HESI MedSurg Exam

· Increased abdominal pain with rebound tenderness. Positive rebound tenderness following a colonoscopy may be an indication of a perforation and the development of peritonitis and requires follow-up immediately.

The nurse is caring for a client who returns to the unit following a colonoscopy. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately? · Large amounts of expelled flatus with mucus. · Tympanic abdomen and hyperactive bowel sounds. · Increased abdominal pain with rebound tenderness. · Complaint of feeling weak with watery diarrheal stools.

· Rebound abdominal tenderness over right lower quadrant. Right lower quadrant (RLQ) rebound abdominal tenderness may be related to acute appendicitis and should be reported to the healthcare provider.

The registered nurse (RN) is evaluating a client who presents with symptoms of viral gastroenteritis. Which assessment finding should the RN report to the healthcare provider? · Dry mucous membranes and lips. · Rebound abdominal tenderness over right lower quadrant. · Dizziness when client ambulates from a sitting position. · Poor skin turgor over client's wrist.

· The cell count of the tumor reduces by half with each dose. Initiating chemotherapy while the tumor is small provides a better chance of eradicating all cancer cells because 50% of cancer cells or tumor cells are killed with each dose.

A client asks the nurse about the purpose of beginning chemotherapy (CT) because the tumor is still very small. Which information supports the explanation that the nurse should provide? · Side effects are less likely if therapy is started early. · Collateral circulation increases as the tumor grows. · Sensitivity of cancer cells to CT is based on cell cycle rate. · The cell count of the tumor reduces by half with each dose.

· Decreased color perception. Decreased color perception occurs with cataract formation. Cataract formation is also associated with blurred vision and a global loss of vision so gradual that the client may not be aware of it. Ignatavicius, (2016). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care, eight edition., Ch. 47,

A client has been told that there is cataract formation over both eyes. Which finding should the nurse expect when assessing the client? · Decreased color perception. · Presence of floaters. · Loss of central vision. · Reduced peripheral vision.

· Heart failure (HF). Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is classic sign of heart failure and is secondary to fluid overload associated with heart failure which causes pulmonary edema.

A client in an ambulatory clinic describes awaking in the middle of the night with difficulty breathing and shortness of breath related to paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Which underlying condition should the registered nurse (RN) identify in the client's history? · Chronic bronchitis. · Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). · Heart failure (HF). · Chronic pancreatitis.

· Bluish periumbilical skin discoloration. Immediate action is indicated for intraperitoneal hemorrhage which causes periumbilical discoloration and indicates the presence of a splenic rupture, a life-threatening complication of blunt abdominal injury

A client is admitted after blunt abdominal injury. Which assessment finding requires immediate action by the nurse? · Radiating abdominal pain with left lower quadrant palpation. · Grimacing after palpation of the right hypochondriac region. · Rebound tenderness with abdominal palpation. · Bluish periumbilical skin discoloration.

· Serosanguineous nasal drainage. Any nasal discharge following a head injury should be evaluated to determine the presence of cerebral spinal fluid which would indicate a tear in the dura making the client susceptible to meningitis.

A client is admitted to the hospital with a traumatic brain injury after his head violently struck a brick wall during a gang fight. Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess further? · A scalp laceration oozing blood. · Serosanguineous nasal drainage. · Headache rated "10" on a 0-10 scale. · Dizziness, nausea and transient confusion.

· Achieve a sense of control. The experience of psychological discomfort may be as real as physical pain for the client and should be seen as a priority in care. Because the client is experiencing anxiety, achieving a sense of control is the overall outcome of this client's nursing care plan.

A client with acute appendicitis is experiencing anxiety and loss of sleep about missing final examination week at college. Which outcome is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care? · Sleep 6 to 8 hours. · Achieve a sense of control. · Utilize problem solving skills. · Increase focus of attention.

· Check for a pulse deficit. A client with a past history of atrial fibrillation may return to that rhythm. Any signs of atrial fibrillation, such as sudden onset shortness of breath, requires further investigation. The nurse should assess this client for a pulse deficit because this condition occurs with atrial fibrillation. Jarvis. (2016); Physical Examination and Health Assessment, (Chap 19) 7th ed., p. 481

A client with history of atrial fibrillation is admitted to the telemetry unit with sudden onset of shortness of breath. The nurse observes a new irregular heart rhythm and should perform which assessment at this time? · Check for a pulse deficit. · Palpate the apical impulse. · Inspect jugular vein pulse. · Examine for a carotid bruit.

· Provide cheese and bread to eat. Once blood glucose is greater than 70 mg/dL, the client should eat a regularly scheduled meal or a snack that contains protein and carbohydrates to help prevent hypoglycemia from recurring.

A client with type II diabetes arrives at the clinic with a blood glucose of 50 mg/dL. The nurse provides the client with 6 ounces of orange juice. In 15 minutes the client's capillary glucose is 74 mg/dL. What action should the nurse take? · Obtain a specimen for serum glucose level. · Administer insulin per sliding scale. · Provide cheese and bread to eat. · Collect a glycosylated hemoglobin specimen.

· An image that describes metastatic sites of cancer. PET scans provide information regarding certain diseases of the heart (determination of tissue viability), brain (dementia, Parkinson's disease), and early detection of tumors and their metastasis.

The PET (positron emission tomography) scan is commonly used with oncology clients to provide for which diagnostic information? · A description of inflammation, infection, and tumors. · Continuous visualization of intracranial neoplasms. · Imaging of tumors without exposure to radiation. · An image that describes metastatic sites of cancer.

· Compress the flank and upper buttocks. Dependent edema collects in dependent areas, such as the flank and upper buttocks of the client who is persistently flat in bed. By compressing these areas, the nurse can determine if any pitting edema is present.

The nurse is assessing a client who is bedfast and refuses to turn or move from a supine position. How should the nurse assess the client for possible dependent edema? · Compress the flank and upper buttocks. · Measure the client's abdominal girth. · Gently palpate the lower abdomen. · Apply light pressure over the shins.

· Nail polish. · Hearing aid. · Contact lenses. · Partial dentures. The removal of nail polish provides a more accurate pulse oximetry readings and evaluation of capillary refill. Hearing aids, contact lenses, and partial dentures are removed to prevent damage, loss or misplacement, or injury during surgery. Ideally, give the client's significant other the contact lenses if they are not the disposable ones, hearing aids and partial dentures once placed in an appropriate labeled container to hold for safe keeping. If no significant other is not able to hold onto the items, then secured them in an appropriate and safe place.

The nurse is preparing a client for orthopedic surgery on the left leg and completing a safety checklist before transport to the operating room. Which items should the nurse remove from the client? (Select all that apply.) · Nail polish. · Hearing aid. · Wedding band. · Left leg brace. · Contact lenses. · Partial dentures.

· Avoid allergy medications that contain pseudoephedrine or phenylephrine. OTC allergy medications may contain ephedrine, phenylephrine, or pseudoephedrine, which can cause adrenergic side effects, such as increased intraocular pressure, so a client with glaucoma should avoid using these OTC medications.

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client with newly diagnosed glaucoma and a history of allergic rhinitis. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the client about using over-the-counter (OTC) medications for allergies? · Notify your healthcare provider if there is an increase in heart rate. · Increase fluid intake while taking an antihistamine or decongestant. · Avoid allergy medications that contain pseudoephedrine or phenylephrine. · Ophthalmic lubricating drops may be used for eye dryness due to allergy medications.

· Severe muscle pain. A potential, serious side effect of statin therapy that is used to lower both LDL-C and triglyceride levels is rhabdomyolysis, which is manifested by severe muscle pain and aching.

The nurse is teaching a client about precautions for a new prescription for lovastatin. Which symptom should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider immediately? · Terrible nightmares. · Increased nocturia. · Severe muscle pain. · Visual disturbances.

· Altered sexual response. Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a cardiovascular condition characterized by narrowing of the arteries and reduced blood flow to the extremities. PAD is known to alter the blood flow to the male's penis and is associated with erectile dysfunction in men. Ignatavicius,. (2016). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care, eight edition., Ch. 69, p. 1452.

The nurse is teaching a client diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease. Which genitourinary system complication should the nurse include in the teaching? · Altered sexual response. · Sterility. · Urinary incontinence. · Decreased pelvic muscle tone.

· Prepare the client for chest x-ray at the bedside. A chest x-ray should be performed immediately after the removal of a chest tube to ensure lung expansion has been maintained after its removal.

The registered nurse (RN) is assisting the healthcare provider (HCP) with the removal of a chest tube. Which intervention has the highest priority and should be anticipated by the RN after the removal of the chest tube? · Prepare the client for chest x-ray at the bedside. · Review arterial blood gases after removal. · Elevate the head of bed to 45 degrees. · Assist with disassembling the drainage system.

· Urine output of 40 mL/hour. A decrease in urinary output is a sign of dehydration. When the urine output returns to a normal range, 40 mL/hour, the client's kidneys are perfusing adequately and indicates the client's status is stabilizing.

The registered nurse (RN) is caring for a client who developed oliguria and was diagnosed with sepsis and dehydration 48 hours ago. Which assessment finding indicates to the RN that the client is stabilizing? · Urine output of 40 mL/hour. · Apical pulse 100 and blood pressure 76/42. · Urine specific gravity 1.001. · Tented skin on dorsal surface of hands.

· Maintain strict protective precautions. The client should be under strict protective transmission precautions because the WBC values are low and normal WBC levels are 4,000-10,000/mm3, so the client is an increased high risk for infection.

The registered nurse (RN) is caring for a client with aplastic anemia who is hospitalized for weight loss and generalized weakness. Laboratory values show a white blood count (WBC) of 2,500/mm 3 and a platelet count of 160,000/mm 3. Which intervention is the primary focus in the client's plan of care for the RN to implement? · Assist with frequent ambulation. · Encourage visitors to visit. · Maintain strict protective precautions. · Avoid peripheral injections.

· Hematemesis. · Gastric pain on an empty stomach. · Intolerance of spicy foods. Manifestations of PUD include hematemesis, gastric pain, and spicy food intolerance.

The registered nurse (RN) is caring for a client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD). What assessment should the RN identify and document that is consistent with PUD? (Select all that apply). · Hematemesis. · Gastric pain on an empty stomach. · Colic-like pain with fatty food ingestion. · Intolerance of spicy foods. · Diarrhea and steatorrhea.

· The development of resistant strains of TB are decreased with a combination of drugs. Combination therapy is necessary to decrease the development of resistant strains of TB and ensure treatment efficacy.

The registered nurse (RN) is caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB) who is taking a combination drug regimen. The client complains about taking "so many pills." What information should the RN provide to the client about the prescribed treatment? · The development of resistant strains of TB are decreased with a combination of drugs. · Compliance to the medication regimen is challenging but should be maintained. · Side effects are minimized with the use of a single medication but is less effective. · The treatment time is decreased from 6 months to 3 months with this standard regimen.

· 140 mg/dl. The two hour postprandial level should be less 140 mg/dl for a young adult client.

The registered nurse (RN) is caring for a young adult who is having an oral glucose tolerance tests (OGTT). Which laboratory result should the RN assess as a normal value for the two hour postprandial result? · 140 mg/dl. · 160 mg/dl. · 180 mg/dl. · 200 mg/dl.

Correct · Older females. · School-age female. · Older males. · Adolescent males. Hypoestrogenism and alkalotic urine are other age-related factors put older women at the highest risk for UTIs. School age girls (6 to 12 years) are at risk for UTIs due to a higher prevalence to taking baths instead of showers, but these risks can be controlled in this population as well as hypoestrogenism and alkalotic urine. Older men are at risk due to possible obstruction of the bladder due to benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). Adolescent males (12 to 19 years) are the lowest at risk for a UTI. All individuals regardless of gender and/or age are at risk if the following conditions exist: vesicoureteral reflux, neuromuscular conditions, like Parkinson's disease, previous brain attacks, or the use of anticholinergic medications can all cause incomplete bladder emptying which can create bacterial overgrowth. Fecal and urinary incontinence contributes to poor perineal hygiene and bacterial growth.

The registered nurse (RN) recognizes which client group is at the greatest risk for developing a urinary tract infection (UTI)? (Rank from highest risk to lowest risk.) 1 Older males. 2 School-age female. 3 Older females. 4 Adolescent males.

· Document the temperature reading on the vital sign graphic sheet. A subnormal oral temperature of 97.2°F (36.4°C) is a common finding in elderly clients, so the nurse should document the findings and continue with the plan of care.

The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that an 87-year-old client who is sitting in a chair at the bedside has an oral temperature of 97.2°F (36.4°C). Which intervention should the nurse implement? · Document the temperature reading on the vital sign graphic sheet. · Report the temperature to the healthcare provider immediately. · Instruct the UAP to take the client's temperature again in 30 minutes. · Advise the UAP to assist the client in returning to bed.

· Acute pain related to movement of the stone. The nursing diagnosis of the highest priority is "Acute pain related the the renal calculi's movement".

When planning care for a client with right renal calculi, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority? · Acute pain related to movement of the stone. · Impaired urinary elimination related to obstructed flow of urine. · Risk for infection related to urinary stasis. · Deficient knowledge related to need for prevention of recurrence of calculi.

· Cough brought on by swallowing. A cough brought on by swallowing is a sign of dysphagia, which is a finding of particular concern in a client with stomatitis. Dysphagia can cause numerous problems, including airway obstruction, and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. Ignatavicius, (2016). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care, eight edition., Ch. 53, p. 1100.

Which assessment finding is of greatest concern to the nurse who is caring for a client with stomatitis? · Cough brought on by swallowing. · Sore throat caused by speaking. · Painful and dry oral cavity. · Unintended weight loss.

· New onset of coughing. A pneumothorax (partial or complete lung collapse) is the potential complication of a thoracentesis. Manifestations of a pneumothorax include new onset of a nagging cough, tachycardia, and an increased shallow respiration rate. Ignatavicius,(2016). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care, eight edition., Ch. 27, pp. 511-13.

Which assessment finding should most concern the nurse who is monitoring a client two hours after a thoracentesis? · New onset of coughing. · Low resting heart rate. · Distended neck veins. · Decreased shallow respirations.

· Respiratory effort. Guillain-Barre syndrome causes paralysis or weakness that typically starts at the feet and progresses upwards. As the condition progresses, the nurse must ensure that the client is able to breathe effectively. Heuther, Understanding Pathophysiology, 6th ed. p. 412

Which assessment is most important for the nurse to perform on a client who is hospitalized for Guillain-Barre syndrome that is rapidly progressing? · Respiratory effort. · Unsteady gait. · Intensity of pain. · Ability to eat.

· A 24-year-old with shoulder and lower abdominal quadrant pain. A 24-year-old with sudden onset of lower abdominal quadrant pain should be assessed for an ectopic pregnancy. The pain can also be referred to the shoulder and may be associated with vaginal bleeding. Health Assessment for Nursing Practice, Wilson and Giddens. p.269

Which client should be further assessed for an ectopic pregnancy? · A 24-year-old with shoulder and lower abdominal quadrant pain. · A 33-year-old with intermittent lower abdominal cramping. · A 20-year-old with fever and right lower abdominal colic. · A 40-year-old with jaundice and right lower abdominal pain.

· Drinks a six pack of beer every day. Drinking six beers every day is the dietary assessment finding most important for the nurse to address when caring for a client with diabetic nephropathy. The usual can of beer is 12 ounces (355 mL). Clients with diabetes are recommended to drink no more than 12 ounces of beer per day because beer contains carbohydrates that can create unhealthy fluctuations in blood glucose and promote poor glucose control. Nephropathy is exacerbated by poor blood glucose control.

Which dietary assessment finding is most important for the nurse to address when caring for a client with diabetic nephropathy? · Drinks a six pack of beer every day. · Enjoys a hamburger once a month. · Eats fortified breakfast cereal daily. · Consumes beans and rice every day.

· Use an end-tidal CO2 detector. The end-tidal carbon dioxide detector indicates the presence of CO2tidal by a color change or a number indicated on the detector, which is supporting evidence that the ETT is in the trachea, not the esophagus.

Which intervention should the nurse implement that best confirms placement of an endotracheal tube (ETT)? · Use an end-tidal CO2 detector. · Auscultate for bilateral breath sounds. · Obtain pulse oximeter reading. · Check symmetrical chest movement.

· Metastatic cancer. Superior vena cava syndrome occurs when the superior vena cava (SVC) is compressed by outside structures, such as a growing tumor that impedes the return blood flow to the heart. Superior vena cava syndrome is likely to occur with metastatic cancer from a primary tumor in the upper lobe of the right lung that compresses the superior vena cava.

Which preexisting diagnosis places a client at greatest risk of developing superior vena cava syndrome? · Carotid stenosis. · Steatosis hepatitis. · Metastatic cancer. · Clavicular fracture.

· Oral contraceptives. Women older than 35 years old who smoke and take oral contraceptives have an increased risk of myocardial infarction or stroke. Ignatavicius, (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care, 7th ed.., Ch. 35, p. 694.

A 40-year-old female client has a history of smoking. Which finding should the nurse identify as a risk factor for myocardia infarction? · Oral contraceptives. · Senile osteopenia. · Levothyroxine therapy. · Pernicious anemia.

· Fever related to infection. Secondary infections are a major concern with SLE clients due to the use of corticosteroids and chemotherapeutic agents, which suppresses the immune system, so reporting fever and infections should be reported immediately.

A client is recently diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and the registered nurse (RN) is assessing for common complications. Which symptom should the RN instruct the client to report immediately? · Fever related to infection. · Weight loss and anorexia. · Depressed mood. · Break in tissue integrity.

· Chest x-ray indicating a mediastinal shift. Immediate action is required for findings of a mediastinal shift, which can precipitate life-threatening cardiovascular collapse as the great cardiac vessels become kinked and compressed due to the tension pneumothorax.

A client who is admitted to the emergency department with a possible tension pneumothorax after a motor vehicle collision is having multiple diagnostic tests. Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse? · Serum amylase of 132 units/L. · Serum sodium of 134 mEq/L. · Chest x-ray indicating a mediastinal shift. · Abdominal x-ray air throughout intestines.

· Flushed skin and headache. The most common type of reaction is a febrile, nonhemolytic blood transfusion reaction related to leukocyte incompatibility, which causes chills, fever, headache, and flushing.

A client who is receiving the sixth unit of packed red blood cell transfusion is demonstrating signs and symptoms of a febrile, nonhemolytic reaction. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to identify? · Increased anxiety since the transfusion began. · Drowsiness after receiving diphenhydramine (Benadryl). · Reports of feeling cold. · Flushed skin and headache.

· Serum troponin. Troponin is the most sensitive and specific test for myocardial damage. Troponin elevation is more specific than CK-MB.

A client with chest pain, dizziness, and vomiting for the last 2 hours is admitted for evaluation for Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS). Which cardiac biomarker should the registered nurse (RN) anticipate to be elevated if the client experienced myocardial damage? · Creatine Kinase (CK-MB). · Serum troponin. · Myoglobin. · Ischemia modified albumin.

· Cholecystectomy via laparoscopy. The nurse should explain to the client that gall bladder surgical removal is most often recommended via laparoscopic excision.

A female client admitted with abdominal pain is diagnosed with cholelithiasis. The client asks the registered nurse (RN) what she should expect as a common treatment. What recommended plan of care should the nurse provide the client? · Rest with liquid diet only. · Drugs such as ursodiol. · Cholecystectomy via laparoscopy. · LaVeen vena caval shunt.

· African American women. Sarcoidosis, an autoimmune inflammatory disease affecting multiple organs and has shown familial tendency due to multiple genes that together increase the susceptibility of developing the disease. In research studies it occurs more commonly in African American women (10-80 out of 100,000); compare to Caucasian women of the United States (8 out of 100,000).

A female client is recently diagnosed with Sarcoidosis. The client tells the registered nurse (RN) that she does not understand why she has this. When teaching the client, the RN should include that sarcoidosis most commonly occurs with which ethnic group of women? · African American women. · Caucasian women. · Asian women. · Hispanic women.

· Fingerstick glucose of 300 mg/dl. Elevated fingerstick glucose levels needs to be reported tot he healthcare provider, so a plan of care can be adjusted to treat the elevated glucose level. Also elevated glucose levels, spills into the urine and provide a medium for bacterial growth.

A female client with type 2 diabetes mellitus reports dysuria. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider? · Suprapubic pain and distention. · Bounding pulse at 100 beats/minute. · Fingerstick glucose of 300 mg/dl. · Small vesicular perineal lesions.

· Collect a culture of the penile discharge. Penile discharge with painful urination is commonly associated with gonorrhea. The nurse should collect a culture of the penile discharge to determine the cause of these symptoms. The cause must be determined or confirmed through culture to identify the organism and ensure effective treatment. Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment, 6th edition

A male client comes into the clinic with a history of penile discharge with painful, burning urination. Which action should the nurse implement? · Collect a culture of the penile discharge. · Palpate the inguinal lymph nodes gently. · Observe for scrotal swelling and redness. · Express the discharge to determine color.

· A fracture that bends or splinters part of the bone. An incomplete fracture occurs when part of the bone is splintered (broken) and it has not gone completely through the thickness of the bone.

A male client is admitted after falling from his bed. The healthcare provider (HCP) tells the family that he has an incomplete fracture of the humerus. The family ask the RN what this means. Which explanation by the nurse accurately describes the client's fracture? · Straight fracture line that is also a simple, closed fracture. · Nondisplaced fracture line that wraps around the bone. · A complete fracture that also punctures the skin. · A fracture that bends or splinters part of the bone.

· Polydipsia. A characteristic finding of DI is excretion of large quantities of urine (5 to 20L/day), and most clients compensate for fluid loss by drinking large amounts of water (polydipsia). DI can occur when there has been damage or injury to the pituitary gland or hypothalamus as a result of head trauma, tumor or an illness such as meningitis. This damage interrupts the ADH production, storage and release causing the excessive urination and thirst.

The registered nurse (RN) is caring for a client who has a closed head injury from a motor vehicle collision. Which finding would indicate to the nurse that the client is at risk for diabetes insipidus (DI)? · High fever. · Low blood pressure. · Muscle rigidity. · Polydipsia.

· Amylase. An elevated amylase level is associated with acute pancreatitis.

The registered nurse (RN) is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis and reviews the admission laboratory results. What laboratory value should the RN anticipate being elevated with this diagnosis? · Triglycerides. · Amylase. · Creatinine. · Uric acid.

· Promotes CO 2 elimination. Pursed lip breathing helps eliminate CO2 by increasing positive pressure within the alveoli increasing the surface area of the alveoli making it easier for the O2 and CO2 gas exchange to occur.

The registered nurse (RN) is teaching a client who is newly diagnosed with emphysema how to perform pursed lip breathing. What is the primary reason for teaching the client this method of breathing? · Decreases respiratory rate. · Increases O 2 saturation throughout the body. · Conserves energy while ambulating. · Promotes CO 2 elimination.

· Obtain a prescription for an adjusted dose of insulin. Stressors, such as surgery, increase serum glucose levels. A client with type 1 DM who is NPO for scheduled surgery should receive a prescribed adjusted dose of insulin.

Which action should the nurse implement on the scheduled day of surgery for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM)? · Obtain a prescription for an adjusted dose of insulin. · Administer an oral anti-diabetic agent. · Give an insulin dose using parameters of a sliding scale. · Withhold insulin while the client is NPO.

· Monitor infusing IV fluids and any replacement blood products. Maintaining hemodynamic stability in a client with esophageal varices can precipitate a life-threatening crisis if esophageal varies leak or rupture and can result in hemorrhage. The priority is assessing and monitoring infusions of IV fluids and any replacement blood products.

While caring for a client who has esophageal varices, which nursing intervention is most important for the registered nurse (RN) to implement? · Monitor infusing IV fluids and any replacement blood products. · Prepare for esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). · Maintain the client on strict bedrest. · Insert a nasogastric tube (NGT) for intermittent suction.

· Heart palpitations. Characteristic features of premenstrual syndrome include heart palpitations, sleeplessness, increased appetite and food cravings, and oliguria or enuresis.

A young adult female reports that she is experiencing a lack of appetite, hypersomnia, stress incontinence, and heart palpitations. Which symptom is characteristic of premenstrual syndrome? · Heart palpitations. · Anorexia. · Hypersomnia. · Stress incontinence.

· Evaluate vital signs q10 to 20 minutes for 2 hours after procedure. Vital signs should be checked every 10 to 20 minutes to assess for bleeding after biopsy of the liver, which is highly vascular. The client should be positioned on the right side with a pillow or sandbag under the costal margin and supporting the biopsy site. The client should be maintained on bedrest for several hours to decrease the risk of bleeding from the biopsy site.

After a liver biopsy is performed at the bedside, the registered nurse (RN) is assigned the care of the client. Which nursing intervention is most important for the RN to implement? · Position client on left side with pillow placed under the costal margin. · Assist the client with voiding immediately after the procedure. · Evaluate vital signs q10 to 20 minutes for 2 hours after procedure. · Ambulate client 3 times in first hour with pillow held at abdomen.

· Anticoagulation therapy. The client is experiencing atrial fibrillation, and the nurse should prepare the client for anticoagulation therapy which should be prescribed before rhythm control therapies to prevent cardioembolic events which result from blood pooling in the fibrillating atria.

Based on an analysis of the client's rhythm, atrial fibrillation, the nurse should prepare the client for which treatment protocol? · Diuretic therapy. · Pacemaker implantation. · Anticoagulation therapy. · Cardiac catheterization.

· Upper chest subcutaneous emphysema. Subcutaneous emphysema is a complication and indicates air is leaking beneath the skin surrounding the chest tube.

The nurse is assessing a client with a chest tube that is attached to suction and a closed drainage system. Which finding is most important for the nurse to further assess? · Upper chest subcutaneous emphysema. · Tidaling (fluctuation) of fluid in the water-seal chamber. · Constant air bubbling in the suction-control chamber. · Pain rated "8" (0-10) at the insertion site.

· Pulse change from 85 to160 beats/minute lasting more than 10 minutes. The RRT should be called to intervene for a postoperative client with an acute life-threatening change, such as a pulse change resulting in tachycardia for a prolonged time period.

The nurse is caring for a client who is two days postoperative. Which observation should alert the nurse to call the Rapid Response Team (RRT)? · Fresh bleeding noted on abdominal surgical wound dressing. · Pulse change from 85 to160 beats/minute lasting more than 10 minutes. · Temperature of 103.1 F (39.5 C) and white blood cell (WBC) count of 16,000 mm3. · Weakness, diaphoresis, reports of feeling faint. BP 100/56 mmHg.

· Yellowish discoloration of the sclerae. In a geriatric client, a yellowish discoloration (jaundice) of the sclerae is not a normal finding and may indicate liver damage and requires further assessment.

The nurse is completing the health assessment of a 79-year-old client who denies any significant health problems. Which finding requires the most immediate follow-up assessment? · Kyphosis with a reduction in height. · Dilated superficial veins on both legs. · External hemorrhoids with itching. · Yellowish discoloration of the sclerae.

· Pathologic fracture of two ribs on the right chest. The ribs lie in the radiation pathway and lose density over time, becoming thin and brittle, so the occurrence of two right-sided ribs with pathological fractures resulting without evidence of trauma is related to radiation damage.

The nurse obtains a client's history that includes right mastectomy and radiation therapy for breast cancer 10 years ago. Which current health problem should the nurse consider is a consequence of the radiation therapy? · Asthma. · Myocardial infarction. · Chronic esophagitis with gastroesophageal reflux. · Pathologic fracture of two ribs on the right chest.

· Prevent the formation of effusion fluid. Instillation of a sclerosing agent to create pleurodesis is aimed at preventing the formation of a pleural effusion by causing the pleural spaces sealed together, thereby preventing the accumulation of pleural fluid.

The nurse should explain to a client with lung cancer that pleurodesis is performed to achieve which expected outcome? · Prevent the formation of effusion fluid. · Remove fluid from the intrapleural space. · Debulk tumor to maintain patency of air passages. · Relieve empyema after pneumonectomy.

· Measure the blood pressure. Elderly clients who take antihypertensive medications often experience side effects, such as hypotension, which causes tachycardia, a compensatory mechanism to maintain adequate cardiac output, so the client's blood pressure should be measured.

An 85-year-old male client comes to the clinic for his annual physical exam and renewal of antihypertensive medication prescriptions. The client's radial pulse rate is 104 beats/minute. Which additional assessment should the nurse complete? · Palpate the pedal pulse volume. · Count the brachial pulse rate. · Measure the blood pressure. · Assess for a carotid bruit.