Foundational Concepts Exam

A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident. A. six B. 12 C. 24 D. 72

D. 72

At present, the average life expectancy is ________ years, while the maximum life expectancy is estimated at ________ years. A. 72, 110 B. 68, 100 C. 70, 102 D. 78, 120

D. 78, 120

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): A. advanced EMT (AEMT). B. EMR. C. EMT. D. Paramedic

D. Paramedic

According to the Centers for Disease control and Prevention (CDC), recommended immunizations and tests include a: A. two-shot hepatitis A vaccination series. B. TB skin test every six months. C. smallpox vaccine every five years. D. Tanus/diphtheria/pertussis booster every 10 years.

D. Tanus/diphtheria/pertussis booster every 10 years.

As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the: A. capillaries. B. pleura. C. bronchi. D. alveoli.

D. alveoli.

An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should: A. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar. B. slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally. C. maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes. D. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.

D. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.

During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: A. violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved. B. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally. C. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. D. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand.

D. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand.

A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: A. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. B. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability. C. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. D. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.

D. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.

Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called: A. libel. B. battery. C. negligence. D. assault.

D. assault.

An EMT might injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: A. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis. B. force is exerted straight down the spine. C. hands are held close to the legs. D. back is bent forward at the hips.

D. back is bent forward at the hips.

An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: A .the infant's total blood volume decreases with age. B. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age. C. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate. D. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.

D. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.

All information recorded on the PCR must be: A. reflective of your opinion. B. a matter of public record. C. typewritten or printed. D. considered confidential.

D. considered confidential.

A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a: A. distal forearm fracture. B. proximal elbow fracture. C. proximal humerus fracture. D. distal humerus fracture.

D. distal humerus fracture.

Breathing is often more difficult in older adults because the: A. overall size of the airway decreases. B. diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge. C. surface area of the alveoli increases. D. elasticity of the lungs decreases.

D. elasticity of the lungs decreases.

Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except: A. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment. B. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response. C. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips. D. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.

D. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.

A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: A. nitrogen. B. oxygen. C. lactic acid. D. heat.

D. heat.

Enlargement of the liver is called: A. nephritis. B. hydrocephalus. C. pneumonitis. D. hepatomegaly.

D. hepatomegaly.

In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: A. is mentally competent and able to refuse. B. has a poor relationship with his or her parents. C. possesses a valid driver's license. D. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.

D. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.

Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by A. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. B. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. C. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital. D. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible.

D. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible.

Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the: A. femur. B. calcaneus. C. tibia. D. patella.

D. patella.

After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: A. ask the physician to repeat the order. B. perform the intervention as ordered. C. confirm the order in your own words. D. repeat the order to medical control word for word

D. repeat the order to medical control word for word

A 75-year-old male with a terminal illness has died at home. As you and your partner enter the residence, a family member becomes verbally abusive, pushes you, and states that you took too long to get there. You should: A. subdue the family member until the police arrive. B. ignore the family member and assess the patient. C. tell the family member that it is not your fault. D. retreat and notify law enforcement personnel.

D. retreat and notify law enforcement personnel.

Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated by the: A. central nervous system. B. autonomic nervous system. C. involuntary nervous system. D. somatic nervous system.

D. somatic nervous system.

An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: A. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position. B. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse. C. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat. D. the occiput is proportionately large, and the trachea is flexible.

D. the occiput is proportionately large, and the trachea is flexible.

Infants are often referred to as "belly breathers" because: A. their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain. B. their intercostal muscles are not functional. C. an infant's ribs are brittle and are less able to expand. D. their rib cage is less rigid, and the ribs sit horizontally.

D. their rib cage is less rigid, and the ribs sit horizontally.

Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, except: A. mental disorders. B. distrust of EMTs. C. history of chronic disease. D. fear of medical personnel.

?

A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain. He is conscious, alert, and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the most appropriate to ask him? A. "Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?" B. "Were you exerting yourself when the chest pain began?" C. "Does the pain in your chest move to either of your arms?" D. "Does the pain in your chest feel like a stabbing sensation?"

A. "Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?"

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to: A. Insert a peripheral intravenous catheter. B. apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter. C. aspirin to a patient with chest pain. D. use an automatic transport ventilator.

A. Insert a peripheral intravenous catheter.

A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which of the following types of shock would this condition cause? A. Obstructive B. Cardiogenic C. Neurogenic D. Hypovolemic

A. Obstructive

In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? A. The patient is competent and signs a release form B. A media representative inquiries about the patient C. A police officer requests a copy to place on file D. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes

A. The patient is competent and signs a release form

A 15-year-old boy was killed when he was struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He has numerous disfiguring injuries and has been placed in the back of the ambulance to shield him from curious bystanders. When the child's parents arrive at the scene, they demand to see him. You should: A. advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first. B. let them know that because of the circumstances of their child's death, they will not be permitted to see him at this time. C. express your sincere condolences over their loss and have them escorted away from the scene by a law enforcement officer. D. discreetly escort them to the back of the ambulance and allow them to see their child by themselves while you wait outside.

A. advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first.

A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: A. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired. B. document the patient's request but continue to transport him. C. have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office. D. request that the police place the patient under protective custody.

A. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired.

Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and a receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a: A. base station. B. multiplex. C. repeater. D. mobile radio.

A. base station.

Carbon monoxide blocks the ability of the blood to oxygenate the body because it: A. binds with the hemoglobin in red blood cells. B. destroys the number of circulating red blood cells. C. causes the body to expel too much carbon dioxide. D. fills the alveoli in the lungs with thick secretions.

A. binds with the hemoglobin in red blood cells.

An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she: A. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient. B. refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife. C. remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report. D. terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request.

A. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.

After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the handwritten PCR. When documenting the patient's last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should: A. draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it. B. erase the error, initial it, and then write the correct data on a separate addendum. C. leave the error on the PCR, but inform the staff of the patient's actual blood pressure. D. cover the error with correction fluid and then write the patient's actual blood pressure over it.

A. draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it.

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: A. gallbladder. B. stomach. C. kidneys. D. pancreas.

A. gallbladder.

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, except: A. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage. B. a loss of respiratory muscle mass. C. increased surface area available for air exchange. D. decreased residual volume.

A. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage.

In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air: A. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli. B. remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution. C. decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide. D. decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases.

A. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.

A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: A. is excessively thirsty. B. urinates frequently. C. has low blood sugar. D. is unable to swallow.

A. is excessively thirsty.

A critical aspect of the rapid extrication technique is to: A. maintain stabilization of the spine at all times. B. move the patient as quickly as you possibly can. C. extricate the patient with one coordinated move. D. apply a vest-style device before moving the patient.

A. maintain stabilization of the spine at all times.

Continuing education in EMS serves to: A. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills. B. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care. C. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system. D. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training.

A. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills.

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken, and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: A. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines. B. remove the lines with a nonconductive object. C. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car. D. proceed with normal extrication procedures.

A. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. B. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. C. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. D. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later.

A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

An infant or small toddler would most likely gain trust in a person who: A. provides an organized, routine environment. B. frequently changes the infant or toddler's regular routine. C maintains eye contact, even if the person is a stranger. D. does not tower over him or her and avoids painful procedures.

A. provides an organized, routine environment.

After applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should: A. remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so. B. position the patient prone in order to further prevent injury to yourself. C. inform the patient that the restraints are punishment for their behavior. D. remove them only if the patient verbally commits to calming down.

A. remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so.

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: A. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. B. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. C. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. D. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once.

A. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.

in contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child: A. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection. B. becomes acutely anxious in the presence of strangers or in unfamiliar surroundings. C. clings to a parent or caregiver because he or she knows that the person can be trusted. D. reaches out and explores because he or she knows that the parents are there as a safety net.

A. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.

EMRs such as firefighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers are an integral part of the EMS system because: A. they often arrive at the scene before the ambulance and EMTs. B. the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes. C. they can initiate certain ALS procedures before EMS arrival. D. they are usually trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures.

A. they often arrive at the scene before the ambulance and EMTs.

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? A. 18 to 24 months B. 10 to 18 months C. 24 to 36 months D. 6 to 8 months

B. 10 to 18 months

At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: A. 90 beats/min. B. 100 beats/min. C. 70 beats/min. D. 80 beats/min.

B. 100 beats/min.

All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain? A. Cerebrum B. Brainstem C. Gray matter D. Cerebellum

B. Brainstem

A 56-year-old female is found supine in a narrow hallway of her mobile home. She complains of severe weakness and dizziness, and states that she is unable to walk. There is no evidence of trauma, and the patient states that she did not fall. How should you and your partner move this patient to a more spacious area? A. Scoop stretcher B. Extremity lift C. Emergency move D. Direct carry

B. Extremity lift

A patient in a semi-reclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the ___________ position. A. supine B. Fowler C. prone D. recovery

B. Fowler

A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. Which aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury? A. Palmar B. Plantar C. Ventral D. Dorsal

B. Plantar

A folding or portable stretcher is most beneficial when: A. a patient requires full spinal immobilization when spinal injury is suspected. B. a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance. C. a conscious, alert patient must be carried down several flights of steep stairs. D. an injured patient cannot be placed on a long board due to severe back pain.

B. a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.

A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be: A. reported to the police. B. an informed refusal. C. authorized by a judge. D. witnessed by a notary.

B. an informed refusal.

General guidelines for carrying a patient on a stretcher include: A. slightly twisting your body when carrying. B. constant communication with your partners. C. leaning back from your waist when lifting. D. maintaining slight flexion of your back.

B. constant communication with your partners.

If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should: A. wait at least 24 months before taking another state-approved EMT class. B. contact the state EMS office and provide its staff with the required documentation. C. send an official request to the National Registry of EMTs (NREMT) to seek approval to take the EMT exam. D. recognize that any such conviction will disqualify him or her from EMT licensure.

B. contact the state EMS office and provide its staff with the required documentation.

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A. demand that the patient remain quiet and cooperative during transport. B. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. C. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. D. reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.

B. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.

A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm A. dorsal B. distal C. superior D. proximal

B. distal

After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: A. hemolysis. B. hemostasis. C. hematemesis. D. hemiplegia.

B. hemostasis.

An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the most appropriate method of immobilizing this patient? A. Move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding. B. her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard. C. Immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps. D. Apply a cervical collar and place her in a sitting position on the wheeled stretcher.

B. her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.

In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: A. thorough documentation was not required. B. inadequate patient care was administered. C. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form. D. potential falsification of the patient care form.

B. inadequate patient care was administered.

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: A. weight capacity of up to 650 pounds. B. increased stability from a wider wheelbase. C. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. D. a collapsible undercarriage.

B. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

If an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report: A. it can be qualified by the EMT in charge. B. it was not performed, according to the eyes of the law. C. it cannot be used in establishing negligence. D. it was performed haphazardly by the EMT.

B. it was not performed, according to the eyes of the law.

All of the following are considered to be protected health information (PHI), except: A. patient history. B. location of the call. C. assessment findings. D. treatment rendered.

B. location of the call.

As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A. the patient's condition. B. medical director approval. C. transport time to the hospital. D. an order from a paramedic.

B. medical director approval.

Abnormalities in metabolism are most likely to be caused by dysfunction of the: A. thyroid gland. B. pancreas. C. parathyroid gland. D. adrenal gland.

B. pancreas.

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. EMR. B. paramedic. C. EMT. D. AEMT.

B. paramedic.

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: A. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. B. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives. C. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. D. determine which device the American Heart Association recommends.

B. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.

After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: A. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. B. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. C. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. D. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution.

B. report the incident to your supervisor after the call.

A pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This means that: A. her unborn baby is very large. B. she has excessive vomiting. C. she has frequent urination. D. her respiratory rate is rapid.

B. she has excessive vomiting.

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: A. Guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. B. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. C. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. D. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs.

B. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.

After being dispatched on an emergency call, you should expect the dispatcher to provide you with all of the following information, EXCEPT: A. the number of patients involved in the incident B. the general geographic location of the incident C. the nature of the injury illness ,or incident D. is self-supporting and lives by him or herself

B. the general geographic location of the incident

After being dispatched on an emergency call, you should expect the dispatcher to provide you with all of the following information, except: A. other agencies that are responding to the scene. B. the number of patients involved in the incident. C. the nature of the injury, illness, or incident. D. the general geographic location of the incident.

B. the number of patients involved in the incident.

As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress: A. cannot be identified and can cause health problems. B. are most effectively treated with medications. C might not be obvious or present all the time. D. usually manifest suddenly and without warning.

C might not be obvious or present all the time.

Common questions asked by patients with a serious illness or injury include all of the following, except: A. "Will I be permanently disabled?" B. "Am I going to die?" C. "Which hospital am I going to?" D. "What are you doing to me?"

C. "Which hospital am I going to?"

EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of: A. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured. B. the Emergency Medical Services Act. C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society. D. the Department of Transportation's White Paper: Death and Dying.

C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.

EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: A. National Registry of EMTs. B. National Association of EMTs. C. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). D. individual state's EMS protocols.

C. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).

An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? A. Supine B. Dorsal C. Prone D. Recumbent

C. Prone

In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated? A. The EMT has to gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle. B. A significant mechanism of injury is involved. C. The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards D. A patient has an altered mental status or is in shock.

C. The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards

Age-related changes in the renal system result in: A. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body. B. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%. C. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. D. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function.

C. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: A. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids. B. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. C. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications. D. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.

C. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.

An increase in heart rate and contractility occurs due to stimulation of: A. beta-2 receptors. B. alpha-1 receptors. C. beta-1 receptors. D. alpha-2 receptors.

C. beta-1 receptors.

A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: A. medial. B. unilateral. C. bilateral. D. proximal.

C. bilateral.

A person's bones will become brittle if he or she is deficient in: A. magnesium. B. potassium. C. calcium. D. sodium.

C. calcium.

For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must: A. be updated a minimum of every 6 months. B. be signed by the local justice of the peace. C. clearly state the patient's medical problem. D. be dated within the previous 24 months.

C. clearly state the patient's medical problem.

Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include: A. the inability to remain focused, because the task at hand is demanding. B. long-term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call. C. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation. D. short term loss of energy due to the high physical demands of the job.

C. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A.EMS medical director. B. EMS training officer. C. individual EMT. D. State Bureau of EMS.

C. individual EMT.

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: A. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults. B. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. C. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible. D. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering

C. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.

According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must: A. provide gloves and other personal protective equipment to full-time paid employees only. B. screen all prospective employees for bloodborne pathogens. C. offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure. D. guarantee a 100% risk-free environment prior to employment.

C. offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure.

A patient with a pneumothorax has unilateral chest expansion. This means that: A. both sides of his chest are moving minimally. B. his chest and his abdomen are moving in opposite directions. C. only one side of his chest rises when he inhales. D. both of his lungs are expanding when he inhales.

C. only one side of his chest rises when he inhales.

In relation to the chest, the back is: A. ventral. B anterior. C. posterior. D. inferior.

C. posterior.

In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by: A. slightly lifting the stretcher to prevent unnecessary patient movement. B. retracting the undercarriage and carrying the stretcher to the ambulance. C. pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot. D. pushing the foot of the stretcher while your partner guides the head.

C. pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot.

A ___________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. A. scanner B. decoder C. repeater D. duplex

C. repeater

A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents: A. atrial contraction. B. ventricular relaxation. C. ventricular contraction. D. ventricular filling.

C. ventricular contraction.

A positive TB skin test indicates that: A. the TB disease is currently dormant but might later become active. B. you are actively infected with TB. C. you have been exposed to TB. D. you have never been exposed to TB.

C. you have been exposed to TB.