Final Study - Comp TIA Core 1

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

Which option would you MOST likely use to configure PXE to set up remote imaging on a computer during a deployment?

BIOS boot option Explanation OBJ-3.4: To configure a computer to utilize the PXE boot option, you need to configure it under the BIOS boot option. The Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an industry-standard client/server interface that allows networked computers that are not yet loaded with an operating system to be configured and booted remotely by an administrator. Secure boot is a security system offered by UEFI that is designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. Power management allows Windows to reduce or turn off the power supplied to hardware components to save energy.

Tim's iPhone was starting to flicker randomly during use. He attempted to turn the phone off and on again to fix the flickering, but it keeps flickering randomly. Which of the following components MOST likely causing the issues in the iPhone?

Backlight Explanation OBJ-5.5: For mobile phones, flickering is often caused by a failing backlight that needs to be replaced by a certified technician. In a laptop or mobile device, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen.

A user's desktop computer does not start in the morning when the power button is pressed. A technician notices that the screen remains dark, but fans are spinning inside of the computer case. No messages are displayed and no beeps are heard. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?

Bad power supply A bad power supply can sometimes provide power for some voltages but not others. If the fans are running but no other devices are working, then a bad power supply should be a consideration.

A technician is working on a computer that has overheating concerns. What can be an indicator that the computer is getting too hot for the circuitry and motherboard?

Burning smell Unusual odors, such as a burning smell or smoke, will almost always indicate something is overheating, such as the power supply.

Which of the following BEST describes how a DHCP reservation works?

By matching MAC address to IP address within the DHCP scope Explanation OBJ-2.6: When the client requests an IP address by sending a message on the network to the DHCP server, the DHCP server will assign an IP from its DHCP scope to the client and reserve it based on its MAC address. DHCP reservations allow the DHCP server to pre-set an IP address to a specific client based on its MAC address. This ensures that the client will always get the same IP address from the DHCP server when it connects to the network. DHCP reservations are usually used with servers or printers on your internal network and are rarely used with end-user or client devices.

A penetration tester wants to build a workstation that will be used to brute force hash digests. Which of the following is the BEST option to ensure sufficient power and speed to crack them?

Dedicated GPU Dedicated GPUs are designed to conduct complex mathematical functions extremely quickly. If you want to build a system to perform the cracking of a password, hash, or encryption algorithm, it is important to have a high-speed, dedicated GPU.

Whenever you reboot your domain controller, you notice it takes a very long time to boot up. As the server is booting, you hear noises that sound like a steady series of clicks coming from the hard drive. Which of the following is the BEST action to help speed up the boot time of the server?

Defragment the hard disk Explanation OBJ-5.3: Defragging is a simple process when file fragments are put together to speed up file access. File fragments are put together, and quality defragmentation utilities also assemble the free space into a single block to prevent future fragmentation. By defragmenting the hard drive, the server doesn't have to spend as much time accessing the information, and it can boot up faster. Based on the clicking noises, it sounds like the system has to access many parts of the drive to load the files.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Delivers hardware networking capabilities, including the use of servers, networking, and storage, over the cloud using a pay-per-use revenue model. Provider Managed - Virtualization - Servers - Storage - Networking Examples: Cab and Bike rentals services, desktops, laptops, printers, servers, smartphones, tablets, etc.

What does constant light-emitting diode (LED) activity on a hard drive disk (HDD) indicate? (Select all that apply.) Disk thrashing Blue screen of death (BSOD) Low system memory Faulty HDD platters

Disk thrashing Low system memory Constant activity, often referred to as disk thrashing, means the disk is being constantly read. This constant activity may be a result of malware on the computer. Constant disk activity can signify that there is not enough system random access memory (RAM), so paging (virtual memory) is continually using the disk.

What type of Virtual Desktop should be chosen to reduce capital expenditures and have the hardware maintained by the cloud service provider?

Remote hosted virtual desktops Explanation OBJ-4.1: A remote hosted virtual desktop (HVD) is a full, thick-client user environment run as a virtual machine (VM) on a server and accessed remotely. Using a hosted virtual desktop allows a company to utilize the cloud for its desktop infrastructure, reduce its maintenance cost, and shift capital expenses (such as new desktops) to operational expenses (monthly fees to pay for virtual desktop services). Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

You are troubleshooting a workstation for a customer. The workstation will not boot. When it is powered on, an error message of "OS not found" is displayed on the screen. What is the MOST likely solution to fix this error?

Repair the GPT Explanation OBJ-5.3: The "OS not found" error at boot time is an indication that the MBR (Master Boot Record) or GPT (Globally Unique ID Partition Table) is corrupted or faulty. If this occurs, you should reboot into the Windows recovery mode and use the 'bootrec /fixboot' command to fix the GPT.

A network administrator is working with a Windows Server virtual machine (VM), stating "boot device not found" on the VM console window. What actions can the network administrator take to resolve this issue? (Select all that apply.) Repair OS using Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (SMART). Repair an HDD by reducing input/output operations per second (IOPS). Repair the extensible firmware interface (EFI) bootloader on a GUID partition table (GPT) drive. Repair the master boot record (MBR) on the hard disk drive (HDD).

Repair the extensible firmware interface (EFI) bootloader on a GUID partition table (GPT) drive. Repair the master boot record (MBR) on the hard disk drive (HDD).

What beep codes would a computer technician hear if a legacy IBM desktop computer is experiencing a motherboard issue? (Select all that apply.) Repeating short beeps No beep Three long beeps One long, three short beeps

Repeating short beeps No beep No beep may indicate a problem with the power supply, the motherboard problem, or a faulty onboard speaker. The technician should narrow down the issue by checking each component to rule it out, moving on to the next one until discovering the component causing the problem. Repeating short beeps would indicate a power supply fault or a motherboard problem. Check power cord connections to internal components, especially to the motherboard itself.

What beep codes would a computer technician hear if a legacy IBM desktop computer is experiencing a motherboard issue? (Select all that apply.) Repeating short beeps One long, three short beeps Three long beeps No beep

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

Supports the deployment of entire systems including hardware, networking, and applications using a pay-per-use revenue model. Provider Managed - Runtime - Middleware - OS - Virtualization - Servers - Storage - Networking Example: Salesforce, mySQL, Oracle, and web servers Tomcat, runtimes such as Java runtimes AWS Elastic Beanstalk Google App Engine Adobe Commerce (previously Magento) Quickbase OutSystems Boomi

A Linux administrator sets up a database server that consumes much memory and never deallocates space from memory, so the administrator wants to set up a spillover area in case there is insufficient system RAM. What should the administrator configure?

Swap Space If there is insufficient system RAM, the administrator can extend memory space by using disk storage, known as called swap space in a Linux system.

Forward traffic over the network based on MAC address.

Switch

True or False: A power supply unit (PSU) provides rails of 12V, 5V, and 3.3V. A PSU of 120V is only for use in North America.

True

True or False: Data control is not a benefit of cloud computing; in most cases, data can be spread across multiple data centers and is regularly not on-site.

True

True or False: The laser printer toner can contain the OPC drum.

True - OPC drum (Organic Photoconducter) - Sensitive to light (Do not remove photosensitive drum strip until its in the printer)

True or False: A laser printer combines a laser, high voltages, charged ions, powered ink, heat and pressure, and paper.

True Very high quality Fast printing Very complex: many moving parts Requires on-printer memory Messy on the inside

What type of network connection is commonly used by DSL?

Twisted pair copper DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) networks use the same twisted pair copper as traditional phone lines.

Type 1 virtualization

Type 1 or bare-metal hypervisor is a virtualization software used to create virtual machines on top of the computer hardware. Direct hardware installation allows Type 1 hypervisors to be fast, efficient, and have better security when compared to a Type 2 hypervisor.

A company has installed a page scanner that outputs the scanned files to SMB. Which of the following would be the MOST likely destination for these scanned images?

Windows share Windows uses the SMB (Server Message Block) protocol to transfer files between other Windows devices. SMB is commonly used to transfer files to a Windows share.

Which of the following would be the BEST way to remove toner and paper dust from the inside of a laser printer?

Wipe the inside with a damp cloth There can be a significant amount of dust and toner particles inside of a laser printer, and using a normal vacuum cleaner or compressed air would release the particles into the air. Instead, a damp cloth will capture the toner and dust without causing issues with airborne particles in the immediate area.

24-pin Motherboard power

• Main motherboard power • Provides +3.3 V, +/-5 V, and +/- 12 V • 20 pin connector was the original ATX standard • 24 pin was added for PCI Express power • You can connect a 24-pin connector to a 20-pin motherboard • Some cables are 20-pin + 4-pin

A computer specialist starts a computer that has received a trouble ticket for not working correctly. Upon turning on the computer, the technician observes the computer is making a continuous beeping sound. What does this beep signify as an issue?

It represents that a power-on self-test (POST) error has occurred. If the power-on self-test (POST) runs but detects a problem, it generates an error message. As the fault may prevent the computer from displaying anything on the screen, a beep code often indicates an error. Two short beeps represent that a POST error has occurred. The screen will display the error code.

Feed Assembly (Thermal Printer)

- Pull paper through the printer - Relatively small paper path

A computer technician is configuring a NAS for a company to store their corporate data. The technician has installed two 1 TB hard drives operating at 7200 RPM in a RAID 1 configuration. How much usable storage space is contained in the NAS?

1 TB Explanation OBJ-3.3: A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. Since the NAS is using a RAID 1 configuration, it is a mirrored array. Both 1 TB HDDs are installed, but a full copy of the data must be contained on each drive. Therefore, there is still only 1 TB of usable storage capacity in the NAS.

What are the laser printing steps?

1. Processing - Data is moving over to the printer. Build the entire page in memory. 2. Charging - Prepare the drum with a negative electrostatic charge. A corona wire or charge roller is used to provide a negative charge to the photosensitive drum. Clears drum prepares it. 3. Exposing/Laser - Write the image with the laser. Begins writing the image to the photosensitive drum. The drum is creating a negative charge the laser creates a positive charge everywhere it touches that photosensitive drum. 4. Developing - Toner is negatively charged and will stick to the positively charged sections that were exposed by the laser causing toner to stick to the photosensitive image drum. 5. Transferring - Of the toner from the photosensitive drum to the paper that is going through the printer and comes out with toner adhered to it but its not permanent. 6. Fusing - Applying heat and pressure onto the paper melting the toner making it permanent. 7. Cleaning - excess toner is still on drum gets removed for next print job.

To create the output on the thermal printer you need a...

1. full length heating element - no moving print head - Different parts of the heating element will heat up to create the black color on the page

Micro-USB

5-pin connector TR: 480 Mb/s

A help desk analyst is looking at a computer that has PC-1600 RAM in it. What is the maximum data transfer rate?

1.6 GBps The peak transfer rate is 1600 MBps (200 MT/s multiplied by 8 bytes (64 bits) per transfer), giving the "PC-1600" designation. 1600 MBps is equivalent to 1.6 GBps.

Which of the following hard drive form factors would be connected to your laptop internally using a Micro SATA connection?

1.8" Explanation OBJ-1.1: A laptop hard drive usually comes in either the 2.5" form factor or the 1.8" form factor. When a 1.8" form factor is used, the drive is connected to the laptop using a Micro SATA connector since a regular SATA connector will not fit due to the connector's larger size.

A database administrator reviews servers in the company's environment and comes across an older server with which the administrator is unfamiliar. The system has set the server for redundancies and load input/output operations per second (IOPs) load balancing. Which Redundant Array of Independent Disk (RAID) configuration is the server using?

10 It is possible to combine the advantages (and disadvantages) of RAID 0 and RAID 1 in one single system. This is a nested or hybrid RAID configuration. It provides security by mirroring all data on secondary drives while using striping across each set of drives to speed up data transfers. Advantages of RAID 10 - If something goes wrong with one of the disks in a RAID 10 configuration, the rebuild time is very fast since all that is needed is copying all the data from the surviving mirror to a new drive. This can take as little as 30 minutes for drives of 1 TB. Disadvantages of RAID 10 Half of the storage capacity goes to mirroring, so compared to large RAID 5 or RAID 6 arrays, this is an expensive way to have redundancy.

10 RAID 10 is a logical striped volume (RAID 0) configured with two mirrored arrays (RAID 1).

A supervisor at a small company asks a server administrator to use high-performance hard drives, but the cheapest possible. Which of the following would be at the low end of high performance?

10,000 rpm High-performance drives are rated at 15,000 or 10,000 rpm; average performance is 7,200 or 5,400 rpm.

Which of the following is categorized as a public IP address? 11.120.32.41 172.30.15.12 169.254.12.64 192.168.0.2

11.120.32.41 Explanation OBJ-2.5: To communicate on the Internet, a host must obtain a unique public IP address. Typically this is allocated by an Internet Service Provider. If an address is not an APIPA address (169.254.x.x), a private IP address (10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x), or a localhost IP (127.0.0.1), then it is considered a public IP address.

A gamer primarily uses a desktop computer set up to handle the most resource-intensive games without experiencing any lag. However, the hard drive went bad and needed replacing. What form factor should the gamer buy for it?

3.5 inch There are two main form factors for HDDs. The mainstream type used in desktop PCs is 3.5-inch units.

Which port is used to connect to a POP3 server?

110 Explanation OBJ-2.1: The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

What is the voltage standard in the US/Canada?

110 - 120 volts of AC (VAC), 60Hz

What command is used to test if your own network card's driver is working properly?

127.0.0.1 Explanation OBJ-5.7: The IP Address 127.0.0.1 is a localhost IP for testing your network interface card (NIC). This IP address is reserved for use with a loopback test. If there is no communication of the return packet, this indicates the network card is faulty, the cable/loopback is loose, or there is bad wiring of the loopback plug. Using ping with public IP addresses or the gateway address, such as 1.1.1.1, 8.8.8.8, and 192.168.1.1, would instead verify the entire path and not just NIC's driver.

Which of the following Wi-Fi channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band are only supported in Europe and Japan due to government regulations?

13 Explanation OBJ-2.3: The Wi-Fi frequency band for 2.4 GHz is split into 14 channels of 5 MHz each. In the United States and Canada, only channels 1 through 11 may be used. In Europe, channels 1 through 13 may be used. In Japan, channels 1 through 14 may be used. Since each Wi-Fi communication requires approximately 20 MHz to operate effectively, users should set their wireless access points to channels 1, 6, and 11 to minimize interference and avoid overlapping channels.

Which of the following Wi-Fi channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band are only supported in Japan due to government regulations?

14 Explanation OBJ-2.3: The Wi-Fi frequency band for 2.4 GHz is split into 14 channels of 5 MHz each. In the United States and Canada, only channels 1 through 11 may be used. In Europe, channels 1 through 13 may be used. In Japan, channels 1 through 14 may be used. Since each Wi-Fi communication requires approximately 20 MHz to operate effectively, users should set their wireless access points to channels 1, 6, and 11 to minimize interference and avoid overlapping channels.

Which of the following type of hard disk drives would provide the best performance in a gaming workstation?

15,000 rpm Explanation OBJ-3.3: Hard drive performance is limited based on the number of revolutions per minute (RPM) the disk can spin. If a disk can spin faster, it can retrieve or store data on the disk quicker. For a high-performance gaming computer, a 15,000 rpm hard disk drive or an SSD should be used. For low-end office desktops, using a 5,400 rpm hard disk drive to save money is acceptable.

Which of the following ports is used by SNMP by default?

161 Explanation OBJ-2.1: The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139.

A retired penetration tester devotes time to helping and teaching people. The pen tester acquires older technology to help with teaching, and as the years go by, the pen tester swaps components to keep costs low. Unfortunately, some of the power supply units (PSUs) are starting to die out, and the tester finds that the newer units do not connect properly with the motherboard. What is the best option to buy for compatibility?

20+4-pin P1 adapter cable Some power supply units (PSUs) have a 20+4-pin P1 adapter cable for compatibility with older motherboards with a 20-pin port.

(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question. On the real exam, you may be given a chart with numerous ports and protocols and be asked to drag and drop them to match the ports with the protocols.) What ports do FTP and SFTP utilize?

21, 22 Explanation OBJ-2.1: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses ports 20 and 21. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) uses port 22. Port 23 is used by Telnet. If this were a question on the real exam, you would see a list of ports on one side and a list of protocols on the other, and you would drag and drop each one to match them up. (It might also have 4-6 different pairs to match up.)

What port should be configured in a firewall to block secure terminal communication?

22 Port 22 is used by SSH (Secure Shell), the encrypted terminal communication protocol.

What is the voltage standard in Europe?

220 - 240 VAC, 50Hz

A recent U.S. high school graduate is attending a university overseas in Europe. The graduate has a desktop and swaps out the power supply unit (PSU) to match European standards. What does the high school graduate swap out the PSU for?

220V In Europe, the voltage is 220-240 VAC (high-line). AC voltage supply varies by country and by the nature of AC distribution circuits. Consequently, PSUs have quite a wide tolerance in each band.

USB-C

24-pins connector TR: 5-10 Gb/s

Your desktop computer is currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to avoid having to expand again next year while still meeting your need to store more data?

3 TB HDD Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the size of the storage being installed and not the storage speed. Therefore, we should choose the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) over the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) due to its larger size.

Which of the following form factors of storage devices are NOT used in laptops?

3.5" Explanation OBJ-1.1: A 3.5" drive is only used in desktops and some networked file servers. The larger 3.5" magnetic drives are the standard size used by desktop computers and do not fit into a laptop's smaller form factor. Laptops most commonly use 2.5" and 1.8" magnetic drives. In modern laptops, you will often find an M.2 form factor SSD installed.

A PC operator is building out a new system to replace an engineering technician's older system. The new system is rated 2400 MT/s. The engineer wants to maximize the amount of RAM. Which amount should they put in?

32 GB DDR4 is rated at a data rate of 1600 to 3200 MT/s and can achieve a transfer rate of 12.8 to 25.6 GB/s. The max size supported is 32 GB.

Which of the following ports is used by LDAP by default?

389

Overheating can be a common problem with mobile devices due to their compact design. There are usually safeguards built into the device to initiate a shut-down if the temperature gets too high. What temperature is generally considered too warm? 20⁰C 70⁰C 10⁰C 40⁰C

40⁰C If the internal temperature reaches the maximum safe level, the device's protective circuitry will trigger a shutdown. Overheated batteries can become swollen or unable to charge. In general, temperatures over 40⁰ Celsius are too hot.

Which cellular technology is comprised of LTE and LTE-A to provide higher data speeds than previous cellular data protocols?

4G Explanation OBJ-1.4: 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps.

Order these technologies from slowest throughput to fastest: SATA Revision 3.2 - 16 Gbit/sec 10GBASE-T - 10 Gbit/sec One stream of 802.11ax - ~1.2 Gbit/sec Thunderbolt v3 - 40 Gbit/sec USB 3.2 Gen 1 - 5 Gbit/sec

5. One stream of 802.11ax - ~1.2 Gbit/sec 4. USB 3.2 Gen 1 - 5 Gbit/sec 3. 10GBASE-T - 10 Gbit/sec 2. SATA Revision 3.2 - 16 Gbit/sec 1. Thunderbolt v3 - 40 Gbit/sec

A computer enthusiast receives a 3-D printer and decides to build a laptop case since their current laptop keeps overheating. So the enthusiast wants to design something that has better airflow. The computer enthusiast is creating the area for the internal hard drive but needs to make sure it is tall enough. Which of the following is NOT a standard height? 5.5 mm 7 mm 9.5 mm 15 mm

5.5 mm Devices with 2.5-inch form factors can vary in height, with 15 mm, 9.5 mm, 7 mm, and 5 mm form factors available. However, 5.5 mm is not a standard size.

A customer is upset that their laptop is too slow during the bootup process and when loading programs. The laptop is configured with an Intel i7 processor, 16 GB of RAM, a 500 GB HDD operating at 5400 RPM, and a dedicated GPU with 8 GB of RAM. Which of the following upgrades should you install to best increase the system's performance?

512 GB SSD Explanation OBJ-1.1: Based on the system specifications, the system's slowest part appears to be the 5400 RPM hard disk drive (HDD). Therefore, replacing the HDD with a solid-state device (SSD) would dramatically increase the loading speeds as the operating system and other programs are read from the storage device during bootup and when loading programs. Another viable option would be to purchase a faster HDD, such as operating at 7200 RPM or 10,000 RPM. Still, though, an SSD would be faster than a higher RPM HDD, so it remains the best answer. If the laptop had 4GB or less of memory then it would be appropriate to increase the memory to 8GB or 16GB to increase the speed. An integrated GPU cannot be upgraded on a laptop since the integrated GPU is built into the CPU of the laptop, nor could a dedicated GPU be added to most modern laptops.

A network administrator can configure a small office home office (SOHO) router to provide an IPv4 address configuration to hosts without further administrator attention. A technician wrote some notes about IPv4 addresses used in various networks associated with the company support tickets. The technician assigned one of the addresses to the WAN interface of a SOHO router that requires troubleshooting. Which of these addresses must it be? 52.165.16.254 169.254.1.121 224.100.100.1 192.168.100.52

52.165.16.254 The WAN interface of the router must use an IPv4 address from a valid public range, so 52.165.16.254 is the only one to use on a SOHO router.

You have been asked by Dion Training to build a specialized computer that will be used exclusively for running numerous virtual machines simultaneously for their lab environment. Which of the following should you install to BEST meet the company's needs? (Select TWO)

64 GB of DDR4 Intel i9 with 8-cores Explanation OBJ-4.2: According to CompTIA, the two main things you need to include for a dedicated virtualization workstation are (1) maximum RAM and (2) multiple CPU cores. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 64 GB of DDR4 (maximum RAM) and the Intel i9 with 8-cores (multiple processor cores) for this workstation's configuration. The CPU should support virtualization and be a multicore processor. The memory should be fast and contain at least 16 GB of RAM to host numerous VMs effectively.

Which of the following ports should a client use to automatically request an IP address from the server?

67 Explanation OBJ-2.1: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses port 67 and is a network management protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for automatically assigning IP addresses and other communication parameters to devices connected to the network using a client-server architecture.

Which of the following is a public IP address?

68.24.91.15

A graphic artist expands operations to print in-house and saves costs by using their equipment. The artist purchases Energy Star 80 plus rated laser printers and wants to ensure that the power circuits can handle the load. The artist knows that the largest spike in power consumption is when the primary charge roller (PCR) applies a 600W electrical charge across the imaging drum's surface. What should the artist use for energy consumption calculations for each printer?

750W The PCR applies a 750W charge to the imaging drum. An Energy Star 80 Plus compliant power supply unit (PSU) must be 80% efficient at 20-100% load. This means that 0.80 divided into 600 W would give an expected output of 750W.

RJ45

8 position 8 conductor (8P8C) connector

Which of the following is a public IP address? 10. 3. 2. 1 169. 254. 2. 1 8. 4. 2. 1 192. 168. 2. 1

8. 4. 2. 1 Explanation OBJ-2.5: The IP address of 8.4.2.1 is public and is therefore routable. The IP address of 10.3.2.1 is a private Class A IP address, and therefore non-routable. The IP address of 192.168.2.1 is a private Class C IP address, and therefore non-routable. The IP address of 169.254.2.1 is an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Address), and therefore non-routable.

Which of the following is a public IP address?

8.4.2.1 Explanation OBJ-2.5: The IP address of 8.4.2.1 is public and is therefore routable. The IP address of 10.3.2.1 is a private Class A IP address, and therefore non-routable. The IP address of 192.168.2.1 is a private Class C IP address, and therefore non-routable. The IP address of 169.254.2.1 is an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Address), and therefore non-routable.

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps?

802.11a Explanation OBJ-2.3: The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. Unfortunately, when this was first released, the radios to operate with this standard were fairly expensive, so it did not sell well or become widespread.

Your company is currently using a 5 GHz wireless security system, so your boss has asked you to install a 2.4 GHz wireless network to use for the company's computer network to prevent interference. Which of the following can NOT be installed to provide a 2.4 GHz wireless network?

802.11ac Explanation OBJ-2.3: Wireless networks are configured to use either 2.4 GHz or 5.0 GHz frequencies, depending on the network type. 802.11a and 802.11ac both utilize a 5.0 GHz frequency for their communications. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 5.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds.

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 9.6 Gbps?

802.11ax Explanation OBJ-2.3: The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.

A network administrator has configured a wireless network to use a 160 MHz channel width on the 5 GHz band. Which of these wireless standards is in use?

802.11ax The 802.11ax (or Wi-Fi 6) standard can operate at 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz, and supports 20, 40, 80, and 160 MHz channel widths.

Which of the following network standards allows a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device?

802.3af Explanation OBJ-2.2: Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets. The 802.3at (PoE+) standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers. The 802.11ac standard defines a 5 GHz wireless networking standard. The 802.11s standard defines the usage of wireless mesh technology.

What are the dimensions of a MicroATX motherboard?

9.6" x 9.6" Explanation OBJ-3.4: The mATX (microATX) motherboard's form factor is 9.6" x 9.6" in size (24 cm x 24 cm). The mATX form factor is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. An mATX motherboard is backward-compatible with the larger ATX motherboard since it contains the same mounting point locations as the full-size board.

Which of the following is an example of a valid IPv6 address?

::1 Explanation OBJ-2.5: IPv6 addresses are written as a series of up to 32 hexadecimal digits, but can be summarized using a :: symbol. The ::1 is the IPv6 address for the localhost. An IPv4 address consists of 32 bits. IPv4 addresses are written in dotted octet notation, such as 192.168.1.254. MAC addresses are written as a series of 12 hexadecimal digits, such as 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34. The other option, 192:168:1:55 is not a valid address since it uses : instead of a . in between the octets.

A computer repair specialist diagnoses an issue with a peripheral component interconnect (PCI) card for a user. The user has a much older computer but is replacing parts to improve the overall computer operations without paying the cost of a brand new computer. However, the specialist notices that the keying does not quite line up. What is the reason it is not working? The user plugged a 120V adapter into a 240V supply. A 3.3V card was inserted in a 5V slot. A 5V card was inserted into a 12V slot. A 5V card was inserted in a 3.3V slot.

A 3.3V card was inserted in a 5V slot. To prevent a user from inserting an incompatible PCI card into a motherboard slot (for example, a 3.3V card in a 5V PCI slot), the keying for the three types of cards is different.

Type 2 Virtualization

A Type 2 or hosted hypervisor is a virtualization software installed on top of the host operating system that supports virtualization. Since it works on top of an operating system, Type 2 hypervisors are not as fast, efficient, or secure as Type 1 hypervisors.

A cyber architect is capturing the various proprietary crash screens across various operating systems. What will the displays present when a crash has occurred? (Select all that apply.) A blue screen appears on the display. The screen displays a kernel panic or "Something has gone wrong" message. The screen freezes with a spinning pinwheel cursor. A blank screen appears on the display.

A blue screen appears on the display. The screen displays a kernel panic or "Something has gone wrong" message. The screen freezes with a spinning pinwheel cursor. If there is a serious fault, a Windows system will display a blue screen of death (BSOD). This typically indicates a system memory fault, a hardware device/driver fault, or corruption of operating system files. A macOS system that suffers catastrophic process failure shows a spinning pinwheel (of death), also called a spinning wait cursor. Linux displays a kernel panic or "Something has gone wrong" message.

A cyber architect is capturing the various proprietary crash screens across various operating systems. What will the displays present when a crash has occurred? (Select all that apply.)

A blue screen appears on the display. The screen freezes with a spinning pinwheel cursor. The screen displays a kernel panic or "Something has gone wrong" message. If there is a serious fault, a Windows system will display a blue screen of death (BSOD). This typically indicates a system memory fault, a hardware device/driver fault, or corruption of operating system files. A macOS system that suffers catastrophic process failure shows a spinning pinwheel (of death), also called a spinning wait cursor. Linux displays a kernel panic or "Something has gone wrong" message.

A software technician is conducting a help desk procedure with a correctly attached power supply, and the computer fans are running, yet the screen remains blank. What is likely causing the screen to remain blank? (Select all that apply.) A fault in the PSU (i.e., incoming electricity supply, power cables/connectors, or fuses) A faulty display POST procedure not executing Computer feels hot to the touch and overheating

A faulty display POST procedure not executing A blank screen can occur on a display when it is faulty, meaning that an internal issue keeps it from powering on and displaying information. A blank screen can also occur when the power-on self-test (POST) procedure is not executing correctly.

What is virtual memory?

A portion of the hard disk designated to function as additional RAM

What is a thermal printer?

A printer that can selectively heat specially coated paper so that the heated areas turn black. Cannot print grey.

What is a voltage rail?

A rail is a wire providing current at a particular voltage. A computer's power supply converts AC power into several DC voltages (typically plus and minus 3.3v, 5v and 12v), each of which is known as a rail. The term comes from the power lines on motherboards. Power must be available throughout a motherboard; hence, voltage lines tend to run in long strips like railroad tracks.

What are 12V rails used for?

A rail is simple a wire/path inside the PSU that carries electricity of a certain voltage. The 12v rail provides power for GPUs and CPUs, generally the two most power-hungry components. For a modern computer, the output rating of the +12 VDC rail (or rails) is the most important factor and the most heavily used.

What is swap space?

A swap space is a certain amount of space used by Linux to temporarily hold some programs that are running concurrently. This happens when RAM does not have enough memory to hold all programs that are executing.

Which hardware networking device implements Ethernet cabling and ports to repeat transmission from one device to another as a concentrator function instead of the outdated hub? (Select all that apply.) A switch A firewall An SDN controller A router or modem

A switch A firewall A router or modem

Cloud Computing

A system in which all computer programs and data is stored on a central server owned by a company (e.g. Google) and accessed virtually Cost is based on amount of use

Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

AGP Explanation OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the AGP slot on this motherboard. The accelerated graphics port (AGP) is a parallel expansion card standard that was originally designed for attaching a video card to a computer system to assist in the acceleration of 3D computer graphics. AGP has been replaced with PCIe due to its faster speeds. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

A PC technician looks at how a SATA drive communicates with the bus. What will the technician find?

AHCI Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA) uses the advanced host controller interface (AHCI) to communicate with the bus. Consequently, modern solid-state drives (SSDs) often directly use the peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) bus.

You have connected a new Smart TV to your home network and powered it on. When you try to access Netflix, you receive an error. You check the Network Status menu and see an IP address of 169.254.0.24. Which of the following types of IP addresses has your new Smart TV been assigned?

APIPA Explanation OBJ-2.5: Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature in operating systems (such as Windows) that enables computers to automatically self-configure an IP address and subnet mask when their DHCP server isn't reachable.

AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)

Accelerated Graphics Port is a parallel expansion card standard, designed for attaching a video card to a computer system to assist in the acceleration of 3D computer graphics. It was originally designed as a successor to PCI-type connections for video cards.

Communicates over wireless frequencies.

Access Point

A network engineer is installing a device allowing wireless devices to access the wired Ethernet network. Which of the following would BEST describe this technology?

Access point An access point bridges the 802.11 wireless network with a wired Ethernet network. Since the access point is acting as a bridge, it's making forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC (Media Access Control) address of the network frame.

What is a impact printer?

Also known as a Dot Matrix printer - Print head has a small matrix of pins - It presses against a ribbon to make a mark on paper - Contains heat sinks Tractor Feed - Uses tractor paper 11x 14 - Paper pulled through using holes Impact maintenance - Printer ribbon replacement - Design to be modular

A technician is troubleshooting a mobile phone that turns off after about an hour of normal use. Before powering off, the phone displays the message, "High temperature detected." The phone is used inside the building at room temperature, and is not used in direct sunlight. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?

An app is using a large amount of CPU Electronic devices generate a lot of heat, and the amount of heat from a CPU increases dramatically as it is used. Although most mobile devices will dissipate the heat using passive cooling, it's still possible to overheat the device in certain circumstances

Capacitor

An electrical device used to store electrical charge. Some computers store an electrical charge even after computer has been powered off.

What is a image drum?

An image drum is a vital part of a laser printer that is responsible for transferring the toner and image or text to paper. Image is drawn onto the photosensitive drum by the laser. The drum picks up toner and transfer it onto paper where it will be fused for final output. It has several different names, it's also called the imaging unit, drum unit or photoreceptor drum. The image drum is replaceable and can either be seperated from the toner or combined.

You have decided that you wanted to install a second operating system on your computer. After installing the OS and rebooting the computer, you see the "Operating System Not Found" error on your display. You verify that the boot.ini file is configured properly, but the error still appears. What is MOST likely causing this error?

An incompatible partition is marked as active Explanation OBJ-5.3: This issue may occur if one or more of the following conditions are true: (1) the basic input/output system (BIOS) does not detect the hard disk, (2) the hard disk is damaged, (3) sector 0 of the physical hard disk drive has an incorrect or malformed master boot record (MBR), (4) an incompatible partition is marked as Active, or (5) a partition that contains the MBR is no longer active. The only option provided in this list is that an incompatible partition is marked as active.

Vulnerability issues do not just affect PC operating systems and applications in enterprise networks. Any device or network appliance can be vulnerable to exploits from within and outside the network. With the rise of more personalized devices, the risks to embedded systems have become more evident. Which devices are considered a new and growing problem regarding these proposed risks? (Select all that apply.) Any unpatched device Mobile devices New motherboard, router, adapter, or other internal devices Internet of Things (IoT)

Any unpatched device Mobile devices Internet of Things (IoT)

A helpdesk technician evaluates a ticketed computer and, during the troubleshooting protocols, identifies an issue around disk/file corruption problems. Based on the disk/file corruption problems, what issue is occurring?

Application crash Application crashes are difficult to diagnose with a specific cause, especially if the technician is not able to witness the events directly. Some most likely causes are software, disk/file corruption problems, or malware issues.

What services are provided with SaaS?

Application, Data, Runtime, Middleware, OS, Virtualization, Servers, Storage, Networking

A company has contracted a remote data center to offer exclusive access to the platform as a service resource to its internal business users. How would such a cloud solution be classed?

As a private deployment model Private is a cloud infrastructure that is completely private to and owned by the organization.

Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

Audio connector Explanation OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the audio connector on this motherboard. This is used to connect the CD/DVD audio cable from the drive to the motherboard for digital audio. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

What is ADF?

Automatic Document Feeder

A technician is looking at SATA interface specifications and notices a particular key associated with it. A technician usually keys a SATA interface SSD as what?

B Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA) interface SSDs are usually B keyed. An M.2 socket may support both types of drive or only one on the motherboard. The technician should check the documentation.

A manager reviewed expenses to see where the company could cut costs and found that employees use the printer excessively for non-related business purposes. So, the manager wants to restrict printer access through authentication. Which of the following methods can the manager use to do so? (Select all that apply.)

Badges Badging means the print device gets fitted with a smart card reader. Employees must present their ID badge to the reader to start the print job. Server Ordinary users can connect to a network printer if the print server administrator has permitted them to use it. Sharing and security tabs The manager can configure the Sharing and Security tabs with a list of users or groups permitted to submit print jobs.

A computer enthusiast is completely modifying the inner workings of a computer, even down to the electrical level. The enthusiast has an ATX power supply unit and is looking at the wiring. Which of the following are accurate assessments? (Select all that apply.) Orange wires are 5V. Black wires are ground. Red wires are 3.3V. Yellow wires are 12V.

Black wires are ground. Yellow wires are 12V.

If a system overheats from time to time, what symptoms would a user notice when using the affected desktop computer? (Select all that apply.) Blank screen Intermittent shutdown One short beep Unusual odor

Blank screen Intermittent shutdown Unusual odor

A technician is building a new computer for Dion Training. The technician installs the motherboard, processor, memory, hard drives, and case fans, then they attempt to connect the cables to the appropriate connections. When the technician powers on the system, the fans spin, and the motherboard's LEDs light up. Unfortunately, the computer does not successfully complete the POST and the monitor remains blank. Which of the following did the technician likely forget to connect to the motherboard?

CPU 8-pin power cable Explanation OBJ-5.2: Based on the scenario, it is most likely that the technician forgot to connect the 8-pin CPU power cable. Without the CPU receiving power, the POST test cannot be run and the system will not boot up. If the motherboard power cable was not connected, then the motherboard's LED would not be lit. If the SATA 15-pin power cable was not connected, the system could still complete the POST and a "bootable device not found" error would be displayed on the monitor. If the case fan's power cables were not connected, the fans would not be spinning. Therefore, the right answer must be that the CPU power cable was not properly connected by the technician.

An employee's workstation will operate for a short period of time, but then it unexpectedly shuts down. When you check the workstation, you hear the hum of the cooling fans. What is most likely the issue?

CPU overheating Explanation OBJ-5.2: If a computer's CPU becomes overheated, the system will unexpectedly shut down the computer to protect the processor from damage. This usually occurs if the CPU's cooling fan isn't working properly, the heat sink is dislodged, or the thermal paste breaks down. In this case, you would need to remove the heat sink, remove the processor, reseat the processor, reapply thermal paste, reattach the heat sink, and reconnect the processor fan before rebooting the computer to solve this issue.

A system administrator needs to troubleshoot an intermittent connectivity issue on a client PC. While evaluating the patch cable, the system administrator finds exposed wire pairs, likely creating crosstalk or signal disruptions. After snipping the RJ45 cable, what tool would the sysadmin use to remove a small section of the outer jacket to expose the wire pairs?

Cable stripper

A network administrator has installed a fifty meter network connection from one side of the building to the other, and now he would like to make sure that the punch-downs and crimps are connected to the correct pins on each side. Which of these tools would be the best way to confirm the wiring map?

Cable tester A cable tester can quickly perform a wire map to determine if all of the wires were properly crimped or punched down on both ends of the cable.

A technician notices that the printer's output was not expected and needs to check the printer's control panel to investigate the problem. What does the technician need to check?

Calibration Calibration is how the printer determines the appropriate print density or color balance. Most printers calibrate themselves automatically.

What is a multimeter?

Can be used to measure current, voltage, or resistance coming out of your wall.

A computer technician disassembles a desktop computer and notices that some system chips are bulging on the motherboard. What can cause this type of observed issue?

Capacitor swelling

In which of the following situations would you be MOST likely to use a network tap?

Capture packets from a network link A network tap provides a physical connection for intercepting network traffic. The tap can send a copy of the intercepted traffic to a packet capture device or security tool.

A medium-sized organization expands operations and grows the administrative team to keep up with increased business. As part of expanding administrative capabilities for record-keeping, they have purchased an impact printer for its versatility in usefulness. Which of the following types of paper can the organization use?

Carbon Plain Tractor-fed The organization can use plain paper. It is held firmly against the moving roller (the platen) and pulled through the mechanism by friction as the platen rotates. The organization can also use carbon paper (or impact paper). It makes multiple copies of a document in the same pass (hence carbon copy, or "cc"). The organization can also use tractor-fed paper. It includes removable, perforated side strips. The holes in these strips secure over studded rollers at each end of the platen.

A network technician only needs to support network speeds of 100 Mbps. What is the lowest possible cabling standard the technician can use to accomplish this? Cat 5e Cat 6A Cat 6 Cat 5

Cat 5 Cat 5 cable supports the older 100 Mbps Fast Ethernet standard. It is no longer commercially available. A technician will probably need to rewire the network cabled with Cat 5 to support Gigabit Ethernet.

The accounting department has been relocated to a new area of the building, which is more than 70 meters away from the closest IDF. To comply with an SLA that requires that 10Gb speeds be provided, what type of media should be installed?

Cat 6a

A vulnerability manager is looking at the overall posture of an organization. Which of the following presents a unique challenge that can be harder to patch than traditional enterprise devices since they are often not connected?

Cellphone A cell phone (smartphone) or tablet is an OS designed to work with a handheld portable device. This type of OS must have a touch-operated interface. The main OSs in this category are Apple iOS, iPadOS, and Android.

An organization has tasked a network administrator with establishing a means of communicating with the new Internet of Things (IoT) smart meters. These IoT devices cover a large area with a limited line of sight. What would be the best solution for the network administrator to implement? Cellular Radio-frequency ID (RFID) Wireless Bluetooth

Cellular Cellular radio networking communications will reach further distances, regardless of line-of-sight issues, using mobile devices. It also enables the connectivity of the Internet of Things (IoT) devices, such as smart energy meters.

Which of the following technologies could be used in a licensed long-range fixed wireless system?

Cellular Explanation OBJ-2.3: Long-range fixed wireless can be licensed or unlicensed depending on the frequencies and power levels being utilized. For example, an 802.11 wireless network could be established using a directional antenna to connect two buildings over several miles using unlicensed frequencies and minimal power levels (under 200 mW) which are under the FCC limits. Alternatively, a microwave link can be established in the 4.91 GHz to 5.97 GHz unlicensed frequency range using a point-to-multipoint microwave antenna and transceiver system. Conversely, a user could purchase a licensed cellular fixed wireless system that requires a license from the FCC to operate to ensure they are not interfering with other users and services in the same frequency band.

Check for flex mode. Check for mismatched modules. Make sure the full complement is installed. Some CPUs and supporting chipsets have triple- or quadruple-channel memory controllers. In these architectures, if the administrator does not install the full complement of modules, the system will revert to as many channels as are populated. A configuration with mismatched modules may cause the system to operate in single-channel mode. Flex mode means that if A1 contains a 2 GB module and B1 contains a 6 GB module, it will enable the dual-channel mode for 2 GB of memory, and the remaining 4 GB from the module in B1 will work in single-channel mode.

A PC technician is researching why memory is not performing as expected. The technician tried installing quadruple channel memory, but it does not seem to be working as it should. What should the technician also check? (Select all that apply.) Check for mismatched modules. Make sure the full complement is installed. Check for flex mode. Check for bad RAM.

Check for mismatched modules. Check for flex mode. Make sure the full complement is installed. Check for flex mode. Some CPUs and supporting chipsets have triple- or quadruple-channel memory controllers. In these architectures, if the administrator does not install the full complement of modules, the system will revert to as many channels as are populated. A configuration with mismatched modules may cause the system to operate in single-channel mode. Flex mode means that if A1 contains a 2 GB module and B1 contains a 6 GB module, it will enable the dual-channel mode for 2 GB of memory, and the remaining 4 GB from the module in B1 will work in single-channel mode.

What are the benefits to a hard drive disk (HDD) Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (SMART) feature? (Select all that apply.) Check for RAID failure. Check for physical damage. Check data recovery options. Check performance issues.

Check for physical damage. Check performance issues. SMART can alert the operating system when detecting a failure. In addition, it includes various tests that can detect whether there is any damage to the device's storage mechanisms. SMART can run advanced diagnostic tests to check on performance issues that extend read or write times.

If the desktop computer has a blank screen after powering on, what can a user do to troubleshoot the issue? (Select all that apply.) Change the system time. Check internal cabling. Check for faulty interfaces. Research the BSOD error.

Check internal cabling. Check for faulty interfaces. The user may need to reseat or replace the internal data and power cables to the graphics processing unit (GPU). Ensure power is being transferred to the GPU properly. It is possible that a faulty adapter card or device is halting the power-on self-test (POST). Try removing one device at a time to see if the problem can resolve itself. Reseating video cables, for example, may help.

Peter is attempting to print to his office printer, but nothing comes out. Yesterday, his printer was working just fine. Peter does not notice any errors on the taskbar's printer icon. Which of the following actions should Peter try FIRST to solve this issue?

Check status of the printer server queue Explanation OBJ-5.6: When this issue occurs, it is often because the system properly sent the print job to the print queue, but the print queue has become stuck. If no error is shown in the taskbar's printer icon, the user should open the print queue to determine if the print job has become stuck. If it is, then the print queue can be emptied or reset.

A technician is troubleshooting a computer with a user's complaint that the device has no power. To isolate the cause for the issue, what tests can the technician conduct on the computer? (Select all that apply.) Check that other equipment in the area is working. Plug in a known-good basic electrical equipment, such as a lamp into the wall socket. Attempt to detect any burning smells from the computer. Disconnect extra devices.

Check that other equipment in the area is working. Plug in a known-good basic electrical equipment, such as a lamp into the wall socket. Disconnect extra devices. To isolate the cause of no power, the technician should check if other equipment in the area works. There may be a fault in the power circuit or a wider, complete failure of power (a blackout). Try plugging another piece of known-good basic electrical equipment, such as a lamp into the wall socket. If it does not work, the wall socket is faulty. Get an electrician to investigate the fault. Try disconnecting extra devices, like a plug-in graphics card. If this solves the problem, either the power supply unit (PSU) is underpowered and the technician needs to fit it with a higher wattage rating, or one of the devices is faulty.

A user on a Windows computer receives a limited connectivity message. They call the helpdesk to see how their issue can be resolved. What should the user check first? Check patch cords. Check for network congestion. Check that the network is the problem and not the host. Check the DHCP lease.

Check the DHCP lease. In Windows, a limited connectivity message specifically means that the host can establish a physical connection to the network but has not received a lease for an IP configuration from a DHCP server.

Rick has just received a new Google Pixel smartphone and installed all of his favorite apps, including a different style virtual keyboard. After about 6 months of use, he noticed that the smartphone has become slow, and the virtual keyboard is not responding properly when keys are pressed or becomes completely unresponsive. What is the FIRST solution to try to fix this issue?

Close the app in the background and restart the app Explanation OBJ-5.5: The simplest and most efficient way to fix unresponsive apps is to close the app running in the background and restart the app again. A custom virtual keyboard app can often cause performance decline and unresponsiveness, and the virtual keyboard will lock up. It is always a good practice to always close apps running in the background to reduce resource consumptions. If this doesn't solve the issue, then a soft reset or factory reset may be needed.

Cloud Deployment Models

Cloud model types that identify who has access to cloud resources: Public clouds are for any organization. Private clouds are for a single organization. Community clouds are shared among community organizations. Hybrid cloud is a combination of two or more clouds.

You just rebooted your Windows 10 workstation, and the desktop's background picture looks strange. Upon closer examination, you notice that only a few hundred unique colors are being shown in the image. Which of the following settings should you reconfigure?

Color Depth Color depth is either the number of bits used to indicate the color of a single pixel in a bitmapped image or video frame buffer or the number of bits used for each color component in a single pixel. In Windows 10, you can display up to 32-bits of color depth if your monitor supports it. A larger color depth number allows more unique colors to be displayed. If you only have 4-bit color, for example, you can only have 16 colors. With an 8-bit color depth, you can see 256 colors. Normally, most Windows systems are set to 16-bit (65,536 colors), 24-bit (16.7 million colors), or 32-bit (4.2 billion colors).

What is a fuser assembly in a laser printer?

Component that applies heat and pressure to melt the plastic toner powder and permanently bond it to the paper.

The printer in the Dion Training offices routinely has issues anytime there is a power outage. The printer is a multi-function, network-enabled printer that connects directly to the network switch using a CAT 5e cable. Which of the following should you do to resolve this continuing issue?

Configure a static IP for the printer Explanation OBJ-5.7: Since the problem always occurs after a power outage, the printer is likely turning on faster than the DHCP server. This could lead to the printer not getting a new IP address properly or the clients not locating the printer on the network. Therefore, you should configure a static IP for the printer (and any servers) on the network. Servers and shared printers should use a static IP instead of a dynamic assignment to prevent issues.

Which of the following signs would indicate an overworked hard drive disk (HDD) due to insufficient system random access memory (RAM)? Clicking sound Bad sectors Constant LED activity Missing drive in the OS

Constant LED activity Constant activity, often referred to as disk thrashing, can signify that there is not enough system RAM so that paging (virtual memory) is continually using the disk. It could also be a sign of a faulty software process.

If a legacy IBM computer was experiencing some heating that affected the memory controller, what beep code would a computer technician hear?

Continuous beep A continuous beep indicates a problem with system memory modules or the memory controller. Replacing the memory modules or reseating them can help to resolve this issue.

Which of the following would be MOST commonly associated with the management interface on a switch?

DB-9 The serial connectivity used with a DB-9 (D-subminiature size B, 9 pin) interface is usually associated with management ports on switches, router, and other infrastructure devices.

Your son accidentally knocked his laptop off his desk while it was charging. Your son picks up the laptop and notices that the laptop's battery will no longer charge. You begin to troubleshoot the problem to identify the cause. You ensure the laptop is connected to the power adapter and that the power adapter is plugged into a power outlet, but the laptop's battery will still not charge. Which of the following components was MOST likely damaged when the laptop was knocked off of the desk?

DC Jack Explanation OBJ-5.5: One of the most important parts of any good laptop is the DC power jack. This item allows you to charge your battery and provides you with a steady source of electricity. If it fails, your laptop will lose power and eventually be unable to turn it on. If your battery won't charge or will only charge if the connection is made at a certain angle, this is usually an indication that the DC power jack has failed. To rule out the battery or power adapter as the source of the problem, you can use a multimeter to ensure they are providing the right amount of power.

Which of the following components would require you to de-solder the old part from the laptop to install and solder in a new one?

DC jack Explanation OBJ-1.1: It is relatively common for the DC jack to fail over time. The DC jack can become loose over time, or the jack itself can become separated from the motherboard. Replacing a DC jack requires disassembling the laptop, de-soldering and removing the old jack, then soldering the new jack into place. Most laptop DC jacks are specific to the manufacturer and the laptop model. Cellular cards are usually installed in a Mini PCIe expansion card slot and are not soldered to the motherboard. The screen and the battery are not soldered in most laptops and can be replaced by removing and replacing screws. Some manufacturers have begun soldering screens and batteries in some of their models, but this is still not considered common practice. A DC jack is always solder to the motherboard in a laptop, therefore it is the best answer to this question.

An infrastructure engineer requests that a specific computer always gets a particular IP address when it connects to the network. They do not keep proper records of IP addresses, so they would rather not set the host's IP with a static address. What can the engineer use to ensure this host gets the requested address?

DHCP Reservation A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) reservation is a configuration that assigns a reserved or persistent IP address to a given host based on its hardware (MAC) address or other ID. A DHCP lease is an address configuration assigned by a DHCP server to a client for a limited time. The client is given any available address in the current DHCP scope. A DHCP scope is a range of consecutive IP addresses in the same subnet that a DHCP server can lease to clients. A DHCP client is a host computer that sends a request over UDP port 68 for a DHCP server to accept and reply with IP address configuration. The DHCP reply takes place over UDP port 67.

What is DKIM (domainKeys identified mail)?

DKIM, or DomainKeys Identified Mail, is an email authentication method that uses a digital signature to let the receiver of an email know that the message was sent and authorized by the owner of a domain.

What does DMARC do?

DMARC is an open email authentication protocol that provides domain-level protection of the email channel. DMARC authentication detects and prevents email spoofing techniques used in phishing, business email compromise (BEC) and other email-based attacks.

Which type of internet connection is terminated at a local switching center and requires a different media type between the switching center and the end customer?

DSL Explanation OBJ-2.7: DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection).

A system administrator is connecting a remote site to the Internet over a single pair of copper wires. Which of the following is the administrator using for this installation?

DSL modem DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) Internet connections use the same single copper pair of wires that are traditionally used by POTS (Plain Old Telephone Service) lines. DSL modems connect to this pair of wires and convert the signal to an Ethernet connection for other devices.

Multiple host servers exist on-premise and in the cloud for a manufacturing company. Users receive a warning that files are not saved during log-off when using a computer session hosted by these servers. What type of service does the manufacturing company use?

DaaS Provisioning a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) as a cloud service is often referred to as desktop as a service (DaaS). A technician can lock down virtual images in this environment to always use a fresh image.

What characteristics of Wi-Fi 5 (802.11ac) allow for increased bandwidth and support for modern networks? (Select all that apply.)

Designed to work only in the 5 GHz band Typically supports up to four simultaneous clients Downlink MU-MIMO Wi-Fi 5 works only in the 5 GHz band. A dual-band access point can use its 2.4 GHz radio to support clients on legacy standards (802.11g/n), but it will not support Wi-Fi 5 on that 2.4 GHz band. In Wi-Fi 5, downlink multi-user, multiple input, multiple output (DL MU-MIMO) allows the access point to use its multiple antennas to simultaneously send data to up to four clients. Wi-Fi 5 allows up to eight streams, though most Wi-Fi 5 access points only support 4x4 streams in practice.

Thermal Printer Maintenance

Different maintenance steps for a particular type of computer: - Replace paper as needed - Clean heating element to ensure continued performance. Be careful of heat. - Remove debris to avoid any blockage or interference.

What type of power does a computer use?

Direct current (DC)

A user has just printed a document and retrieved it but noticed black lines. What are black lines usually indicative of?

Dirty charge roller Black stripes or a whole black page indicate that the primary charge roller is dirty or damaged or that the high voltage power supply to the developer unit is malfunctioning. Try printing with a known good toner cartridge.

A human resources manager is preparing for a presentation and has printed out their presentation, but it is showing vertical lines. What does this probably indicate? Dirty charge roller Toner not fused to paper Driver problem Dirty feed roller

Dirty feed roller Vertical or horizontal line marks that appear in the same place (referred to as repetitive defects) are often due to dirty feed rollers.

You just installed an SSD into a laptop to increase the storage speed of the device. Which of the following should you configure to increase the lifespan of the newly installed SSD?

Disable regularly scheduled defragmentation of SSD Explanation OBJ-3.3: An SSD (Solid-State Drive) is limited in the total number of write functions that can occur over its lifespan. Due to the immediate ability of an SSD to locate data on the drive (since there is no spinning platter that must be moved to reach the right area to retrieve the data like a regular magnetic hard drive), there is no need to defragment an SSD. When you defrag a hard drive, especially an SSD, it will cause tons of small write accesses, reducing the hard drive's lifespan. And since data is not being read sequentially, it doesn't matter if the file is stored in a hundred different places; the performance will remain the same. Therefore, you should disable any regularly scheduled defragmentation tasks when using an SSD to extend its lifespan.

A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the motherboard needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion?

Distended capacitor Explanation OBJ-5.2: A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.

What is the sixth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Document findings, actions, and outcomes Explanation OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

A user in the marketing department would like to use a stylus to provide input through an external digitizer. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this requirement?

Drawing Pad A drawing pad connects to a desktop or laptop computer to provide very precise input using a digitizer and stylus.

Match the printer problem to the MOST likely diagnosis. A ghost image is printed on the same page as the original

Drum not cleaning properly The drum in a laser printer will rotate many times to print a single page. If the cleaning process isn't working properly, then a "ghost" image of the previous page contents may appear on the final output.

A data analyst is looking at a system with four 32-bit channels. The data analyst is most likely looking at what type of memory? (Select all that apply.)

Dual Channel DDR5 Double data rate 5 (DDR5) introduces a different type of data bus. Each memory module has two channels of 32 bits. When installed in a dual-channel memory controller configuration, this becomes four 32-bit channels. The DDR5 memory would have to be in a dual-channel memory for four 32-bit channels. There are effectively two pathways through the bus to the CPU with a dual-channel memory controller.

Which of the following modes of operation will allow a motherboard to create two independent 64-bit pathways to achieve 128-bits of data transfer per transaction from the memory to the CPU?

Dual-Channel Explanation OBJ-3.2: Dual-channel memory is a memory controller with two primary pathways through the bus to the CPU to transfer 128-bits of data in each transaction. Single-channel memory is any memory using one 64-bit bus between the CPU and the RAM. Triple-channel memory is any memory using three 64-bit buses between the CPU and the RAM. Quad-channel memory is any memory using four 64-bit buses between the CPU and the RAM.

Which of the following modes of operation will allow a motherboard to create two independent 64-bit pathways to achieve 128-bits of data transfer per transaction from the memory to the CPU?

Dual-channel Explanation OBJ-3.2: Dual-channel memory is a memory controller with two primary pathways through the bus to the CPU to transfer 128-bits of data in each transaction.

A chemical engineering specialist is researching what laser toner consists of to reverse engineer it and make a cheaper solution. What will the laser toner consist of?

Dyestuff Laser toner is composed of a fine compound of dyestuff and wax or plastic particles and is used in laser printers.

With cloud computing, organizations can expand resources as needed. Services expand rapidly with virtualization through metered utilization using a paid cloud service provider, allowing access to increased resources. What are some of the other benefits the cloud provides?

Elasticity Scalability High availability High availability (HA) is a requirement for short periods of downtime, typically due to planned maintenance and unscheduled outages. Scalability is the cost of supplying the cloud services based on the number of users receiving the service. The benefit for an organization is it can scale up or down services based on the need. Rapid elasticity is the cloud service provider's ability to handle changes to demand in real-time. Systems with high elasticity will be less affected in changes to service or performance when scaling up services.

A user has a newly issued smartphone that has corporate communication software installed. What can the user expect to sync while using Microsoft Exchange?

Email Most email systems store messages on the server, and the client device is used to manage them. A client device that uses technology such as ActiveSync can store a local copy.

What is the name of a computer system that is designed to perform a specific and dedicated function?

Embedded System Explanation OBJ-2.4: An embedded system is a computer system designed to perform a specific, dedicated function. These systems can be as small and simple as a microcontroller in an intravenous drip-rate meter or as large and complex as an industrial control system managing a water treatment plant. Embedded systems might typically have been designed to operate within a closed network. The network elements are all known to the system vendor, and there is no connectivity to wider computer data networks. A legacy system is no longer directly supported by its vendor. Networks often need to retain hosts running DOS or legacy versions of Windows (8.1 and earlier) or old-style mainframe computers to run services that are too complex or expensive to migrate to a more modern platform.

A computer technician tries to determine if a computer with an Intel i7 processor has virtualization enabled to run a second operating system within VirtualBox. Which of the following should be checked to determine if the system can run a virtual machine?

Enable virtualization within the BIOS Explanation OBJ-4.2: By checking the settings in the BIOS, it can be determined if virtualization was enabled. For an Intel processor, this option is usually listed as VT (Virtualization Technology). For an AMD processor, this is usually listed as AMD-V. Virtualization allows the system to run another operating system within a virtualized environment, such as VirtualBox, VM Ware, or Hyper-V.

You are troubleshooting a Windows 10 workstation for a customer. You have identified the problem and performed a quick backup of the system. What is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting methodology?

Establish a theory of probable cause Explanation OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

A network technician responds to a customer reporting that a workstation continually loses the connection to the network. The user explains that it occurs randomly, and it happens several times throughout the day. Which step of the troubleshooting method should the technician perform NEXT?

Establish a theory of probable cause Explanation OBJ-5.1: The scenario described in the question is best classified as "identify the problem", so the next step would be to "establish a theory of probable cause". The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary, (6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (7) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.

A user powers on a legacy IBM desktop computer, but it displays a blank screen, with a repeating set of short beeping sounds coming from the chassis. What can tech support do to troubleshoot this issue?

Examine the power supply. The repeating short beeps indicate there may be a power supply fault or motherboard problem. Examine those components to diagnose further or resolve the problem.

A car dealer recently set up an impact printer in their automotive repair shop. Unfortunately, the printer's output is now starting to crease the paper as it is printed which can lead to a paper jam during feeding. Which of the following might be causing these issues? (Choose TWO)

Excess paper in the feed path Incorrect paper size

A network administrator is pinging a site on the Internet and receives these results: C:\Users\professor>ping 9.9.9.9 Pinging 9.9.9.9 with 32 bytes of data: Reply from 9.9.9.9: bytes=32 time=618ms TTL=128 Reply from 9.9.9.9: bytes=32 time=816ms TTL=128 Reply from 9.9.9.9: bytes=32 time=627ms TTL=128 Reply from 9.9.9.9: bytes=32 time=727ms TTL=128 Ping statistics for 9.9.9.9: Packets: Sent = 4, Received = 4, Lost = 0 (0% loss), Approximate round trip times in milli-seconds: Minimum = 618ms, Maximum = 816ms, Average = 697ms Which of the following would BEST describe these state of this network connection?

Excessive latency An average response time of 697 milliseconds is relatively long, especially considering that most local devices will respond in 1 or 2 milliseconds. This large response time indicates significant latency between the local device and the remote site.

You are building a virtualization environment to host public-facing servers that must connect to the internet. This will require that you install several secured Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to a virtualized network and communicate with the host operating system and the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM?

External Explanation OBJ-4.2: If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select internal, each VM can communicate between the host and the other VMs. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.

True or False: You can plug 120V into a 230V wall socket.

FALSE

A parent, who works in information technology, started researching cameras and video recorders now that their child plays sports. The parent wants to record every game in the best standard possible, ensuring the storage can keep up with the filmed high-definition video. Which of the following offers the highest recording speeds?

FD624 UHS-III specifies two full-duplex rates; the fastest is 624 MBps (FD624). There are also four-speed variants. The original specification is up to 25 MBps, and UHS allows 108 MBps.

A client reports that their workstation is continually crashing when using certain applications on their macOS system. The system will stop working and display a spinning rainbow pinwheel on the screen. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this error?

Failure or corruption of the memory On a Mac (OS X) system, the "Pinwheel of Death" is used to indicate an error. The pinwheel appears as an endlessly spinning rainbow mouse pointer displayed on the screen. This usually occurs due to a memory failure or memory corruption in the system. The pinwheel is like the BSOD used in Windows. The Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is a "stop screen" that appears when the Windows operating system detects a critical error and literally stops the system so that the error doesn't cause any loss of data. All operating systems have some form of "stop screen," but the Windows version got the name BSOD since it was a screen with a full blue background and white text containing troubleshooting information and error codes.

An Android user recently cracked their screen and had it replaced. If they are in a dark room, the phone works fine. If the user enters a room with normal lights on, then the phone's display is dim and hard to read. What is MOST likely the problem?

Faulty ambient light sensor Explanation OBJ-5.5: The ambient light sensor appears to be broken or malfunctioning. The ambient light sensor may be too sensitive as it is taking in more light than usual. This can occur if the sensor is faulty or if the screen was replaced incorrectly, and the technician forgot to install the black gasket around the ambient light sensor. The auto-brightness setting being enabled would increase the brightness in a lit room and decrease the brightness in a dark room. If the device has a low battery, it may dim the display to save battery life but it would still be readable. If the display was defective, it would be difficult to read in all light conditions and not just in the bright room.

The desktop computer cannot find a bootable disk. What may be wrong with the hard drive disk (HDD)? (Select all that apply.) Faulty disk Low IOPS System memory fault File corruption

Faulty disk File corruption If the desktop computer fails to boot from the fixed disk, the disk may be faulty. A disk now showing light-emitting diode (LED) light activity or power to the disk could explain a faulty disk. If the desktop computer fails to boot from the fixed disk, file corruption may be on the drive. For example, the master boot record (MBR) may be corrupt.

What issue is occurring when there is no light-emitting diode (LED) lit on a hard drive disk (HDD)? Data loss Mechanical issue Faulty disk RAID failure

Faulty disk If disk activity lights (or LED status indicators) are not active, the whole system might not be receiving power, or the individual HDD could be faulty.

A network administrator needs to connect an Ethernet link between two buildings located across the parking lot from each other. The total distance between the buildings is approximately 400 meters. Which of the following technologies would be the BEST choice for this installation?

Fiber Fiber optic communication can extend over very long distances using light instead of radio frequencies. Since the maximum supported distance of most Ethernet connections using copper are one hundred meters, any type of connection needing additional distance would be a good candidate for fiber optic cabling.

Control the flow of traffic through the network.

Firewall

What network device uses ACLs to prevent unauthorized access into company systems?

Firewall Explanation OBJ-2.4: A firewall is a network security device designed to prevent systems or traffic from unauthorized access. An ACL is a list that shows which traffic or devices should be allowed into or denied from accessing the network. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or systems for malicious activity or policy violations. An IDS uses signatures, not ACLs. Content filtering is the use of a program to screen and/or exclude access to web pages or emails deemed objectionable. A load balancer distributes a set of tasks over a set of resources to make their overall processing more efficient.

What device uses an embedded adapter to forward traffic through hardware ports between public and private network segments? (Select all that apply.) Firewall Switch SOHO Router Patch panel

Firewall Switch SOHO Router A small office or home office (SOHO) will generally use a single wireless router, which combines the functions of a router, DSL/cable modem, Ethernet switch, and Wi-Fi access point to provide connectivity. The role of filtering allowed and denied hosts and protocols is performed by a network firewall. A basic firewall is configured with rules, referred to as a network access control list (ACL). An Ethernet switch provisions one port for each device that needs to connect to the network. The patch panel terminates cabling and does not establish any connections between the cable segments to any networks or internet to provide connectivity.

A cyber technician is reviewing CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model where it discusses the topic of gathering information from the user, identifying user changes, and, if applicable, performing backups before making changes. Which step covers this topic?

First Step The first step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model is to identify the problem, which includes gathering information from the user, identifying user changes, and, if applicable, performing backups before making changes.

What does Five9 do?

Five9 is an all-in-one cloud-based call center platform that makes it easy for business owners to manage their inbound and outbound communication in one place. The platform enables agents to communicate with customers via phone, email, chat, SMS, social platforms and more.

Which of the following is the MOST dangerous type of threat when using virtualization?

Four Channels Explanation OBJ-3.2: Since the motherboard says it supports quad-channel, and four sticks of memory are installed, it would be using four channels. By using a motherboard that supports a quad-channel memory controller, the motherboard is able to transfer up to 256-bits of memory per transactions (4 x 64-bits) to increase the bandwidth available for data transfer.

A cyber technician is reviewing CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model where it discusses referring to the vendor's instructions for guidance. Which step in CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model discusses this topic?

Fourth step The fourth step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, then implement the solution, including referring to the vendor's instructions for guidance.

You have been asked to connect three 802.11a devices to an 802.11g access point configured with WEP. The devices are within 20 feet of the access point, but they still cannot associate with the access point. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the devices not associating with the WAP?

Frequency mismatch Explanation OBJ-2.7: 802.11a operates in the 5 GHz band, while 802.11g operates in the 2.4 GHz band. Therefore, 802.11a devices will be unable to communicate with 802.11b or 802.11g access points. Wireless networks utilize three different frequency bands: 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz, and 6 GHz. The 2.4 GHz frequency band is used by 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n. The 5 GHz frequency band is used by 802.11a, 802.11n, 802.11ac, and 802.11ax. The 6 GHz frequency band is used by Wi-Fi 6E under the 802.11ax standard.

Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

Front connector Explanation OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the front connector on the motherboard. This area connectors the various wires to the front panel to include the LED activity lights for the hard disk drive and the power/reset buttons. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

A company wants to ensure that its mobile devices are configured to protect any data stored on them if they are lost or stolen. Which of the following should you enable and enforce through their MDM?

Full storage encryption Explanation OBJ-1.4: Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. Full storage encryption is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device's internal storage. The encryption key is stored in a protected portion of the device and can be used to remotely wipe the device if it is lost or stolen.

When printing a document on a laser printer, a user finds that all of the text on the page smears when touched. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

Fuser is damaged The fuser permanently melts the toner to the paper using heat and pressure. If the fuser is not working, the toner will easily smear when touched.

Match the printer problem to the MOST likely diagnosis. Toner smears and wipes off the paper

Fuser is not operational On a laser printer, the fuser is responsible for applying heat and pressure to melt the toner particles to the page. If the fuser is not operational, then the toner will not be permanently bonded to the paper.

A company switched cellular carriers and realized their existing cell phones are not compatible because they do not have a slot for a SIM card. What cellular standard do the phones not support?

Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM) allows subscribers to use a removable subscriber identity module (SIM) card to use an unlocked handset with their chosen network provider.

What are possible computer issues that could lead to sluggish performance? (Select all that apply.) Half-duplex network setting Low storage IOPS Loss of power Over-utilized CPU

Half-duplex network setting Low storage IOPS Over-utilized CPU A central processing unit (CPU) that is over-utilized by multiple applications and services simultaneously will cause a computer to be sluggish overall. Low storage input/output per second (IOPS) will cause the slow reading of data from the storage, which will lower computer performance. A half-duplex network setting would cause data to travel in and out of the computer at half the speed. This setting would cause applications to wait longer for data and operate even slower.

Rapid elasticity refers to the cloud computing system's ability to do what?

Handle changes to demand in real time. Rapid elasticity refers to the system's ability to handle changes to demand in real-time. A system with high elasticity will not experience loss of service or performance if demand suddenly doubles or more.

What is a print server?

Hardware or software so everyone can print

A cloud-based application is distributed across multiple data centers and will continue to operate if any of the data centers have an outage. Which of the following characteristics would BEST describe this configuration?

High availability High availability ensures that a service will always be available regardless of what might occur behind the scenes. Redundant systems are commonly used to provide high availability.

A computer technician is building a server that will run multiple virtual machines simultaneously. Which CPU technology should be selected so that the processor can utilize two logical cores?

Hyperthreading HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. This allows the system to run multiple cores for each operating system in a virtualized environment. Since the question asked about logical cores and not physical cores, the answer is hyperthreading and not a multi-core processor. A 32-bit CPU is a hardware item and used by low-end notebooks or thin clients. A dedicated GPU is a graphics card and would not help with running multiple virtual machines.

Which of the following cloud computing resources are MOST important when determining a cloud file-storage synchronization application's performance?

I/O Bandwidth Explanation OBJ-4.1: I/O bandwidth is the measurement of the amount of input and output operations that can be performed within a given time. The higher the I/O bandwidth, the faster and more efficient a cloud file-storage synchronization application will become. Applications that rely on large amounts of reading and writing of data require a high amount of I/O bandwidth. Disk speed is not nearly as important since most cloud file-storage systems use a virtualized file system for storage and do not rely on a single disk. Instead, they rely on a storage area network or a virtualized storage solution. The CPU and RAM utilization on the system would not have as large of an impact on the performance as the I/O bandwidth.

Wireless communication utilizes air as its data transfer medium. When communicating with electrical signals or pulses of light, what standard do cable-based copper and fiber local area networks (LANs) use?

IEEE 802.3 The 802.3 standard is the internet standard for Ethernet networks. Ethernet utilizes copper cabling and fiber optic cabling, where the fiber uses pulses of light, and copper sends electrical signals to transmit data.

A server technician sets up a small server at home to keep up with emerging technology and to learn in a test environment at home. However, the technician wants a low power consumption to use a small form factor. Also, since the technician is building it from scratch, what type of motherboard should the technician get?

ITX Small form factor (SFF) PCs are popular as home machines and mini servers. SFF PCs often use Via's Mini-ITX (Information Technology Extended) form factor.

Which of the following protocols operates over port 143 by default?

IMAP Explanation OBJ-2.1: The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389.

A system administrator needs to upgrade the hard drives in a RAID array. Which of the following would be the BEST measurement of read and write times on the new hard drives?

IOPS IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second) is a measure of read and write performance, and it provides a good comparison of performance between different storage devices.

A printer technician performs maintenance on a roller and wants to make sure that it gets cleaned properly according to standards. What should the printer technician use to clean it? Maintenance kit IPA Cold water Soft cloth

IPA Use IPA (99% Isopropyl Alcohol solution) and non-scratch, lint-free swabs to clean rollers and electronic contacts. Take care not to scratch a roller.

Dion Training wants to order some new laptops for their video editors. The video editors want to ensure the display has the best color accuracy when using a 60 Hz refresh rate. Which of the following types of displays should the company purchase to meet this requirement?

IPS Explanation OBJ-1.2: An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. IPS displays have great color accuracy, but they do not support higher refresh rates sought after by gamers.

ITX Small form factor (SFF) PCs are popular as home machines and mini servers. SFF PCs often use Via's Mini-ITX (Information Technology Extended) form factor.

An engineer at an organization quickly deploys a small network in a cloud space. The network includes a subnet and router hidden behind a firewall for software testing. What type of service includes the ability to roll out such a cloud-based network?

IaaS Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a means of provisioning IT resources, such as servers, load balancers, and storage area network (SAN) components, quickly.

The company administrator wants to provision IT resources, such as servers, load balancers, and storage area network (SAN) components, to deploy when they need them rather than purchase these components separately. Which service model would be best?

Iaas Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a means of provisioning IT resources, such as servers, load balancers, and storage area network (SAN) components, quickly.

A software technician is about to begin troubleshooting a computer for a company employee. What is the first step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model where the user gains information?

Identifying the problem Identifying the problem is usually initiated by the technician gaining details of the issue for the user of the system/device.

A cyber technician is creating a best practices guide for troubleshooting by using CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model. The second step of this model includes the establishment of a theory for probable cause. What should the technician consider when implementing this step in the model?

If necessary, conduct external or internal research based on symptoms. The second step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model is to establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious) which, if necessary, includes the conduct of external or internal research based on symptoms.

A cyber technician is creating a best practices guide for troubleshooting by using CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model. The third step of this model is to test the theory to determine the cause. What should the technician consider when implementing this step in the model? (Select all that apply.)

If the theory is not confirmed, re-establish a new theory or escalate. Once the theory is confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem. The third step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model begins with testing the theory to determine the cause. If the technician cannot confirm the theory, then it requires re-establishing a new theory or escalating to a supervisor. The third step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model begins with testing the theory to determine the cause, confirming the theory, and then determining the next steps to resolve the problem.

Dion Training has recently installed a new VoIP telephone service in their offices. The employees are now complaining that their phone calls are being dropped during the middle of their conversations. The company has a single 48-port gigabit ethernet layer 3 switch that supports their desktops, laptops, and VoIP devices. Which of the following should the company do to prevent VoIP calls from dropping?

Implement QoS Explanation OBJ-5.7: To prevent the calls from being dropped, quality of service should be implemented on the switch. Quality of Service (QoS) means using a network protocol to prioritize certain traffic types over others. Enterprise networks can use QoS protocols to make sure traffic such as Voice over IP calling or video conferencing is given higher priority than traffic where packets' timing is less important, such as ordinary file downloads.

POST card

In computing, a POST card is a plug-in diagnostic interface card that displays progress and error codes generated during power-on self-test (POST) of a computer. It is used to troubleshoot computers that do not start up.

A technician is troubleshooting a computer and discovers that the RTC battery on the motherboard is failing. As a result of the battery failing, what is occurring with the computer?

Inaccurate system date/time If the date or time displayed in the system firmware setup program is inaccurate, it can be a sign that the RTC battery is failing. The technician should replace it with the same size and type.

Runtimes on cloud function

Include an operating system, software required to execute and/or compile code written for a specific programming language, and software to support your functions.

Match the printer problem to the MOST likely diagnosis. Output shows non-readable garbled characters

Incorrect page description language It's important that the printing device and the printer are communicating with the same page description language (PCL). If the languages are configured differently, the printed output can appear as garbled text and graphics characters.

Incorrect paper size Excess paper in feed path Explanation OBJ-5.6: An impact printer is widely used in situations where multi-part documents, invoices, or contracts need to be produced on carbon paper. These printers use specialized paper fed through the printer by holes on the edges of the paper on what is called a tractor. The paper can crease if the wrong size paper is used or excess paper in the feed path causes bunching up of the paper being fed. The print head does not affect the feeding of the paper in an impact printer. The tension setting being incorrect will lead to the paper pooling or bubbling up during feeding, but it wouldn't necessarily cause creasing.

A user is reporting every page printed from a networked laser printer appears as garbled graphics and text characters. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

Incorrect printer driver The printer driver formats the print job into a language that the printer can understand. If the incorrect driver is used, the language sent to the printer may not be interpreted correctly and the output may appear very different than the original document. In extreme cases, the output may appear as unreadable pages of garbled text and graphics.

A computer operator is setting up memory in a computer and is curious how speed improvements occur to DDR RAM. So the operator begins researching. What will the computer operator find?

Increased Speed Bus Subsequent generations of double data rate (DDR) technology (DDR2, DDR3, DDR4, and DDR5) increase bandwidth by multiplying the bus speed. The transfer rate is the speed at which the memory controller can move data.

A system administrator has been assigned the task of installing an operating system, application, and data onto a cloud-based server. Which of these best describes this scenario?

Infrastructure as a Service IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides the CPU, memory, storage, and other infrastructure components necessary for the installation of an operating system and application.

Match the printer problem to the MOST likely diagnosis. The output prints in the wrong color

Ink cartridge is low An color inkjet printer commonly uses a combination of colors to create the final color output. These colors are often referenced as CMYK (Cyan, Magenta, Yellow, Key or black). If any of these base colors are out of balance with the others, the final mix on the page will not appear with the correct coloring.

An apprentice at a printer repair shop watched a senior technician replace a carriage belt. What type of printer is the senior technician performing maintenance on? Thermal printer Laser printer 3-D printer Inkjet printer

Inkjet printer The carriage system on an inkjet printer uses a stepper motor, pulley, and belt (to move the print head) along with a guide shaft (to keep the print head stable) and sensors (to detect the position of the print head).

You work as a computer technician for a production company that travels worldwide while filming and editing music videos. Due to the nature of video editing, you will be building a video production workstation for the company that will have the maximum amount of RAM, an 8-core CPU, a dedicated GPU, and a redundant array of solid-state devices for storage. You are now determining which power supply to install in the system. What is the MOST important characteristic to consider when choosing a power supply?

Input voltage Explanation OBJ-3.5: This question provides you with many details, but the key phrase in finding the answer is in the first sentence. This computer will be traveling worldwide, and the most important consideration will be the input voltage. If you choose a 120-volt power supply, it would be destroyed if plugged into a 240-volt outlet (commonly used outside the United States). Conversely, if you use a 240-volt power supply and plug it into a 120-volt outlet, it will not function due to the lower voltage. Therefore, you need to pick a power supply with dual voltage selection capability for maximum compatibility worldwide.

A cyber technician is creating a best practices guide for troubleshooting by using CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model. The first step of this model includes the identification of the problem. What should the technician consider when implementing this step in the model? (Select all that apply.)

Inquire regarding environmental or infrastructure changes. Gather information from the user, identify user changes, and, if applicable, perform backups before making changes. The first step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model is to identify the problem, including any inquiries regarding environmental or infrastructure changes. The first step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model is to identify the problem, which includes gathering information from the user, identifying user changes, and, if applicable, performing backups before making changes.

Your company uses a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) environment for employees to access their desktop applications. To allow employees access to the VDI environment, the company is installing thin clients in each employee's office. Which THREE of the following tasks must you first complete to install a thin client for a new employee?

Install the necessary applications Connect the thin client to the network Install the latest security updates Explanation OBJ-4.2: A thin client is a stateless, fanless desktop terminal that has no hard drive. All features typically found on the desktop PC, including applications, sensitive data, memory, etc., are stored back in the data center when using a thin client, most typically in a VDI or other environment. To set up a thin client, you will first connect it to the network, update its security software, and then install/configure any applications needed to access the VDI environment.

John connected his MacBook to the corporate network and is trying to print to the office's large network printer. John notices that the print job is failing to print. The other employees in the office are having no issues printing from their Windows workstations. Which of the following should be done to resolve John's issue?

Install the print drivers for OS X on the print server Explanation OBJ-3.6: You should install the print drivers for OS X (macOS) on the print server to ensure compatibility with MacBooks and iMac devices. Since the Windows users can print to the network printer without any issues, the printer and the network are working properly. Instead, the most likely explanation is that the print server does not have the print drivers for OS X (macOS) installed on it.

What components use -12V?

Integrated LAN, older serial ports, some PCI cards

A server administrator researches various chipsets for the organization's physical servers, which use x64 chipsets. Who are the main companies that make these chipsets? (Select all that apply.)

Intel AMD The x86 instruction set is extended for 64-bit operation as the x64 instruction set, developed initially by Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) as AMD64 or x86-64. Intel is another big chip manufacturer and refers to it as EM64T or Intel 64. x86 PC processors. Intel and AMD designed and manufactured these 64-bit platforms.

A network technician connects three temporary office trailers with a point-to-multipoint microwave radio solution in a wooded area. The microwave radios are up, and the network technician can ping network devices in all of the office trailers. However, users are complaining that they are experiencing sporadic connectivity. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

Interference Explanation OBJ-5.7: Microwave links require a direct line of sight (LoS) between the antennas to maintain a strong and effective link. These line-of-sight microwave link uses highly directional transmitter and receiver antennas to communicate via a narrowly focused radio beam. Since this microwave-based network is being run in a wooded area, there are likely some trees or leaves that are blocking the line of sight between the antennas. To solve this issue, they should trim the trees and branches to provide a clear light of sight or move the antennas to reestablish a clear line of sight.

If a system overheats from time to time, what symptoms would a user notice when using the affected desktop computer? (Select all that apply.) Intermittent shutdown One short beep Blank screen Unusual odor

Intermittent shutdown Blank screen Unusual odor Depending on what components are overheating, the computer may shut down intermittently at odd times. Sometimes, it may shut down right away if the central processing unit (CPU) is overheating. If the graphics processing unit (GPU) is overheating, it could cause the device to malfunction and not produce a video to the monitor. The monitor screen will be blank in this case. Unusual odors, such as a burning smell or smoke, will almost always indicate something is overheating. The power supply may be overheating in most cases, but even the motherboard can also overheat.

A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is reportedly having issues with turning off. What is likely occurring with the computer?

Intermittent shutdown Intermittent shutdowns can occur for various reasons, such as when the computer/device shuts down when not prompted to do so.

If a system overheats from time to time, what symptoms would a user notice when using the affected desktop computer? (Select all that apply.)

Intermittent shutdown Unusual odor Blank screen Depending on what components are overheating, the computer may shut down intermittently at odd times. Sometimes, it may shut down right away if the central processing unit (CPU) is overheating. If the graphics processing unit (GPU) is overheating, it could cause the device to malfunction and not produce a video to the monitor. The monitor screen will be blank in this case. Unusual odors, such as a burning smell or smoke, will almost always indicate something is overheating. The power supply may be overheating in most cases, but even the motherboard can also overheat.

Which of the following network configurations on a virtual machine are used to prevent the VM from accessing the internet, but still allow it to communicate with other VMs on the host and the host itself?

Internal Explanation OBJ-4.2: Virtual machines can have their network configured as internal to prevent them from communicating with the internet. When configured to internal, the VMs can communicate with each other and the host machine. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.

You are working on a customer's laptop. The image on the display suddenly becomes very dark and hard to see. You attempt to adjust the brightness and contrast of the laptop's display using the special function keys, but this doesn't brighten the display much. You pull out a bright flashlight and can see the image displayed a little better when using it. Which of the following components is MOST likely faulty and needs to be replaced?

Inverter Explanation OBJ-1.2: The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop's display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well. A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics.

FIlament 3D printer

Is a common type of 3D printer Fused Deposition Modeling (FDM) - Melt filament to print 3D objects Print a layer from bottom up and layers on top of each other 1. Large print bed than resin printer 2. Easy to manage filament 3. Minimum of mess 4. Fewer disposal issues 5. Very large printer bed

Resin 3D Printer

Is a stereolithography (SLA) 3D printing - Smooth and finely detailed 3D prints Resin is hardened using a light source 1. Ultraviolet light or laser 2. Layers are added to the bottom 3. Entire print is attached from the build platform and lowers down into the resin then moves up to get rid of excess The print bed - A flat adhesive surface - Resin printer prints at top - Needs to be level and clean - Prints stick to the bed - The "bed" is the location where the resin is hardened by the UV light at the botttom

A software technician is following the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model and is gathering information from the employee of the contracted vendor. What questions could the technician ask the employee to gain the desired information? (Select all that apply.) Is anyone else experiencing the same problem? How long has the problem been occurring? What are the exact error messages appearing on the screen or coming from the speaker? Has management been notified of this issue?

Is anyone else experiencing the same problem? How long has the problem been occurring? What are the exact error messages appearing on the screen or coming from the speaker? Before examining the computer, the technician should gather data from the user by asking what exact error messages are appearing on the screen or are coming from the speaker. Before examining the computer, the technician should gather data from the user by asking questions, such as the length of time the problem has occurred. Before examining the computer, the technician should gather data from the user by asking if anyone else is experiencing the same problem.

What is Volts?

Is the "electrical pressure" pushing the electrons.

A software technician is about to begin troubleshooting a computer for a company employee. What are the benefits of identifying the problem?

It allows the technician to gain information from the user, identify any user changes, and perform backups to the system if required. Identifying the problem is usually initiated by the technician gaining details of the issue for the user of the system/device.

A technician is reviewing the cyber ticket system and is reading through the documented findings and actions from the past 30 days. What benefit does this review provide the technician?

It provides the technician with an opportunity to review a complete description of the problem and its solution. Documenting the findings, actions, and solutions allows a user to review a complete description of the problem and its solution.

A cyber technician is currently reviewing Step #5 of the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model to verify full system functionality. What benefit does this step provide the technician?

It verifies that full system functionality has occurred, including preventive measures if required. Verifying full system functionality allows the technician to be fully satisfied that the actions performed have corrected the issue. During the verifying process, preventive measures should be in place to ensure the issue does not occur in the future.

Dion Training uses a VoIP conferencing solution to conduct its weekly staff meetings. When Jason is talking, some of the employees say it sounds like he is speeding up and slowing down randomly. Tamera is sitting in the office with Jason, and she says Jason is speaking at the same rate the entire time. Which of the following network performance metrics would be most useful in determining why the VoIP service is not presenting a consistent pace when delivering Jason's voice over the network?

Jitter Explanation OBJ-5.7: Jitter is a network condition that occurs when a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs. Jitter is a big problem for any real-time applications you may be supporting on your networks, like video conferences, voice-over IP, and virtual desktop infrastructure clients. A jitter is simply a variation in the delay of the packets, and this can cause some strange side effects, especially for voice and video calls. If you have ever been in a video conference where someone was speaking and then their voice started speeding up for 5 or 10 seconds, then returned to normal speed, you have been on the receiving end of their network's jitter. Latency is the measure of time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network. Usually, we measure network latency as the round-trip time from a workstation to the distant end and back. Throughput is an actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from the source to a destination. Bandwidth is the maximum rate of data transfer across a given network. Now, bandwidth is more of a theoretical concept that measures how much data could be transferred from a source to a destination under ideal conditions. Therefore, we often measure throughput, instead of bandwidth, to monitor our network performance.

Which of the following network performance metrics is used to represent variable delay experienced by a client when receiving packets from a sender?

What is KVM switch vs normal switch?

KVM switches can control PCs and servers, while console servers can control other serial and network-connected devices. KVM switches can only switch between the connected network devices, but console servers can access the system consoles of network devices to monitor and control their functionality.

Hearing three long beeps when powering on a legacy IBM desktop computer will indicate which of the following issues is occurring on the computer?

Keyboard issue Three long beeps would indicate a keyboard issue. First, check that a key is not depressed. Then, tap on every key or re-insert the keyboard USB into the computer to resolve.

What is the difference between licensed and unlicensed when using wireless technology to configure a bridge between two networks? (Select all that apply.) Licensed means the operator purchased exclusive rights to a band in a given location. Unlicensed means the operator uses a public frequency that anyone can use. Unlicensed means power focuses in a single direction over a wider area. Licensed means the power output of a device gets boosted by directionality.

Licensed means the operator purchased exclusive rights to a band in a given location. Unlicensed means the operator uses a public frequency that anyone can use.

After running a Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (SMART) diagnosis on a computer, with extended read/write times, the input/output per second (IOPS) matches the vendor's baseline. What could be the problem?

Limited hard drive capacity The Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (SMART) diagnosis measures the input/output per second (IOPS) on the drive. If this matches the vendor baselines, the technician must address other problems. One possible problem is a hard drive nearly at capacity.

A network administrator is installing a network link containing an LC connector. Which of the following would be the MOST likely connection for this link?

Link between buildings Connections between buildings tend to exceed the distance allowed for copper cabling, so fiber optics are often used to communicate over this extended distance. The LC (Lucent Connector) interface is a common fiber optic connector.

You have been asked by Dion Training to build a specialized computer that will be used exclusively as a gaming machine for beta testing some new video games they are developing. Which of the following should you install to BEST meet the company's needs? (Select FOUR)

Liquid cooling, 512 GB SSD, 7.1 Dolby Sound audio card, Dedicated video card with GPU Explanation OBJ-3.4: According to CompTIA, the four main things you need to include for a gaming PC are (1) an SSD, (2) a high-end video/specialized GPU, (3) a high-definition sound card, and (4) high-end cooling. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 512 GB SSD (instead of the 1 TB HDD), the dedicated video card with GPU (instead of the CPU with integrated GPU), the 7.1 Dolby Sound audio card (instead of integrated sound from the motherboard), and the high-end cooling (liquid cooling over fans) for this workstation's configuration.

What describes an IPv6 address of ::1?

Loopback Explanation OBJ-2.5: In IPv6, ::1 is the loopback address. In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1. The loopback address is used to send a test signal sent to a network destination to diagnose problems.

A network administrator is viewing the interface statistics on a WAN router and has noticed that error rates are increasing. The administrator has replaced the WAN cables, but the errors continue. Which of the following tools should be used to BEST troubleshoot this issue?

Loopback plug A loopback plug is useful when running diagnostics on a device interface. Data is sent out an interface, and the loopback plug redirects that data back to the same interface. By comparing the data sent and received, the technician can determine if an interface may not be operating properly

A curious child is watching a printer technician perform maintenance on a laser printer and sees the technician rocking a component back and forth. What maintenance task is the technician working on?

Low Printer Ink Removing a printer ink cartridge and rocking it gently from front to back can help get the most out of the cartridge. Frugal departments may continue printing until the actual output starts to dip in quality.

Which of the following technologies would allow an organization to secure and manage their customer enterprise applications that are installed on a user's smartphone or tablet?

MAM Explanation OBJ-1.4: Mobile application management (MAM) is software that secures and enables IT administrators to have control over enterprise applications on end users' corporate and personal smartphones and tablets. MAM software allows IT administrators to apply and enforce corporate policies on mobile apps and limit the sharing of corporate data among apps.

What is MAM and MDM?

MDM controls apps by controlling the device. MAM controls apps with specific features, such as a vendor-supplied app catalog, which customers typically can modify. MAM and MDM both provide app wrapping and app containerization features. MDM and MAM solutions accomplish very different objectives. MDM is ideal for complete control over a corporate device. However, MAM is often popular for bring-your-own-device (BYOD) environments where you only need control over company data and software assets.

Which of these devices would be used to configure an 802.1Q trunk?

Managed switch A managed switch includes features not found in an unmanaged switch, such as traffic prioritization, redundancy support, remote management, and VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) support for connectivity to other switches via 802.1Q

A system administrator has created a cloud configuration which automatically monitors utilization for usage-based billing. Which of the following describes this cloud computing characteristic?

Metered Metering will measure transaction activity, CPU utilization, storage use, and other important metrics. These are often used for billing purposes, where the customer will pay for CPU or storage by the application instance. However, this metering does not automatically add or remove instances.

What type of cloud service bills consumers based on the actual usage of the service and may charge different prices based on the time of day it was utilized?

Metered Services

Middleware in cloud computing

Middleware is software that lies between an operating system and the applications running on it. Essentially functioning as hidden translation layer, middleware enables communication and data management for distributed applications.

What components use +3.3V?

Modern motherboards, M.2 slots, RAM slots, motherboard logic circuits.

You are working as part of a PC refresh team installing 150 desktop computers in Dion Training's new offices. When you boot up the 72nd desktop you installed, you smell a foul-smelling chemical odor. You sniff the air again and confirm the smell isn't a burning smell. Upon opening the case, which component should you inspect for damage and expect to replace?

Motherboard Explanation OBJ-5.2: A foul smell is usually indicative of a distended capacitor. Capacitors are small electrical components on the motherboard. Therefore you should inspect the motherboard for replacement. If there was a burning smell, then the power supply should be the first component inspected.

A helpdesk technician is installing a printer at a remote office. Which of the following is the least to consider for setup?

Network data port The print device must have a power outlet and potentially a network data port. However, if there is wireless, the printer only needs a power outlet.

What would cause a central processing unit (CPU) to make only minor changes to the CPU internals that significantly improve performance and increase speed?

Multicore Multicore is a design that allows each core to communicate with the others, allowing the processing tasks to be divided and assigned properly. The multicore acts as a single unit. This allows for it to be more efficient.

Dion Training has asked you to verify that a server rack has been properly installed and grounded. Which tool should you utilize to verify that the server rack is properly grounded?

Multimeter Explanation OBJ-2.8: A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. If you use the lowest ohms (resistance) setting, you can touch the multimeter's black lead to a grounded metal surface and touch the red lead to each circuit wire. If you get a meter reading of zero ohms (low resistance), this indicates that the circuit is properly grounded. If you get a meter reading of infinity, O.L., Open Loop, or a needle that pegs high on the meter, this indicates an open circuit with no path to ground. A voltmeter can only measure the voltage, not the amperage or resistance of the circuit. A loopback plug is used to test a port. When you connect a loopback plug to a port, you should see a solid connection LED. You can also use the loopback plug in conjunction with diagnostic software. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively.

What is multi-part stationery?

Multipart stationery is paper that is blank, or preprinted as a form to be completed, comprising a stack of several copies, either on carbonless paper or plain paper, interleaved with carbon paper.

A marketing director purchased a printer for their office and is currently setting it up. Which of the following is the least of considerations for placement? No direct sunlight exposure Network data port Accessibility Air flow

Network data port The print device must have a power outlet and potentially a network data port. However, if there is wireless, the printer only needs a power outlet.

A customer contacts the service desk because their laptop will not power on when plugged in, and the battery is dead. The service desk replaces its battery, connects it to a different power adapter, and the laptop works all day until the battery runs out. Now, the laptop won't turn on, and the battery won't charge. Which of the following do you recommend to solve this issue?

NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) Explanation OBJ-3.3: NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) is a storage controller mounted on the motherboard. It utilizes a NAND chipset and connects via the motherboard's PCIe bus for increased speed. NVMe allows much higher transfer rates than SATA/AHCI. A solid-state drive (SSD) is a personal computer storage device that stores data in non-volatile special memory instead of on disks or tape. While SSDs also avoid spinning drives, they cannot be mounted directly onto the motherboard. A hard disk drive (HDD) is a device providing persistent mass storage for a workstation or laptop by saving data even when the computer is turned off. Data is stored using platters with a magnetic coating that are spun under disk heads that can read and write to locations on each platter known as sectors. Serial ATA (SATA) is the most widely used interface for hard disks on modern desktop and laptop computers. SATA uses a 7-pin L-shaped data connector with one device per port. SATA operates at bandwidths of 1.5 Gbps, 3 Gbps, or 6 Gbps. SATA drives can also use a 15-pin power connector.

What beep codes would a computer technician hear if a legacy IBM desktop computer is experiencing a motherboard issue? (Select all that apply.) No beep One long, three short beeps Three long beeps Repeating short beeps

No beep No beep may indicate a problem with the power supply, the motherboard problem, or a faulty onboard speaker. The technician should narrow down the issue by checking each component to rule it out, moving on to the next one until discovering the component causing the problem. Repeating short beeps Repeating short beeps would indicate a power supply fault or a motherboard problem. Check power cord connections to internal components, especially to the motherboard itself.

What beep codes would a computer technician hear if a legacy IBM desktop computer is experiencing a motherboard issue? (Select all that apply.) One long, three short beeps Three long beeps No beep Repeating short beeps

No beep Repeating short beeps No beep may indicate a problem with the power supply, the motherboard problem, or a faulty onboard speaker. The technician should narrow down the issue by checking each component to rule it out, moving on to the next one until discovering the component causing the problem. Repeating short beeps would indicate a power supply fault or a motherboard problem. Check power cord connections to internal components, especially to the motherboard itself.

When powering on a legacy IBM desktop computer, hearing one short beep code would indicate the computer is experiencing what sort of issue?

No issue One short beep indicates a normal power-on self-test (POST), meaning the system is OK. Computer technicians configure most modern PCs to boot silently, however.

A stand-alone application closes abruptly while the user remains logged on to the Windows desktop computer. What sort of internal issue would cause this application to crash?

Not enough memory capacity Applications need a certain amount of memory space to run properly. If there is not enough memory, the application may crash since it can no longer function.

A computer technician is replacing a failed power supply in a customer's gaming workstation that contains multiple hard drives and a dedicated graphics card. Which of the following are the two most important things for the technician to consider when selecting a power supply replacement for this system? (Select TWO) Dual Voltage Number of connectors Wattage Rating Dual rail

Number of connectors Wattage Rating Explanation OBJ-3.5: The technician must ensure that they select a new power supply with a high enough wattage rating and the right number/type of connectors. Since this is a gaming workstation with several hard drives and a dedicated graphics card, it is likely to require a large wattage rating and many connectors. Wattage defines the amount of power needed to power all the hardware in the system. The number of connectors defines the number of devices that can be powered from the power supply. The number of connectors defines the types of devices that can be powered from the power supply.

A librarian is trying to digitize old documents into their archive system. The librarian wants to scan text into digital documents so that scholars and researchers can search them easily. What should the librarian use?

OCR Optical character recognition (OCR) software can convert scanned text into digital documents, ready for editing.

Which cloud computing concept allows users to store files on a cloud-based server when necessary and copy that data from the cloud, and put it back on the device when space once again becomes available on the device?

On-demand Explanation OBJ-4.1: On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. In this question, the cloud storage is provisioned and deprovisioned automatically for the user, and thereby it would be categorized as on-demand.

OCR (Optical Character Recognition)

Optical character recognition (OCR) software can convert scanned text into digital documents, ready for editing.

How do you clean a laser printer?

Outside - Use water and isopropyl alcohol - damp cloth on the outside Inside - Wipe dust away - Wash toner from skin with cold water - Use alcohol on rollers - Laser printer vacuum

What are possible computer issues that could lead to sluggish performance? (Select all that apply.)

Over-utilized CPU Half-duplex network setting Low storage IOPS A central processing unit (CPU) that is over-utilized by multiple applications and services simultaneously will cause a computer to be sluggish overall. Low storage input/output per second (IOPS) will cause the slow reading of data from the storage, which will lower computer performance. A half-duplex network setting would cause data to travel in and out of the computer at half the speed. This setting would cause applications to wait longer for data and operate even slower.

Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

PATA connector Explanation OBJ-3.1: The area circled indicates the PATA connector on this motherboard. The parallel advanced technology attachment (PATA) used to be the main disk interface for computers until it was replaced by SATA connections. PATA was formerly called integrated drive electronics (IDE) or enhanced IDE (EIDE). Each PATA adapter supports two devices, commonly called primary and secondary. A PATA drive is connected to the bus by a 40-pin ribbon cable. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

You are building a Gaming PC to support a high-end virtual reality headset. The computer needs a high-end processor, lots of RAM, and a dedicated high-end graphics card. This graphics card will be installed in one of your expansion slots on your motherboard. Which of the following motherboard connections will most likely be used to connect the graphics card?

PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) Explanation OBJ-3.4: PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Graphics cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x16 expansion slots for their connectivity. The peripheral component interconnect (PCI) bus is used to provide low-speed connectivity to expansion cards but has been mostly replaced by the faster PCIe bus. The accelerated graphics port (AGP) is a parallel expansion card standard that was originally designed for attaching a video card to a computer system to assist in the acceleration of 3D computer graphics. AGP has been replaced with PCIe due to its faster speeds. USB is an external connection and not used to connect high-end graphics cards using an expansion slot.

What components your +12V in your computer?

PCIe adapters, hard drive motors, cooling fans, most modern components

When using a legacy IBM desktop computer, hearing two short beeps would indicate the computer is experiencing what sort of issue?

POST error A power-on self-test (POST) error occurs when a technician hears two short beeps. The monitor would present an error code to troubleshoot further.

When using a legacy IBM desktop computer, hearing two short beeps would indicate the computer is experiencing what sort of issue? No error System memory error POST error Video adapter error

POST error A power-on self-test (POST) error occurs when a technician hears two short beeps. The monitor would present an error code to troubleshoot further.

A software technician is conducting a help desk procedure with a correctly attached power supply, and the computer fans are running, yet the screen remains blank. What is likely causing the screen to remain blank? (Select all that apply.) Computer feels hot to the touch and overheating POST procedure not executing A faulty display A fault in the PSU (i.e., incoming electricity supply, power cables/connectors, or fuses)

POST procedure not executing A faulty display A blank screen can occur on a display when it is faulty, meaning that an internal issue keeps it from powering on and displaying information. A blank screen can also occur when the power-on self-test (POST) procedure is not executing correctly.

A software technician is conducting a help desk procedure with a correctly attached power supply, and the computer fans are running, yet the screen remains blank. What is likely causing the screen to remain blank? (Select all that apply.) POST procedure not executing A faulty display Computer feels hot to the touch and overheating A fault in the PSU (i.e., incoming electricity supply, power cables/connectors, or fuses)

An administrator would like to ensure the company's mobile devices are connecting to the appropriate towers. Which of the following provides a smartphone with this information?

PRL Some cellular providers will maintain a PRL (Preferred Roaming List) with information on how the phone should connect to the desired cellular tower. This PRL is often updated OTA (over the air).

An employee is preparing a printer share for professional desktop publishing and wants a printer driver that will work best for graphical design output. What should the employee use?

PS Adobe PostScript (PS) is a device-independent page description language (PDL) often used for professional desktop publishing and graphical design output.

Which cloud computing concept is BEST described as focusing on replacing the hardware and software required when creating and testing new applications and programs from a customer's environment with cloud-based resources?

PaaS Explanation OBJ-4.1: Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides the end-user with a development environment without all the hassle of configuring and installing it themselves. If you want to develop a customized or specialized program, PaaS helps reduce the development time and overall costs by providing a ready to use platform.

A government organization wants to develop their own application to process information, but they do not want to be responsible for maintaining the hardware or the database platform that the application runs on. Additionally, the organization does not want to be burdened with maintaining the integrity and availability of the database platform because they will be very busy with other responsibilities. Which service would be best for the government organization to pursue?

PaaS Platform as a service (PaaS) is correct. PaaS would provide IT hardware and the database platform on top of the hardware, but the customer must develop their app to run on top of the platform. The service provider will maintain the integrity and the availability of the platform for the customer.

A Windows administrator sets up a SQL server that is very resource-intensive on memory and never deallocates room in memory. They want to set up an area in case all the system RAM is eaten up. What should they set up?

Pagefile In a Windows system, the extended memory space on a disk is a pagefile. The memory controller moves static memory pages to the swap space to free up physical RAM and retrieves pages from the swap space to physical RAM when process execution requires it.

A support technician shipped a new phone to a user. The user wants to wirelessly hook the phone up to their car to play music. What will the user need to do to connect to the phone initially?

Pairing Pairing is the process of connecting Bluetooth-capable devices to each other.

A photographer wanted to expand the capability of the business and just purchased a used thermal printer, but it seems to be having some maintenance issues. Which of the following should the photographer check for thermal printers?

Paper debris Each receipt separates by ripping the paper across serrated teeth. However, this process can lead to bits of paper debris lodged in the mechanism if a user does not make a clean slice, and bits of leftover paper fall into the printer.

A company has just installed a VoIP system on its network. Before the installation, all of the switches were replaced with layer 3 multilayer switches to allow for the VoIP devices to be placed on separate VLANs and have the packets routed accurately between them. What type of network segmentation technique is this an example of?

Performance optimization Explanation OBJ-5.7: Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) performance optimization can help a business improve the quality of its video and audio communications over the Internet by decreasing the size of the broadcast domain through the creation of VLANs. Each VLAN can contain the VoIP devices for a single department or business unit, and traffic is routed between the VLANs using layer 3 multilayer switches to increase the performance of the voice communication systems. Performance optimization helps companies bolster the availability, accessibility, security, and overall performance of their networks. Compliance enforcement involves dividing up one network into smaller sections to better control the flow of traffic across the network and to restrict confidential data to a specific network segment based on a specific regulation or contractual requirement, such as PCI DSS segmentation requirements. A honeynet is an intentionally vulnerable network segment that is used to observe and investigate the attack techniques of a hacker or adversary. Separate public/private networking involves segmenting the network into two portions: public and private. This is often used in cloud architectures to protect private data.

You have been asked to configure your neighbor's SOHO network. Your neighbor wants to build a Minecraft server so that all their friends can play together over the internet. When configuring their firewall, where should you place the server?

Perimeter network Explanation OBJ-2.5: A perimeter network (formerly called a Demilitarized Zone or DMZ) is a portion of a private network connected to the Internet and protected against intrusion. Certain services may need to be made publicly accessible from the Internet (such as a web, email, or Minecraft server) and they should be installed in the perimeter network instead of in your intranet. If communication is required between hosts on either side of a perimeter network, then a host within the perimeter network will act as a proxy to take the request. If the request is valid, it re-transmits it to the destination. External hosts have no idea about what is behind the perimeter network so that the intranet remains secure. A perimeter network can be implemented using either two firewalls (screened subnet) or a single three-legged firewall (one with three network ports). In this SOHO network, it would use a single three-legged firewall approach to separate the perimeter network from the LAN and WAN. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a network that covers a geographical area equivalent to a city or municipality.

Which of the following is NOT categorized as wearable technology?

Phablet Explanation OBJ-1.3: Phablets are essentially large smartphones. Their size is smaller than a tablet but larger than a smartphone. Generally, smartphones that have screen sizes between 5.5" and 7" are considered phablets by manufacturers. Many phablets also come with a stylus for note-taking on the larger screen size instead of using your finger.

What cloud service type does a company subscribe to when there is a need for a backend database server for an online application?

Platform as a service (PaaS) Platform as a service (PaaS) provides resources between SaaS and IaaS. A typical PaaS solution deploys servers and storage network infrastructure (as per IaaS) and provides a multi-tier web application/database platform.

When the network installers install permanent cable, what tool will terminate wall ports and patch panels using insulation displacement connectors (IDCs)?

Punchdown tool

A technician is troubleshooting a computer with a user's complaint that the device has no power. To isolate the cause for the issue, what tests can the technician conduct on the computer? (Select all that apply.) Plug in a known-good basic electrical equipment, such as a lamp into the wall socket. Check that other equipment in the area is working. Attempt to detect any burning smells from the computer. Disconnect extra devices.

Plug in a known-good basic electrical equipment, such as a lamp into the wall socket. Check that other equipment in the area is working. Disconnect extra devices. To isolate the cause of no power, the technician should check if other equipment in the area works. There may be a fault in the power circuit or a wider, complete failure of power (a blackout). Try plugging another piece of known-good basic electrical equipment, such as a lamp into the wall socket. If it does not work, the wall socket is faulty. Get an electrician to investigate the fault. Try disconnecting extra devices, like a plug-in graphics card. If this solves the problem, either the power supply unit (PSU) is underpowered and the technician needs to fit it with a higher wattage rating, or one of the devices is faulty.

A network administrator plans to install a network of wireless access points with power supplied over data cabling. Each access point requires a 20W power supply. What version of Power over Ethernet (PoE) must the switch support to fulfill this requirement? (Select all that apply.) PoE+ (802.3at) PoE++/4PPoE (802.3bt) PoE-power injector An 802.3af switch

PoE+ (802.3at) PoE++/4PPoE (802.3bt) Power over Ethernet (PoE) 802.3at (PoE+) allows powered devices to draw up to about 25W, with a maximum current of 600 mA. Power over Ethernet (PoE) 802.3bt (PoE++ or 4PPoE) supplies up to about 51W (Type 3) or 73W (Type 4) usable power. Power over Ethernet (PoE) 802.3af allows powered devices to draw up to about 13W supplied as 350mA@48V, limited to 15.4 W, so the voltage drops over the maximum 100 feet of cable, resulting in usable power of only around 13W. The administrator can use a "power injector" or "midspan" with one port on the injector connected to a switch port and the other port connected to the device. However, the overall cable length cannot exceed 100m.

As a PC Technician, you are on the road most of the day and use a laptop. When you get back to your office at the end of the day, you would like to be able to quickly connect a larger external monitor, keyboard, and mouse to your laptop through a single USB port to perform additional work on the larger screen. Which type of device should you choose to provide all the functionality above?

Port Replicator Explanation OBJ-1.3: A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop.

A technician is using a printer that has text-to-raster conversion. Which of the following is this?

Postscript PostScript is Adobe's device-independent PDL and is often for professional desktop publishing and graphical design output.

PXE-based OS

Preboot execution environment (PXE), pronounced pixie, is a set of standards that enables a computer to load an operating system (OS) over a network connection. PXE can be used to quickly install an OS and is commonly used for both servers and clients.

The cooling fan controller in a server is failing. The server administrator has tested possible reasons for the failures and has created a plan for correcting the issue. Which of the following would be the best NEXT troubleshooting step?

Present the plan to the change control team Change control is an important part of the troubleshooting process for any organization. When the change control committee approves the plan, the fix can be tested and the issue can be documented

A systems administrator has added a new video adapter to a desktop computer, installed the latest video driver, and rebooted the system. When the system starts, it shows a Windows Stop Error before it reaches the login prompt. Which of the following would be the BEST next troubleshooting step?

Press F8 during startup and choose "Boot from last known working configuration" If a recent configuration causes a boot issue, Windows can restart the operating system using the last known working configuration. Each time Windows successfully boots, it makes a backup of that configuration. If the startup option to "boot from last known working configuration" is selected, that working backup is used instead of the current Windows configuration. This can help resolve Windows Stop Error issues like those detailed in this question.

An IT administrator enjoys tinkering with various technologies and has recently purchased a 3-D printer but bought a lower-end model. Which of the following components will the administrator need to calibrate for every print job manually?

Print bed A print bed or build plate is a flat glass plate onto which the material extrudes. The bed must be leveled for each print job and is usually automated, but cheaper printer models require manual calibration.

What component in a fused deposition model (FDM) 3-D printer is usually heated to prevent the material from warping?

Print bed Print bed, also known as the build plate, is a flat glass plate that extrudes the material. The bed is heated to prevent the plastic from cooling too quickly and creating a product warp.

An administrator is trying to print some customer letters on company letterhead, but there are no messages on the printer and no pages are printing. Upon examining the queue, five print jobs are pending and waiting to print. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

Print spooler has crashed The print spooler is responsible for storing print jobs, queuing them, and sending them to the printer. A print spooler crash would cause all print jobs to stop completely, regardless of which page type is specified for the output.

Class A IP Range

Public: 1.0.0.0 - 127.0.0.0 Private: 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 Subnet: 255.0.0.0 (8 bits) Number of Networks: 126 Number of Hosts: 16,777,214

What is the Postscript driver?

Printer language created by Adobe and is popular with high end printers.

What is the printer control language (PCL) driver?

Printer language created by Hewlett Packard.

What is Printer Share?

Printer sharing is the process of allowing multiple computers and devices connected to the same network to access one or more printers.

An organization moves its sales and marketing operations to the cloud. Unlike the organization's website, these systems are for internal use only. On what type of cloud model does the sales and marketing system operate?

Private A private cloud is a cloud infrastructure that is completely private to and owned by the organization. There is likely to be one business unit dedicated to managing the cloud while other business units use it.

You are building a virtualization environment to practice your penetration testing skills. This will require that you install several vulnerable Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to a virtualized network but should not communicate with the host operating system or the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM?

Private Explanation OBJ-4.2: The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select internal, it can communicate between the host and the VMs. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.

What type of cloud service does a company establish for its employees only?

Private cloud A private cloud is a cloud infrastructure that is completely private to and owned by the organization. There is likely to be one business unit dedicated to managing the cloud while other business units use it.

You are working as a network technician and need to create several Cat 5e network cables to run between different computers and the network jacks on the wall. The connections between the switch, the patch panel, and the wall jacks have already been installed and tested. Which of the following tools would NOT be necessary to complete this task?

Punchdown tool Explanation OBJ-2.8: A punchdown tool is used to connect a network cable (such as Cat 5e) to a patch panel, 110-block, or the inside portion of a wall jack, therefore it is not needed for this task. A wire stripper is used to remove the outer plastic shielding from the Cat 5e cable so that you can reach the inner wiring pairs. The cable tester is used to verify the electrical connections in a twisted pair or coaxial cable. A cable crimper is used to join the internal wires of a twisted pair cable with metallic pins houses inside a plastic connector, such as an RJ-45 connector.

Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network?

Purchase a RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect to the network. Explanation OBJ-3.6: The most convenient and least expensive way to connect the printer would be to buy an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter, which will allow you to connect the legacy printer to the network directly. Then, the printer will be accessed by all users directly from their computers while printing to it using the appropriate print drivers. Networks do not have USB connections, so you need to select a network connection type like RJ-45 to use instead.

The large multi-function printer in your office is shared between 12 people. Unfortunately, it has stopped working, and the technicians have determined it must be replaced. A new printer has been ordered, but it will be 2 weeks until it arrives. The only other printer available in your office is the manager's printer, but it is connected via USB to their workstation. One of the technicians would like to share the manager's printer with the other 12 employees for the next 2 weeks as a temporary workaround. Unfortunately, there are no spare wired network jacks available in the office to connect the printer to the network directly, but there is a wireless access point nearby. Which of the following is the BEST way for the technician to allow the 12 employees to access the manager's printer?

Purchase a portable wireless printer print server and connect the printer to it using USB Explanation OBJ-3.6: The BEST solution would be to use a wireless print server to connect the printer to it using USB. This wireless print server can then receive the print jobs directly from all of the network users. It is not recommended that the technician create a share on the manager's computer or set the printer configuration to the manager's IP address since all print jobs would fail anytime the manager shut down or restarted their computer. Using a USB drive to transfer the files to the manager's computer each time someone wanted to print is also not a good solution since this is difficult for the users and will be disrupting the manager's work every time someone needed to print something.

A technician did not install the full complement of modules, which would allow the system to revert to as many channels as are populated. What types of channels would allow this to happen? (Select all that apply.)

Quad-channel Triple-channel Technicians can use triple-channel memory controllers in some CPUs and supporting chipsets. Quad-channel memory controllers are similar to triple-channel as a technician can use them in certain CPUs and supporting chipsets.

A server administrator is building a web server with three hard disk drives. The storage for the server requires the fastest possible access and redundancy is not a primary requirement. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this server?

RAID 0 RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) level 0 does not provide any redundancy, but it will efficiently stripe data across multiple drives. RAID 0 does not require the duplication of data or calculation of parity, so it's commonly considered the fastest access of the RAID levels.

A computer technician is configuring a NAS for a company to store their corporate data. The technician has only two hard drives available for use and needs to ensure that the data's fault tolerance and redundancy. Which of the following would be is the best configuration to implement? RAID 1 RAID 0 RAID 5 RAID 10

RAID 1 Explanation OBJ-3.3: While either a RAID 0 or RAID 1 can be used with only two drives, only a RAID 1 will provide redundancy and fault tolerance. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. With a RAID 1, one of the hard drives can fail while the other drive can still operate until the bad drive is replaced. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks. A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks. A RAID 5 requires at least three hard drives to operate, and a RAID 10 requires at least four hard drives to operate; therefore, neither is an acceptable solution to this problem.

Which redundant array of independent disks (RAID) volume type would continue to run even after a single disk failure? (Select all that apply.) RAID 1 RAID 5 RAID 0 RAID 6

RAID 1 RAID 5 RAID 6 A RAID 5 volume operates on at least three hard drive disks (HDDs). A RAID 5 can continue to run up to one disk failure. A RAID 1 volume mirrors data across two disks. Therefore, the RAID 1 volume will continue to run up to one disk failure. A RAID 6 volume operates on at least four HDDs. A RAID 6 can still run up to two disk failures.

Which type of RAID should be used for a virtualization server that must have the fastest speed and highest redundancy level?

RAID 10 Explanation OBJ-3.3: RAID 10 offers the fastest speed, best reliability, and highest redundancy but is more costly as the overall disk storage will be greatly reduced. A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Which RAID solution will provide the BEST speed and redundancy for a backup and disaster recovery server?

RAID 10 Explanation OBJ-3.3: RAID 10 provides the system with both speed and efficiency. With RAID 10, the system has a mirror of striped disks for full redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10 configuration (also known as RAID 1+0) requires a minimum of four disks and mirrors data across a striped disk pair. This is not only the best option presented in this question but also the most expensive option. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Which redundant array of independent disks (RAID) type would support a mixture of performance and redundancy? RAID 0 RAID 10 RAID 5 RAID 1

RAID 10 RAID 10 is a nested RAID solution that combines RAID 1 + RAID 0. This nested solution requires a minimum of four hard drive disks (HDDs) to configure. It provides a mixture of performance and redundancy.

The desktop technician could not use an entry-level redundant array of independent disks (RAID) controller within a brand-new office workstation to improve data protection due to it not supporting which of the following RAID types? (Select all that apply.) RAID 5 RAID 10 RAID 0 RAID 1

RAID 5 RAID 10 RAID 5 is commonly available on mid- and high-level controllers. It would be able to support a single drive failure with a minimum disk group size of three hard drive disks (HDDs). RAID 10 is a nested RAID solution that combines RAID 1 + RAID 0. This solution requires a minimum of four HDDs to configure. It provides a mixture of performance and redundancy.

A digital graphics department has been using a SAN to store their image files. The team now reports that all of the files on the SAN are no longer accessible. Which of the following should be the FIRST thing to check on the SAN?

RAID array status A SAN (Storage Area Network) is a network-connected storage array. If the SAN is unavailable, then it's possible that the drive array is having a technical issue. The first thing to check on the SAN is the RAID array health and network connectivity. Once those are verified to be working, the troubleshooting can continue.

What is in a laser printer maintenance kit?

Standard kit - replacement feed rollers, new fuser unit, etc

A systems administrator sets up dual-channel memory in a system to increase performance. Which of the following does NOT require support?

RAM devices With a dual-channel memory controller, there are effectively two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the CPU, meaning that the system can send 128 bits of data per transfer rather than 64 bits. This does not require support from RAM devices, but it does from all others mentioned.

A network administrator is setting up a server to manage their routers and switches throughout the environment and push standardized configurations. The administrator wants to use memory which performs a hash calculation on the data value. What should the network administrator use? Virtual memory UDIMM RDIMM Swap space

RDIMM

What type of wiring standard is used with POTS?

RJ-11 (ANSWER) pots is plain old telephone system Explanation OBJ-3.1: POTS (Plain Old Telephone System) is an older standard used for telephone systems. An RJ-11 wiring standard is used to terminate both ends of a standard phone line. This is also used for DSL lines and VoIP ATA (Analog Telephony Adapter) devices.

Which system works out a device's location by triangulating its proximity to other radio sources through identifying and tracking objects using special tags?

Radio-frequency identification system (RFID) Radio-frequency ID (RFID) identifies and tracks objects using specially encoded tags that can be unpowered and passive, responding when scanned at close range or from a powered, active device within 100 m.

Which of the following is a security concern with using a cloud service provider and could result in a data breach caused by data remnants?

Rapid Elasticity Explanation OBJ-4.1: Rapid elasticity can be a security threat to your organization's data due to data remanences. Data remanence is the residual representation of digital data that remains even after attempts have been made to remove or erase it. So, when a cloud resource is deprovisioned and returned to the cloud service provider, it can be issued to another organization for use. If the data was not properly erased from the underlying storage, it could be exposed to the other organization. For this reason, all cloud-based storage drives should be encrypted by default to prevent data remanence from being read by others.

What options are available when using Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (SMART)? (Select all that apply.) Read test Confidence test File recovery Drive self-test (short)

Read test Confidence test Drive self-test (short) The confidence test is one of the options available on SMART. It is a short operational test to ensure the drive is simply operating properly. The drive self-test is a test on the internal workings of the individual disk. The short version just tests for common mechanical issues. A self-test failure will require a drive replacement. The read test simply tests the reading aspect of the drive. Therefore, long read times will result in performance issues overall.

How can a support technician recover data from a single disk failure in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) 6 volume? The data is not recoverable. Create a RAID 10 volume. Rebuild array with disk replacement. Create a RAID 5 volume.

Rebuild array with disk replacement. A RAID 6 volume can still operate when two hard drive disks (HDDs) fail. If one disk fails, the RAID volume can rebuild itself by replacing the failed disk.

A cyber technician is creating a best practices guide for troubleshooting by using CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model. The fourth step of this model is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. What should the technician consider when implementing this step in the model?

Refer to the vendor's instructions for guidance. The fourth step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, then implement the solution, including referring to the vendor's instructions for guidance.

A web server administrator has received a notification that disk 1 in a RAID 5 array has failed. Which of the following would be the BEST next step to resolve this drive failure?

Replace disk 1 and rebuild the array A RAID 5 (Redundant Array of Independent Disks, level 5) array is designed to maintain data availability in the event of a single drive failure. In this example, it's unlikely that the users even realized one of the drives on the array was suddenly unavailable because the array would continue to operate normally with all data intact. To resolve this issue, the bad drive would need to be replaced, and the array would rebuild the data on the new drive using the redundant data from other drives.

How can a technician recover data from a single disk failure in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) 1 volume? Create a RAID 5 volume. Create a RAID 0 volume. Replace the failed disk. Create a separate RAID 1 volume.

Replace the failed disk. A RAID 1 volume mirrors data across two disks. The data is recoverable by replacing the failed disk so the RAID volume can rebuild itself.

A user is complaining that they are hearing a grinding noise coming from their workstation. You begin to troubleshoot the issue and determine that it is not an issue with the hard drive but is instead caused by the power supply's fan. Which of the following actions would BEST solve this issue?

Replace the power a supply Explanation OBJ-5.2: If the fan in the power supply is faulty, replace the entire power supply. You should never attempt to repair or fix a broken power supply or broken power supply cooling fan due to the power supply's high voltage electrical components. When a fan creates a grinding sounds, this is evidence of an impending failure and the device needs to be replaced. Techicians should never open a power supply or replace any of its internal components, therefore the entire power supply should be replaced in this scenario.

You see some fading across your papers when printing things using a laser printer. The black color appears to be more faded than the other colors on your documents. What is the BEST solution to this problem?

Replace the toner cartridge in the printer Explanation OBJ-5.6: A symptom of low toner is faded or faint colors in your printed papers. Most modern printers will also indicate the amount of toner left using their on-screen display and present a warning message for low toner and an error message when the printer is completely out of toner. With color laser printers, there are four different toner colors used during printing: black, cyan, magenta, and yellow. If only the black appears to be faded, it is possible that it is running low on toner. This is a common problem since most employees print more black and white documents than color documents which leads to the black toner normally running out before the other colors.

A user complains that a laptop is slow. A technician concludes that the best solution is to remove the current mechanical disk drive with a faster solid-state drive. The technician opts to back up the user data and install a fresh operating system on a new drive. Which approach defines the technician's steps?

Replacement A replacement drive approach only has the data backed up from the old drive. The technician then fits the new drive to the laptop and reinstalls all software. Then the technician can restore user data from the backup.

Which button on a desktop computer begins a reboot of the computer without power being removed from the computer's components?

Reset Explanation OBJ-3.4: The reset button is usually located on the front panel of a desktop computer next to the power button. When the reset button is pressed, it allows the user to reboot the computer without releasing power from the system's components. This is often used when software has malfunctioned and caused the computer to halt or lock up. The power button is used to shut down or put the computer to sleep. There is usually not a dedicated suspend or hibernate button, but these are instead provided as software buttons in the operating system.

A board game enthusiast wants to print characters for the next campaign to bring an element of realism to the gameplay. The enthusiast uses an SLA 3-D printer but ran out of 3-D "ink." What should the enthusiast order for replacement? Powder FFF Resin Filament

Resin Stereolithography (SLA) uses liquid plastic resin or photopolymer to create objects cured using an ultraviolet laser. The most popular plastics are polylactic acid (PLA) and acrylonitrile butadiene styrene (ABS).

A cyber technician is developing and implementing a plan of action for the cyber team. What should the technician consider before putting the plan into action?

Review corporate policies and procedures. An effective change and configuration management system will help understand how different systems are interconnected. One must seek the proper authorization for a plan and conduct all remedial activities within the constraints of corporate policies and procedures.

You are attempting to install a full-sized PCIe network interface card into a 1U server, but it is too tall to fit into the machine. Which of the following do you need to install first to install the full-sized PCIe network interface card into the server?

Riser card Explanation OBJ-3.4: A riser card is a right-angle expansion card used to extend a slot for a card in a computer to make room to plug it in. They are most commonly used in low-profile, 1U and 2U rackmount chassis or embedded systems. Riser cards plug into their respective bus (they are available for PCI, PCI-X, AGP, AGP Pro, PCI Express, ISA, or other busses) and rotate the peripheral cards plugged into the riser card so that they are parallel with the motherboard. Riser cards are available in 1-slot passive risers up to 3-slot passive riser cards for 2U rackmounts. An AGP, SCSI, or PCIe x16 expansion card is a fixed size and shape that cannot be reduced to fit in a 1U server.

Dion Training just installed a file server in VLAN 101 and their user workstations in VLAN 102. The users are unable to access the new file server from their workstations. Which of the following devices needs to be installed to allow users in VLAN 102 to access the resources in VLAN 101?

Router Explanation OBJ-5.7: A router or other gateway device must be installed between two VLANs to allow connections to be routed between them. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An unmanaged switch operates out-of-the-box without any setup or configuration by switching network traffic based on MAC addresses and putting each switch port into its own collision domain. A hub, access point, and unmanaged switch are unable to route traffic and therefore would be unable to connect the two VLANs.

A technician has replaced a laser printer toner cartridge, but now the output does not appear as dark as the original toner cartridge. Which of the following would be the best way to address this issue?

Run a printer calibration A laser printer calibration allows the user to adjust the amount of toner used for the output. Different models of toner cartridges can cause the amount of toner output to vary, and the calibration process adjusts the toner output to the best levels.

If a user lost a file due to a corrupt block on a hard drive disk (HDD), how can desktop support try to get the file back for the user? Run a recovery utility. Use SMART utility. Change boot order. Replace the HDD.

Run a recovery utility. Data loss/corruption means that files stored in these locations cannot open or they simply disappear. Recover data from the device using a recovery utility.

A technician has just upgraded the memory on a desktop computer. After the computer runs for a few minutes, the system locks up completely and does not respond to keyboard or mouse input. After rebooting, no error messages are found in Event Viewer. Which of the following would be the BEST next troubleshooting step?

Run hardware diagnostics Issues that result in the system hanging without any additional information can be frustrating to troubleshoot. Since there are no error messages or log entries associated with the issue, the best option would be to perform a hardware diagnostic and at least confirm that the hardware is working as expected.

What services are provided with PaaS?

Runtime, Middleware, OS, Virtualization, Servers, Storage, Networking

A server administrator wants to use SSD storage for the company's server core operating system files. The company is not concerned with cost and wants the administrator to use the most reliable type. Which type should the server administrator use?

SLC The NOT AND (NAND) flash memory used in solid-state drives (SSDs) comes in different types. Single-level cell (SLC) is more reliable and more expensive.

Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as C?

SPDIF Explanation OBJ-3.1: This port is the SPDIF (Sony-Philips Digital Interface Format) connection. This is a fiber optic port used to transmit digital audio. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

Which of the following would be MOST associated with M.2?

SSD SSDs (Solid State Drives) are storage devices with non-volatile memory and have no moving parts. The M.2 interface is a small form factor interface allowing for high-throughput storage in a smaller footprint than a 2.5-inch storage drive.

A data center administrator is setting up new fiber drops and needs a commonly used connector since they are specific only to multi-mode networks. Which connector should the administrator use?

ST Straight tip (ST) is a bayonet-style connector that uses a push-and-twist locking mechanism, mostly for multi-mode networks.

A company that processes personal loans allows its employees to work from home but must still coordinate and work collaboratively with various other teams that handle different aspects of the loan. Since the company saves money by employees working at home, they have opted to buy low-cost multifunction devices for each employee to use and need to preconfigure settings before distribution. Which option would be the best setting for their situation? Scan to cloud Scan to email Scan to ADF Scan to SMB

Scan to cloud Scanning to the cloud would be ideal for users spread apart and working from home. Cloud services, such as OneDrive or Dropbox will generally be available as options on the device.

Your company's file server is using a RAID 5 configuration. You just received an alert from the server that states that "RAID is degraded" and that the "Local Disk 0, Physical Disk 3 has failed". Which of the following is the BEST way to fix this error?

Schedule an authorized downtime period, replace physical disk 3, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded Explanation OBJ-5.3: Since a RAID 5 has some built-in redundancy, it will continue to operate while in this degraded state without any additional redundancy since one of the drives has failed. It is best to schedule an authorized downtime period, replace the failed drive, rebuild the array, and confirm that the RAID is no longer reporting itself as degraded. During the rebuilding of the array, the system may perform extremely slowly, and users may experience a loss of service, which is why scheduling some downtime is necessary. Formatting the logical drive or changing a RAID 5 to a RAID 0 will cause data loss, and therefore they are not the correct answers.

Match the printer problem to the MOST likely diagnosis. Black vertical line runs down the length of the page

Scratched photosensitive drum The drum on a laser printer is a critical part of the printing process, and a scratch around the drum will appear as a line down the entire length of the printed page. On an inkjet printer, a clogged or dirty print head or cartridge could also cause a vertical line.

A cyber technician is reviewing CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model where it discusses the topic of conducting external or internal research based on symptoms, if necessary. Which step covers this topic?

Second step The second step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model is to establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious) which, if necessary, includes conducting external or internal research based on symptoms.

John is setting up 100 Windows 10 computers for a new corporate office. He wants to ensure that unauthorized applications are prevented from being installed during the bootup process. What feature should he ensure is enabled?

Secure Boot Explanation OBJ-3.4: The purpose of Secure Boot is to prevent malicious and unauthorized apps from loading into the operating system (OS) during the startup process. Secure Boot is enabled by default in Windows 10. When the PC starts, the firmware checks the signature of each piece of boot software, including UEFI firmware drivers (also known as Option ROMs), EFI applications, and the operating system. If the signatures are valid, the PC boots and the firmware gives control to the operating system. The OEM can use instructions from the firmware manufacturer to create Secure boot keys and to store them in the PC firmware. When you add UEFI drivers, you'll also need to make sure these are signed and included in the Secure Boot database. Full disk encryption is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device's internal storage. RAM integrity checking is conducted by default on most systems during the initial boot process but it doesn't check the contents of the memory for malware. The BIOS password would prevent the system from booting up without the correct password being entered, but this would not prevent unauthorized applications from being installed during the bootup process.

What is SPF in computers?

Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an email authentication standard that domain owners use to specify the email servers they send email from, making it harder for fraudsters to spoof sender information. SPF email policies are widely used across the globe and are currently defined by the IETF under section RFC 7208.

The network administrator is configuring a network attached storage (NAS) appliance. What file sharing protocol should the administrator use to allow access to Windows, Linux, and Apple macOS clients?

Server Message Block (SMB) TCP/445 The Server Message Block (SMB) protocol that implements Windows File/Printer Sharing is specifically for use on local networks only. Therefore, allowing access from the internet would be a security risk.

A web hosting company is home to many company websites. The model is such that a single server can host roughly five small low-traffic websites without changing the configuration. What service type does the web hosting company offer with these sites?

Shared resources Pooling shared resources means that the hardware making up the cloud provider's data center is not dedicated or reserved to a single customer account.

A developer has requested a server for testing a new application. To complete this request, the system administrator logs into his cloud console and allocates a new server configuration. Which of the following BEST describes the process of creating this server?

Shared resources It's common to place all of the computing resources in one place for all cloud services. As new cloud-based systems are created, the CPU, memory, storage, and other technologies needed to build these systems are allocated from this central pool of shared resources.

Sharing and security tabs Badges Server The manager can configure the Sharing and Security tabs with a list of users or groups permitted to submit print jobs. Badging means the print device gets fitted with a smart card reader. Employees must present their ID badge to the reader to start the print job. Ordinary users can connect to a network printer if the print server administrator has permitted them to use it.

Several users at an adjacent office building report intermittent connectivity issues after a new flag pole was installed between the two offices. The network technician has determined the adjacent office building is connected to the main office building via an 802.11ac bridge. The network technician logs into the AP and confirms the SSID, encryption, and channels are all correct. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this issue?

Signal Attenuation Explanation OBJ-5.7: The most likely reason is signal attenuation from the new flag being placed between the signal path which may be obstructing the line-of-sight between the antennas. Based on where the flag is precisely located, it is possible to only block the signal when the wind is blowing in a certain direction. This would lead to the intermittent connectivity experienced by the users caused by the signal attenuation when the flag is blocking the communication path between the antennas. DHCP exhaustion occurs when the DHCP server runs out of available IP addresses and stops issuing DHCP bindings. If DHCP exhaustion occurred, the users would not have received an IP address and they would have no connectivity instead of intermittent connectivity. The question does not mention anything about the antennas being moved or replaced recently, so it is unlikely to be an issue with the antennas since they worked previously with the same wireless network and distanced. Bandwidth saturation occurs if too many devices are on one WAN link, but nothing in the question indicates that more users have been added and causing an issue.

What is Single Sign-On (SSO)?

Single sign-on is an authentication scheme that allows a user to log in with a single ID to any of several related, yet independent, software systems. True single sign-on allows the user to log in once and access services without re-entering authentication factors.

A cyber technician is reviewing CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model where it discusses documenting the findings, actions, and outcomes. Which step in the troubleshooting model covers this topic?

Sixth step The sixth step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model is to document the findings, actions, and outcomes.

An engineer decommissions an on-premises email server as all email functionality is now a cloud subscription service. What type of cloud service does the email utilize?

Software as a service (SaaS) Software as a service (SaaS) is a model of provisioning software applications. Rather than purchasing software licenses, a business would access software hosted on a supplier's servers on a pay-as-you-go arrangement.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Software that is owned, delivered, and managed remotely and delivered over the Internet to contracted customers on a pay-for-use basis or as a subscription based on use metrics. Provider Managed - Application - Data - Runtime - Middleware - OS - Virtualization - Servers - Storage - Networking Example: Salesforce, Google Workspace apps, Microsoft 365, HubSpot, Trello, Netflix, Zoom, Zendesk Customer Relationship Management (CRM), Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP), Content Management System (CMS), Project Management Software, Sales, Marketing, eCommerce

What components use +5V in your computer?

Some legacy motherboard components

An Italian artisan is experimenting with printing digital artwork and has recently purchased a thermal printer. What special specific consideration will thermal printers need? Carriage system Thermal print heads Laser toner Special paper

Special paper Most direct thermal print devices require special thermal paper containing chemicals designed to react and change color as heated by the heating element within the printer to create images.

Thermal paper

Special paper that contains chemicals designed to react and change color as it is heated by the heating element within the printer to create images.

What is +5 VSB?

Standby voltage

What is a ISA adapter?

Stands for "Industry Standard Architecture." ISA is a type of bus used in PCs for adding expansion cards. For example, an ISA slot may be used to add a video card, a network card, or an extra serial port. The ISA is longer (by about two inches), and thus the I/O cards that connect via ISA tend to be bulkier as well. Their differences do not stop there. PCI is a significantly faster (in theory) bus. PCI has double (or in rare instances, quadruple) the bit-width, resulting in faster data transfer.

A system administrator is configuring a lab computer that will run five server VMs at the same time. Which of the following hardware resources will be the MOST important for this configuration?

Storage space Adding five virtual machines to a single device would require as much storage space as five separate operating systems. Of the available options, the system storage will be used the most.

Jason's laptop is having some issues when he is typing. He opened a Word document and attempted to type "The quick brown fox jumped over the lazy dog," but the screen displayed "Theqickbrwnfxjmpedverthelazydg" instead. It appears the O, U, and space bar are not functioning. What is most likely the issue?

Stuck keys on the laptop Explanation OBJ-5.5: Based on the keyboard only acting incorrectly with a few keys, it is likely the keyboard has some stuck keys caused by dirt or debris. If crumbs get under a key, it will cause it not to work properly. Due to the large size of the space bar key, it is often the first key to get stuck. To fix this, you should hold the laptop at a 90-degree angle to the desk and spray compressed air under the keys while rapidly clicking the stuck key to dislodge any dirt or debris. Stuck keys are different than sticky keys, though. Sticky keys are a Windows function that ignores a certain key is pressed and held for too long, such as the shift key being held down for 10 seconds.

A client connects to an IMAP server over port TCP/143, but this port is unsecure. Instead, the client wants a secure connection established using Transport Layer Security (TLS). What is the default port for the secure POP3/IMAP?

TCP port (IMAP) 993 or (POP3) 995

Jason wants to order a new gaming laptop for his son for his birthday. The laptop display must support a high refresh rate of 120 Hz or 144 Hz. Which of the following types of laptop displays should Jason purchase to meet this requirement?

TN Explanation OBJ-1.2: A twisted nematic (TN) LCD panel uses technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state. When an electric current is applied, the liquid crystal cells untwist, allowing light to pass through, resulting in a white display screen. TN displays can be made with high refresh rates of 120 Hz or 144 Hz which makes them popular with gamers. An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. IPS displays have great color accuracy, but they do not support higher refresh rates sought after by gamers. A vertical alignment (VA) LCD panel uses technology designed to have liquid crystals lay perpendicular to the glass substrate when power is removed and in a vertical position when voltage is applied. This allows light to move through the liquid pixels when voltage is applied and the image is then produced. VA displays are a good middle-ground between IPS and TN panel displays. A plasma display is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.

A security technician reviews the posture of client machines and finds that the core operating system is not protected. What can the technician do to protect it?

TPM During the boot process, the trusted platform module (TPM) compares hashes of key system state data (system firmware, boot loader, and OS kernel) to ensure no tampering has occurred.

A company would like to configure a Sender Policy Framework (SPF) record in their DNS. Which of the following should be configured in the DNS server?

TXT The TXT, or text record, can be used in a DNS server to specify the SPF information. The SPF record documents the list of email servers authorized to send emails for the domain.

What is the third step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Test the theory to determine the cause Explanation OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

You are working as a network technician and have been asked to troubleshoot an issue with a workstation. You have just established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology should you perform NEXT?

Test the theory to determine the cause Explanation OBJ-5.1: The next step would be to "test the theory to determine the cause" since you just finished the "establish a theory of probable cause" step. The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary, (6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (7) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.

A cyber technician is working on a computer issue and has established probable cause. Based on establishing the probable cause, the technician developed a plan of action. What step has the technician reached in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model?

Test the theory to determine the cause. Testing a theory to determine the cause allows the technician to review various theories surrounding the issue (or issues) and what action the technician has performed to remedy the issue.

A software technician is reviewing the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model and is examining the topic that discusses when a technician cannot confirm a theory and the steps to either re-establish a new theory or escalate it to a supervisor. What step in the model is the technician reviewing?

Test the theory to determine the cause. The third step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model begins with testing the theory to determine the cause. If the technician cannot confirm the theory, then it requires re-establishing a new theory or escalating to a supervisor.

Which of the following statements about the 5.0 GHz wireless frequency used by Wi-Fi is correct?

The 5.0 GHz frequency supports high data rates than 2.4 GHz. Explanation OBJ-2.3: The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than the 2.4 GHz frequency due to lower levels of congestion and interference. The 5.0 GHz frequency has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz frequency. The 2.4 GHz frequency has a longer wavelength than the 5.0 GHz frequency. The longer wavelength gives it the ability to cover a longer range using the same power output levels. The longer wavelength of 2.4 GHz makes it better at propagating through solid surfaces than the 5.0 GHz frequency.

A22. A server administrator has received an alert showing one drive in a RAID 1 array has failed. Which of the following would be the best way to resolve this alert? A. Replace the bad drive and resync the array B. Replace all drives in the array and resync the array C. Replace the bad drive and restore from backup D. Convert the array to RAID 0 and replace the drive E. Replace all drives in the array and restore from backup

The Answer: A. Replace the bad drive and resync the array A RAID 1 (Redundant Array of Independent Disks, level 1) array is a mirrored array, which means all of the information on one physical drive is also copied and maintained on a separate drive. If one drive fails, the drive with the redundant data continues to be available. To repair the array, the bad drive needs to be replaced and the data from the redundant drive is synchronized to the new drive

A53. What is the minimum category of unshielded copper cable for a 10 gigabit per second Ethernet link with a fifteen meter distance? A. Category 5 B. Category 6 C. Category 5e D. Category 6A

The Answer: B. Category 6 The physical characteristics of networking cables are separated into categories. An unshielded category 6 cable can support a ten gigabit per second 10GBASE-T network to a distance of fifty-five meters.

A29. What type of device connects multiple computers to the network, but becomes less efficient as network traffic increases? A. Switch B. Hub C. Repeater D. Router

The Answer: B. Hub A hub operates as a multi-port repeater, where incoming traffic is repeated to every other port in the hub. If more than one device attempts to communicate at the same time, these conflicting signals are called a collision. Each time a collision occurs, the sending devices have to stop transmitting, wait a random amount of time, and try sending the traffic again. If many devices are sending large amounts of data, the overall network efficiency will decrease as the number of collisions increase.

A39. A server administrator has been asked to configure the storage requirements for a new database server. The database owner requires the fastest performance and redundancy if a single drive fails. The storage array should support at least 8 TB of available space. Which of the following options would be the BEST choice? A. RAID 10 with 5,400 RPM, 8 TB drives B. RAID 5 with 10,000 RPM, 5 TB drives C. RAID 1 with 7,200 RPM, 8 TB drives D. RAID 0 with 15,000 RPM, 5 TB drives

The Answer: B. RAID 5 with 10,000 RPM, 5 TB drives The question is focused on three requirements; performance, drive space, and redundancy. This option provides the highest number of RPMs (Revolutions Per Minute), RAID 5 (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) redundancy, and drives with enough combined storage to support more than 8 TB (terabytes) of drive space.

A61. When pressing the power button on a desktop computer, the power indicator lights up but the computer does not display any message on the screen. The voltage at the wall outlet has been checked and it appears to be normal. The motherboard power connector voltage was checked, and the 12 volt pin was showing 6 volts. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue? A. The components that use 12 volt power are faulty B. The power supply is faulty C. The wall outlet voltage does not match the power supply D. The motherboard is faulty

The Answer: B. The power supply is faulty If the 12 volt line from the power supply to the motherboard is showing 6 volts, it's likely a problem with the power supply itself. A power supply replacement should be the next troubleshooting step for this system.

A54. An engineer has manually configured IP addresses for a small office that uses a cable modem for Internet connectivity. However, none of the devices configured with a manual IP address are able to browse Internet websites. All devices are connected to the cable modem with twisted-pair Ethernet cables. This is the configuration of one device: IP address: 192.168.1.7 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 192.168.1.1 DNS: 192.168.1.7 The engineer can successfully ping the local IP address and the default gateway address. Which of the following should be the NEXT troubleshooting step? A. Check for duplicate IP addresses B. Replace the Ethernet cable C. Check the DNS configuration D. Replace the cable modem

The Answer: C. Check the DNS configuration One of the most noticeable IP (Internet Protocol) configuration settings was the DNS (Domain Name Service) server IP address set to the same IP address the local device. Since DNS servers are commonly separate devices, it would be unusual to see a DNS configured with the same IP address of the local device. The next step should be to confirm the DNS settings with the local network administrator.

A17. A firewall is configured to block email transfers from a remote server. Which of the following ports is the firewall blocking? A. 443 B. 22 C. 23 D. 25

The Answer: D. 25 Port 25 is used by SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) to send email messages from devices and transfer those messages between SMTP email servers.

A63. A remote user is visiting their corporate office. They have connected their laptop to the wireless network, but the corporate Internet access is performing much slower than their remote site network. Which of the following would be the most likely reason for this issue? A. The default gateway is incorrect B. The laptop has been assigned an APIPA address C. The user does not have permission to use the wireless network D. There is interference with the wireless signal

The Answer: D. There is interference with the wireless signal The name of the wireless network, or SSID (Service Set Identifier) is normally broadcast to all nearby devices. If the SSID broadcasts are administratively disabled, the network name will not appear in the dropdown list of available wireless networks.

A computer used for testing high-resolution gaming displays has a highend video adapter and DisplayPort video connection. The computer works properly for word processing and spreadsheets, but it powers down after only a few minutes of graphics testing. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?

The CPU fan is faulty If a system powers off after some intense CPU (Central Processing Unit) utilization, then the issue is most likely associated with heat or power. Most computers have many different temperature sensors to recognize when the system gets too hot, and they will automatically power down to prevent damaging the CPU, memory, and other hardware.

A desktop technician moved a working graphics process unit (GPU) by hand (without a bag) to another workstation in the office to re-use. The next day, the user reported there was no video showing on the monitor. The user was able to turn on the computer as usual, and the computer is still on, awaiting desktop support. What may be wrong with the computer or the GPU? (Select all that apply.) The GPU does not have power. The motherboard is overheating. The desktop is experiencing the BSOD. There is damage to the GPU.

The GPU does not have power. There is damage to the GPU. The GPU card requires a connection to the motherboard and power. First, check that the power cable is plugged into the card and that the power supply is supplying power to the GPU. The GPU may have gotten damaged during transit, like the GPU may have short-circuited, or someone dropped it. Ensure the component gets transferred into an anti-static bag.

What is wattage?

The amount of volts and amps that a device needs.

A support technician replaces a Wi-Fi card in a laptop. The following day, the laptop user states that the company's Wi-Fi network signal is weaker than it was before. What does the technician find to be the likely problem?

The antenna is not connected. When replacing a Wi-Fi card, it is important to remember to connect the antenna. The connection is usually a wire with a terminating end that snaps onto the card.

A customer is trying to configure an 802.11b wireless card in an old laptop to connect to an 802.11g wireless router. When the customer scans for the wireless network's SSID (Dion-Corp), it is not displayed within Windows. What is the MOST likely reason that the SSID is not being displayed?

The broadcast is disabled on the wireless router Explanation OBJ-5.7: If the SSID (Secure Set Identifier) is disabled, then the wireless network name will not be broadcast to any available devices within range. Both Wireless B and G use the same frequency band (2.4 GHz) and would not cause this issue. Similarly, encryption that is enabled or disabled would not affect the SSID broadcast since the SSID is sent out in cleartext. DHCP support is used once a device connects to the network. Therefore it would not affect the SSID broadcast.

You have been asked to troubleshoot a digital projector in the home theater in your neighbor's basement. Your neighbor attempted to replace the projector's bulb, but after running for a few minutes, a message appears on the screen, and the projector turns itself off again. Based on these symptoms, what are the MOST likely causes of the projector continually turning off after just a few minutes of usage with a new bulb? (Select TWO)

The bulb's life counter needs to reset The cooling fan needs to be cleaned or replaced Explanation OBJ-5.4: Most projectors keep track of the life of a bulb/lamp using a life counter. If you forget to reset the life counter after replacing the bulb/lamp, the projector can often turn itself off since it believes the bulb/lamp still needs to be replaced. Another cause of a project turning itself off is when it overheats. This can be caused by an overly dirty cooling fan or a failed cooling fan. To solve this issue, simply clean or replace the cooling fan to prevent the projector from overheating.

A helpdesk technician is servicing a computer in which the employee is complaining about sluggish performance. What is the employee experiencing with this performance issue?

The computer is running below acceptable levels. Quantifying what "sluggish" really means and isolating the issue to a particular subsystem will help identify the probable cause. If the system performance is insufficient, then the technician can upgrade one or more subsystems.

A Windows administrator had to troubleshoot a virtual and physical server due to issues during boot. The resolution was to repair the master boot record (MBR) on one server and repair the extensible firmware interface (EFI) bootloader on the other server. What clues did the administrator notice that resulted in these previously mentioned actions? (Select all that apply.) The computer monitor stated, "OS not found." The Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (SMART) is off. The desktop showed the blue screen of death (BSOD). The VM console desktop displayed "Boot device not found."

The computer monitor stated, "OS not found." The VM console desktop displayed "Boot device not found." In the legacy MBR scheme, the MBR is in the first sector of the first partition of a disk. If corrupted or missing, a user may see "Boot device not found" on the screen. Modern and larger disks use the GPT boot scheme. The administrator usually installs the EFI bootloader here, and if corrupted or missing, it may show messages, such as "OS not found" on the screen.

During a presentation in a conference room, the lamp in an LCD projector is turning off after five minutes of use and back on ten minutes later. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?

The cooling process is failing If an LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) projector becomes overheated, it will automatically turn off to protect the bulb and other components. This is similar to the automatic protections found in laptop and desktop computers, and once the system cools down it can be restarted. If the cooling fans are blocked or not working, this process may continue the cycle until the cooling problem is resolved

The redundant array of independent disks (RAID) 0 volume reports a disk failure in a disk group of only two hard drive disks (HDDs). How would a desktop technician recover data in this case? The data is unrecoverable. Create a new RAID 0 volume. Create a RAID 5 volume. Replace the failed disk.

The data is unrecoverable. RAID 0 has no redundancy, so if one of the disks fails, the volume will stop working. RAID 0 only has special uses where speed is more important than reliability.

You just received a phone call from one of your customers regarding an old monitor. The monitor uses a VGA port, and the customer is worried because they only have an old VGA cable that has a few pins broken off. The customer asks you what would happen if they used that cable to connect the monitor over VGA. What would MOST likely happen?

The display will show incorrect colors on the screen Explanation OBJ-5.4: Unfortunately, a missing or broken pin or two can cause an array of issues. Each of the 15 pins is used to create a composite image on the screen. There are three rows of pins, with 5 pins per row. Due to the pinout of a VGA cable, if pins 1, 2, or 3 are missing, the display will be miscolored. If pins 13 or 14 are missing, the screen will not hold horizontal or vertical sync. The other pins are not used or are used as ground wires. Therefore, either the incorrect colors will show up on the screen, or the screen won't display at all. The other options are not possible.

What is a transfer belt and roller in a laser printer?

The image is transferred from all cartridges to the single belt and then to a single transfer roller. Pick up roller s pick up on single page at a time. It works with a separation pad to pull just the top sheet from the paper tray. Separation pad keeps multiple pages from coming threw. - Small and inexpensive - Easy to clean or replace

A user calls to report that they cannot connect to the internet and various other internal resources from their laptop. After a technician asks them what IP address their Windows laptop has, they report it has an address of 169.254.0.115. What problem is the user's laptop having?

The laptop cannot get an address from the DHCP server. Automatic private IP addressing (APIPA) is a mechanism for Windows hosts to obtain an address automatically that cannot contact a DHCP server to revert to using an address from the range 169.254.x.y. This is also called a link-local address.

24-pin P1 connector

The main motherboard power connector used today also called the 20+4 pin connector

The enterprise monitoring software for desktop computers in the office reported a "pre-failure" disk alert and high read times for a specific office computer. What symptoms could the desktop user describe to confirm the monitoring alerts? (Select all that apply.) The operating system loads very slowly. Disk LED lights are not flashing. There is a SMART alert notification. Desktop monitor shows, "No OS found."

The operating system loads very slowly. There is a SMART alert notification. High read times on a disk can cause the operating system (OS) on the disk to load very slowly. This could be due to mechanical issues or a system misconfiguration. Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (SMART) can alert the operating system when detecting a failure or pre-failure on a disk. A pre-failure alert means the disk is about to fail soon.

During a company meeting, a technician scribbled some notes about a firewall configuration on a whiteboard. The technician has listed only the port numbers 25 and 587. What is the purpose of these protocols that use these ports?

The ports are for message relay between SMTP servers to submit secure and unsecure messages for delivery.

A systems administrator has just installed a new server in a data center. When pressing the power button, there's no response from the server, no lights appear on the front display, and no fans are spinning. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?

The power supply switch is set to the wrong input voltage If the data center power provides 120 volts and the computer's power supply is set to 240 volts, the computer will not be able to start. Some power supplies will attempt to start with the lower voltage while other power supplies will not work at all. In either case, the computer is not going to perform properly with the lower voltage and may be damaged by the difference in expected voltage.

What is secure print?

The print job sits on the server or spooler for a specific printer until the user arrives and keys in a preset PIN. This PIN authorizes the user with the printer, which completes the job.

What is address space?

The range of virtual addresses that the operating system assigns to a user or separately running program is called an address space. This is the area of contiguous virtual addresses available for executing instructions and storing data.

What is a amperes (amps)?

The rate of electron flow past a point in one second. The electricity is flowing through a wire.

A cyber architect is capturing the various proprietary crash screens across various operating systems. What will the displays present when a crash has occurred? (Select all that apply.) The screen displays a kernel panic or "Something has gone wrong" message. A blank screen appears on the display. A blue screen appears on the display. The screen freezes with a spinning pinwheel cursor.

The screen displays a kernel panic or "Something has gone wrong" message. A blue screen appears on the display. The screen freezes with a spinning pinwheel cursor. Linux displays a kernel panic or "Something has gone wrong" message. If there is a serious fault, a Windows system will display a blue screen of death (BSOD). This typically indicates a system memory fault, a hardware device/driver fault, or corruption of operating system files. A macOS system that suffers catastrophic process failure shows a spinning pinwheel (of death), also called a spinning wait cursor.

A cyber architect is capturing the various proprietary crash screens across various operating systems. What will the displays present when a crash has occurred? (Select all that apply.) The screen freezes with a spinning pinwheel cursor. The screen displays a kernel panic or "Something has gone wrong" message. A blank screen appears on the display. A blue screen appears on the display.

The screen freezes with a spinning pinwheel cursor. The screen displays a kernel panic or "Something has gone wrong" message. A blue screen appears on the display. If there is a serious fault, a Windows system will display a blue screen of death (BSOD). This typically indicates a system memory fault, a hardware device/driver fault, or corruption of operating system files. A macOS system that suffers catastrophic process failure shows a spinning pinwheel (of death), also called a spinning wait cursor. Linux displays a kernel panic or "Something has gone wrong" message.

A newly deployed server has two disk volumes in operation. The first redundant array of independent disks (RAID) 0 volume contains two hard drive disks (HDDs) hosting the Windows Server operating system (OS). The second RAID 5 volume contains four HDDs, primarily created for data storage. Upon rebooting the server, the server displays a message, "OS not found." However, all drives are actively running. Why is the OS not loading after the reboot? (Select all that apply.) The LED status light is not flashing. The second volume is booting first. The bootable device cannot be found. The first volume may be corrupted.

The second volume is booting first. The bootable device cannot be found. The first volume may be corrupted. The first volume will not be able to boot properly if corrupted data exists. If the RAID controller cannot write or read data properly or if either disk malfunctions, corruption may occur. The second volume does not have a running OS. If the second volume boots, there is no OS to boot, and it will display a message, such as "OS not found." Although the HDDs are active, the data cable may not be connected properly. Check the cable, or the device will not be available to the motherboard.

An employee's computer is damaged, so they took it to the company help desk. The technician found that damage occurred to the power component. Which of the following most likely happened?

The user plugged a 120V adapter into a 240V supply. Plugging a fixed-input 110-120V adapter into a 220-240V power supply will likely cause damage.

A customer called the service desk and complained that they could not reach the internet on their computer. You ask the customer to open their command prompt, type in ipconfig, and read you the IP address. The customer reads the IP as 169.254.12.45. What is the root cause of the customer's issue based on what you know so far?

The workstation cannot reach the DHCP server Explanation OBJ-5.7: Since the customer's IP address is 169.254.12.45, it is an APIPA address. Since the workstation has an APIPA address, it means the DHCP server was unreachable. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. APIPA serves as a DHCP server failover mechanism and makes it easier to configure and support small local area networks (LANs).

A workstation in Dion Training's conference room is experiencing an issue when trying to boot up. When the workstation is powered on, the workstation displays an error stating that a bootable device cannot be found. The technician enters the UEFI environment and sees that the hard disk drive is no longer being recognized by the system. The technician shut down the workstation, opened the case, and verified that the memory modules and cables are properly connected to the internal hard disk drive. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the workstation's failure to recognize the internal hard disk drive?

The workstation's hard drive is failing Explanation OBJ-5.3: If the hard drive fails, the workstation will experience data loss or fail to boot up. Since the BIOS/UEFI does not recognize the internal hard disk drive, it has either failed or is disconnected. Since the technician verified the hard drive was properly cabled, the drive itself must have failed. If the boot order of the devices is incorrect, the system would still try to boot from each connected drive before issuing the no bootable device error message. If the system was overheating, it would cause intermittent reboots instead of failing to find a bootable device.

What is a port cluster?

There are several types of internal ports including PCI-e, SATA, CPU, and so on. There are also external ports like USB, PS/2, RJ-45, and beyond. Both are referred to as ports.

What are the three types of SLAs?

There are three basic types of SLAs: customer, internal and multilevel service-level agreements.

There is damage to the GPU. The GPU does not have power. The GPU card requires a connection to the motherboard and power. First, check that the power cable is plugged into the card and that the power supply is supplying power to the GPU. The GPU may have gotten damaged during transit, like the GPU may have short-circuited, or someone dropped it. Ensure the component gets transferred into an anti-static bag.

A cyber technician is cleaning a team computer and observes that the computer is showing signs of overheating. What does the technician observe to conclude that the computer is overheating?

There is damage to the circuitry of the computer. Excessive heat can easily damage the sensitive circuitry of a computer. If a system feels hot to the touch, the technician should check for overheating issues.

A company needs to purchase a new printer for an open work area. The primary requirement of this printer is to be as quiet as possible. Which of these printer types would be the best fit for this requirement?

Thermal Of the available options, thermal printers are the quietest. The only moving parts in a thermal printer are the motors that push the paper through the printer, and those motors are small and run almost silently.

Match the printer type to the technology: Heating Element

Thermal Printer

A cyber technician is reviewing CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model where it discusses first confirming the theory and then determining the next steps to resolve the problem. Which part of CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model covers this topic?

Third step The third step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model begins with testing the theory to determine the cause, confirming the theory, and then determining the next steps to resolve the problem.

A cyber technician is reviewing CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model that discusses when the theory is not confirmed, then the next step is to re-establish a new theory or escalate it. Which part of the troubleshooting model covers this topic?

Third step The third step in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model begins with testing the theory to determine the cause. If the technician cannot confirm the theory, then it requires re-establishing a new theory or escalating to a supervisor.

A technician is troubleshooting a computer turned in for booting issues. Upon turning the computer on, the technician hears the audible beep notification for a POST keyboard issue. What sound is the technician hearing for this power-on self-test (POST) issue?

Three long beeps Three long beeps during the power-on self-test (POST) is a warning that suggests a keyboard issue. The technician should check that a key is not depressed.

An audio-visual support technician assists a customer who normally uses a USB 3.0 display cable to connect, but the cable seems to have gone bad. What else could the technician likely use?

Thunderbolt 3 A USB device plugged into a Thunderbolt 3 port will function normally, but Thunderbolt devices will not work if connected to a USB port that is not Thunderbolt-enabled.

A graphics artist wants to put together the best possible machine since the plan is to do graphics-intensive processing. Which of the following can the graphics artist use to distinguish between memory that appears to be the same? PC-# value Transfer rate RAM type Timing

Timing

How do you select a power supply?

To figure out proper power supply size you need to do some calculations. Video adapters are usually the largest power draw. After you calculate the accurate number wattage double that number. Doubling the wattage allows room to grow your machine (upgrade).

A user in the accounting department is reporting that all of the printed pages from a networked laser printer are completely blank. Nothing appears to be written on any of the printed pages. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause of this issue?

Toner cartridge is faulty If the toner cartridge is completely empty or is not properly providing toner to the printer, then nothing will be printed on the final output.

A manager needs to electronically sign many documents while using a laptop. Precision is not required and there is very little money in the budget to spend. What does the manager choose to use as a solution?

Touchpad A touchpad is a navigation device that is built into laptops and acts as a mouse. Using a finger with the touchpad can cost-efficiently accomplish the manager's needs.

A local company is beginning to print multi-part stationery and wants to ensure there is less chance of skewing or slippage. What should they use?

Tractor-fed paper Tractor-fed paper contains removable, perforated side strips. This type of paper is more suitable for multi-part stationery as there is less chance of skewing or slippage since the end rollers fix the movement of the paper.

Which of the following components of a laser printer is used to apply an electric charge to the paper so that the paper attracts toner to it during the imaging process?

Transfer Roller

Which of the following components of a color laser printer is used to combine the 4 colors before printing them to the paper in one pass?

Transfer belt Explanation OBJ-3.7: The transfer belt is the component in a color laser printer that combines the 4 colors before printing it to the paper in one pass. The transfer roller is the component in a laser printer that applies an electric charge to the paper to attract toner from the photoconductor during the imaging process. The pickup roller is the component in a laser printer that turns above a stack of paper to feed a sheet into the feed roller. The duplexing assembly is a component that enables a printer or scanner to use both sides of a page automatically.

You are building a virtualization server that runs on Windows Server 2016. The server will host multiple virtual machines, each with a different operating system. Which type of hypervisor should you select for this environment?

Type 2 Explanation OBJ-4.2: A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an existing operating system. In this case, the scenario states that the virtualization server is already running Windows 2016, so you must install your hypervisor on Windows 2016.

An avid gamer receives a new rig that should handle games at their most intensive graphics settings. The gamer starts immediately and finds that the desktop runs quite warm, but the fans have not started kicking in yet. What is the first thing the gamer should check?

UEFI System settings can control most cooling fans, typically under a cooling, power, or advanced menu. The Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) can control this.

A marketing analyst is trying to connect an Apple device to a corporate PC, but the cable will not fit into the PC connections. What type of adapter should the analyst use?

USB The Lightning port is found only on Apple's mobile devices. A suitable adapter cable needs to connect a device to a PC, such as Lightning-to-USB A or Lightning-to-USB C.

A helpdesk operator sets up printers and looks at speeds with different connections. Which of the following operates at full-duplex?

USB 3 Iterations of USB 3.x introduced new connector form factors and upgraded transfer rates; each is full-duplex, so a device can send and receive simultaneously.

Which of the following types of USB connections can support up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device?

USB 3.0 Explanation OBJ-3.1: USB 3.0 can support providing up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

What connectors does a printer use to communicate with a computer?

USB type B is the most common with USB type A connection on the computer. Wireless connector RJ45/Ethernet

Which of the following cables supports both charging and data transfer with a non-directional connector inserted into a port on the device?

USB-C Explanation OBJ-3.1: USB-C can be inserted in any direction since it is designed as a non-directional connector. There are many other variations of USB cables in use today such as Micro-USB, Mini-USB, USB-A, and USB-B that can only be inserted into the port in a single direction due to the physical shape of their connector. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

If a system overheats from time to time, what symptoms would a user notice when using the affected desktop computer? (Select all that apply.) One short beep Unusual odor Intermittent shutdown Blank screen

Unusual odor Intermittent shutdown Blank screen Depending on what components are overheating, the computer may shut down intermittently at odd times. Sometimes, it may shut down right away if the central processing unit (CPU) is overheating. If the graphics processing unit (GPU) is overheating, it could cause the device to malfunction and not produce a video to the monitor. The monitor screen will be blank in this case. Unusual odors, such as a burning smell or smoke, will almost always indicate something is overheating. The power supply may be overheating in most cases, but even the motherboard can also overheat.

You have just installed a new hard disk drive into your computer, but the motherboard does not recognize it within the BIOS/UEFI. You have verified the drive is properly connected to the motherboard and the power supply with the correct cables, but it still is not recognized. Which of the following actions would BEST solve this problem?

Update the firmware of the motherboard Explanation OBJ-5.3: This type of error (drive not recognized) is usually the result of the motherboard's firmware not supporting a newer hard drive model or the cables not being properly connected. Since we already established that the cables were properly connected, we have to consider the firmware as the issue. To troubleshoot this issue, you should restart the computer and enter the BIOS/UEFI configuration. If the BIOS/UEFI does not recognize the hard drive, then the motherboard's firmware will need to be updated. If the BIOS/UEFI cannot detect the hard drive, then the operating system cannot detect the drive either (since it relies on the underlying BIOS/UEFI to make the connection). This means that you cannot format the hard drive or configure a RAID.

When users connect to the network, they use a basic hardware terminal to access a desktop hosted on a server. What structure is the user deploying?

VDI Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) refers to the use of virtual machines (VMs) to provision corporate desktops. Low-spec thin client computers replace desktop computers in a typical desktop virtualization solution.

Which of the following is the MOST dangerous type of threat when using virtualization?

VM Escape Explanation OBJ-4.2: VM escape refers to malware running on a guest OS jumping to another guest or the host. As with any other software type, it is vital to keep the hypervisor code up-to-date with patches for critical vulnerabilities. VM escape is the biggest threat to virtualized systems. A virtual network interface card (vNIC) represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization. VM sprawl is the uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs.

A member of the accounting department would like to work remotely while attending a conference in another city. Which of these technologies would BEST provide this functionality?

VPN A VPN (Virtual Private Network) would allow a remote user to connect to the corporate office over a secure encrypted tunnel.

Which of the following is the virtualization technology supported by most modern Intel processors?

VT Explanation OBJ-3.4: To use virtualization and have virtual machines running on a single workstation, you need to have a CPU specifically designed to support virtualization. For Intel processors, they must support VT or Virtualization Technology. If you are using an AMD processor, it should support AMD-V (AMD's virtualization technology). HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. Intel-V is a made-up term used as a distractor on this question.

What is the fifth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures Explanation OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

You just replaced a failed motherboard in a corporate workstation and returned it to service. About an hour later, the customer complained that the workstation is randomly shutting down and rebooting itself. You suspect the memory module may be corrupt, and you perform a memory test, but the memory passes all of your tests. Which of the following should you attempt NEXT in troubleshooting this problem?

Verify the case fans are clean and properly connected Explanation OBJ-5.2: If a workstation overheats, it will shut down or reboot itself to protect the processor. This can occur if the case fans are clogged with dust or become unplugged. By checking and reconnecting the case fans, the technician can rule out an overheating issue causing this problem. Since the memory was already tested successfully, it does not need to be removed and reseated, or replaced with ECC modules. The BIOS is not the issue since the computer booted up into Windows successfully before rebooting.

The mouse on a desktop computer has stopped operating. Which of the following would be the best NEXT troubleshooting step?

View the log files The first step of the troubleshooting process is to identify the problem. Before making any changes, it's important to research the issue and gather as much information as possible.

When using a Type 1 hypervisor virtualized environment, which of the following hardware types is necessary to connect the VMs to the corporate network?

Virtual NIC Explanation OBJ-4.2: A virtual machine includes a virtual NIC. A virtual NIC is a type of virtual adapter that can be configured on logical partitions to provide a network interface. This virtual NIC can be paired and mapped to a physical NIC to get the VM onto the network. Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a software technology that separates the desktop environment and associated application software from the physical client device that is used to access it. A virtual private network (VPN) extends a private network across a public network and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a cross-platform screen sharing system that was created to remotely control another computer from a distance by a remote user from a secondary device as though they were sitting right in front of it.

You need to determine the best way to test operating system patches in a lab environment before deploying them to your automated patch management system. Unfortunately, your network has several different operating systems in use, but you only have one machine available to test the patches on. What is the best environment to utilize to perform the testing of the patches before deployment?

Virtualization Explanation OBJ-4.2: When you have a limited amount of hardware resources to utilize but have a requirement to test multiple operating systems, you should set up a virtualized environment to test the patch across each operating system before deployment. You should never deploy patches directly into production without testing them first in the lab. Virtualization will allow the organization to create a lab environment without significant costs. Purchasing additional workstations would be costly and more time-consuming to configure.

What services are provided with IaaS?

Virtualization, Servers, Storage, Networking

volts x amps =

Watts

An operations manager for a transportation company works out of an office with several workers that come and go. The manager wants to install a printer for multiple shared devices, but no network drops are available in the building. What options does the operations manager have for installation? (Select all that apply.)

Wi-Fi Bluetooth Wi-Fi direct configures a software-implemented access point on the print device to facilitate connections to client devices. To connect a Windows client to a printer via Bluetooth, use the print device control panel to make it discoverable, then use the Bluetooth page in Windows Settings to add the device.

A network administrator is assessing standards compatibility for a Wi-Fi network. Most employees have mobile devices with single-band 2.4 GHz radios. Which Wi-Fi standards work in this band? (Select all that apply.) IEEE standard 802.11a Wi-Fi 4 (802.11n) Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax) Wi-Fi 5 (802.11b/g/n)

Wi-Fi 4 (802.11n) Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax)

The standards compatibility for a Wi-Fi network that will also be supporting most employees with mobile devices plans to use 802.11b/g/n to support its clients. Which GHz band is the best to use to support clients? (Select all that apply.) Wi-Fi 6 working with a dual band adapter using both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands Wi-Fi 5 working with the 5 GHz band Wi-Fi 4 working with the 5 GHz band Wi-Fi 6 to work with the 2.4 GHz band

Wi-Fi 6 working with a dual band adapter using both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands Wi-Fi 6 to work with the 2.4 GHz band Most mobile devices use the 2.4 GHz frequency. Wi-Fi 6 with access points will support 802.11b/g/n clients and is the best choice even with an 11 Mbps data rate. Although Wi-Fi 6 uses both bands, a client can only use one radio at a time, not both. This is not a feasible possibility, even with a dual-band adapter.

Dion Training has recently purchased a new wireless printer and has asked you to configure it in their office. You have installed the necessary printer drivers on your workstation and have plugged the printer into the power outlet. You just configured the printer to connect to the guest wireless network. Next, you try to print a test page, but nothing prints out. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the printer not printing the test page?

You didn't enable DHCP on your workstation Most corporate wireless networks are configured as two separate networks: one for the corporate wireless network traffic and another for any guests that might connect to the wireless network while visiting your offices. These two wireless networks are isolated from each other, so if you connect the printer to the guest wireless network then the workstations will be unable to reach the printer and print out any documents or test pages.

What is a hertz?

cycles per second

An organization has asked a security analyst to review the contents of an external drive to see if the drive is reusable or if the organization needs to destroy it. However, the drive does not have a cable that connects to a USB. After finding an older computer that supports the cable type, it still does not seem to connect. The analyst notices that there appears to be a cable for what looks like power to the device. What type of cable should the analyst try using?

eSATAp There is an external serial advanced technology attachment (eSATA) standard for the attachment of peripheral drives. eSATAp is a nonstandard powered port used by some vendors.

IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)

tcp/143

SSH (Secure Shell)

tcp/22

Match the port number to the description. Connect to a console over an insecure connection.

tcp/23 Communicating to a command line console on a remote system is commonly performed over tcp/22 using the SSH (Secure Shell) protocol, but older systems may not support the encryption required by SSH. In those cases, the Telnet protocol can provide in-the-clear communication over TCP port 23.

RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)

tcp/3389

LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

tcp/389

Match the port number to the description. Query a database of users and devices

tcp/389 LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is used to query an online directory of users, devices, and anything else that might need to be referenced. LDAP is often used to verify authentication to an application or service.

HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)

tcp/443

Match the port number to the description. Send data to a web server over an encrypted channel

tcp/443 Encrypted web server communication is an important feature for most sites. The HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) protocol encrypts all of the data between the user's browser and the web service over TCP port 443.

Match the port number to the description. Share a folder in Windows

tcp/445 Microsoft Windows uses the SMB (Server Message Block) protocol to transfer files and print jobs between Windows devices. The SMB protocol communicates directly between Windows systems using TCP port 445.

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)

udp/161

DNS (Domain Name System)

udp/53

What voltages would be commonly found on a motherboard's power supply connector?

12 V DC, 5 V DC, 3.3 V DC A computer's power supply provides direct current (DC) at twelve volts, five volts, and 3.3 volts.

A desktop administrator has been asked to troubleshoot a laptop computer that beeps during the power on process while the laptop screen remains dark. Which of the following would be the best NEXT troubleshooting step?

Establish a theory Once an issue has been identified, it's important to consider all of the possible reasons the problem may have occurred. It's useful to list all possible causes, even those that might not be obvious.

Which of the following would be the BEST choice for capturing an image from a printed page and saving it on a computer?

Flatbed Scanner A flatbed scanner is designed to capture images from paper and convert them into digital form.

A company is using a cloud-based service that provides a hardware platform and no additional software. Which of these would BEST describe this purchase?

IaaS IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is a model that provides the computing platform, but no additional software. The user will usually configure the platform with the appropriate CPU, memory, and storage options, and the service provider is only responsible for the uptime and availability of the hardware platform. The user is generally responsible for all software administration.

Match the printer type to the technology: Ink carttridge

Inkjet Printer

A gaming enthusiast has upgraded his home computer from integrated graphics to a separate video adapter card. The computer operates as expected for web browsing and word processing applications. However, playing a game results in the system shutting down after a few minutes of operation. Which of the following would be the MOST likely component causing this issue?

Power supply Adding additional components to a computer can often increase the power usage, and video adapter cards are one of the most power-hungry devices you can add to a computer. If a system is displaying errors or shutting down during periods of heavy use, then the issue is commonly related to heat or power.

A system administrator is using a maintenance kit on a network-connected laser printer. Which of the following should be the LAST step when performing this maintenance?

Reset then page counter The page counter is a helpful metric to determine how much the printer is used, which in turn determines when the next maintenance should be scheduled. After performing the current maintenance cycle and verifying the printer's operation, the page counter should be reset so the next maintenance time-frame can be properly estimated.

Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason the finishing function of a printer would punch two holes in a page instead of three?

The print driver is not configured properly Some large printers include finishing features for adding staples or holes to the final document. If the print driver is not set correctly, these options may be placed in the incorrect location or not used at all. The printer driver may need to be reconfigured or updated to support these finishing features.

A type of server that processes requests for authentication from users within a computer domain.

domain controller Domain controllers are most commonly used in Windows Active Directory (AD) domains but are also used with other types of identity management systems.

A computer engineer is designing a custom new gaming laptop and is currently designing power output and connections. Which rail is the most important to consider?

12V For a modern computer, the output rating of the +12 VDC rail (or rails) is the most important factor and the most heavily used.

High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)

19-pin proprietary connector TR: up to 18 Gb/s

A workstation administrator is configuring a new system for graphics designers, and the users have requested the fastest possible storage speed for reading and writing data. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this requirement?

2 TB SSD The most important requirement for this new system is the speed of reading and writing data. Of the available options, the fastest throughput is an SSD (Solid-State Drive). Although the storage space is the lowest of the available options, the users didn't specify any minimum storage size requirements.

Match the printer type to the technology: Plastic Filament

3D Printer

An avid technical enthusiast recently purchased a newly upgraded ENERGY STAR 80 PLUS mining rig, which operates on a 500W supply. The technical enthusiast wants to calculate the cost of power consumption, compare it to the value of bitcoin mined, and see how long it takes to break even. How much power should the enthusiast estimate the mining rig to use?

625W An ENERGY STAR 80 PLUS compliant power supply unit (PSU) must be 80% efficient at 20-100% of the load. Dividing 0.80 into 500W would give an expected output of 625W.

Lightning Cable8-pin connector TR: 480 Mb/s

8-pin connector TR: 480 Mb/s

Which wireless standard can operate in the 5 GHz band and provides approximately 10 Gbit/sec of throughput?

802.11 ax The 802.11ax standard, or Wi-Fi 6, can operate in either the 2.4 GHz or the 5 GHz band, and the maximum theoretical throughput is nearly 10 gigabits per second

Which of these wireless standards was the first to introduce 54 Mbit/sec throughput on the 2.4 GHz band?

802.11g 802.11g used the same 2.4 GHz frequencies as the 802.11b standard, but the maximum theoretical throughput was increased from 11 megabits per second to 54 megabits per second.

DB-9 (RS-232)

9-pin connector TR: 460 Kb/s Serial modem communications printer, mice, networking

A user in the accounting department is connecting to their monitor using HDMI. The video appears normal, but the user does not hear any audio through the monitor's speakers. Which of the following would be the two MOST likely reasons for this audio issue? (Select TWO)

Audio controls are muted OS is not configured for HDMI audio output If the audio controls are muted, then no audio will be heard on any output device. The muted controls may be on the monitor or the operating system, so both will need to be checked during the troubleshooting process. The operating system will also need to be configured with the correct audio output location, and in this example the audio output should be configured for the HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) link.

A manager needs to have access to the same files, contacts, and email messages across their MacBook, iPad, and iPhone devices. Which of the following would be the BEST way to provide this synchronization?

Authenticate to iCloud on all devices iCloud provides backups, synchronization, and app installation across multiple Apple devices. Authenticating each device to the iCloud service provides automatic synchronization over wireless or cellular networks.

What type of power supply can operate across countries using different voltages?

Auto switching An auto switching power supply can automatically detect and use different input voltages without the need to manually select an input voltage. This is especially useful when using equipment in countries with 120 volts of alternating current, and then move that same equipment to a country using 240 volts of alternating current.

A network administrator has just installed a new access point in a downtown office building, but now users are reporting intermittent connectivity to the Internet. Which of the following would be the FIRST thing to check?

Channel interference levels In areas with many different organizations located near each other, it's possible that the frequencies used on different wireless access points could conflict with each other and cause interference with wireless communication. In busy areas, it's recommended to perform an analysis of the frequencies in use before installing a new access point.

A user has powered on their computer and received the message "Operating system not found." A check of the system shows that the SATA drive cables are properly connected. Which of the following would be the NEXT best troubleshooting step?

Check for removable drives If a USB (Universal Serial Bus) storage device is connected to a computer and the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is checking USB devices before the primary storage drive, the "Operating system not found" error could appear with some USB devices. To avoid this error, the boot order in the BIOS can be changed, or the USB device can be disconnected during the boot process and reconnected after the operating system has started.

An engineer has manually configured IP addresses for a small office that uses a cable modem for Internet connectivity. However, none of the devices configured with a manual IP address are able to browse Internet websites. All devices are connected to the cable modem with twisted-pair Ethernet cables. This is the configuration of one device: IP address: 192.168.1.7 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 192.168.1.1 DNS: 192.168.1.7 The engineer can successfully ping the local IP address and the default gateway address. Which of the following should be the NEXT troubleshooting step?

Check the DNS configuration One of the most noticeable IP (Internet Protocol) configuration settings was the DNS (Domain Name Service) server IP address set to the same IP address the local device. Since DNS servers are commonly separate devices, it would be unusual to see a DNS configured with the same IP address of the local device. The next step should be to confirm the DNS settings with the local network administrator

A network engineer is troubleshooting an issue communicating to the Internet over a newly installed DSL connection. A laptop is connected to a DSL router over twisted pair copper. The IP configuration of the laptop is: IP address: 169.254.228.109 Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0 DNS: 9.9.9.9 Which of the following should be the NEXT troubleshooting step?

Check the status of the DHCP server A DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server automatically distributes IP addresses to new devices connecting to a network. If the DHCP server isn't available, a device will commonly auto-configure itself with an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address. Addresses between the range of 169.254.1.0 through 169.254.254.255 are assigned to devices using APIPA

In which of the following would a cable with a DB-9 connector be used?

Configuring a router A DB-9 connector, or less commonly, DE-9 (D-subminiature size E, 9 pin) is a connector used to send serial signals to another device. A DB-9 connector on a computer is commonly used to connect to the management interface of a switch, router, firewall, or another infrastructure device.

A human resources manager is preparing for a presentation and has printed out their presentation, but it is showing vertical lines. What does this probably indicate?

Dirty feed roller Vertical or horizontal line marks that appear in the same place (referred to as repetitive defects) are often due to dirty feed rollers.

A site manager has noticed her smartphone has a short battery life when used at work, and the battery life is normal when working from home. The work location has limited mobile service reception, but most office services are provided over the local 802.11 Wi-Fi network. The site manager does not enable Bluetooth on her smartphone. Which of the following would be the BEST way to extend the battery life of her mobile device?

Disable the cellular radio at work When a mobile provider's network isn't available, a phone will constantly try to find and reconnect to a cellular network. This reconnection process constantly uses the radio, and subsequently more of the battery is used in the process. To conserve battery life, it would be useful to disable the cellular network connection when outside of a coverage area.

A user is reporting after starting their desktop, they receive the message "Windows has detected an IP address conflict." Which of the following would be the BEST way to resolve this issue?

Enable DHCP on the workstation One of the more useful features of a DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server is the controlled assignment of IP (Internet Protocol) addresses. If the DHCP server is assigning all IP addresses, then a duplicate is unlikely. If a device is configured for manual addressing, then configuring the device to receive IP addresses via DHCP can avoid possible address duplication

A server administrator is configuring a new system for virtualization. Which of the following configurations would provide virtualization support on an Intel CPU?

Enable VT in the firmware Many Intel processors support VT, or Intel Virtualization Technology. This CPU (Central Processing Unit) feature for virtualization provides hardware support for hypervisors and can make the virtualization process much more efficient than running the virtual machines in a software-only environment.

A system administrator made some BIOS changes to a desktop computer running Windows 10, and now this message appears when starting the computer: "This drive can only boot in UEFI mode." Which of the following would be the BEST next troubleshooting step?

Enable secure boot Secure Boot is part of the UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) standard for a computer BIOS (Basic Input Output System). Secure Boot ensures that the underlying operating system has not been modified by malware or any other process.

A large corporation has concerns about the cost of ink and printing and wants to manage it more efficiently. What type of printer setup would be optimal to support this?

Server A print server can manage access and even granular permissions. For example, the company can restrict color printing or files over a certain length.

A newly installed MFD (Multifunction Devices) provides an option to "scan to SMB." Which of the following would BEST describe this feature?

Files are stored on a Microsoft share SMB (Server Message Block) is the protocol used by Microsoft operating systems to share files, print jobs, and other information between other Microsoft OS devices. Many MFDs (Multifunction Devices) can scan a document and store the scanned file on a central network share using SMB.

An administrator sets up a shared printer that enables secure printing. However, the administrator has concerns about users using secure printing instead of just sending a regular job to the printer where anyone can pick up sensitive information. What best practice should the administrator implement to monitor usage?

Forward syslog. If the print device generates a log, then the administrator can configure a log collector, such as syslog, to transmit the logs to a centralized log server.

A technician is connecting USB interfaces on a computer case to the motherboard. Which of the following would be commonly used for this connectivity?

Headers A header, or pin header, is a group of pins on the motherboard. These pins provide connectivity to different motherboard features, such as power, lights, peripheral connections, and more.

A company hosts a cloud-based application which includes redundant servers located in different data centers around the world. Which of the following cloud computing characteristics would BEST describe this application design?

High availability If a single server fails, there are other servers available in different data centers for clients to access. This high availability ensures the services are always available to the users.

Which of these devices sends incoming traffic to every other port on the device?

Hub A hub does not make any forwarding decisions based on the contents of a network frame. When the frame is received by the hub, it sends a copy of that frame to every other interface on the hub.

A system administrator has configured a VM for dual processors, 16 GB of RAM, and 120 GB of disk space. Which of the following is required to start this VM?

Hypervisor A hypervisor, or virtual machine manager, is the software that manages the virtual platform and guest operating systems.

A user in the marketing department needs an LCD with the best possible color representation. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this requirement?

IPS An IPS (In Plane Switching) display provides excellent color representation and would be the best choice of the available options.

What cloud-based service provides hardware, but still requires the user to setup, configure, and manage the operating system and applications?

IaaS IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is an option that provides CPU, memory, network connections, and storage, and the customer installs and manages all of the software running on the infrastructure hardware.

Match the printer type to the technology: Ribbon

Impact Printer

Match the printer type to the technology: Fuser

Laser Printer

A user's smartphone shows a black screen and does not respond to any screen taps or button presses. A check of the SIM card shows a red label but no physical damage. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for these issues?

Liquid damage Most smartphones and tablets include a liquid contact indicator (LCI). This indicator is usually white, and it can often be seen without disassembling the device. If the LCI turns pink or red, the device has been in close contact with liquid.

A user has complained that a laptop will not charge the battery past 25% percent, and the laptop only operates for fifteen minutes when on battery power. The battery and the AC adapter have already been replaced. Which of the following components would be the MOST likely cause of this issue?

Motherboard The motherboard on a laptop usually contains all of the major subsystems, including the CPU (Central Processing Unit), memory, video, and power. If the laptop will not charge a battery or power the system, then the entire motherboard will need to be replaced.

A marketing director purchased a printer for their office and is currently setting it up. Which of the following is the least of considerations for placement?

Network data port The print device must have a power outlet and potentially a network data port. However, if there is wireless, the printer only needs a power outlet.

An employee occasionally needs to scan signed documents relating to purchasing agreements. The employee wants to scan directly to a network location without emailing themselves and then saving it. What configurations will they need to use? (Select all that apply.)

Network path Server Message Block (SMB) or scan to a folder means that the scan gets created as a file on a shared network folder. Therefore, a technician must configure the device to a suitably configured file server and shared folder. User permission Each user must have permission to write to the share, which the shareowner will grant.

A server administrator has been asked to troubleshoot a system that has been slowing down over time. While examining the computer, the administrator can hear a series of clicks from the inside of the case. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address this issue?

Perform a full backup of the server A clicking noise indicates some type of hardware issue with the computer, so the first step would be to confirm that a recent backup is available for all of the data on this system. If the computer fails completely, at least the data will be secure.

Which of the following ports are used for file transfers? (Select TWO)

Port 21 and 20 FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a standard method of transferring files across different operating systems. FTP uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 21 for control messages and port 20 to transfer data.

A printer reported that a tray ran out of paper. What considerations should a user take when loading new paper? (Select all that apply.)

Position at the edges. Position the media guides at the edges of the loaded stack. The printer uses sensors from the guides to detect the paper size. Maintain climate control. Do not use creased, dirty, or damp paper. Instead, ensure that paper gets stored in a climate-controlled location with no excessive humidity, temperature, or dust.

Users in the marketing department are reporting that one network printer is not working. There are many print jobs in the queue, but none of the jobs are printing. A test print from the printer's front panel does not print any pages. What is the MOST likely reason for this printing issue?

Printer hardware has failed If the printer was operational, then a printer test from the front panel should provide some output. The test print bypasses the network and print spooler and provides a check for print quality. If the local test print isn't working, then the printer itself has some type of hardware failure.

An organization has implemented a cloud solution using a third-party data center. Access to the cloud service is available to anyone on the Internet. Which of the following describes this deployment model?

Public Public cloud deployments are for organizations that would like to provide services to anyone on the Internet. Google Mail is an example of a public cloud service.

An engineering firm is upgrading their storage array to include additional drive space for documents and designs. The primary goal is to provide high performance and uptime, even if two drives were to fail. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this firm?

RAID 10 RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a method of combining storage drives together to add speed and/or redundancy. A RAID 10 array is a nested RAID configuration that creates a mirrored set of RAID 0 drives. As long as only one drive fails in each RAID 0 mirror, the redundancy will remain valid and the user's data will continue to be available

A server administrator has four identical drives to install into a database server. Which of these RAID types would provide both redundancy and the most available storage space?

RAID 5 With RAID 5, three drives would contain user data and the fourth drive would store parity information. This efficient use of space and the included redundancy make RAID 5 the best option.

Replace all drives and resynchronize the array Only the bad drive would need to be replaced when recovering from any drive failure with RAID arrays. Replacing perfectly good drives would be an unnecessary and costly step.

RAM Without any additional information about the applications, the most critical resource for these new servers will be the amount of RAM required to keep all of the operating systems running simultaneously

A technician is installing a DSL modem in a data center. Which of the following connectors would be used to connect the DSL modem to the Internet provider line?

RJ11 The RJ11 connector (Registered Jack 11) is the modular connector commonly associated with analog POTS (Plain Old Telephone System) lines. Since DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) uses the existing telephone lines, the DSL connection from an Internet Service Provider will also use those same lines with RJ11 connectors. These connectors will be the same for residential, large-scale commercial, and SOHO (Small Office / Home Office) use.

A system administrator has noticed that their cloud implementation supports multiple application instances during the busy workday, but only one application instance is available during the slower evening shifts. Which of the following would BEST describe this functionality?

Rapid elasticity Rapid elasticity is a cloud characteristic used to increase and decrease the available resources as the application load changes.

A user has submitted a job to a network printer, but the printer will not begin to print until the user has typed their PIN on the printer console. Which of the following would BEST describe this scenario?

Secured prints With secured prints, the user can define a PIN (Personal Identification Number) on their computer, and this PIN must be used on the printer to start the printing process. This process ensures the output is not sitting unattended on the printer

A server administrator has configured a database server with a RAID 0 array containing four hard drives. An error notification from the RAID controller states that disk 3 has failed. Which of the following would be the BEST way to address this disk failure?

Replace the drive and restore from backup RAID 0 (Redundant Array of Independent Disks, Level 0) provides an efficient storage method at the expense of redundancy. Data in RAID 0 is striped across multiple drives, and if one drive is lost the data in the array is also lost. To repair a failed RAID 0 array, the bad drive will need to be replaced and all of the data must be restored from a backup.

A user's tablet has stopped responding to any type of finger input on the screen. The clock and other tablet functions appear to be working. Which of the following would be the BEST way to correct this issue?

Restart tablet Before making any changes to hardware or software, it's useful to restart the tablet to see if a software glitch may have been the underlying issue.

The printer in the accounting department has stopped all printing processes. The print queue shows seven jobs in the queue waiting to be printed. Which of the following would be the BEST next troubleshooting step?

Restart the printer's spooler The print spooler is the software responsible for storing print jobs and sending them to the printer. If the printer spooler has failed or has stopped, then none of the print jobs will be sent to the printer.

A network administrator is deploying a firewall to the cloud using an API to configure the device. Which of the following would BEST describe this deployment type?

SDN SDN (Software Defined Networking) allows the functions of a networking device to be split into logical units and virtualized into a software-based deployment. This allows for easy deployment of switches, routers, firewalls, and other networking devices into a cloud-based infrastructure.

Which of these services would be associated with a Windows file transfer?

SMB SMB (Server Message Block) is the protocol used by Microsoft Windows for file sharing, printer sharing, and other Windows services. SMB commonly uses port 445 to provide direct SMB communication between Windows devices.

A helpdesk technician sets up a multi-function device (MFD) in a new location and tests the printer to ensure it works successfully. Most functions seem to be working fine, but the technician is not receiving an email. What should the technician have configured?

SMTP The technician must configure the MFD with the IP address of a Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server. The SMTP server would typically authenticate the user account before accepting the message for delivery. Port 25

A firewall is configured to block email transfers from a remote server. Which of the following ports is the firewall blocking?

SMTP Port 25 Port 25 is used by SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) to send email messages from devices and transfer those messages between SMTP email servers.

A company would like to advertise a list of email servers authorized to send messages on their behalf. Which of the following would be the BEST way to provide this information?

SPF record An SPF (Sender Policy Framework) record is part of a DNS (Domain Name System) server configuration, and it lists all servers authorized to send emails for a particular domain.

A system administrator has been asked to troubleshoot a non-operational print server. The printer displays an error code on the front panel and does not respond to any user input. The system administrator has created a list of four theories that might cause this particular error. Which of the following would be the best NEXT troubleshooting step?

Test each theory on a lab system Before a plan of action can be established, it's important to know which plan to follow. Testing each theory can help determine which guesses might resolve the issue and which theories had no effect.

A workstation has been assigned an APIPA address. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this assignment?

The DHCP server is down APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) is an IPv4 (Internet Protocol version 4) link-local addressing scheme. If a device does not have a static IP address and an address is not available from a DHCP server, the local device will assign itself an APIPA address and communication to other APIPA devices on the same subnet will be available.

A user has just connected to a new wireless network, but they cannot view any Internet web sites. Their network configuration shows the IP address as 169.254.228.109, the subnet mask is 255.255.0.0, and they have not been assigned a default gateway. Which of these is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

The DHCP server is down If a DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server is not responding, the local workstation will configure itself with an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address. The usable APIPA addresses range between 169.254.1.0 through 169.254.254.255. An APIPA address is a link-local address, so network communication is limited to the local IP subnet.

A user is attempting to charge their iPhone, but the charging icon does not appear when connecting the charging cable. A working cable from another iPhone exhibits the same symptoms. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?

The Lightning port is damaged A damaged Lightning interface would prevent the phone from charging, even while attempting to charge with different cables.

A graphics designer is working on a computer that powers itself off after about an hour of work. The computer tends to power down when working on complex designs that require extensive CPU utilization. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?

The case fans are blocked Most motherboards are designed to power off automatically if the temperatures become excessive. If the case fans are blocked, the inside of the computer will not be able to efficiently cool the system. Eventually, the heat from the heavily-worked CPU will cause the system to power down.

A system administrator has just received a laptop previously sent out for repair. However, after powering on the computer, the laptop no longer responds to the stylus. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?

The digitizer is faulty The digitizer converts the touch of a finger or a stylus to digital signals used by the computer. If the digitizer is not operational, then the screen will not be able to interpret the input from a stylus.

A technician has connected a laptop to an LCD. The LCD is displaying the correct information, but all of the content appears to be fuzzy and difficult to read. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?

The laptop resolution is incorrect An LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) has a native resolution based on the physical dimensions of the display. If the resolution settings in the operating system don't match the native resolution of the physical display, the information on the screen may appear blurry or distorted. Matching the native resolution in the operating system will resolve this issue.

The computers in the shipping department are receiving the message "No connectivity" on their computers. The ipconfig output on one of the computers provides this information: IPv4 Address: 192.168.1.22 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1 From this device, a technician is able to successfully ping 127.0.0.1 and 192.168.1.22. The technician can also ping other devices in the shipping department, but cannot receive a ping response from servers in the data center or from the 192.168.1.1 address

The local router is down The default gateway is the local router for the IP subnet. If the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1 is not responding to a ping, then the router may not be operational.

When pressing the power button on a desktop computer, the power indicator lights up but the computer does not display any message on the screen. The voltage at the wall outlet has been checked and it appears to be normal. The motherboard power connector voltage was checked, and the 12 volt pin was showing 6 volts. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

The power supply is faulty If the 12 volt line from the power supply to the motherboard is showing 6 volts, it's likely a problem with the power supply itself. A power supply replacement should be the next troubleshooting step for this system.

A user's machine recently traveled abroad, and the computer will not start up properly after returning from the trip. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

The user plugged a 120V adapter into a 240V supply. Plugging a fixed-input 110-120V adapter into a 220-240V power supply will likely cause damage.

.A help desk technician needs to use different Windows versions to study for an industry certification exam. The technician currently uses a Windows desktop computer with 4 GB of RAM and a 750 GB free on the hard drive. Which of the following would be the BEST way to perform this task? (Choose TWO)

Upgrade the system RAM Install Windows guest VMs The easiest way to use multiple operating systems on a single machine is to run them as virtual machines. Although 750 GB (Gigabytes) is plenty of storage space for multiple virtual machines, the 4 GB of RAM (Random Access Memory) on the host computer is too small to support multiple Windows operating systems at the same time. Once the memory upgrade is complete, it's a relatively easy process to install the guest virtual machines on the existing hard drive.

A network administrator is troubleshooting a network outage, and she believes the issue is related to a bad switch. The old switch is then replaced with a newer model and the cabling is moved to the new switch. Which of the following should be the NEXT troubleshooting steps? (Choose TWO)

Verify full system functionality Document the findings Once the theory has been tested, a plan of action has been determined, and the plan has been implemented, it's important to verify that full system functionality has been restored. After all of this work, it's useful to document the problem, the proposed solutions, and the ultimate fix. This problem might occur again, and it would be useful to have documentation on the issue.

Wi-Fi Wi-Fi direct configures a software-implemented access point on the print device to facilitate connections to client devices. Bluetooth To connect a Windows client to a printer via Bluetooth, use the print device control panel to make it discoverable, then use the Bluetooth page in Windows Settings to add the device.

Yellow wires are 12V. Yellow wires are +12V. A computer system may be fitted with two PSUs, one acting as a failover redundant power supply. If modifying the rig, then the enthusiast should add a second PSU. Black wires are ground. Wires with black insulation are ground. The advanced technology extended power supply unit (ATX PSU) standard has gone through several revisions, specifying different connector form factors. In the original ATX specification, the P1 connector is 20-pin (2x10).

Ver todos los conjuntos de estudio

Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

Quiz 3- PAS 1

GIVE ME LIBERTY! By Eric Foner Chapter 23

Maternity Unit I All Chapters: Combined Questions from Quizlet, Study Guide, and the book's Evolve Resources online (duplications deleted, but question variations retained)

Final Study - Comp TIA Core 1

Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

Quiz 3- PAS 1

GIVE ME LIBERTY! By Eric Foner Chapter 23

Maternity Unit I All Chapters: Combined Questions from Quizlet, Study Guide, and the book's Evolve Resources online (duplications deleted, but question variations retained)

Chapter 13 Microeconomics

Holocaust Webquest Answer boy Braylen

Nursing 222 Chapter 3: Health, wellness and health disparities

FedEx Battery Shipping

2018 Exam Question 2

Chapter 2 C++

AAFP Family Medicine Board Questions

PM Test 2: Chapter 6

BIO 201 - Chapter 3

Chapter 62

Suppression test 1

Employer duties

econ ch 11

Annuities

MIS Test 2

Chapter 13 and 14

Gov Quizzes