluating the efficiency of antiseptics and disinfectants? A) microbial death rate B) phenol coefficient C) Kelsey-Sykes capacity test D) use-dilution test E) in-use test

D) use-dilution test

Which is not a form of locomotion used by protozoa? A) Pseudopodia B)Cilia C)Flagella D)Budding

D)Budding

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of a disease process? A) incubation, convalescence, prodromal period, illness, decline B) prodromal period, convalescence, incubation, illness, decline C) illness, convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, decline D)incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence E) convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline

D)incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence

What is the central dogma of biology?

DNA -> RNA -> Protein

Linnaeus

Developed binomial nomenclature taxonomy

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Okazaki fragments? A) They are joined together by DNA ligase. B) They begin with an RNA primer. C) They are checked for accuracy by DNA polymerases. D) They make up the lagging strand of replicated DNA. E) All of the answers are characteristic of Okazaki fragments.

E) All of the answers are characteristic of Okazaki fragments.

________ events are initiated at sequences called origins. A) transcription B) transposition C) splicing D) translation E) DNA replication

E) DNA replication

Which of the following statements concerning the chemical structure of an antibody is FALSE? A) Antibodies are formed of four polypeptide chains. B) Antibodies have two long peptide chains known as heavy chains. C) Antibodies have two short peptide chains known as light chains. D) The stem and arm are connected by a hinge. E) The heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds.

E) The heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds.

Nitrogen is a growth-limiting nutrient for many organisms because A) only a small number of bacteria can extract it from the atmosphere. B) it is required for synthesis of nucleotides. C) it is required for lipid synthesis. D) it is necessary for the biosynthesis of amino acids. E) all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis.

E) all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis.

Which of the following is essential in PCR? A) DNA polymerase B) antisense RNAs C) reverse transcriptase D) DNA primers E) both DNA primers and DNA polymerase

E) both DNA primers and DNA polymerase

Quaternary ammonium compounds ("quats") are used for A) antisepsis. B) sterilization. C) disinfection. D) quantifying antimicrobial activity. E) both antisepsis and disinfection.

E) both antisepsis and disinfection.

Which of the following are considered to be frameshift mutations? A) deletions only B) inversions only C) insertions only D) both inversion and insertions E) both deletions and insertions

E) both deletions and insertions

Which of the following processes requires a cell membrane carrier protein? A) endocytosis B) simple diffusion C) active transport D) facilitated diffusion E) both facilitated diffusion and active transport

E) both facilitated diffusion and active transport

The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus is commonly found in the nasal cavity of healthy people. If inhaled into the lungs, however, it may cause pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus is best described as A) an opportunistic pathogen. B) a parasite. C) a mutualist symbiotic partner. D) resident microbiota. E) both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen.

E) both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen.

The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to A) triggering inflammation and release of interferons. B) attracting phagocytes to sites of infection. C) triggering release of interferons. D) triggering inflammation. E) both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.

E) both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.

Many European countries use _______________ for microbial control in fresh fruits and vegetables. A) X rays B) ultraviolet light C) electron beams D) microwaves E) gamma rays

E) gamma rays

The _____ of a population is the time it takes for the cells to double in number. A) exponential growth B) binary fission C) arithmetic growth D) log phase E) generation time

E) generation time

ATP is an energy carrier. Where is the energy actually located? A) attached to the nucleotide B) inside the phosphate C) between the sugar and the phosphate D) attached to the phosphate group E) in the bonds between phosphate groups

E) in the bonds between phosphate groups

Tertiary and quaternary structure of proteins involves _________ bonds A) nonpolar covalent B) hydrogen C) ionic D) polar covalent E) ionic, hydrogen, polar, and nonpolar covalent

E) ionic, hydrogen, polar, and nonpolar covalent

A toxin common to most Gram-negative bacteria is A) hemolysin. B) collagenase. C) coagulase. D) neurotoxin. E) lipid A.

E) lipid A.

Which of the following is involved in translation? A) r-RNA only B) t-RNA only C) m-RNA only D) both m-RNA and t-RNA E) m-RNA, r-RNA, and t-RNA are all involved.

E) m-RNA, r-RNA, and t-RNA are all involved.

What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease? A) innate immunity B)naturally acquired passive immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity E) naturally acquired active immunity

E) naturally acquired active immunity

Naturally occurring restriction enzymes in bacteria is to A) allow cells to accept foreign DNA. B) make conjugation more efficient. C) provide the cell with new phenotypes, such as antibiotic resistance. D) allow transposons to move to another place in the chromosome. E) protect the cell from invading phages.

E) protect the cell from invading phages.

If an antimicrobial agent damages DNA and RNA it is also likely to affect A) the cell membrane. B) the cell wall. C)endospores. D) the viral envelope. E) protein synthesis.

E) protein synthesis.

Protein synthesis occurs on/in the A) nucleus. B) periplasmic space. C) inclusion. D) cytoskeleton. E) ribosome

E) ribosome

Which of the following is NOT a stage of phagocytosis? A) chemotaxis. B) elimination. C) vesicle fusion. D) adhesion. E) secretion of cytotoxins.

E) secretion of cytotoxins.

Which chemical process generates the ATP produced in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle? A) chemiosmosis B) electron transport C) photophosphorylation D) oxidative phosphorylation E) substrate-level phosphorylation

E) substrate-level phosphorylation

An axenic environment is one A) in which microorganisms remain with the person throughout life. B) contaminated by microbial toxins. C) that is a source of contamination. D) in which microorganisms remain present only for a short time. E) that is free of microbes.

E) that is free of microbes.

Mitosis and meiosis share similarities during nuclear and cytoplasm divisions. Their differences include: A) Mitosis forms two identical cells, while meiosis forms two non-identical cells B) Mitosis forms two identical cells, while meiosis forms four non-identical cells. C) Mitosis results in cells for growth and replacement, while meiosis forms gametes. D) Mitosis requires two rounds of DNA synthesis, while meiosis requires one. E)Both B and C are correct. AB) A, C, and D are correct.

E)Both B and C are correct.

Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing? A. prokaryotes; no nuclei B. viruses; acellular parasites C. algae; aquatic and marine habitats D. fungi; cell walls E. protozoa ; multicellular

E. protozoa; multicellular

Snow

Known for infection control and improving public health

Pasteur

Laid the foundations of immunity and implemented processes

Ehrlich

Used an arsenic-based drug to treat syphilis, paving the way for chemotherapy