High acuity Practice question EXAM-2 chapter 40

Increase ICP (signs and symptoms)

-headache -dilated pupils - Decorticate or decerebrate posturing -hypotension

A nurse in the critical care unit is completing an admission assessment of a client who has a gunshot wound to the head. Which of the following assessment findings are indicative of increased ICP? (Select all that apply.) A. Headache B. Dilated pupils C. Tachycardia D. Decorticate posturing E. Hypotension

A. CORRECT: Headache is a finding associated with increased ICP. B. CORRECT: Dilated pupils is a finding associated with increased ICP. C. Bradycardia, not tachycardia, is a finding associated with increased ICP. D. CORRECT: Decorticate or decerebrate posturing is a finding associated with increased ICP. E. Hypertension, not hypotension, is a finding associated with increased ICP

A nurse is caring for a client who was recently admitted to the emergency department following a head-on motor vehicle crash. The client is unresponsive, has spontaneous respirations of 22/min, and has a laceration on the forehead that is bleeding. Which of the following is the priority nursing action at this time? A. Keep neck stabilized. B. Insert nasogastric tube. C. Monitor pulse and blood pressure frequently. D. Establish IV access and start fluid replacement

A. CORRECT: The greatest risk to the client is permanent damage to the spinal cord if a cervical injury does exist. The priority nursing intervention is to keep the neck immobile until damage to the cervical spine can be ruled out. B. Insertion of a nasogastric tube is not the priority nursing action at this time. C. Frequent monitoring of pulse and blood pressure is important but not the priority nursing action at this time. D. Establishing IV access for fluid replacement is important but not the priority nursing action at this time.

A nurse is caring for a client who has increased ICP and a new prescription for mannitol. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor? A. Hyperglycemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypervolemia D. Oliguria

A. Hyperglycemia is not an adverse effect of mannitol. B. CORRECT: Mannitol is a powerful osmotic diuretic. Adverse effects include electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia. C. Hypovolemia is an adverse effect of mannitol and should be monitored. D. Polyuria is an adverse of mannitol and should be monitored.

A nursing is caring for a client who has a closed-head injury with ICP readings ranging from 16 to 22 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to decrease the potential for raising the client's ICP? (Select all that apply.) A. Suction the endotracheal tube frequently. B. Decrease the noise level in the client's room. C. Elevate the client's head on two pillows. D. Administer a stool softener. E. Keep the client well hydrated.

A. Suctioning increases ICP and should be performed only when indicated. B. CORRECT: Decreasing the noise level and restricting the number of people in the client's room can help prevent increases in ICP. C. Hyperflexion of the client's neck with pillows carries the risk of increasing ICP and should be avoided. The head of the bed should be raised to at least 30°, but the head should be maintained in an upright, neutral position. D. CORRECT: Administration of a stool softener will decrease the need to bear down (Valsalva maneuver) during bowel movements, which can increase ICP. E. Overhydration carries the risk of increasing ICP and should be avoided. Monitor fluid and electrolyte levels closely for the client who has increased ICP.

A nurse is caring for a client who has just been admitted following surgical evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following is the priority assessment? A. Glasgow Coma Scale B. Cranial nerve function C. Oxygen saturation D. Pupillary response

A. The Glasgow Coma Scale is important. However, another assessment is the priority. B. Assessment of cranial nerve function is important. However, another assessment is the priority. C. CORRECT: Using the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) priority-setting framework, assessment of oxygen saturation is the priority action. Brain tissue can only survive for 3 min before permanent damage occurs. D. Assessment of pupillary response is important. However, another assessment is the priority.

17. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an open anterior cervical discectomy and fusion. Which complication would alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the primary health care provider? a. Auscultated stridor b. Weak pedal pulses c. Difficulty swallowing d. Inability to shrug shoulders

ANS: A Postoperative swelling can narrow the trachea, cause a partial airway obstruction, and manifest as stridor. The client may also have trouble swallowing, but maintaining an airway takes priority. Weak pedal pulses and an inability to shrug the shoulders are not complications of this surgery.

The nurse is caring for a 60-year-old female client who sustained a thoracic spinal cord injury 10 years ago. For which potential complication will the nurse assess during this client's care? a. Fracture b. Malabsorption c. Delirium d. Anemia

ANS: A Older adults who have impaired mobility due to a health problem or injury are at risk for complications of immobility, such as osteoporosis (bone loss) which leads to fracture. Being an older woman increases that risk due to loss of estrogen to protect bone loss. The other choices are not problems of immobility. Delirium is possible but is more common in clients over 70 years of age.

12. After teaching a client with a high thoracic spinal cord injury, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of how to prevent respiratory problems at home? a. "I'll use my incentive spirometer every 2 hours while I'm awake." b. "I'll drink thinned fluids to prevent choking." c. "I'll take cough medicine to prevent excessive coughing." d. "I'll position myself on my right side so I don't aspirate."

ANS: A The client with a cervical or high thoracic spinal cord injury typically has weak intercostal muscles and is at higher risk for developing atelectasis and stasis pneumonia. Using an incentive spirometer every 2 hours helps the client expand the lungs more fully and helps prevent atelectasis and other respiratory problems. Clients should drink fluids that they can tolerate; usually thick fluids are easier to tolerate. The client would be encouraged to cough and clear secretions, and placed in high-Fowler position to prevent aspiration.

8. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an open traditional anterior cervical fusion. Which assessment findings would alert the nursing to a complication from this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Difficulty swallowing b. Hoarse voice c. Constipation d. Bradycardia e. Hypertension

ANS: A, B Complications of the open traditional anterior cervical discectomy and fusion include dysphagia and hoarseness. Constipation, bradycardia, and hypertension are not complications of this procedure

10. The nurse is taking a history on an older adult. Which factors would the nurse assess as potential risks for low back pain? (Select all that apply.) a. Scoliosis b. Spinal stenosis c. Hypocalcemia d. Osteoporosis e. Osteoarthritis

ANS: A, B, C, D, E All of these factors place the client at risk for low back pain due to changes in spinal alignment, loss of bone, or joint degeneration. Bone loss worsens if serum calcium levels are below normal

6. A nurse assesses a client who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T5 level 12 hours ago. Which assessment findings would the nurse correlate with neurogenic shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Heart rate of 34 beats/min b. Blood pressure of 185/65 mm Hg c. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr d. Decreased level of consciousness e. Increased oxygen saturation

ANS: A, C, D Neurogenic shock with acute spinal cord injury manifests with decreased oxygen saturation, symptomatic bradycardia, decreased level of consciousness, decreased urine output, and hypotension

2. A nurse assesses a client who recently experienced a traumatic spinal cord injury. Which assessment data would the nurse obtain to assess the client's coping strategies? (Select all that apply.) a. Spiritual beliefs b. Level of pain c. Family support d. Level of independence e. Annual income f. Previous coping strategies

ANS: A, C, D, F Information about the client's preinjury psychosocial status, usual methods of coping with illness, difficult situations, and disappointments would be obtained. Determine the client's level of independence or dependence and his or her comfort level in discussing feelings and emotions with family members or close friends. Clients who are emotionally secure and have a positive self-image, a supportive family, and financial and job security often adapt to their injury. Information about the client's spiritual and religious beliefs or cultural background also assists the nurse in developing the plan of care. The other options do not supply as much information about coping

A nurse promotes the prevention of lower back pain by teaching clients at a community center. Which statement(s) would the nurse include in this education? (Select all that apply.) a. "Participate in an exercise program to strengthen back muscles." b. "Purchase a mattress that allows you to adjust the firmness." c. "Wear flat instead of high-heeled shoes to work each day." d. "Keep your weight within 20% of your ideal body weight." e. "Avoid prolonged standing or sitting, including driving."

ANS: A, C, E Exercise can strengthen back muscles, reducing the incidence of low back pain. Women should avoid wearing high-heeled shoes because they cause misalignment of the back. Prolonged standing and sitting should also be avoided. The other options will not prevent low back pain.

9. A nurse assesses cerebrospinal fluid leaking onto a client's surgical dressing. What actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Place the client in a flat position. b. Monitor vital signs for hypotension. c. Utilize a bedside commode. d. Assess for abdominal distension. e. Report the leak to the surgeon

ANS: A, E If cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is leaking from a surgical wound, the nurse would place the client in a flat position and contact the surgeon for repair of the leak. Hypotension and abdominal distension are not complications of CSF leakage

7. A client who had a complete spinal cord injury at level L5-S1 is admitted with a sacral pressure injury. What other assessment finding will the nurse anticipate for this client? a. Quadriplegia b. Flaccid bowel c. Spastic bladder d. Tetraparesis

ANS: B A low-level complete spinal cord injury (SCI) is a lower motor neuron injury because the reflect arc is damaged. Therefore, the client would be expected to have paraplegia and a flaccid bowel and bladder. Quadriplegia and tetraparesis are seen in clients with cervical or high thoracic SCIs.

16. A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from an open traditional cervical spinal fusion. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's postoperative instructions? a. "Only lift items that are 10 lb (4.5 kg) or less." b. "Wear your neck brace whenever you are out of bed." c. "You must remain in bed for 3 weeks after surgery." d. "You will be prescribed medications to prevent graft rejection."

ANS: B Clients who undergo spinal fusion are fitted with a neck brace that they must wear throughout the healing process whenever they are out of bed. The client should not lift anything more than 10 lb (4.5 kg). The client does not need to remain in bed. Medications for rejection prevention are not necessary for this procedure

14. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous endoscopic lumbar discectomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should have a lot less pain after surgery." b. "I'll be in the hospital for 2 to 3 days." c. "I should not have any major surgical complications." d. "I could possibly get an infection after surgery."

ANS: B Percutaneous endoscopic discectomy is a minimally invasive surgical procedure that requires a shorter hospital stay (23 hours or less) when compared to open traditional surgery. The risk for surgical complications is very low and clients experience less far pain from this procedure. However, due to interrupting skin integrity, infection may occur at the surgical site

7. A nurse plans care for a client with a halo fixator. Which interventions would the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Remove the vest for client bathing. b. Assess the pin sites for signs of infection. c. Loosen the pins when sleeping. d. Decrease the patient's oral fluid intake. e. Assess the chest and back for skin breakdown.

ANS: B, E The nurse would assess the pin sites for signs of infection or loose pins. The nurse would also assess the client's chest and back for skin breakdown from the halo vest. The vest is not removed for bathing and the pins are not intentionally loosened.

10. A nurse is caring for a client with paraplegia who is scheduled to participate in a rehabilitation program. The client states, "I don't understand the need for rehabilitation; the paralysis will not go away and it will not get better." How would the nurse respond? a. "If you don't want to participate in the rehabilitation program, I'll let your primary health care provider know." b. "Rehabilitation programs have helped many patients with your injury. You should give it a chance." c. "The rehabilitation program will teach you how to maintain the functional ability you have and prevent further disability." d. "When new discoveries are made regarding paraplegia, people in rehabilitation programs will benefit first."

ANS: C Participation in rehabilitation programs has many purposes, including prevention of disability, maintenance of functional ability, and restoration of function. The other responses do not meet this client's needs.

A nurse assesses a client with a spinal cord injury at level T5. The client's blood pressure is 184/95 mm Hg, and the client presents with a flushed face and blurred vision. After raising the head of the bed, what action would the nurse take next? a. Initiate oxygen via a nasal cannula. b. Recheck the client's blood pressure. c. Palpate the bladder for distention. d. Administer a prescribed beta blocker.

ANS: C The client is manifesting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Common causes include bladder distention, tight clothing, increased room temperature, and fecal impaction. If persistent, the client could experience neurologic injury such as s stroke. The other actions are not appropriate for this complication.

11. A nurse cares for a client with a spinal cord injury. With which interprofessional health team member would the nurse collaborate to assist the client with activities of daily living? a. Social worker b. Physical therapist c. Occupational therapist d. Case manager

ANS: C The occupational therapist instructs the patient in the correct use of all adaptive equipment. In collaboration with the therapist, the nurse instructs family members or the caregiver about transfer skills, feeding, bathing, dressing, positioning, and skin care. The other team members are consulted to assist the client with other issues.

4. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an open traditional lumbar laminectomy with fusion. Which complications would the nurse report to the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Surgical discomfort b. Redness and itching at the incision site c. Incisional bulging d. Clear drainage on the dressing e. Sudden and severe headache

ANS: C, D, E Bulging at the incision site or clear fluid on the dressing after open back surgery strongly suggests a cerebrospinal fluid leak, which constitutes an emergency. Loss of cerebrospinal fluid may cause a sudden and severe headache. Pain, redness, and itching at the site are normal.

3. After teaching a male client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level, the nurse assesses the his understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to sexual effects of his injury? (Select all that apply.) a. "I will explore other ways besides intercourse to please my partner." b. "I will not be able to have an erection because of my injury." c. "Ejaculation may not be as predictable as before." d. "I may urinate with ejaculation but this will not cause infection." e. "I should be able to have an erection with stimulation."

ANS: C, D, E Men with injuries above T6 often are able to have erections by stimulating reflex activity. For example, stroking the penis will cause an erection. Ejaculation is less predictable and may be mixed with urine. However, urine is sterile, so the client's partner will not get an infection.

5. A nurse assesses a client with paraplegia from a spinal cord injury and notes reddened areas over the client's hips and sacrum. What actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply a barrier cream to protect the skin from excoriation. b. Perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises for the hip joint. c. Reposition the client off of the reddened areas. d. Get the client out of bed and into a chair several times a day. e. Apply a pressure-reducing mattress.

ANS: C, E Appropriate interventions to relieve pressure on the reddened areas include frequent repositioning, using a pressure-reducing mattress, and having the client sit in a chair to remove pressure from the hips and sacrum. Correct sitting position would allow the pressure to be on both ischial tuberosities. ROM exercises are used to prevent contractures

The nurse initiates care for a client with a cervical spinal cord injury who arrives via emergency medical services. What action would the nurse take first? a. Assess level of consciousness. b. Obtain vital signs. c. Administer oxygen therapy. d. Evaluate respiratory status.

ANS: D The first priority for a client with a spinal cord injury is assessment of respiratory status and airway patency. Clients with cervical spine injuries are particularly prone to respiratory compromise due to interference with diaphragmatic innervation. The other actions would be performed after airway and breathing are assessed.

8. The nurse is collaborating with the occupational therapist to assist a client with a complete cervical spinal cord injury to transfer from the bed to the wheelchair. What ambulatory aid would be most appropriate for the client to meet this outcome? a. Rolling walker b. Quad cane c. Adjustable crutches d. Sliding board

ANS: D ANS: D A client who has a complete cervical spinal cord injury is unable to use any extremity except for parts of the hands and possibly the lower arms. Therefore, the client would be unable to use any of these ambulatory aids except for a sliding board, also known as a slider, which provides a "bridge" between the bed and a chair. The client uses his or her arms in a locked position to support the body while moving slowly across the board.

15. A nurse assesses clients at a community center. Which client is at greatest risk for low back pain? a. A 24-year-old female who is 25 weeks pregnant. b. A 36-year-old male who uses ergonomic techniques. c. A 53-year-old female who uses a walker. d. A 65-year-old female with osteoarthritis

ANS: D Osteoarthritis causes changes to support structures, increasing the client's risk for low back pain. The other clients are not at high risk

13. A client continues to have persistent low back pain even after using a number of nonpharmacologic pain management strategies. Which prescribed drug would the nurse anticipate that the client might need to manage the pain? a. Oxycontin b. Gabapentin c. Lorazepam d. Tramadol

ANS: D When nonpharmacologic strategies, including physical therapy, are not effective in managing pain, current standards recommend a mild opioid such as tramadol or serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Strong opioids such as oxycontin and benzodiazepines such as lorazepam are not considered best practice.

Quadriplegia (tetraplegia)

paralysis of all four limbs Quadriplegia and tetraparesis are seen in clients with cervical or high thoracic SCIs.

anterior cervical fusion

removing disc tissue pressing on a nerve in the neck, inserting a piece of bone between the vertebrae, and fusing this area with plates and screws. Skeletal System