Hesi Practice Questions

At the time of the first dressing change, the client refuses to look at her mastectomy incision. The nurse tells the client that the incision is healing well, but the client refuses to talk about it. What would be an appropriate response to this client's silence? A. It is normal to feel angry and depressed, but the sooner you deal with this surgery, the better you will feel. B. Looking at your incision can be frightening, but facing this fear is a necessary part of your recovery. C. It is OK if you don't want to talk about your surgery. I will be available when you are ready. D. I will ask a woman who has had a mastectomy to come by and share her experiences with you.

(C) displays sensitivity and understanding without judging the client. (A) is judgmental in that it is telling the client how she feels and is also insensitive. (B) would give the client a chance to talk, but is also demanding and demeaning. (D) displays a positive action, but, because the nurse's personal support is not offered, this response could be interpreted as dismissing the client and avoiding the problem. Correct Answer: C

Twenty minutes after beginning a heat application, the client states that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the nurse? A. That means you have derived the maximum benefit, and the heat can be removed. B. Your blood vessels are becoming dilated and removing the heat from the site. C. We will increase the temperature 5 degrees when the pad no longer feels warm. D. The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat.

(D) describes thermal adaptation, which occurs 20 to 30 minutes after heat application. (A and B) provide false information. (C) is not based on a knowledge of physiology and is an unsafe action that may harm the client. Correct Answer: D

An IV infusion terbutaline sulfate 5 mg in 500 ml of D5W, is infusing at a rate of 30 mcg/min prescribed for a client in premature labor. How many ml/hr should the nurse set the infusion pump? A. 30 B. 60 C. 120 D. 180

(D) is correct calculation: 180 ml/hr = 500 ml/5 mg × 1mg/1000 mcg × 30 mcg/min × 60 min/hr. Correct Answer: D

The nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive? A. 31 gtt/min. B. 62 gtt/min. C. 93 gtt/min. D. 124 gtt/min.

(D) is the correct calculation: Convert lbs to kg: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Determine the dosage for this client: 5 mcg × 82.73 = 413.65 mcg/min. Determine how many mcg are contained in 1 ml: 250/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg per ml. The client is to receive 413.65 mcg/min, and there are 200 mcg/ml; so the client is to receive 2.07ml per minute. With a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, then 60 × 2.07 = 124.28 gtt/min (D) OR, using dimensional analysis: gtt/min = 60 gtt/ml X 250 ml/50 mg X 1 mg/1,000 mcg X 5 mcg/kg/min X 1 kg/2.2 lbs X 182 lbs. Correct Answer: D

The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client? A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving. B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest. C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting. D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.

(D) uses the client's stronger side, the right side, for weight-bearing during the transfer, and is the safest approach to take. (A, B, and C) are unsafe methods of transfer and include the use of poor body mechanics by the caregiver. Correct Answer: D

Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled grain 1.5 per tablet. How many tablets should the nurse plan to administer? A. 0.5 tablet. B. 1 tablet. C. 1.5 tablets. D. 2 tablets.

15 gr=1 Gm. Converting the prescribed dose of 0.1 grams to grains requires multiplying 0.1 × 15 = 1.5 grains. The tablets come in 1.5 grains, so the nurse should plan to administer 1 tablet (B). Correct Answer: B

A client is receiving a cephalosporin antibiotic IV and complains of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse observes erythema, swelling, and a red streak along the vessel above the IV access site. Which action should the nurse take at this time? A. Administer the medication more rapidly using the same IV site. B. Initiate an alternate site for the IV infusion of the medication. C. Notify the healthcare provider before administering the next dose. D. Give the client a PRN dose of aspirin while the medication infuses.

A cephalosporin antibiotic that is administered IV may cause vessel irritation. Rotating the infusion site minimizes the risk of thrombophlebitis, so an alternate infusion site should be initiated (B) before administering the next dose. Rapid administration (A) of intravenous cephalosporins can potentiate vessel irritation and increase the risk of thrombophlebitis. (C) is not necessary to initiate an alternative IV site. Although aspirin has antiinflammatory actions, (D) is not indicated. Correct Answer: B

The nurse is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein? A. A college-age track runner with a sprained ankle. B. A lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant. C. A school-aged child with Type 2 diabetes. D. An elderly man being treated for a peptic ulcer.

A lactating woman (B) has the greatest need for additional protein intake. (A, C, and D) are all conditions that require protein, but do not have the increased metabolic protein demands of lactation. Correct Answer: B

A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his wound care after discharge? The client A. asks relevant questions regarding the dressing change. B. states he will be able to complete the wound care regimen. C. demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly. D. has all the necessary supplies for wound care.

A return demonstration of a procedure (C) provides an objective assessment of the client's ability to perform a task, while (A and B) are subjective measures. (D) is important, but is less of a priority prior to discharge than the nurse's assessment of the client's ability to complete the wound care. Correct Answer: C

A young adult female client with recurrent pelvic pain for 3 year returns to the clinic for relief of severe dysmenorrhea. The nurse reviews her medical record which indicates that the client has endometriosis. Based on this finding, what information should the nurse provide this client? A) Oral contraceptives increase the symptoms of endometriosis. B) The symptoms of endometriosis can increase with menopause. C) An option to diagnose disease extent and provide therapeutic treatment is laparoscopy. D) Infertile is successfully treated with removal of intra-abdominal endometrial lesions.

A) Oral contraceptives increase the symptoms of endometriosis.

Which location should the nurse choose as the best for beginning a screening program for hypothyroidism? A. A business and professional women's group. B. An African-American senior citizens center C. A daycare center in a Hispanic neighborhood D. An after-school center for Native-American teens

A. A business and professional women's group.

The home health nurse is preparing to make daily visits to a group of clients. Which client should the nurse visit first? A. A client with congestive heart failure who reports a 3 pound weight gain in the last two days B. An immobile client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer on the coccyx who is having low back pain C. A client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is short of breath D. A terminally ill older adult who has refused to eat or drink anything for the last 48 hours

A. A client with congestive heart failure who reports a 3 pound weight gain in the last two days

A client with a traumatic brain injury becomes progressively less responsive to stimuli. The client has a "Do Not Resuscitate" prescription, and the nurse observes that the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) has stopped turning the client from side to side as previously schedules. What action should the nurse take? A. Advise the UAP to resume positioning the client on schedule B. Encourage the UAP to provide comfort care measures only C. Assume total care of the client to monitor neurologic function D. Assign a practical nurse to assist the UAP in turning the client

A. Advise the UAP to resume positioning the client on schedule

Which client is at the greatest risk for developing delirium? A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to constant pain. B. an older client who attempted 1 month ago C. a young adult who takes antipsychotic medications twice a day D. a middle-aged woman who uses a tank for supplemental oxygen

A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to constant pain.

The nurse is ready to insert an indwelling urinary catheter as seen in the picture. At this point in the procedure, what actions should the nurse take before inserting the catheter? (Select all that apply) A. Ask the client to bear down as if voiding to relax the sphincter B. Complete perianal care with soap and water C. Gently palpate the client's bladder for distention D. Hold the catheter 3 - 4 inches (7.5 - 10 cm) from its tip E. Secure the urinary drainage bag to the bed frame

A. Ask the client to bear down as if voiding to relax the sphincter B. Complete perianal care with soap and water

The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete? A. Auscultate the client's bowel sounds B. Observe for edema around the ankles C. Measure the client's capillary glucose level D. Count the apical and radial pulses simultaneously

A. Auscultate the client's bowel sounds Rationale: hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that slows peristalsis and frequently causes constipation, so it is most important to Auscultate the client's bowel sounds

After a third hospitalization 6 months ago, a client is admitted to the hospital with ascites and malnutrition. The client is drowsy but responding to verbal stimuli and reports recently spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse? A. Capillary refill of 8 seconds B. bruises on arms and legs C. round and tight abdomen D. pitting edema in lower legs

A. Capillary refill of 8 seconds

A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician's office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child's foot. Which action should the nurse implement first? A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment B. Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours. C. have the mother check the child's temperature q4h for the next 24 hours D. transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin injection

A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment

12. Following insertion of a LeVeen shunt in a client with cirrhosis of the liver, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the shunt is effective? A. Decreased abdominal girth. B. Increased blood pressure. C. Clear breath sounds. D. Decreased serum albumin.

A. Decreased abdominal girth.

The nurse is caring for four clients...postoperative hemoglobin of 8.7 mg/dl; client C, newly admitted with potassium...an appendectomy who has a white blood cell count of 15,000mm3. What intervention... A. Determine the availability of two units of packed cells in the blood bank for client B B. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters/minute per face mask for client A C. Remove any foods, such as banana or orange juice, for the breakfast tray for client C D. Inform client D that surgery is likely to be delayed until the infection responds to antibiotics

A. Determine the availability of two units of packed cells in the blood bank for client B

1. The nurse assesses a 78-year-old male client who has left sided heart failure. Which symptoms would the nurse expect this client to exhibit? A. Dyspnea, cough and fatigue. B. Hepatomegaly and distended neck veins. C. Pain over the pericardium and friction rub. D. Narrowing pulse pressure and distant heart sounds.

A. Dyspnea, cough and fatigue.

The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply) A. Ease the client to the floor B. Use a tongue depressor tokeep the client from swallowing their tongue C.Loosen restrictive clothing D. Note the duration of the seizure

A. Ease the client to the floor C.Loosen restrictive clothing D. Note the duration of the seizure

A client is admitted to the surgical unit with symptoms of a possible intestinal obstruction. When preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube, which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Elevate the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees B. Measure from corner of mouth to angle of jaw C. Administer a PRN analgesic D. Assess for a gag reflex

A. Elevate the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees

A client is being treated for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). On examination, the client has a weight gain of 4.4 lbs (2 kg) in 24 hours and an elev ated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Ensure client takes a diuretic q AM B. Obtain serum creatinine levels daily C. Measure ankle circumference D. Monitor daily sodium intake

A. Ensure client takes a diuretic q AM

When conducting diet teaching for a client who was diagnosed with a myocardial infarction, which snack foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat? (Select all that apply). A. Fresh turkey slices and berries B. Fresh vegetables with mayonnaise dip C. Soda crackers and peanut butter D. Chicken bouillon soup and toast E. raw unsalted almonds and apples

A. Fresh turkey slices and berries E. raw unsalted almonds and apples

A middle-aged woman, diagnosed with Graves' disease, asks the nurse about this condition. Which etiological pathology should the nurse include in the teaching plan about hyperthyroidism? (Select all that apply.) A. Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition, affects thyroid stimulating hormone receptors. B. T3 and T4 hormone levels are increased C. Large protruding eyeballs are a sign of hyperthyroid function D. Weight gain is a common complaint in hyperthyroidism E. Early treatment includes levothyroxine (Synthroid).

A. Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition, affects thyroid stimulating hormone receptors. B. T3 and T4 hormone levels are increased C. Large protruding eyeballs are a sign of hyperthyroid function

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely? A. Hypokalemia B. Ketonuria. C. Peripheral edema D. Elevated blood pressure

A. Hypokalemia Rational: pituitary tumors that suppress antidiuretic hormone (ADH) result in diabetes insipidus, which causes massive polyuria and serum electrolyte imbalances, including hypokalemia, which can lead to lethal arrhythmias.

During orientation, a newly hired nurse demonstrates suctioning of a tracheostomy in a skills class, as seen in the video. After the demonstration, the supervising nurse expresses concern that the demonstrated procedure increased the client's risk for which problem? A. Infection B. Ineffective airway clearance C. Altered comfort D. Impaired gas exchange

A. Infection

A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? LABS: pH: 7.5 PaCO2: 42 mmHg HCO3: 33 mEq/L pO2: 92 mmHg A. Infuse 0.9 % sodium chloride 500 ml bolus B. Insert nasogastric tube to intermittent suction. C. Maintain head of bed at 45 degrees D. Document strict intake and output

A. Infuse 0.9 % sodium chloride 500 ml bolus

An adult is admitted to the emergency department following ingestion of a bottle of antidepressants secondary to chronic paint. A nasogastric tube and a left subclavian venous catheter are placed. The nurse auscultates audible breath sounds on the right side, faint sounds procedure should the nurse prepare for first? A. Insertion of a left-sided chest tube. B. Placement of an endotracheal tube. C. Retraction of the nasogastric tube D. Setup of patient- controlled analgesia

A. Insertion of a left-sided chest tube.

Which action should the school nurse take first when conducting a screening for scoliosis? A. Inspect for symmetrical shoulder height. B. Check clients weight and compare it to the previous C. Check the clients shoe size D. Compare the clients height with last year's height

A. Inspect for symmetrical shoulder height.

The mother of a 7-month-old brings the infant to the clinic because the skin in the diaper area is excoriated and red, but there are no blisters or bleeding. The mother reports no evidence of watery stools. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement? A. Instruct the mother to change the child's diaper more often. B. Encourage the mother to apply lotion with each diaper charge C. Tell the mother to cleanse with soap and water at each diaper change D. Ask the mother to decrease the infant's intake of fruits for 24 hours.

A. Instruct the mother to change the child's diaper more often.

The client with which type of wound is most likely to need immediate intervention by the nurse? A. Laceration B. Abrasion C. Contusion D. Ulceration

A. Laceration Rationale: A laceration is a wound that is produced by the tearing of soft body tissue. This type of wound is often irregular and jagged. A laceration wound is often contaminated with bacteria and debris from whatever object caused the cut.

A 59-year-old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that, "just popped up on my neck about a week ago." In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, nontender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is not overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest? A. Malignancy B. Bacterial infection C. Viral infection D. Lymphangitis

A. Malignancy

A female client has been taking a high dose of prednisone, a corticosteroid, for several months. After stopping the medication abruptly, the client reports feeling "very tired". Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Measure vital signs B. Auscultate breath sounds C. Palpate the abdomen D. Observe the skin for bruising

A. Measure vital signs

A client is admitted to isolation with the diagnosis of active tuberculosis. Which infection control measures should the nurse implement? A. Negative pressure environment B. contact precautions C. droplet precautions D. protective environment

A. Negative pressure environment

An adult male with schizophrenia who has been noncompliant in taking oral antipsychotic medications refuses a prescribed IM medication. Which action should the nurse take? A. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's refusal B. Administer an oral PRN medication for agitation C. Ask for staff assistance with administering the injection D. explain that oral medications will no longer be required

A. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's refusal

A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving beta-1b interferon every other day. To assess for possible bone marrow suppression caused by the medication, which serum laboratory test findings should the nurse monitor? (Select all that apply) A. Platelet count B. Red blood cell count (RBC) C. White blood cell count (WBC). D. Albumin and protein E. Sodium and potassium

A. Platelet count B. Red blood cell count (RBC)

152. The nurse is assessing and elderly bedridden client. Which finding indicates that the turning and positioning schedule is effective in protecting the client's skin? A. Reddened skin areas disappear within 15 minutes of being turned and positioned. B. No complaints of pressure or pain are verbalized by the client after being turned C. Only small areas of redness remain longer than 30 min after the client is turned. D. The client verbalizes feeling better after being turned and positioned

A. Reddened skin areas disappear within 15 minutes of being turned and positioned.

Which intervention should the nurse include in a long-term plan of care for a client with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)? A. Reduce risks factors for infection B. Administer high flow oxygen during sleep C. Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions D. Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation

A. Reduce risks factors for infection

A gravida 2 para 1, at 38-weeks gestation, scheduled for a repeat cesarean section in one week, is brought to the labor and delivery unit complaining of contractions every 10 minutes. While assessing the client, the client's mothers enter the labor suite and says in a loud voice, "I've had 8 children and I know she's in labor. I want her to have her cesarean section right now!" what action should the nurse take? A. Request the mother to leave the room B. Tell the mother to stop speaking for the client C. Request security to remove her from the room D. Notify the charge nurse of the situation

A. Request the mother to leave the room

A male client who is admitted to the mental health unit for treatment of bipolar disorder has a slightly slurred speech pattern and an unsteady gait. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider? A. Serum lithium level of 1.6 mEq/L or mmol/l (SI) B. Sodium Level of 138 C. Potassium Level of 4.5 D. An INR of 0.2

A. Serum lithium level of 1.6 mEq/L or mmol/l (SI) Rationale: The therapeutic level of Serum lithium is 0.8 to 1.5 mEq/L or mmol/l (SI). Slurred speech and ataxia are sign of lithium toxicity.

A client with intestinal obstructions has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction and is receiving an IV of lactated ringer's at 100 ml/H. which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider? A. Serum potassium level of 3.1 B. Sodium Level of 138 C. Chloride of 9.2 D. An INR of 0.2

A. Serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI) Rationale: The normal potassium level in the blood is 3.5-5.0 milliEquivalents per liter (mEq/L).

160. A client is admitted to a mental health unit after attempting suicide by taking a handful of medications. In developing a plan of care for this client, which goal has the highest priority? A. Signs a no-self-harm contract. B. Sleep at least 6 hours nightly. C. Attends group therapy every day D. Verbalizes a positive self-image.

A. Signs a no-self-harm contract.

An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately, confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first? A. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline B. obtain a serum potassium level C. administer the client's usual dose of insulin D. assess pupillary response to light

A. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline Rationale: the nurse should first start an intravenous infusion of normal saline to replace the fluids and electrolytes because the client has been vomiting, and it is unclear when he last ate or took insulin. The symptoms of confusion, lethargy, vomiting, and abdominal cramping are all suggestive of hyperglycemia, which also contributes to diuresis and fluid electrolyte imbalance.

During the infusion of a second unit of packed red blood cells, the client's temperature increases from 99 to 101.6 f. which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Stop the transfusion start a saline B. Observe for a maculopapular rash C. Report the fever to the blood bank D. Give a PRN dose of acetaminophen

A. Stop the transfusion start a saline

9. A 35-year-old female client has just been admitted to the postanesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy. Which statement reflects the nurse's accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following this surgery? A. Supplemental hormonal therapy will probably be unnecessary. B. The thyroid will regenerate to a normal size within a few years. C. The client will be restricted from eating seafood. D. The remainder of the thyroid will be removed at a later date.

A. Supplemental hormonal therapy will probably be unnecessary.

155. An older client is admitted for repair of a broken hip. To reduce the risk for infection in the postoperative period, which nursing care interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply) A. Teach client to use incentive spirometer q2 hours while awake. B. Remove urinary catheter as soon as possible and encourage voiding. C. Maintain sequential compression devices while in bed. D. Administer low molecular weight heparin as prescribed E. Assess pain level and medicate PRN as prescribed.

A. Teach client to use incentive spirometer q2 hours while awake. B. Remove urinary catheter as soon as possible and encourage voiding.

17. A male client with HIV, who is being admitted to a healthcare facility, tells the nurse that he is concerned about his right to have access to his records and explanations regarding his treatment and the cost of such treatment. Which resource should guide the nurse's response to this client? A. The Patient's Bill of Rights. B. The hospital policy and procedure manual. C. The Nurse Practice Act. D. The client's Durable Power of Attorney.

A. The Patient's Bill of Rights.

When caring for a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), the nurse elevates the head of the bed 30 degrees. What is the reason for this intervention? A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm B. to promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscle of respiration C. to promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance D. to decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing

A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm Rationale: a semi-sitting position is the best position for matching ventilation and perfusion and for decreasing abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, so that the client can maximize breathing.

The nurse administers an antibiotic to a client with respiratory tract infection. To evaluate the medication's effectiveness, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor? (Select all that apply) A. White blood cell (WBC) count B. BUN and creatnine C. Blood Glucose D. Sputum culture and sensitivity E. Occult Stool sample

A. White blood cell (WBC) count D. Sputum culture and sensitivity

Following a lumbar puncture, a client voices several complaints. What complaint indicated to the nurse that the client is experiencing a complication? A."I have a headache that gets worse when I sit up" B."I am having pain in my lower back when I move my legs" C."My throat hurts when I swallow" D."I feel sick to my stomach and am going to throw up"

A."I have a headache that gets worse when I sit up"

The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old infant who had a pylorotomy yesterday. This child should be medicated for pain based on which findings? Select all that apply: A.Restlessness B. Peripheral pallor of the skin C. Clenched Fist D. Increased pulse rate E. Increased respiratory rate. D. Increased temperature

A.Restlessness C. Clenched Fist D. Increased pulse rate E. Increased respiratory rate.

After the nurse witnesses a preoperative client sign the surgical consent form, the nurse signs the form as a witness. What are the legal implications of the nurse's signature on the client's surgical consent form? (Select all that apply) A. The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done B. The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment C. The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure

ABC

The mother of a child recently diagnosed with asthma asks the nurse how to help protect her child from having asthmatic attacks. To avoid triggers for asthmatic attacks, which instructions should the nurse provide the mother? (Select all that apply) A. Close car windows and use air conditioner B. Avoid sudden changes in temperature C. Keep away from pets with long hair D. Stay indoors when grass is being cut

ABCD

The pathophysiological mechanism are responsible for ascites related to liver failure? (Select all that apply) A. Fluid shifts from intravascular to interstitial area due to decreased serum protein B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation increases fluid shifts into abdomen C. Ashift to the left due to blood glucose level elevations D. Increased circulating aldosterone levels that increase sodium and water retention

ABD A. Fluid shifts from intravascular to interstitial area due to decreased serum protein B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation increases fluid shifts into abdomen D. Increased circulating aldosterone levels that increase sodium and water retention

A client with Addison's crisis is admitted for treatment with adrenal cortical supplementation. Based on the client's admitting diagnosis, which findings require immediate action by the nurse? (Select all that apply) A. Headache and tremors B. Postural hypotension C. Pallor and diaphoresis D. Irregular heart beat

ALL A. Headache and tremors B. Postural hypotension C. Pallor and diaphoresis D. Irregular heart beat

A client was admitted to the cardiac observation unit 2 hours ago complaining of chest pain. On admission, the client's EKG showed bradycardia, ST depression, but no ventricular ectopy. The client suddenly reports a sharp increase in pain, telling the nurse, "I feel like an elephant just stepped on my chest" The EKG now shows Q waves and ST segment elevations in the anterior leads. What intervention should the nurse perform?

Administer prescribed morphine sulfate IV and provide oxygen at 2 L/min per nasal cannula. Rationale: MONA- -morphine -oxygen -Nitroglycerine -Aspirin

A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level. B. Prime the tubing and prepare a blood pump set-up. C. Monitor vital signs q15 minutes for the first hour. D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.

All interventions should be implemented prior to administering blood, but (D) has the highest priority. Any time blood is administered, the nurse should ensure the accuracy of the blood type match in order to prevent a possible hemolytic reaction. Correct Answer: D

A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Assist the ambulating client back to the bed. B. Encourage the client to ambulate to resolve pneumonia. C. Obtain a prescription for portable oxygen while ambulating. D. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe.

An oxygen saturation below 90% indicates inadequate oxygenation. First, the client should be assisted to return to bed (A) to minimize oxygen demands. Ambulation increases aeration of the lungs to prevent pooling of respiratory secretions, but the client's activity at this time is depleting oxygen saturation of the blood, so (B) is contraindicated. Increased activity increases respiratory effort, and oxygen may be necessary to continue ambulation (C), but first the client should return to bed to rest. Oxygen saturation levels at different sites should be evaluated after the client returns to bed (D). Correct Answer: A

At the end of a preoperative teaching session on pain management techniques, a client starts to cry and states, "I just know I can't handle all the pain." What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?

Anxiety

While removing staples from a male client's postoperative wound site, the nurse observes that the client's eyes are closed and his face and hands are clenched. The client states, "I just hate having staples removed." After acknowledging the client's anxiety, what action should the nurse implement?

Attempt to distract the client with general conversation

The nurse is preparing to mix two medications from two different multidose vials, A and B. In which order should these actions be implemented when drawing the solutions from the vials? (Arrange from first on top to last on the bottom) A. Inject the volume of air to be aspirated from each vial B. Verify the drug and dose with the label on the vial C. Aspirate the desired volume from vial B D. Aspirate the desired volume from vial A

B A D C

An unlicensed assistive personnel UAP leaves the unit without notifying the staff. In what order should the unit manager implement this intervention to address the UAPs behavior? (Place the action in order from first on top to last on bottom.) A. Evaluate the UAP for signs of improvement. B. Note date and time of the behavior. C. Plan for scheduled break times. D .Discuss the issue privately with the UAP.

B D C A

An elderly male client is admitted to the urology unit with acute renal failure due to a post-renal obstruction. Which questions best assists the nurse in obtaining relevant historical data? A. "Have you had a heart attack in the last 6 months" B. "Have you had any difficulty in starting your urinary stream" C. "Have you taken any antibiotics recently" D. "Have you received any blood products in the last year"

B. "Have you had any difficulty in starting your urinary stream"

While the school nurse is teaching a group of 14-year-olds, one of the participants remarks, "You are too young to be our teacher! You're not much older than we are!" How should the nurse respond? A. "How old do you think I am?" B. "We need to stay focused on the topic." C. "I think I am qualified to teach this group." C. "Do you think you can teach it any better?"

B. "We need to stay focused on the topic."

A male client with diabetes mellitus type 2, who is taking pioglitazone PO daily, reports to the nurse the recent onset of nausea, accompanied by dark-colored urine, and a yellowish cast to his skin. What instructions should the nurse provide? A. "You have become dehydrated from the nausea. You will need to rest and increase fluid intake" B. "you need to seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms" C. A urine specimen will be needed to determine what kind of infection you have developed" D. use insulin per sliding scale until the nausea resolves, and then resume your oral medication"

B. "you need to seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms"

The nurse is caring for four clients who are on the rehabilitation unit, which client should the nurse assess first? A. A client with an above-the-knee amputation who is complaining of phantorn pain. B. A client who is receiving a continuous tube feeding and is now vomiting. C. A client with left hemiplegia who is scheduled for hemodialysis today. D. A client with pneumonia who is scheduled for pulmonary function studies.

B. A client who is receiving a continuous tube feeding and is now vomiting.

A client is scheduled to receive an IW dose of ondansetron (Zofran) eight hours after receiving chemotherapy. The client has saline lock and is sleeping quietly without any restlessness. The nurse caring for the client is not certified in chemotherapy administration. What action should the nurse take? A. Ask a chemotherapy-certified nurse to administer the Zofran B. Administer the ondasentron (Zofran) after flushing the saline lock with saline C. Hold the scheduled dose of Zofran until the client awakens D. Awaken the client to assess the need for administration of the Zofran.

B. Administer the ondasentron (Zofran) after flushing the saline lock with saline

A young adult who is hit with a baseball bat on the temporal area of the left skull is conscious when admitted to the ED and is transferred to the Neurological Unit to be monitored for signs of closed head injury. Which assessment finding is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma? A. Fever of 99.1 B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury. C. Lower Back Pain D. Battle Sign

B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury.

The nurse is triaging several children as they present to the emergency room after an accident. Which child requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse? A. A 12-year-old with complaints of neck and lower back discomfort B. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting C. A 6-year-old with multiple superficial lacerations of all ectremities D. An 8-year-old with a full leg air splint for a possible broken tibia

B. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting

An antacid is prescribed for a client with gastroesophageal (GERD). The client asks the nurse, "How does this help my GERD?" What is the best response by the nurse? A. This medication will coat the lining of your esophagus B. Antacids will neutralize the acid in your stomach C. It will improve the emptying of food through your stomach D. antacids decrease the production of gastric secretions

B. Antacids will neutralize the acid in your stomach

A male client with ulcerative colitis received a prescription for a corticosteroid last month, but because of the side effect he stopped taking the medication 6 year ago. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse? A. Hypotension and fever B. Anxiety and restlessness. C. Fluid retention D. Increased blood glucose.

B. Anxiety and restlessness.

A client in the intensive care unit is being mechanically ventilated, has an indwelling urinary catheter in place, an exhibiting signs of restlessness. Which action should the nurse take fist? A. Administer PRN dose of lorazepam B. Auscultate bilateral breath sounds C. Check urinary catheter for obstruction D. Review the heart rhythms on cardiac monitor.

B. Auscultate bilateral breath sounds

Oxygen at 5l/min per nasal cannula is being administered to a 10 year old child with pneumonia. When planning care for this child, what principle of oxygen administration should the nurse consider? A. Taking a sedative at bedtime slows respiratory rate, which decreases oxygen? B. Avoid administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods. C. Increase oxygen rate during sleep to compensate for slower respiratory rate. D. Oxygen is less toxic when it is humidified with a hydration source.

B. Avoid administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods

A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which snack is best for the nurse to recommend to the client? A.. Chicken Salad with fries B. Baked apples topped with dried raisins C. Tomato soup and toast D. Egg Drop Soup and an eggroll

B. Baked apples topped with dried raisins

The unit clerk reports to the charge nurse that a healthcare provider has written several prescriptions that are illegible and it appears the healthcare provider used several unapproved abbreviations in the prescriptions. What actions should the charge nurse take? A. Complete and file an incident (variance) report B. Call the healthcare provider who wrote the prescription C. Contact the healthcare provider review board for instructions D. Report the situation to the house supervisor

B. Call the healthcare provider who wrote the prescription

A client who is at 10-weeks gestation calls the clinic because she has been vomiting for the past 24 hours. The nurse determines that the client has no fever. Which instructions should the nurse give to this client? A. Remain on clear liquids until the vomiting subsides B. Come to the clinic to be seen by a healthcare provider C. Make an appointment at the clinic if a fever occurs D. Take nothing by mouth until there is no more nausea

B. Come to the clinic to be seen by a healthcare provider

While the nurse is preparing a scheduled intravenous (IV) medication, the client states that the IV site hurts and refuses to allow the nurse to administer a flush to assess the site. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Apply ice first, then a warm compress to the IV site B. Discontinue the painful IV after a new IV is inserted C. Review the medical record for the date of insertion D. Document that the medication was not administered

B. Discontinue the painful IV after a new IV is inserted

Which instruction should the nurse provide a pregnant client who is complaining of heartburn? A. Eat 3 Meals a day without snacks in between B. Eat small meal throughout the day to avoid a full stomach. C. Eat only fatty foods for dinner D. Drink milk with every meal

B. Eat small meal throughout the day to avoid a full stomach.

While a child is hospitalized with acute glomerulonephritis, the parents ask why blood pressure readings are taken so often. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? A. Blood pressure fluctuations means that the condition has become chronic B. Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly C. Hypotension leading to sudden shock can develop at any time D. Sodium intake with meals and snacks affects the blood pressure

B. Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly

A young adult female with chronic kidney disease (CKD) due to recurring pyelonephritis is hospitalized with basilar crackles and peripheral edema. She is complaining of severe nausea and the cardiac monitor indicates sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular contraction. Her blood pressure is 200 /110 mm Hg, and her temperature is 101 F which PRN medication should the nurse administers first? A. Enalapril B. Furosemide C. Acetaminophen D. Promethazine

B. Furosemide

During a staff meeting, a nurse verbally attacks the nurse manager conducting the meeting, stating, "you always let your favorites have holidays off give then easier assignments. You are unfair and prejudiced" how should the nurse-manager respond? A. I would prefer to discuss this with you privately. B. Give me specific examples to support your statements. C. Does anyone else on the staff fell the same way D. Your remarks are not true and are very unkind

B. Give me specific examples to support your statements.

In caring for a client with Cushing syndrome, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor? A. Lactate B. Glucose C. Hemoglobin D. Creatinine

B. Glucose

A 75-year-old female client is admitted to the orthopedic unit following an open reduction and internal fixation of a hip fracture. On the second postoperative day, the client becomes confused and repeatedly asks the nurse she is. What information for the nurse to obtain? A. Use of sleeping medications. B. History of alcohol use. C. Use of antianxiety medications, D. History of this behavior.

B. History of alcohol use.

A client with Addison's disease becomes weak, confused, and dehydrated following the onset of an acute viral infection. The client's laboratory values include; sodium 129 mEq/l (129mmol/l SI), glucose 54 mg/dl (2.97mmol/l SI) and potassium 5.3 mmol/l SI). When reporting the findings to the HCP, the nurse anticipates a prescription for which intravenous medications? A. Regular insulin. B. Hydrocortisone C. Broad spectrum antibiotic D. Potassium chloride

B. Hydrocortisone

After an elderly female client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the HCP prescribes a 24- hour creatinine clearance test. Prior to starting the urine collection, the nurse notes that the client's serum creatinine is 0.3mg/dl. What action should the nurse implement? A. Initiate the urine collection as prescribed. B. Notify the HCP of the results. C. Evaluate the client's serum BUN level. D. Assess the client for signs of hypokalemia.

B. Notify the HCP of the results.

A client is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a brain attack, commonly referred to as a stroke or cerebral vascular accident (CVA). The nurse should request a referral for speech therapy if the client exhibits which finding? A. Abnormal responses for cranial nerves I and II B. Persistent coughing while drinking C. Unilateral facial drooping D. Inappropriate or exaggerated mood swings

B. Persistent coughing while drinking

A 17-year -old male is brought to the emergency department by his parents because he has been coughing and running a fever with flu-like symptoms for the past 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Obtain a chest X-ray per protocol. B. Place a mask on the client's face. C. Assess the client's temperature. D. Determine the client's blood pressure

B. Place a mask on the client's face.

Which actions should the nurse implement with auscultating anterior breath sounds? (Place the first action on top and last action on the bottom.) A. Displace female breast tissue and apply stethoscope directly on chest wall to hear vesicular sounds B. Place stethoscope in suprasternal area to auscultate from bronchial sounds C. Document normal breath sounds and location of adventitious breath sounds D. Auscultate bronchovesicular sounds from side to side of the first and second intercostal spaces

B. Place stethoscope in suprasternal area to auscultate from bronchial sounds D. Auscultate bronchovesicular sounds from side to side of the first and second intercostal spaces A. Displace female breast tissue and apply stethoscope directly on chest wall to hear vesicular sounds C. Document normal breath sounds and location of adventitious breath sounds

During discharge teaching, an overweight client heart failure (HF) is asked to make a grocery list for the nurse to review. Which food choices included on the client's list should the nurse encourage? (Select all that apply) A. Canned fruit in heavy syrup. B. Plain, air-popped popcorn. C. Cheddar cheese cubes. D. Natural whole almonds. E. Lightly salted potato chips

B. Plain, air-popped popcorn. D. Natural whole almonds.

The nurse is collecting sterile sample for culture and sensitivity from a disposable three chamber water-seal drainage system connected to a pleural chest tube. The nurse should obtain the sample from which site on the drainage system? A. Stopper port located above the water-seal level B. Plastic tubing located at the chest insertion site C. Rubberized port at the bottom of collection chamber D. Tubbing located on the top of the suction chamber

B. Plastic tubing located at the chest insertion site

During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first? A. Client with bradycardia and 18 breaths per minute B. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds C. Patient in normal sinus rhythm who is yelling he wants to go home.

B. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds

While visiting a female client who has heart failure (HF) and osteoarthritis, the home health nurse determines that the client is having more difficulty getting in and out of the bed than she did previously. Which action should the nurse implement first? A. Inquire about an electric bed for the client's home use B. Submit a referral for an evaluation by a physical therapist. C. Explain the usual progression of osteoarthritis and HF D. Request social services to review the client's resources.

B. Submit a referral for an evaluation by a physical therapist.

The nurse is caring for a 17-year-old male who fell 20 feet 5 months ago while climbing the side of a cliff and has been in a sustained vegetative state since the accident. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Inquire about food allergies and food likes and dislikes B. Talk directly to the adolescent while providing care C. Initiate open communication with the teen's parents D. Monitor vital signs and neuro status every 2 hours

B. Talk directly to the adolescent while providing care

What explanation is best for the nurse to provide a client who asks the purpose of using the log-rolling technique for turning? A. working together can decrease the risk for back injury B. The technique is intended to maintain straight spinal alignment. C. Using two or three people increases client safety. D. turning instead of pulling reduces the likelihood of skin damage

B. The technique is intended to maintain straight spinal alignment.

The healthcare provider prescribes the antibiotic cephradine 500mg PO every 6 hours for a client with a postoperative wound infection. Which foods should the nurse encourage this client to eat? A. Tomato Soup andtoast B. Yogurt and/or buttermilk. C. Grilled Chicken and gravy D. Steak and baked potato

B. Yogurt and/or buttermilk.

After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, which action should the nurse perform next? A. Determine the etiology of the problem. B. Prioritize nursing care interventions. C. Plan appropriate interventions. D. Collaborate with the client to set goals.

Before planning care, the nurse should determine the etiology, or cause, of the problem (A), because this will help determine (B, C, and D). Correct Answer: A

An unconscious client is admitted to the intensive care unit and is placed on a ventilator. The ventilator alarms continuously and the client's oxygen saturation level is 62%. What action should the nurse take first?

Begin manual ventilation immediately.

After changing to a new brand of laundry detergent, an adult male reports that he has a fine itchy rash. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Bilateral Wheezing.

A client who is a Jehovah's Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the nurse have for planning care in terms of the client's beliefs? A. Autopsy of the body is prohibited. B. Blood transfusions are forbidden. C. Alcohol use in any form is not allowed. D. A vegetarian diet must be followed.

Blood transfusions are forbidden (B) in the Jehovah's Witness religion. Judaism prohibits (A). Buddhism forbids the use of (C) and drugs. Many of these sects are vegetarian (D), but the direct impact on nursing care is (B). Correct Answer: B

Which assessment data would provide the most accurate determination of proper placement of a nasogastric tube? A. Aspirating gastric contents to assure a pH value of 4 or less. B. Hearing air pass in the stomach after injecting air into the tubing. C. Examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted. D. Checking the remaining length of tubing to ensure that the correct length was inserted.

Both (A and B) are methods used to determine proper placement of the NG tubing. However, the best indicator that the tubing is properly placed is (C). (D) is not an indicator of proper placement. Correct Answer: C

An adolescent, whose mother recently died, comes to the school nurse complain headache. Which statement made by the students should warrant further explanation nurse? A. "I've had dreams about MoM since she died." B. "I've been very sad and cry a lot at night." C. "I miss Mom and would like to go see her'". D. " it's hard to concentrate on my homework"

C. "I miss Mom and would like to go see her'".

A client is admitted with an exacerbation of heart failure secondary to COPD. Which observations by the nurse require immediate intervention to reduce the likelihood of harm to this client? (Select all that apply). A. A bedside commode is positioned near the bed B. A saline lock is present in the right forearm C. A full pitcher of water is on the bedside table D. The client is lying in a supine position in bed E. A low sodium diet tray was brought to the room

C. A full pitcher of water is on the bedside table D. The client is lying in a supine position in bed

A male client is admitted with a severe asthma attack. For the last 3 hours he has experienced increased shortness of breath. His arterial blood gas results are: pH 7.22 PaCO2 55 mmHg; HCO3 25 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI). Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Space care to provide periods of rest B. Instruct client to purse lip breathe C. Administer PRN dose of albuterol D. Position client for maximum comfort

C. Administer PRN dose of albuterol

8. The nurse is teaching a male client with multiple sclerosis how to empty his bladder using the Crede Method. When performing a return demonstration, the client applies pressure to the umbilical area of his abdomen. What instruction should the nurse provide? A. Stroke the inner thigh below the perineum to initiate urinary flow. B. Pour warm water over the external sphincter at the distal glans. C. Apply downward manual pressure at the suprapubic region. D. Contract, hold, and then relax the pubococcygeal muscle.

C. Apply downward manual pressure at the suprapubic region.

A preoperative client states he is not allergic to any medications. What is the most important nursing action for the nurse to implement next? A. Record "no known drug allergies" on preoperative checklist B. Assess client's allergies to non-drug substances C. Assess client's knowledge of an allergy response D. Flag "no known drug allergies" on the front of the chart

C. Assess client's knowledge of an allergy response

A female client who is admitted to the mental health unit for opiate dependency is receiving clonidine 0.1 mg PO for withdrawal symptoms. The client begins to complain of feeling nervous and tells the nurse that her bones are itching. Which finding should the nurse identify as a contraindication for administering the medication? A. Pulse rate of 62 B. Potassium level of 3.2 C. Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg D. Blood Pressure 160/92 mm Hg

C. Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg

During a home visit, the nurse observed an elderly client with diabetes slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first? A. Get the client's vital signs B. Get the client up to a chair C. Check the client for lacerations or fractures D. Check the clients blood glucose

C. Check the client for lacerations or fractures

An older woman who was recently diagnosed with end stage metastatic breast cancer is admitted because she is experiencing shortness of breath and confusion. The client refuses to eat and continuously asks to go home. Arterial blood gases indicate hypoxia. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Prepare for emergent oral intubation B. Offer sips of favorite beverages C. Clarify end of life desires D. Initiate comfort measures

C. Clarify end of life desires

19. It would be of greatest benefit for the client with which problem related to diabetes mellitus to change from the use of insulin syringes to using an insulin pen for medication administration? A. Lipodystrophy from continuous use of one injection site. B. Hyperglycemia due to noncompliance with diet. C. Diminished dexterity due to finger paresthesias. D. Blindness secondary to diabetic retinopathy.

C. Diminished dexterity due to finger paresthesias.

A client in the emergency center demonstrates rapid speech, flight of ideas, and reports sleeping only three hours during the past 48h. Based on these finding, it is most important for the nurse to review the laboratory value for which medication? A. Zoloft B. Wellbutrin C. Divalproex. D. Paxil

C. Divalproex Rationale: divalproex is the first line of treatment for bipolar disorder BPD because it has a high therapeutic index, few side effects, and a rapid onset in controlling symptoms and preventing recurrent episodes of mania and depression. The serum value of divalproex should be determined since the client is exhibiting symptoms of mania, which may indicate non-compliance with the medication regimen.

In assessing an adult client with a partial rebreather mask, the nurse notes that the oxygen reservoir bag does not deflate completely during inspiration and the client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths / minute. What action should the nurse implement? A. Change the partial rebreather to a nasal canula B. Change the mask to a nonrebreather C. Document the assessment data as a normal finding D. Contact the healthcare provider

C. Document the assessment data as a normal finding Rational: reservoir bag should not deflate completely during inspiration and the client's respiratory rate is within normal limits.

14. During the initial newborn assessment, the nurse finds that a newborn's heart rate is irregular. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Notify the pediatrician immediately. B. Teach the parents about congenital heart defects. C. Document the finding in the infant's record. D. Apply oxygen per nasal cannula at 3 L/min.

C. Document the finding in the infant's record.

18. When assessing the oral temperature of an adult client at 6:00 pm, the nurse notes that the client's temperature at 6:00 am was 97.2, and is now 98.8. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Document this intermittent fever in the nurse's notes. B. Administer a PRN dose of medication to reduce the fever. C. Document this temperature variation on the graphic sheet. D. Notify the healthcare provider of the increase in temperature.

C. Document this temperature variation on the graphic sheet.

Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms? A. Neutrophils B. Lymphocytes C. Eosinophils D. Monocytes

C. Eosinophils Rationale: Eosinophils are involved in allergic responses and destruction of parasitic worms.

13. When finding a client sitting on the floor, the nurse calls for help from the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task should the nurse ask the UAP to do? A. Check for any abrasions or bruises. B. Help the client to stand. C. Get a blood pressure cuff. D. Report the fall to the nurse-manager.

C. Get a blood pressure cuff.

A client's telemetry monitor indicates ventricular fibrillation (VF). After delivering one counter shock, the nurse resumes chest compression, after another minute of compression , the client's rhythm converts to supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) on the monitor, at this point , what is the priority intervention for the nurse? A. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing B. Administer IV epinephrine per ACLS protocol. C. Give IV dose of adenosine rapidly over 1-2 seconds. D. Deliver another defibrillator shock.

C. Give IV dose of adenosine rapidly over 1-2 seconds.

The healthcare provider prescribes carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) 250 mcg IM for a multigravida postpartum client who is experiencing heavy, bright red vaginal bleeding. Prior to administering this medication, which interventions should the RN implement? A. Obtain a second IV access. B. Decrease the room temperature. C. Give the prescribed antiemetic. D. Insert an indwelling catheter.

C. Give the prescribed antiemetic

4. The nurse plans to administer a scheduled dose of metoprolol (Toprol SR) at 0900 to a client with hypertension. At 0800, the nurse notes that the client's telemetry pattern shows a second-degree heart block with a ventricular rate of 50. What action should the nurse take? A. Administer the Toprol immediately and monitor the client carefully until the heart rate increases. B. Provide the dose of Toprol as scheduled and assign a UAP to monitor the client's BP q30 minutes. C. Hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern. D. Give the Toprol as scheduled if the client's systolic blood pressure reading is greater than 180.

C. Hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern.

An older male client with a history of diabetes mellitus, chronic gout, and osteoarthritis comes to the clinic with a bag of medication bottles. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Record pain evaluation B. Assess blood glucose C. Identify pills in the bag D. Obtain a medical history

C. Identify pills in the bag

7. The nurse is reviewing a client's electrocardiogram and determines that the PR interval (PRI) is prolonged. What does this finding indicate? A. Inability of the SA node to initiate an impulse at the normal rate. B. Initiation of the impulse from a location outside the SA node. C. Increased conduction time from the SA node to the AV junction. D. Interference with the conduction through one or both ventricles.

C. Increased conduction time from the SA node to the AV junction.

A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician's office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman? A. describe the transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk B. encourage her to use stress relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises C. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding D. Explain that anxiety is a normal response for the mother of a 3-week-old.

C. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding Rationale: there are several antianxiety medications that are not contraindicated for breastfeeding mothers.

A mother brings her 3-week-old son to the clinic because he is vomiting "all the time." In performing a physical assessment, the nurse notes that the infant has poor skin turgor, has lost 20% of his birth weight, and has a small palpable oval-shaped mass in his abdomen. What intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Give the infant 5% dextrose in water orally B. Insert a nasogastric tube for feeding C. Initiate a prescribed IV for parental fluid D. Feed the infant 3 ounces of Isomil

C. Initiate a prescribed IV for parental fluid

When entering a client's room to administer an 0900 IV antibiotic, the nurse finds that the client is engaged in sexual activity with a visitor. Which actions should the nurse implement? A. Ignore the behavior and hang the IV antibiotic B. tell the client to stop the inappropriate behavior C. Leave the room and close the door quietly D. Complete an unusual occurrence report

C. Leave the room and close the door quietly

5. A client who developed Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung is preparing for discharge. When teaching the client about self-management with demeclocycline (Declomycin), the nurse should instruct the client to report which condition to the healthcare provider? A. Anxiety. B. Insomnia. C. Muscle cramping. D. Increased appetite.

C. Muscle cramping.

16. A client who has suffered 3rd degree burns over 60% of the body is admitted to the emergency department. The healthcare provider writes a prescription for "IV Lactated Ringer's 350 ml/hr". Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Administer the Lactated Ringer's at 350 ml/hr via gravity infusion. B. Collaborate with the pharmacist to recalculate the infusion rate. C. Obtain an intravenous infusion pump prior to administering the IV. D. Call the healthcare provider and question the prescription.

C. Obtain an intravenous infusion pump prior to administering the IV.

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that a client's right hand and fingers spasms when taking the blood pressure using the same arm. After confirming the presence of spams what action should the nurse take? A. Ask the UAP to take the blood pressure in the other arm B. Tell the UAP to use a different sphygmomanometer. C. Review the client's serum calcium level D. Administer PRN antianxiety medication.

C. Review the client's serum calcium level

When washing soiled hands, the nurse first wets the hands and applies soap. The nurse should complete additional actions in which sequence? (Arrange from first action on top last action on bottom.) A. Dry hands with paper towel. B. Interlace the fingers, C. Rub hands palm to palm. D. Turn off the water faucet.

C. Rub hands palm to palm. B. Interlace the fingers, A. Dry hands with paper towel. D. Turn off the water faucet.

The nurse is preparing to administer an IV dose of ciprofloxacin to a client with urinary tract infection. Which client data requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse? A. Urine culture positive for MRSA B. Serum sodium of 145 mEq/L (145 mmol/L SI) C. Serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dl (398 mcmol/L SI) D. White blood cell count of of 12,000 mm3 (12 x 109/L SI)

C. Serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dl (398 mcmol/L SI)

To reduce the risk of symptoms exacerbation for a client with multiple sclerosis (MS), which instructions should the nurse include in the client's discharge plan? (Select all that apply). A. Practice relaxation exercises B. Limit fluids to avoid bladder distention C. Space activities to allow for rest periods D. Avoid persons with infections E. Take warm baths before starting exercise

C. Space activities to allow for rest periods E. Take warm baths before starting exercise

A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication? A. increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has produced diuresis and lowered the blood pressure B. the antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low D. the synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension

C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low

A 10 year old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, "What will happen to my body when I die?" How should the nurse respond? A. it will go to heaven B. It will be put into a casket and buried C. The heart will stop beating & you will stop breathing. D. It will become a new person and live forever

C. The heart will stop beating & you will stop breathing.

Immediately after extubation, a client who has been mechanically ventilated is placed on a 50% non-rebreather. The client is hoarse and complaining of a sore throat. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately? A. Blood tinged sputum B. Expiratory wheezing C. Upper airway stridor D. Oxygen saturations 90%

C. Upper airway stridor

A child with heart failure (HF) is taking digitalis. Which signs indicates to the nurse that the child may be experiencing digitalis toxicity? A. Tachycarcia B. Dyspnea C. Vomiting D. Muscle cramps

C. Vomiting

After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life- threatening condition? A.CIWA-Ar for alcohol withdrawal score of 30 B. Acute onset of unrelenting chest pain C. Widening QRS complexes and flat waves D. Intense tremor and involuntary muscle activity

C. Widening QRS complexes and flat waves

A preschooler with constipation needs to increase fiber intake. Which snack suggestion should the nurse provide? A. soft pretzels B. fruit-flavored yogurt C. oatmeal cookies D. low fat cheese sticks

C. oatmeal cookies

An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up? A. Tells the nurse he wants to live with friends B. Says he wants to go out and look for a job. C.Describes life without purpose D. Eats nothing but pizza and drinks only soda.

C.Describes life without purpose

A young mother of three children complains of increased anxiety during her annual physical exam. What information should the nurse obtain first? A. Sexual activity patterns. B. Nutritional history. C. Leisure activities. D. Financial stressors.

Caffeine, sugars, and alcohol can lead to increased levels of anxiety, so a nutritional history (C) should be obtained first so that health teaching can be initiated if indicated. (A and C) can be used for stress management. Though (D) can be a source of anxiety, a nutritional history should be obtained first. Correct Answer: B

The nurse notices that the Hispanic parents of a toddler who returns from surgery offer the child only the broth that comes on the clear liquid tray. Other liquids, including gelatin, popsicles, and juices, remain untouched. What explanation is most appropriate for this behavior? A. The belief is held that the "evil eye" enters the child if anything cold is ingested. B. After surgery the child probably has refused all foods except broth. C. Eating broth strengthens the child's innate energy called "chi." D. Hot remedies restore balance after surgery, which is considered a "cold" condition.

Common parental practices and health beliefs among Hispanic, Chinese, Filipino, and Arab cultures classify diseases, areas of the body, and illnesses as "hot" or "cold" and must be balanced to maintain health and prevent illness. The perception that surgery is a "cold" condition implies that only "hot" remedies, such as soup, should be used to restore the healthy balance within the body, so (D) is the correct interpretation. (A, B, and C) are not correct interpretations of the noted behavior. "Chi" is a Chinese belief that an innate energy enters and leaves the body via certain locations and pathways and maintains health. The "evil eye," or "mal ojo," is believed by many cultures to be related to the balance of health and illness but is unrelated to dietary practice. Correct Answer: D

Based on the information provided in this client's medical record during labor, which should the nurse implement? (Click on each chart tab for additional information. Please be sure to scroll to the bottom right corner of each tab to view all information contained in the client's medical record.)

Continue to monitor the progress of labor.

When conducting an admission assessment, the nurse should ask the client about the use of complimentary healing practices. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices? A. Complimentary healing practices interfere with the efficacy of the medical model of treatment. B. Conventional medications are likely to interact with folk remedies and cause adverse effects. C. Many complimentary healing practices can be used in conjunction with conventional practices. D. Conventional medical practices will ultimately replace the use of complimentary healing practices.

Conventional approaches to health care can be depersonalizing and often fail to take into consideration all aspects of an individual, including body, mind, and spirit. Often complimentary healing practices can be used in conjunction with conventional medical practices (C), rather than interfering (A) with conventional practices, causing adverse effects (B), or replacing conventional medical care (D). Correct Answer: C

A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago, but feels fine now. What action is best for the nurse to take? A. Record the coughing incident. No further action is required at this time. B. Stop the feeding, explain to the family why it is being stopped, and notify the healthcare provider. C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube. D. Inject 30 ml of air into the tube while auscultating the epigastrium for gurgling.

Coughing, vomiting, and suctioning can precipitate displacement of the tip of the small bore feeding tube upward into the esophagus, placing the client at increased risk for aspiration. Checking the sample of fluid withdrawn from the tube (after clearing the tube with 30 ml of air) for acidic (stomach) or alkaline (intestine) values is a more sensitive method for these tubes, and the nurse should assess tube placement in this way prior to taking any other action (C). (A and B) are not indicated. The auscultating method (D) has been found to be unreliable for small-bore feeding tubes. Correct Answer: C

The nurse who is working on a surgical unit receives change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse? A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm noted on the dressing. B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage noted in the Jackson-pratt drain. C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8h ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills.

D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills. Rationale: the client with an abdominal- perineal resection is at risk for peritonitis and needs to be immediately assessed for other signs and symptoms for sepsis.

3. A female client comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and inability to sleep because she is the full-time caretaker for a 22-year-old son who was paralyzed by a motor vehicle collision. She adds that her husband left her because he says he can't take her behavior anymore since all she does is care for their son. What intervention should the nurse implement? A. Teach the client to problem-solve for herself and establish her own priorities. B. Schedule a home visit in the afternoon to assess the son and client's role as caregiver. C. Provide feedback to the client about her atonement for guilt about her son's impairment. D. Acknowledge the client's stress and suggest that she consider respite care.

D. Acknowledge the client's stress and suggest that she consider respite care.

To reduce the risk of being named in malpractice lawsuit, which action is most important for the nurse to take? A. Establish a trusting nurse-client relationship. B. Complete an incident report following a client injury. C. Maintain current professional malpractice insurance, D. Adhere consistently to standards of care.

D. Adhere consistently to standards of care.

A client arrives in the emergency center with a blood alcohol level of 500 mg/dl. When transferred to the observation unit, the client becomes demanding, aggressive, and shouts at the staff. Which assessments finding is most important for the nurse to identify in the first 24 hours? A. Decreased appetite B. Nausea and elevated blood pressure C. Difficulty walking D. Agitation and threats to harms staff

D. Agitation and threats to harms staff

The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to gentamicin therapy the client's serum blood potassium is elevated, which finding requires immediate action by the nurse? A. Tall peak T waves on the cardiac monitor B. Peripheral pitting edema at 2 + indentation C. Serum creatinine above 0.5 mg/dl or 44.2 micro-mmol/dl D. Anuria for the last 12 hours.

D. Anuria for the last 12 hours.

10. A client with gestational diabetes, at 39-weeks gestation, is in the second stage of labor. After delivery of the fetal head, the nurse recognizes that shoulder dystocia is occurring. What intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Lower the head of the bed and apply suprapubic pressure. B. Encourage the client to move to a hands-and-knees position. C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth. D. Assist the client to sharply flex her thighs up against the abdomen.

D. Assist the client to sharply flex her thighs up against the abdomen.

A confused, older client with Alzheimer's disease becomes incontinent of urine when attempting to find the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Instruct the client to use the call button when a bedpan is needed B. Apply adult diapers after each attempt to void C. Check residual urine volume using an indwelling urinary catheter D. Assist the client's to a bedside commode every two hours

D. Assist the client's to a bedside commode every two hours

A client with a history of using illicit drugs intravenously is admitted with Kaposi's sarcoma. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's admission plan of care? A. Identify local support HIV support groups. B. Assess for symptoms of AIDS dementia. C. Observe for adverse drug reaction. D. Monitor for secondary infections.

D. Monitor for secondary infections.

6. In determining the client position for insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter, it is most important for the nurse to recognize which client condition? A. High urinary pH. B. Fever. C. Abdominal ascites. D. Orthopnea.

D. Orthopnea.

Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes bleeding on the client's cast. Which action should the nurse implement? A. No action is required since postoperative bleeding can be expected B. Lower the client's head while assessing for symptoms of shock C. Call the health care provider and prepare to take the client back to the operating room D. Outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to see if the area has increased

D. Outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to see if the area has increased

A client with a liver abscess develops septic shock. A sepsis resuscitation bundle protocol is initiated and the client receives a bolus of IV fluids. Which parameter should the nurse monitor to assess effectiveness of the fluid bolus? A. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) B. White blood cell count C. Blood culture D. Oxygen saturation

D. Oxygen saturation

A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client? A. The client experiences Bradycardia and constipation C. Lethargy and lack of appetite D. Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin D. Palpitations and shortness of breath

D. Palpitations and shortness of breath

In early septic shock states, what is the primary cause of hypotension? A. Cardiac failure B. A vagal response C. Peripheral vasoconstriction D. Peripheral vasodilation

D. Peripheral vasodilation

15. A client is diagnosed with a frontal lobe glioma, which is a benign brain tumor. When teaching the client about the tumor, which information should the nurse consider? A. Surgery is not indicated unless the tumor becomes malignant. B. Vision and hearing will be affected in the future. C. If the tumor metastasizes, surgical intervention is necessary. D. Personality changes or expressive aphasia are likely.

D. Personality changes or expressive aphasia are likely.

An 11-year-old client is admitted to the mental health unit after trying to run away from home and threatening self-harm. The nurse establishes a goal to promote effective coping, and plans to ask the client to verbalize three ways to deal with stress. Which activity is best to establish rapport and accomplish this therapeutic goal? A. Bring the client to the team meeting to discuss the treatment plan B. Ask the client to write feeling in a journal and then review it together C. Explain the purpose of each medication the client is currently taking D. Play a board game with the client and begin taking about stressors

D. Play a board game with the client and begin taking about stressors

The nurse is preparing to gavage feed a premature infant through an orogastric tube. During insertion of the tube, the infant's heart rate drops to 60 beats / minute. Which action should the nurse take? A. Continue the insertion since this is a typical response B. pause and monitor for a continues drop of the heart rate C. Insert the feeding tube into the infant's nasal passage D. Postpone the feeding until the infant's vital signs and stable

D. Postpone the feeding until the infant's vital signs and stable

When assessing a mildly obese 35-year-old female client, the nurse is unable to locate the gallbladder when palpating below the liver margin at the lateral border of the rectus abdominal muscle. What is the most likely explanation for failure to locate the gallbladder by palpation? A. The client is too obese B. Palpating in the wrong abdominal quadrant C. Deeper palpation technique is needed D. The gallbladder is normal

D. The gallbladder is normal Rationale: a normal healthy gallbladder is not palpable

During a visit to the planned parenthood clinic, a young woman tells the nurse that she is going to discontinue taking the oral contraceptives she has taken for three years because she wants to get pregnant. History indicates that her grandfather has adult onset diabetes and that she was treated for chlamydia six months ago, which factor in this client's history poses the greatest risk for this woman's pregnancy? A. Family history of adult onset diabetes. B. Treatment for chlamydia in the past year C. Client's age and previous sexual behavior D. Three year history of taking oral contraceptives

D. Three year history of taking oral contraceptives

An adult male who fell from a roof and fractures his left femur is admitted for surgical stabilization after having a soft cast applied in the emergency department. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse? A. Onset of mild confusion B. Pain score 8 out of 10 C. Pale, diaphoretic skin D. Weak palpable distal pulses

D. Weak palpable distal pulses

A female client with breast cancer who completed her first chemotherapy treatment today at an out-patient center is preparing for discharge. Which behavior indicates that the client understands her care needs? A. Makes plans to join a gym B. Calls her friends for a night out on the town C. Makes vacation plans to Costa Rica D. Rented movies and borrowed books to use while passing time at home

D.Rented movies and borrowed books to use while passing time at home

During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Provide additional coffee on the client's breakfast tray. B. Exchange the client's grape juice for cranberry juice. C. Bring the client additional fruit at mid-morning. D. Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water.

Dark amber urine is characteristic of fluid volume deficit, and the client should be encouraged to increase fluid intake (D). Caffeine, however, is a diuretic (A), and may worsen the fluid volume deficit. Any type of juice will be beneficial (B), since the client is not dysuric, a sign of an urinary tract infection. The client needs to restore fluid volume more than solid foods (C). Correct Answer: D

The nurse is preparing to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with unilateral weakness, ptosis, mouth drooping and, aspiration pneumonia. What is the priority nursing assessment that should be done before administering this medication?

Determine which side of the body is weak.

A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amount of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction

Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a 3 minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide?

Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5 minute duration

Which assessment is more important for the nurse to include in the daily plan of care for a client with a burned extremity?

Distal pulse intensity

An Unna boot is applied to a client with a venous stasis ulcer. One week later, when the Unna boot is removed during a follow-up appointment, the nurse observes that the ulcer site contains bright red tissue. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

Document the ongoing wound healing.

The nurse notices that the mother a 9-year-old Vietnamese child always looks at the floor when she talks to the nurse. What action should the nurse take? A. Talk directly to the child instead of the mother. B. Continue asking the mother questions about the child. C. Ask another nurse to interview the mother now. D. Tell the mother politely to look at you when answering.

Eye contact is a culturally-influenced form of non-verbal communication. In some non-Western cultures, such as the Vietnamese culture, a client or family member may avoid eye contact as a form of respect, so the nurse should continue to ask the mother questions about the child (B). (A, C, and D) are not indicated. Correct Answer: B

When evaluating a client's plan of care, the nurse determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the nurse implement first? A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis. B. Note which actions were not implemented. C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan. D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.

First, the nurse reviews which actions in the original plan were not implemented (B) in order to determine why the original plan did not produce the desired outcome. Appropriate revisions can then be made, which may include revising the expected outcome, or identifying a new nursing diagnosis (A). (C) may be needed if the nursing actions were unsuccessful, or were unable to be implemented. (D) other members of the healthcare team may be necessary to collaborate changes once the nurse determines why the original plan did not produce the desired outcome. Correct Answer: B

A client with chronic renal failure selects a scrambled egg for his breakfast. What action should the nurse take? A. Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein. B. Remind the client that protein in the diet should be avoided. C. Suggest that the client also select orange juice, to promote absorption. D. Encourage the client to attend classes on dietary management of CRF.

Foods such as eggs and milk (A) are high biologic proteins which are allowed because they are complete proteins and supply the essential amino acids that are necessary for growth and cell repair. Although a low-protein diet is followed (B), some protein is essential. Orange juice is rich in potassium, and should not be encouraged (C). The client has made a good diet choice, so (D) is not necessary. Correct Answer: A

A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed

Which action is most important for the nurse to implement when donning sterile gloves? A. Maintain thumb at a ninety degree angle. B. Hold hands with fingers down while gloving. C. Keep gloved hands above the elbows. D. Put the glove on the dominant hand first.

Gloved hands held below waist level are considered unsterile (C). (A and B) are not essential to maintaining asepsis. While it may be helpful to put the glove on the dominant hand first, it is not necessary to ensure asepsis (D). Correct Answer: C

A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the outer part of her eyebrows have disappeared, and that her eyes are all puffy. Which follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?

Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails? Rationale: The pattern of reported manifestations is suggestive of hypothyroidism

A client is admitted for cellulitis surrounding an insect bite on the lower, right arm and intravenous (IV) antibiotic therapy is prescribed. Which action should the nurse implement before performing venipuncture?

Lower the left arm below the level of the heart

Examination of a client complaining of itching on his right arm reveals a rash made up of multiple flat areas of redness ranging from pinpoint to 0.5 cm in diameter. How should the nurse record this finding? A. Multiple vesicular areas surrounded by redness, ranging in size from 1 mm to 0.5 cm. B. Localized red rash comprised of flat areas, pinpoint to 0.5 cm in diameter. C. Several areas of red, papular lesions from pinpoint to 0.5 cm in size. D. Localized petechial areas, ranging in size from pinpoint to 0.5 cm in diameter.

Macules are localized flat skin discolorations less than 1 cm in diameter. However, when recording such a finding the nurse should describe the appearance (B) rather than simply naming the condition. (A) identifies vesicles -- fluid filled blisters -- an incorrect description given the symptoms listed. (C) identifies papules -- solid elevated lesions, again not correctly identifying the symptoms. (D) identifies petechiae -- pinpoint red to purple skin discolorations that do not itch, again an incorrect identification. Correct Answer: B

A client who had a small bowel resection acquired methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) while hospitalized. He treated and released, but is readmitted today because of diarrhea and dehydration. It is most important for the nurse to implement which intervention.

Maintain contact transmission precaution

A male client who had a small bowel resection acquired methicillin- resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) while hospitalized. He was treated and released, but is readmitted today because of diarrhea and dehydration. It is most important for the nurse to implement which intervention?

Maintain contact transmission precautions

When caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) who had a craniotomy for increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse assesses the client using the Glasgow coma scale (GCS) every two hours. For the past 8 hours the client's GCS score has been 14. What does this GCS finding indicate about the client?

Neurologically stable without indications of an increased ICP

A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with a nausea, vomiting, yellow vision and palpitations. Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess to the client?

Obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history

A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding "stronger pain medications." What initial action is most important for the nurse to take? A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction. B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema. D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area.

Pain and diminished pulse volume (B) are signs of compartment syndrome, which can progress to complete loss of the peripheral pulse in the extremity. Compartment syndrome occurs when external pressure (usually from a cast), or internal pressure (usually from subcutaneous infused fluid), exceeds capillary perfusion pressure resulting in decreased blood flow to the extremity. (A) should not be pursued until physical causes of the pain are ruled out. (C) is of less priority than determining the effects of the edema on circulation and nerve function. Further assessment of the client's ecchymosis can be delayed until the signs of edema and compression that suggest compartment syndrome have been examined (D). Correct Answer: B

Three days following surgery, a male client observes his colostomy for the first time. He becomes quite upset and tells the nurse that it is much bigger than he expected. What is the best response by the nurse? A. Reassure the client that he will become accustomed to the stoma appearance in time. B. Instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes. C. Offer to contact a member of the local ostomy support group to help him with his concerns. D. Encourage the client to handle the stoma equipment to gain confidence with the procedure.

Postoperative swelling causes enlargement of the stoma. The nurse can teach the client that the stoma will become smaller when the swelling is diminished (B). This will help reduce the client's anxiety and promote acceptance of the colostomy. (A) does not provide helpful teaching or support. (C) is a useful action, and may be taken after the nurse provides pertinent teaching. The client is not yet demonstrating readiness to learn colostomy care (D). Correct Answer: B

In developing a plan of care for a client with dementia, the nurse should remember that confusion in the elderly A. is to be expected, and progresses with age. B. often follows relocation to new surroundings. C. is a result of irreversible brain pathology. D. can be prevented with adequate sleep.

Relocation (B) often results in confusion among elderly clients--moving is stressful for anyone. (A) is a stereotypical judgment. Stress in the elderly often manifests itself as confusion, so (C) is wrong. Adequate sleep is not a prevention (D) for confusion. Correct Answer: B

When assisting an 82-year-old client to ambulate, it is important for the nurse to realize that the center of gravity for an elderly person is the A. Arms. B. Upper torso. C. Head. D. Feet.

The center of gravity for adults is the hips. However, as the person grows older, a stooped posture is common because of the changes from osteoporosis and normal bone degeneration, and the knees, hips, and elbows flex. This stooped posture results in the upper torso (B) becoming the center of gravity for older persons. Although (A) is a part, or an extension of the upper torso, this is not the best and most complete answer. Correct Answer: B

A male client tells the nurse that he does not know where he is or what year it is. What data should the nurse document that is most accurate? A. demonstrates loss of remote memory. B. exhibits expressive dysphasia. C. has a diminished attention span. D. is disoriented to place and time.

The client is exhibiting disorientation (D). (A) refers to memory of the distant past. The client is able to express himself without difficulty (B), and does not demonstrate a diminished attention span (C). Correct Answer: D

The nurse is teaching a client proper use of an inhaler. When should the client administer the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the inhaler? A. Immediately after exhalation. B. During the inhalation. C. At the end of three inhalations. D. Immediately after inhalation.

The client should be instructed to deliver the medication during the last part of inhalation (B). After the medication is delivered, the client should remove the mouthpiece, keeping his/her lips closed and breath held for several seconds to allow for distribution of the medication. The client should not deliver the dose as stated in (A or D), and should deliver no more than two inhalations at a time (C). Correct Answer: B

An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings though a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for administration of the bolus tube feedings? A. Prone. B. Fowler's. C. Sims'. D. Supine.

The client should be positioned in a semi-sitting (Fowler's) (B) position during feeding to decrease the occurrence of aspiration. A gastrostomy tube, known as a PEG tube, due to placement by a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy procedure, is inserted directly into the stomach through an incision in the abdomen for long-term administration of nutrition and hydration in the debilitated client. In (A and/or C), the client is placed on the abdomen, an unsafe position for feeding. Placing the client in (D) increases the risk of aspiration. Correct Answer: B

An elderly male client who suffered a cerebral vascular accident is receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The nurse knows that the best position for this client during administration of the feedings is A. prone. B. Fowler's. C. Sims'. D. supine.

The client should be positioned in a semi-sitting or Fowler's (B) position during feeding, in order to decrease the chance of aspiration. A gastrostomy tube, often referred to as a PEG tube, is inserted directly into the stomach through an incision in the abdomen and is used when long-term tube feedings are needed. In (A and/or C) positions, the client would be lying on his abdomen and on the tubing. In (D), the client would be lying flat on his back which would increase the chance of aspiration. Correct Answer: B

The nurse is teaching a client with numerous allergies how to avoid allergens. Which instruction should be included in this teaching plan? A. Avoid any types of sprays, powders, and perfumes. B. Wearing a mask while cleaning will not help to avoid allergens. C. Purchase any type of clothing, but be sure it is washed before wearing it. D. Pollen count is related to hay fever, not to allergens.

The client with allergies should be instructed to reduce any exposure to pollen, dust, fumes, odors, sprays, powders, and perfumes (A). The client should be encouraged to wear a mask when working around dust or pollen (B). Clients with allergies should avoid any clothing that causes itching; washing clothes will not prevent an allergic reaction to some fabrics (C). Pollen count is related to allergens (D), and the client should be instructed to stay indoors when the pollen count is high. Correct Answer: A

Which snack food is best for the nurse to provide a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status? A. Chocolate pudding. B. Graham crackers. C. Sugar free gelatin. D. Apple slices.

The client with myasthenia gravis is at high risk for altered nutrition because of fatigue and muscle weakness resulting in dysphagia. Snacks that are semisolid, such as pudding (A) are easy to swallow and require minimal chewing effort, and provide calories and protein. (C) does not provide any nutritional value. (B and D) require energy to chew and are more difficult to swallow than pudding. Correct Answer: A

A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? A. In 8 weeks you will be able to bend at the waist to reach items on the floor. B. Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation. C. It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but you need assistance when walking. D. Take pain medication 30 minutes after your physical therapy sessions.

The client's affected hip joint following a hemiarthroplasty (partial hip replacement) is at risk of dislocation for 6 months to a year following the procedure. Hip precautions to prevent dislocation include placing a pillow between the knees to maintain abduction of the hips (B). Clients should be instructed to avoid bending at the waist (A), to seek assistance for both standing and walking until they are stable on a walker or cane (C), and to take pain medication 20 to 30 minutes prior to physical therapy sessions, rather than waiting until the pain level is high after their therapy. Correct Answer: B

During a visit to the outpatient clinic, the nurse assesses a client with severe osteoarthritis using a goniometer. Which finding should the nurse expect to measure? A. Adequate venous blood flow to the lower extremities. B. Estimated amount of body fat by an underarm skinfold. C. Degree of flexion and extension of the client's knee joint. D. Change in the circumference of the joint in centimeters.

The goniometer is a two-piece ruler that is jointed in the middle with a protractor-type measuring device that is placed over a joint as the individual extends or flexes the joint to measure the degrees of flexion and extension on the protractor (C). A doppler is used to measure blood flow (A). Calipers are used to measure body fat (B). A tape measure is used to measure circumference of body parts (D). Correct Answer: C

A female client with a nasogastric tube attached to low suction states that she is nauseated. The nurse assesses that there has been no drainage through the nasogastric tube in the last two hours. What action should the nurse take first? A. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with sterile normal saline. B. Reposition the client on her side. C. Advance the nasogastric tube an additional five centimeters. D. Administer an intravenous antiemetic prescribed for PRN use.

The immediate priority is to determine if the tube is functioning correctly, which would then relieve the client's nausea. The least invasive intervention, (B), should be attempted first, followed by (A and C), unless either of these interventions is contraindicated. If these measures are unsuccessful, the client may require an antiemetic (D). Correct Answer: B

A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVPB. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

The infusion rate is calculated as a ratio proportion problem, i.e., 50 ml/ 20 min : x ml/ 60 min. Multiply extremes and means 50 × 60 /20x 1= 300/20=150 Correct Answer: 150

The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment. B. Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff. C. Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs. D. Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure.

The most important action is to ensure that an accurate BP reading is obtained. The nurse should reassess the BP with the correct size cuff (B). Reassessment should not be postponed (A). Though (C and D) are likely indicated, these actions do not have the priority of (B). Correct Answer: B

An obese male client discusses with the nurse his plans to begin a long-term weight loss regimen. In addition to dietary changes, he plans to begin an intensive aerobic exercise program 3 to 4 times a week and to take stress management classes. After praising the client for his decision, which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide? A. Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned exercise program. B. Be careful that the exercise program doesn't simply add to your stress level, making you want to eat more. C. Increased exercise helps to reduce stress, so you may not need to spend money on a stress management class. D. Make sure to monitor your weight loss regularly to provide a sense of accomplishment and motivation.

The most important teaching is (A), so that the client will not begin a dangerous level of exercise when he is not sufficiently fit. This might result in chest pain, a heart attack, or stroke. (B, C, and D) are important instructions, but are of less priority than (A). Correct Answer: A

An elderly resident of a long-term care facility is no longer able to perform self-care and is becoming progressively weaker. The resident previously requested that no resuscitative efforts be performed, and the family requests hospice care. What action should the nurse implement first? A. Reaffirm the client's desire for no resuscitative efforts. B. Transfer the client to a hospice inpatient facility. C. Prepare the family for the client's impending death. D. Notify the healthcare provider of the family's request.

The nurse should first communicate with the healthcare provider (D). Hospice care is provided for clients with a limited life expectancy, which must be identified by the healthcare provider. (A) is not necessary at this time. Once the healthcare provider supports the transfer to hospice care, the nurse can collaborate with the hospice staff and healthcare provider to determine when (B and C) should be implemented. Correct Answer: D

When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first? A. Loosen the right wrist restraint. B. Apply a pulse oximeter to the right hand. C. Compare hand color bilaterally. D. Palpate the right radial pulse.

The priority nursing action is to restore circulation by loosening the restraint (A), because blue fingers (cyanosis) indicates decreased circulation. (C and D) are also important nursing interventions, but do not have the priority of (A). Pulse oximetry (B) measures the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen and is not indicated in situations where the cyanosis is related to mechanical compression (the restraints). Correct Answer: A

An adult male client with a history of hypertension tells the nurse that he is tired of taking antihypertensive medications and is going to try spiritual meditation instead. What should be the nurse's first response? A. It is important that you continue your medication while learning to meditate. B. Spiritual meditation requires a time commitment of 15 to 20 minutes daily. C. Obtain your healthcare provider's permission before starting meditation. D. Complementary therapy and western medicine can be effective for you.

The prolonged practice of meditation may lead to a reduced need for antihypertensive medications. However, the medications must be continued (A) while the physiologic response to meditation is monitored. (B) is not as important as continuing the medication. The healthcare provider should be informed, but permission is not required to meditate (C). Although it is true that this complimentary therapy might be effective (D), it is essential that the client continue with antihypertensive medications until the effect of meditation can be measured. Correct Answer: A

A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since, at the time of discharge, timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow? A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m. B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. C. Before breakfast, before lunch and before dinner. D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule (B) to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. (A, C, and D) do not provide around-the-clock dosing. Food may alter absorption of the medication (D). Correct Answer: B

A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement? A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form. B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule in the morning. C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose. D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

To ensure that a therapeutic level of medication is maintained, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible, and revise the administration schedule accordingly to prevent dangerously increasing the level of the medication in the bloodstream (D). The nurse should document the reason for the late dose, but (A and C) are not warranted. (B) could result in increased blood levels of the drug. Correct Answer: D

A client who is taking an oral dose of a tetracycline complains of gastrointestinal upset. What snack should the nurse instruct the client to take with the tetracycline?

Toasted wheat bread and jelly

An alert older client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is admitted with a serum glucose of 420 mg/dl (23.31 mmol/L (SI)). As the nurse administers 10 units of regular insulin intravenous (IV), the client immediately begins to vomit. What action should the nurse implement first?

Turn the client to a lateral position

Which nutritional assessment data should the nurse collect to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent? A. Height in inches or centimeters. B. Weight in kilograms or pounds. C. Triceps skin fold thickness. D. Upper arm circumference.

Upper arm circumference (D) is an indirect measure of muscle mass. (A and B) do not distinguish between fat (adipose) and muscularity. (C) is a measure of body fat. Correct Answer: D

Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement for a male client who is experiencing urinary retention? A. Apply a condom catheter. B. Apply a skin protectant. C. Encourage increased fluid intake. D. Assess for bladder distention.

Urinary retention is the inability to void all urine collected in the bladder, which leads to uncomfortable bladder distention (D). (A and B) are useful actions to protect the skin of a client with urinary incontinence. (C) may worsen the bladder distention. Correct Answer: D

When assessing a multigravida the first postpartum day, the nurse finds a moderate amount of lochia rubra, with the uterus firm, and three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus. What action should the nurse implement first? A. Massage the uterus to decrease atony B. Review the hemoglobin to determine hemorrhage C. Increase intravenous infusion D. Check for a distended bladder

D. Check for a distended bladder

A female client is admitted for diabetic crisis resulting from inadequate dietary practices. After stabilization, the nurse talks to the client about her prescribed diet. What client characteristic is most import for successful adherence to the diabetic diet? A. Knows that insulin must be given 30 min before eating B. Frequently eats fruits and vegetables at meals and between meals/ C. Has someone available who can prepare and oversee the diet D. Demonstrates willingness to adhere to the diet consistently

D. Demonstrates willingness to adhere to the diet consistently

The nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are providing care for a client with a nasogastric tube (NGT) when the client begins to vomit. How should the nurse manage this situation? A. Determine the presence of hematemesis as the UAP irrigates the NGT B. Instruct the UAP to bring an antiemetic to the nurse at the bedside C. Assess the appearance of the emesis while the UAP checks bowel sounds D. Direct the UAP to measure the emesis while the nurse irrigates the NGT

D. Direct the UAP to measure the emesis while the nurse irrigates the NGT

A client who has a suspected brain tumor is schedules for a computed (CT) scan. When preparing the client for the client for the CT scan, which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Determine if the client has had a knee or hip replacement B. Immobilize the client's neck before moving onto stretcher C. Give an antiemetic to control nausea D. Obtain the client's food allergy history

D. Obtain the client's food allergy history

The nurse discovers that an elderly client with no history of cardiac or renal disease has an elevated serum magnesium level. To further investigate the cause of this electrolyte imbalance, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the client's medical history?

Frequency of laxative use for chronic constipation

Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5½ hours. How much heparin has the client received? A. 11,000 units. B. 13,000 units. C. 15,000 units. D. 17,000 units.

(A) is the correct calculation: 20,000 units/500 ml = 40 units (the amount of units in one ml of fluid). 40 units/ml x 50 ml/hr = 2,000 units/hour (1,000 units in 1/2 hour). 5.5 x 2,000 = 11,000 (A). OR, multiply 5 x 2,000 and add the 1/2 hour amount of 1,000 to reach the same conclusion = 11,000 units. Correct Answer: A

The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? A. 1 ml. B. 1.5 ml. C. 1.75 ml. D. 2 ml.

(B) is the correct calculation: Dosage on hand/amount on hand = Dosage desired/x amount. 20 mg : 2 ml = 15 mg : x . 20x = 30. x = 30/20; = 1½ or 1.5 ml. Correct Answer: B

A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump? A. 13 ml/hour. B. 63 ml/hour. C. 80 ml/hour. D. 125 ml/hour.

(B) is the correct calculation: To calculate this problem correctly, remember that the dose of KCl is not used in the calculation. 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour. Correct Answer: B

A male adult is admitted because of an acetaminophen overdose. After transfer to the mental health unit, the client is told he has liver damage. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the client's discharge plan? A. Avoid exposure to large crowds B. Do not take any over-the-counter medications C. Call the crisis hot line if feeling lonely D. Eat a high carbohydrate, low fat, low protein diet

A. Avoid exposure to large crowds

A child is diagnosed with acquired aplastic anemia. The nurse knows that this child has the best prognosis with which treatment regimen? A. Bone marrow transplantation B. Blood transfusion C. Chemotherapy D. Immunosuppressive therapy

A. Bone marrow transplantation

The charge nurse of a critical care unit is informed at the beginning of the shift that less than the optimal number of registered nurses will be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse (RN)?

An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease newly-fractures femur who has a Foley catheter and soft wrist restrains applied

The nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with an open fracture of the tibia. The white blood cell (WBC) count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are elevated. Before reporting this information to the healthcare provider, what assessment should the nurse obtain? A. Degree of skin elasticity B. Appearance of wound C. Bilateral pedal pulse force D. Onset of any bleeding

B. Appearance of wound

An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that "just popped up on my neck about a week ago." In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these finding suggest? A. Bacterial infection B. Lymphangitis C. Malignancy D. Viral infection

C. Malignancy

A male client with an antisocial personality disorder is admitted to an in-patient mental health unit for multiple substance dependency. When providing a history, the client justifies to the nurse his use of illicit drugs. Based on this pattern of behavior this client's history is most likely to include which finding? A. Phobias and panic attacks when confronted by authority figures. B. Suicidal ideations and multiple attempts/ C. Multiple convictions for misdemeanors and class B felonies. D. Delusions of grandiosity and persecution

C. Multiple convictions for misdemeanors and class B felonies.

11. The nurse should observe most closely for drug toxicity when a client receives a medication that has which characteristic? A. Rapid onset of action. B. Low bioavailability. C. Narrow therapeutic index. D. Short half-life.

C. Narrow therapeutic index.

1. A client who has been in active labor for 12 hours suddenly tells the nurse that she has a strong urge to have a bowel movement. What action should the nurse take? A. Allow the client to use a bedpan. B. Explain the fetal head is descending. C. Perform a sterile vaginal exam. D. Assist the client to the bathroom.

C. Perform a sterile vaginal exam.

The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the nurse plan to administer? A. ½ tablet. B. 1 tablet. C. 1½ tablets. D. 2 tablets.

(C) is the correct calculation: D/H × Q = 7.5/5 × 1 tablet = 1½ tablets. Correct Answer: C

A female client asks the nurse to find someone who can translate into her native language her concerns about a treatment. Which action should the nurse take? A. Explain that anyone who speaks her language can answer her questions. B. Provide a translator only in an emergency situation. C. Ask a family member or friend of the client to translate. D. Request and document the name of the certified translator.

A certified translator should be requested to ensure the exchanged information is reliable and unaltered. To adhere to legal requirements in some states, the name of the translator should be documented (D). Client information that is translated is private and protected under HIPAA rules, so (A) is not the best action. Although an emergency situation may require extenuating circumstances (B), a translator should be provided in most situations. Family members may skew information and not translate the exact information, so (C) is not preferred. Correct Answer: D

The nurse suspect may be hemorrhaging internally. Which findings of an orthostatic test may indicate to the nurse of major bleed?

A decrease in the systolic b/p of 10mm/hg with a corresponding increase of heart rate of 20.

The nurse is assisting the mother of a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to select foods that are in keeping with the child's dietary restrictions. Which foods are contraindicated for this child?

Foods with aspartme

In caring for a client who is receiving linezolid IV for nosocomial pneumonia, which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider? A. Watery diarrhea B. Yellow-tinged sputum C. Increased fatigue D. Nausea and headache

A. Watery diarrhea

During a physical assessment, a female client begins to cry. Which action is best for the nurse to take? A. Request another nurse to complete the physical assessment. B. Ask the client to stop crying and tell the nurse what is wrong. C. Acknowledge the client's distress and tell her it is all right to cry. D. Leave the room so that the client can be alone to cry in private.

Acknowledging the client's distress and giving the client the opportunity to verbalize her distress (C) is a supportive response. (A, B, and D) are not supportive and do not facilitate the client's expression of feelings. Correct Answer: C

A client is receiving a full strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50ml/hour

A postoperative female client has a prescription for morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q3 hours for pain. One dose of morphine was administered when the client was admitted to the post anesthesia care unit (PACU) and 3 hours later, the client is again complaining of pain. Her current respiratory rate is 8 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse take?

Administer Naxolone IV

Following surgery, a male client with antisocial personality disorder frequently requests that a specific nurse be assigned to his care and is belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?

Advise the client that assignments are not based on clients requests

A female client is admitted with end stage pulmonary disease is alert, oriented, and complaining of shortness of breath. The client tells the nurse that she wants "no heroic measures" taken if she stops breathing, and she asks the nurse to document this in her medical record. What action should the nurse implement?

Ask the client to discuss "do not resuscitate" with her healthcare provider

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) assigned to obtain client vital signs reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beat/ minutes. What action should the charge nurse implement?

Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical radial deficit is present

Several months after a foot injury, and adult woman is diagnosed with neuropathic pain. The client describes the pain as severe and burning and is unable to put weight on her foot. She asks the nurse when the pain will "finally go away." How should the nurse respond?

Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain

Which breakfast selection indicates that the client understands the nurse's instructions about the dietary management of osteoporosis?

Bagel with jelly and skim milk

Following discharge teaching, a male client with duodenal ulcer tells the nurse the he will drink plenty of dairy products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse? A.Encourage the client to continue drinking milk. B.Offer the client a ProtonPump Inhibitor C. Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream D. Tell the Client to ad chocolat to the milk to enhance the calming effects

C. Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream

A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab is important for the nurse to review before contacting the health care provider? A. capillary glucose B. urine specific gravity C. Serum calcium D. white blood cell count

C. Serum calcium

Which assessment finding of a postmenopausal woman necessitates a referral by the nurse to the healthcare provider for evaluation of thyroid functioning?

Cold sensitivity

A client's subjective data includes dysuria, urgency, and urinary frequency. What action should the nurse implement next?

Collect a clean-catch specimen

An elderly female client with osteoarthritis reports increasing pain and stiffness in her right knee and asks how to reduce these symptoms. In responding to the client, the nurse recognizes what pathology as the cause of her symptoms?

Destruction of joint cartilage.

An African-American grandmother tells the nurse that her 4-year-old grandson is suffering with "miseries." Based on this statement, which focused assessment should the nurse conduct? A. Inquire about the source and type of pain. B. Examine the nose for congestion and discharge. C. Take vital signs for temperature elevation. D. Explore the abdominal area for distension.

Different cultural groups often have their own terms for health conditions. African-American clients may refer to pain as "the miseries. " Based on understanding this term, the nurse should conduct a focused assessment on the source and type of pain (A). (B, C, and D) are important, but do not focus on "miseries" (pain). Correct Answer: A

A client is being discharged with a prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). What instruction should the nurse provide this client regarding diet?

Eat approximated the same amount of leafy green vegetables daily so the amount of vitamin K consumed is consistent.

The nurse note a visible prolapse of the umbilical cord after a client experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes during labor. What intervention should the nurse implement immediately?

Elevate the presenting part off the cord.

After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED and initial assessment indicate that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which diet intervention is more important to include in this client's discharge plan?

Encourage a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet

The husband of an older woman, diagnosed with pernicious anemia, calls the clinic to report that his wife still has memory loss and some confusion since she received the first dose of nasal cyanocobalamin two days ago. He tells the nurse that he is worried that she might be getting Alzheimer's disease. What action should the nurse take?

Explain that memory loss and confusion are common with vitamin B12 deficiency

An adult female client tells the nurse that though she is afraid her abusive boyfriend might one day kill her, she keeps hoping that he will change. What action should the nurse take first?

Explore client's readiness to discuss the situation.

A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24-hours ago comes to the nurse's station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?

Ineffective coping related to denial

The nurse should teach the parents of a 6 year-old recently diagnosed with asthma that the symptom of acute episode of asthma are due to which physiological response?

Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm

A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician's office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?

Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding

At 0600 while admitting a woman for a schedule repeat cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup a coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

Inform the anesthesia care provider

The nurse assigns a UAP to obtain vital signs from a very anxious client. What instructions should the nurse give the UAP? A. Remain calm with the client and record abnormal results in the chart. B. Notify the medication nurse immediately if the pulse or blood pressure is low. C. Report the results of the vital signs to the nurse. D. Reassure the client that the vital signs are normal.

Interpretation of vital signs is the responsibility of the nurse, so the UAP should report vital sign measurements to the nurse (C). (A, B, and D) require the UAP to interpret the vital signs, which is beyond the scope of the UAP's authority. Correct Answer: C

The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and life style modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective? A. If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower my cholesterol. B. I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat. C. I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week. D. My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase.

Limiting saturated fat from animal food sources to no more than 4 ounces per week (C) is an important diet modification for lowering cholesterol. To be effective in reducing cholesterol, the client should exercise 30 minutes per day, or at least 4 to 6 times per week (A). Red meat and all proteins do not need to be eliminated (B) to lower cholesterol, but should be restricted to lean cuts of red meat and smaller portions (2-ounce servings). The low density lipoproteins (D) need to decrease rather than increase. Correct Answer: C

After placing a stethoscope as seen in the picture, the nurse auscultates S1 and S2 heart sounds. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, what action should the nurse take first?

Listen with the bell at the same location

The nurse is developing a teaching program for the community. What population characteristic is most influential when choosing strategies for implementing a teaching plan?

Literacy level

The nurse is caring for a client who had gastric bypass surgery yesterday. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement during the first 24 postoperative hours?

Measure hourly urinary output. Rationale: a serious early complications of gastric bypass surgery is an anastomoses leak, often resulting in death.

A 66-year-old woman is retiring and will no longer have a health insurance through her place of employment. Which agency should the client be referred to by the employee health nurse for health insurance needs?

Medicare

The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client's plan of care?

Monitor blood pressure frequently Rationale: A pheochromocytoma is a rare, catecholamine-secreting tumor that may precipitate life-threatening hypertension. The tumor is malignant in 10% of cases but may be cured completely by surgical removal. Although pheochromocytoma has classically been associated with 3 syndromes—von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome, multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2), and neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)—there are now 10 genes that have been identified as sites of mutations leading to pheochromocytoma.

One day after abdominal surgery, an obese client complains of pain and heaviness in the right calf. What action should the nurse implement?

Observe for unilateral swelling

A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?

Observe the antecubital fossa for inflammation.

A client presents to the labor and delivery unit, screaming "THE BABY IS COMING" which action should the nurse implement first.

Observe the perineum

An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which action should the nurse implement?

Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen

The nurse applies a blood pressure cuff around a client's left thigh. To measure the client's blood pressure, where should the diaphragm of the stethoscope be placed?

On left thigh with arrow pointing to inner thigh

A-12-years old boy has a body mass index (BMI) of 28, a systolic pressure and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HBA1C) of 7.8%. Which selection indicated that his mother understands the management of his diet? One whole-wheat bagel with cream cheese, two strips of bacon, six ounces of orange juice. Rationale: Diet - Foods high in carbohydrates and fiber, low fat. No honey, no ham, no high sugar, no frost food, avoid all whole wheat products.

One whole-wheat bagel with cream cheese, two strips of bacon, six ounces of orange juice. Rationale: Diet - Foods high in carbohydrates and fiber, low fat. No honey, no ham, no high sugar, no frost food, avoid all whole wheat products.

Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care for an older woman with osteoporosis?

Place the client on fall precautions

A client with cervical cancer is hospitalized for insertion of a sealed internal cervical radiation implant. While providing care, the nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. What action should the nurse take?

Place the implant in a lead container using long-handled forceps

The nurse is preparing a community education program on osteoporosis. Which instruction is helpful in preventing bone loss and promoting bone formation?

Recommend weight bearing physical activity

When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Schedule an appointment for an out-patient psychosocial assessment.

A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nose bleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?

Sitting up and leaning forward

The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the nurse that this client understands the dietary restrictions? A. Tossed salad, low-sodium dressing, bacon and tomato sandwich. B. New England clam chowder, no-salt crackers, fresh fruit salad. C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. D. Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, a slice of cherry pie.

Skim milk, turkey, bread, and ice cream (C), while containing some sodium, are considered low-sodium foods. Bacon (A), canned soups (B), especially those with seafood, hard cheeses, macaroni, and most diet drinks (D) are very high in sodium. Correct Answer: C

An infant is receiving gavage feedings via nasogastric tube. At the beginning of the feeding, the infant's heart rate drops to 80 beats / minute. What action should the nurse take?

Slow the feeding and monitor the infant's response.

The mother of an adolescent tells the clinic nurse, "My son has athlete's foot, I have been applying triple antibiotic ointment for two days, but there has been no improvement." What instruction should the nurse provide?

Stop using the ointment and encourage complete drying of the feet and wearing clean socks.

A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him "feel bad". In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition? A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage B. Myocardial infarction secondary to hypertension C. Coronary artery disease secondary to hypertension D. Ischemia secondary to Myocardial infarction

Stroke secondary to hemorrhage

The nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning. After suctioning the client's trachea for fifteen seconds, large amounts of thick yellow secretions return. What action should the nurse implement next? A. Encourage the client to cough to help loosen secretions. B. Advise the client to increase the intake of oral fluids. C. Rotate the suction catheter to obtain any remaining secretions. D. Re-oxygenate the client before attempting to suction again.

Suctioning should not be continued for longer than ten to fifteen seconds, since the client's oxygenation is compromised during this time (D). (A, B, and C) may be performed after the client is re-oxygenated and additional suctioning is performed. Correct Answer: D

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take? A. Infuse normal saline at a keep vein open rate. B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin. C. Infuse 10 percent dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr. D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the healthcare provider.

TPN is discontinued gradually to allow the client to adjust to decreased levels of glucose. Administering 10% dextrose in water at the prescribed rate (C) will keep the client from experiencing hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution is available. The client could experience a hypoglycemic reaction if the current level of glucose (A) is not maintained or if the TPN is discontinued abruptly (B). There is no reason to obtain a stat blood glucose level (D) and the healthcare provider cannot do anything about this situation. Correct Answer: C

A client who recently underwear a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan?

Teach tracheal suctioning techniques

For the past 24 hours, an antidiarrheal agent, diphenoxylate, has been administered to a bedridden, older client with infectious gastroenteritis. Which finding requires the nurse to take further action?

Tented skin turgor

The nurse is administering medications through a nasogastric tube (NGT) which is connected to suction. After ensuring correct tube placement, what action should the nurse take next? A. Clamp the tube for 20 minutes. B. Flush the tube with water. C. Administer the medications as prescribed. D. Crush the tablets and dissolve in sterile water.

The NGT should be flushed before, after and in between each medication administered (B). Once all medications are administered, the NGT should be clamped for 20 minutes (A). (C and D) may be implemented only after the tubing has been flushed. Correct Answer: B

The nurse prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute? A. 80 B. 8 C. 21 D. 25

The accepted formula for figuring drops per minute is: amount to be infused in one hour × drop factor/time for infusion (min)= drops per minute. Using this formula: 1,000/8 hours = 125 ml/ hour 125 × 10 (drip factor) = 1,250 drops in one hour. 1,250/ 60 (number of minutes in one hour) = 20.8 or 21 gtt/min (C). Correct Answer: C

The nurse observes that a male client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first? A. Observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack. B. Instruct the client regarding the need for the covering. C. Reapply the covering after filling with fresh ice. D. Ask the client how long the ice was applied to the skin.

The first action taken by the nurse should be to assess the skin for any possible thermal injury (A). If no injury to the skin has occurred, the nurse can take the other actions (B, C, and D) as needed. Correct Answer: A

An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which nurse is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment? A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes. B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall. C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred. D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.

The four elements of malpractice are: breach of duty owed, failure to adhere to the recognized standard of care, direct causation of injury, and evidence of actual injury. The hip fracture is the actual injury and the standard of care was "frequent monitoring." (C) implies that duty was owed and the injury occurred while the nurse was in charge of the client's care. There is no evidence of negligence in (A, B, and D). Correct Answer: C

The nurse is completing a mental assessment for a client who is demonstrating slow thought processes, personality changes, and emotional lability. Which area of the brain controls these neuro-cognitive functions? A. Thalamus. B. Hypothalamus. C. Frontal lobe. D. Parietal lobe.

The frontal lobe (C) of the cerebrum controls higher mental activities, such as memory, intellect, language, emotions, and personality. (A) is an afferent relay center in the brain that directs impulses to the cerebral cortex. (B) regulates body temperature, appetite, maintains a wakeful state, and links higher centers with the autonomic nervous and endocrine systems, such as the pituitary. (D) is the location of sensory and motor functions. Correct Answer: C

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position prior to administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP? A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg. B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap. C. Reposition in a Sim's position with the client's weight on the anterior ilium. D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level.

The left sided Sims' position allows the enema solution to follow the anatomical course of the intestines and allows the best overall results, so the UAP should reposition the client in the Sims' position, which distributes the client's weight to the anterior ilium (C). (A) is inaccurate. (B and D) should be implemented once the client is positioned. Correct Answer: C

A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe. C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli. D. Offer a medication-free period so that the client can do daily activities.

The most effective management of pain is achieved using an around-the-clock schedule that provides analgesic medications on a regular basis (A) and in a timely manner. Analgesics are less effective if pain persists until it is severe, so an analgesic medication should be administered before the client's pain peaks (B). Providing comfort is a priority for the client who is dying, but sedation that impairs the client's ability to interact and experience the time before life ends should be minimized (C). Offering a medication-free period allows the serum drug level to fall, which is not an effective method to manage chronic pain (D). Correct Answer: A

The nurse witnesses the signature of a client who has signed an informed consent. Which statement best explains this nursing responsibility? A. The client voluntarily signed the form. B. The client fully understands the procedure. C. The client agrees with the procedure to be done. D. The client authorizes continued treatment.

The nurse signs the consent form to witness that the client voluntarily signs the consent (A), that the client's signature is authentic, and that the client is otherwise competent to give consent. It is the healthcare provider's responsibility to ensure the client fully understands the procedure (B). The nurse's signature does not indicate (C or D). Correct Answer: A

While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the nurse implement? A. Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly. B. Encourage her to keep the joint covered to maintain warmth. C. Reinforce the need to grip directly under the joint for better support. D. Instruct her to grip directly over the joint for better motion.

The wife is performing the passive ROM correctly, therefore the nurse should acknowledge this fact (A). The joint that is being exercised should be uncovered (B) while the rest of the body should remain covered for warmth and privacy. (C and D) do not provide adequate support to the joint while still allowing for joint movement. Correct Answer: A

An elderly client with a fractured left hip is on strict bedrest. Which nursing measure is essential to the client's nursing care? A. Massage any reddened areas for at least five minutes. B. Encourage active range of motion exercises on extremities. C. Position the client laterally, prone, and dorsally in sequence. D. Gently lift the client when moving into a desired position.

To avoid shearing forces when repositioning, the client should be lifted gently across a surface (D). Reddened areas should not be massaged (A) since this may increase the damage to already traumatized skin. To control pain and muscle spasms, active range of motion (B) may be limited on the affected leg. The position described in (C) is contraindicated for a client with a fractured left hip. Correct Answer: D

Azithromycin is prescribed for an adolescent female who has lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia. What information is most important for the nurse to provide to this client?

Use two forms of contraception while taking this drug.

The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the nurse administer? A. 0.5 ml. B. 1 ml. C. 1.5 ml. D. 2 ml.

Using ratio and proportion: 8mg: 1ml :: 4mg:Xml 8X=4 X=0.5 Correct Answer: A

What is the most important reason for starting intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults? A. It is more difficult to find a superficial vein in the feet and ankles. B. A decreased flow rate could result in the formation of a thrombosis. C. A cannulated extremity is more difficult to move when the leg or foot is used. D. Veins are located deep in the feet and ankles, resulting in a more painful procedure.

Venous return is usually better in the upper extremities. Cannulation of the veins in the lower extremities increases the risk of thrombus formation (B) which, if dislodged, could be life-threatening. Superficial veins are often very easy (A) to find in the feet and legs. Handling a leg or foot with an IV (C) is probably not any more difficult than handling an arm or hand. Even if the nurse did believe moving a cannulated leg was more difficult, this is not the most important reason for using the upper extremities. Pain (D) is not a consideration. Correct Answer: B

A client who is 5' 5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the nurse to include during the preoperative assessment? A. What is your daily calorie consumption? B. What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take? C. Do you feel that you are overweight? D. Will a clear liquid diet be okay after surgery?

Vitamin and mineral supplements (B) may impact medications used during the operative period. (A and C) are appropriate questions for long-term dietary counseling. The nature of the surgery and anesthesia will determine the need for a clear liquid diet (D), rather than the client's preference. Correct Answer: B

The nurse is caring for a group of clients with the help of a practical nurse (PN). Which nursing actions should the nurse assign to the PN? (Select all that apply.) A. Administer a dose of insulin per sliding scale for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). B. Obtain postoperative vital signs for a client one day following unilateral knee arthroplasty C. Perform daily surgical dressing change for a client who had an abdominal hysterectomy D. Initiate patient controlled analgesia (PCA) pumps for two clients immediately postoperative E. Start the second blood transfusion for a client twelve hours following a below knee amputation

a, b,c

The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run in over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10 pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The nurse plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min? A. 42 gtt/min. B. 83 gtt/min. C. 125 gtt/min. D. 250 gtt/min.

gtt/min = 20gtts/ml X 1000 ml/4hrs X 1 hr/60 min Correct Answer: B