IMMUNO SERO 3-4

B

In FLUORESCENCE POLARIZATION IMMUNOASSAY (FPIA), the degree of fluorescence polarization is ____ proportional to concentration of the analyte. A. Direct B. Inverse C. Variable D. No effect

A

In a ____ immunofluorescent assay, ANTIBODY THAT IS CONJUGATED WITH A FLUORESCENT TAG is added directly to unknown antigen that is fixed to a microscope slide: A. Direct immunofluorescent assay B. Indirect immunofluorescent assay C. Inhibition immunofluorescent assay

D

The serum titer in the ASO tube test is reported in: A. Highest dilution that gives a positive result B. Lowest dilution that gives a negative result C. ASO units D. Todd or International Units

D

The specific diagnostic test for hepatitis C is: A. Absence of anti-HAV and anti-HBsAg B. Increase in liver serum enzyme levels C. Detection of non-A, non-B antibodies D. Anti-HCV

B

This disease was endemic in Haiti and was subsequently contracted and CARRIED TO EUROPE by COLUMBUS CREW: A. Gonorrhea B. Syphilis C. Typhoid D. Hepatitis

B

What would happen if the color reaction phase is prolonged in one tube or well of an ELISA test? A. Result will be falsely decreased B. Result will be falsely increased C. Result will be unaffected D. Impossible to determine

D

Which of the following is the most common application of IMMUNOELECTROPHORESIS (IEP)? A. Identification of the absence of a normal serum protein B. Structural abnormalities of proteins C. Screening for circulating immune complexes D. Diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathies

C

Which part of the radial immunodiffusion (RID) test system contains the antisera? A. Center well B. Outer wells C. Gel D. Antisera may be added to any well

C

Which specimen is the sample of choice to evaluate latent or tertiary syphilis? A. Serum sample B. Chancre fluid C. CSF D. Joint fluid

a

the PCR cycle, how is denaturation accomplished? A. Heat B. Alkali treatment C. Addition of sulfonylurea D. Formamide

B

A biological false-positive reaction is LEAST likely with which test for syphilis? A. VDRL B. Fluorescent T. pallidum antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS) C. RPR D. All are equally likely to detect a false-positive result

A

A widely used HEMAGGLUTINATION test for detecting antibody to Treponema pallidum is: A. MHA-TP test B. FTA-ABS test C. VDRL test D. RPR test

B

ACUTE HEPATITIS A is routinely diagnosed in symptomatic patients by demonstrating the: A. HAV antigen B. IgM anti-HAV C. IgG anti-HAV

C

AIDS progresses, the quantity of _______ diminishes and the risk of opportunistic infection increases. A. HIV antigen B. HIV antibody C. CD4+ T lymphocytes D. CD8+ T lymphocytes

A

All of the following hepatitis viruses are spread through blood or blood products except: A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D

D

Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection? A. gp120 B. gp160 C. gp41 D. p24

D

One cause of a FALSE-POSITIVE VDRL test is: A. Brucellosis B. Treponema pallidum infection C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

D

Patient serum is mixed with a suspension of guinea pig antigen. When the sample is then mixed with horse red blood cells, agglutination occurs. This is suggestive of an infection caused by: A. Borrelia burgdorferi B. Hepatitis B virus C. Hepatitis C virus D. Epstein-Barr virus

C

Postzone causes false-negative reactions in antibody titers as a result of which of the following? A. Too much diluent added to test B. Excess antibody in test C. Excess antigen in test D. Incorrect diluent added to test

D

A SOLUBLE antigen and soluble antibody reacting to form an insoluble product describes: A. Agglutination reactions B. Heterophile reactions C. Labeled reactions D. Precipitation reactions

C

A bacterial protein used to bind human immunoglobulins is A. HAV antibody, IgA type B. Escherichia coli protein C C. Staphylococcal protein A D. HAV antibody, IgG type

A

A living donor is being sought for a child who requires a kidney transplant. The best odds of finding an MHC-compatible donor occur between the child and: A. A sibling (brother or sister) B. An unrelated individual C. The child's father D. The child's mother

c

A patient report states the presence of serum antibodies to OspC. What disease does the patient most likely have? - IMPORTANT A. Syphilis B. Strep throat C. Lyme disease D. Rubella

B

A positive ANA with the pattern of ANTI-CENTROMERE ANTIBODIES is most frequently seen in patients with: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. CREST syndrome C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Sjogren syndrome

B

A substrate is first exposed to a patient's serum, then after washing, ANTI-HUMAN IMMUNOGLOBULIN LABELED WITH A FLUOROCHROME is added. The procedure described is: A. Fluorescent quenching B. Indirect fluorescence C. Direct fluorescence D. Fluorescence inhibition

C

BLOCKING TEST in which an antigen is first exposed to unlabeled antibody and then to labeled antibody, and is finally washed and examined: A. Direct immunofluorescent assay B. Indirect immunofluorescent assay C. Inhibition immunofluorescent assay

B

Diagnosis of group A streptococci (Streptococcus pyogenes) infection is indicated by the presence of: A. Anti-protein A B. Anti-DNase B C. Anti-beta-toxin D. C-reactive protein

C

Diagnostic reagents useful for detecting antigen by the COAGGLUTINATION reaction may be prepared by binding antibody to killed staphylococcal cells via the Fc receptor of staphylococcal protein A. The class of antibody bound by this protein is: A. IgA B. IgD C. IgG D. IgM

B

FTA-ABS is used to identify which of the following in the patient's serum? A. Treponemal antibody B. Treponemes C. Reagin D. Cardiolipin

B

False-negative test results in a laboratory test for HIV antibody may occur because of: A. Heat inactivation of the serum before testing. B. Collection of the test sample before seroconversion. C. Interference by autoantibodies. D. Recent exposure to certain vaccines.

D

For which of the following tests is a lack of agglutination a positive reaction? A. Hemagglutination B. Passive agglutination C. Reverse passive agglutination D. Agglutination inhibition

D

Gold standard for detecting rickettsial antibodies: A. Weil-Felix test B. ELISA C. Immunoblot D. IFA and micro-IF

D

HIV can infect all of the following cells except: A. CD4+ subset of lymphocytes B. Macrophages C. Monocytes D. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

D

HTLV-I and HTLV-II can be transmitted by: A. Bloodborne (transfusion, IV drug abuse) B. Sexual contact (commonly from men to women) C. Mother-to-child (mainly through breastfeeding) D. All of these

D

If only anti-HBs is positive, which of the following can be ruled out? A. Hepatitis B virus vaccination B. Distant past infection with hepatitis B virus C. Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) injection D. Chronic hepatitis B virus infection

C

In ELISA, either antigen or antibody may be bound to ____ phase. A. Liquid phase B. Semi-solid phase C. Solid phase

C

In FLUORESCENCE POLARIZATION IMMUNOASSAY (FPIA), labeled antigens compete with unlabeled antigen in the patient sample for a limited number of antibody binding sites. The MORE antigen that is present in the patient sample: A. Less fluorescence B. Greater fluorescence C. Less fluorescence polarization D. Greater fluorescence polarization

C

In monitoring an HIV-infected patient, which parameter may be expected to be the most sensitive indicator of the effectiveness of antiretroviral treatment? A. HIV antibody titer B. CD4:CD8 ratio C. HIV viral load D. Absolute total T-cell count

C

In the anti-dsDNA procedure, the antigen most commonly utilized is: A. Rat stomach liver B. Mouse kidney tissue C. Crithidia luciliae D. Toxoplasma gondii

D

In the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), the antihuman globulin is: A. Fluorochrome-conjugated B. Auramine-conjugated C. Hormone-conjugated D. Enzyme-conjugated

C

In the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), which of the following can be attached to a solid-phase support (e.g. polystyrene)? A. Antigen anzyme B. Antibody and albumin C. Antigen and antibody D. Antigen and albumin

A

Inactivation of sera for serological tests is performed for what purpose? A. Destruction of complement B. Increasing sensitivity of test C. Removal of particulate matter D. Restoration of refrigerated sera to appropriate temperature for testing

a

Initial force of attraction that exists between A SINGLE FAB SITE ON AN ANTIBODY MOLECULE AND A SINGLE EPITOPE OR DETERMINANT SITE on the corresponding antigen: A. Affinity B. Avidity

B

It represents the sum of all the attractive forces between an antigen and an antibody: A. Affinity B. Avidity

A

OX-19 and OX-2 refer to: A. Strains of Proteus vulgaris B. Antigens of Rickettsia prowazeki C. Serotypes of Brucella abortus D. Antibodies to Salmonella typhi

A

Rapid antigen detection for HISTIDINE-RICH PROTEIN II (HRP-II) is specific for: A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium vivax

C

Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) antigen contain cardiolipin with: A. 10% saline B. Lipoteichoic acid C. Charcoal particles D. Fluorescein isothiocyanate

B

Reactions involving IgG may need to be enhanced for which reason? A. It is only active at 25°C. B. It may be too small to produce lattice formation. C. It has only one antigen-binding site. D. It is only able to produce visible precipitation reactions.

D

Rheumatoid factor is typically an IgM autoantibody with specificity for which of the following? A. SS-B B. Double-stranded DNA C. Ribonucleoprotein D. Fc portion of IgG

D

Risk factors for hepatitis C virus (HCV) include: A. Illegal IV drug use B. Occupational exposure C. Multiple sexual partners D. All of the above

A

Serological testing provides the most practical and reliable means of confirming a measles diagnosis. Samples collected before ___ may yield false-negative results, and repeat testing on a later sample is recommended in that situation A. 72 hours B. 5 days C. 6 days D. 9 days

C

Serum tested positive for HBsAg and anti-HBc IgM. The patient most likely has which of the following? A. Acute hepatitis C B. Chronic hepatitis B C. Acute hepatitis B D. Acute hepatitis A

C

The Australia antigen is now called: A. Dane particle B. Long-incubation hepatitis C. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) D. Hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg)

D

The FIRST SEROLOGIC MARKER to appear in patients with acute hepatitis B virus infection is: A. Anti-HBs B. Anti-HBc C. Anti-HBe D. HBsAg

B

The Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test for syphilis is classified as a(n): A. Agglutination reaction B. Flocculation reaction C. Hemagglutination reaction D. Precipitation reaction

C

The Weil-Felix test is used for the detection of which type of antibodies: A. Salmonella B. Mycoplasma C. Rickettsial D. Viral

A

The antigen used in the precipitation test is: A. Soluble B. Insoluble C. Particulate D. Cellular

A

The characteristic laboratory finding in HIV infection is: A. Decreased numbers of CD4 T cells. B. Decreased numbers of CD8 T cells. C. Decreased numbers of CD20 B cells. D. Decreased immunoglobulins.

A

The directions for a slide agglutination test instruct that after mixing the patient's serum and latex particles, the slide must be rotated for 2 minutes. What would happen if the slide were rotated for 10 minutes? A. Possible false-positive result B. Possible false-negative result C. No effect D. Depends on the amount of antibody present in the sample

D

The fourth-generation ELISA tests for HIV detect: A. HIV-1 and HIV-2 antigens B. HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies C. p24 antigen D. HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies and p24 antigen

B

The most common means of HIV transmission worldwide is through: A. Blood transfusions B. Intimate sexual contact. C. Sharing of needles in intravenous drug use. D. Transplacental passage of the virus.

A

The most commonly used method to detect VZV antibodies in the clinical laboratory is: A. ELISA B. PCR C. FAMA D. All of these

B

The most frequent malignancy observed in AIDS patients is: A. Pneumocystis jiroveci (P. carinii) B. Kaposi's sarcoma C. Toxoplasmosis D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

C

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) involves three processes. Select the order in which these occur. A. Extension→Annealing→Denaturation B. Annealing→Denaturation→Extension C. Denaturation→Annealing→Extension D. Denaturation→Extension→Annealing

A

The presence of C-reactive protein in a patient's serum indicates: A. Inflammation B. Pneumococcal pneumonia C. Group A Strep infection D. Typhoid or paratyphoid

B

The prozone phenomenon can result in a (an): A. False-positive reaction B. False-negative reaction C. Enhanced agglutination D. Diminished antigen response

B

The rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test is rotated at what speed for which length of time? A. 200 RPM for 10 minutes B. 100 RPM for 8 minutes C. 180 RPM for 4 minutes D. 125 RPM for 2 minutes

C

The rapid plasma reagin assay for syphilis does not need to be read microscopically because the antigen is: A. Cardiolipin B. Complexed with latex C. Complexed with charcoal D. Inactivated bacterial cells

D

The serologically detectable antibody produced in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is primarily of the class: A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM

B

The serum of an individual who received all doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should contain: A. Anti-HBs B. Anti-HBe C. Anti-HBc D. All of the above

D

Two cross-reacting antigen types of herpes simplex virus have been identified: A. EBV and CMV B. HHV6 and HHV7 C. VZV and CMV D. HSV1 and HSV2

A

Typing of RBCs with reagent antiserum represents which type of reaction? A. Direct hemagglutination B. Passive hemagglutination C. Hemagglutination inhibition D. Reverse passive hemagglutination

A

What criteria constitute the classification system for HIV infection? CD4-positive T-cell count and clinical symptoms Clinical symptoms , condition, duration, and number of positive bands on Western blot Presence or absence of lymphadenopathy Positive bands on Western blot and CD8-positive T-cell count

D

What is the difference between nephelometry and turbidimetry? A. There is no difference between the two assays, only in name B. Nephlometry is a newer example of turbidimetry C. Nephlometry measures light transmitted through a solution, and turbidimetry measures light scattered in a solution D. Nephlometry measures light scattered in a solution, and turbidimetry measures light transmitted through a solution

B

What is the immunologic method utilized in the FLOW CYTOMETER? A. Latex agglutination B. Immunofluorescence C. Enzyme linked immunoassay D. Radioimmunoassay

C

What is the interpretation when an Ouchterlony plate shows crossed lines between wells 1 and 2(antigen is placed in the center well and antisera in wells 1 and 2)? A. No reaction between wells 1 and 2 B. Partial identity between wells 1 and 2 C. Nonidentity between wells 1 and 2 D. Identity between wells 1 and 2

B

What is the main difference between agglutination and precipitation reactions? A. Agglutination occurs between a soluble antigen and antibody B. Agglutination occurs when the antigen is particulate C. Precipitation occurs when the antigen is particulate D. Precipitation occurs when both antigen and antibody are particulate

B

What outcome results from improper washing of a tube or well after adding the enzyme-antibody conjugate in an ELISA system? A. Result will be falsely decreased B. Result will be falsely increased C. Result will be unaffected D. Result is impossible to determine

B

What substance is detected by the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) and Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) tests for syphilis? A. Cardiolipin B. Anticardiolipin antibody C. Anti-T. pallidum antibody D. Treponema pallidum

C

What temperature is used to achieve DNA denaturation to a single strand? A. 74 °C B. 92 °C C. 94 °C

C

What type of antigen is used in the RPR card test? A. Live treponemal organisms B. Killed suspension of treponemal organisms C. Cardiolipin D. Tanned sheep cells

B

When soluble antigens diffuse in a gel that contains antibody, in which zone does OPTIMUM precipitation occur? A. Prozone B. Zone of equivalence C. Postzone D. Prezone

D

Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? A. 2:1 B. 3:1 C. 2:3 D. 1:2

A

Which hepatitis B marker is the best indicator of early acute infection? A. HBsAg B. HBeAg C. Anti-HBc D. Anti-HBs

D

Which hepatitis antibody confers immunity against reinfection with hepatitis B virus? A. Anti-HBc IgM B. Anti-HBc IgG C. Anti-HBe D. Anti-HBs

D

Which is most likely a positive Western blot result for infection with HIV? A. Band at p24 B. Band at gp60 C. Bands at p24 and p31 D. Bands at p24 and gp120

B

Which is the first antibody detected in serum after infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV)? A. Anti-HBs B. Anti-HBc IgM C. Anti-HBe D. All are detectable at the same time

D

Which of the following is an example of a TREPONEMAL antigen test used for the diagnosis of syphilis? A. CRP B. RPR C. VDRL D. FTA-ABS

A

Which of the following is considered to be nonsuppurative complication of streptococcal infection? A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Scarlet fever C. Impetigo D. Pharyngitis

B

Which of the following is used to detect allergen specific IgE? A. RIST B. RAST C. IEP D. CRP

B

Which of the following positive antibody tests may be an indication of recent vaccination or early primary infection for rubella in a patient with no clinical symptoms? A. Only IgG antibodies positive B. Only IgM antibodies positive C. Both IgG and IgM antibodies positive D. Fourfold rise in titer for IgG antibodies

C

Which of the following serologic tests detects the polysaccharide capsule ANTIGEN in serum and CSF of patients with suspected infection with Cryptococcus neoformans? A. Complement fixation B. India ink test C. Latex agglutination D. Hemagglutination test

B

Which of the following serologic tests is commonly performed by an immunofluorescence method? A. Anti-HBs B. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) C. Antistreptolysin O (ASO) D. C-reactive protein (CRP)

D

Which of the following stages of infectious mononucleosis infection is characterized by ANTIBODY TO EPSTEIN-BARR NUCLEAR ANTIGEN (EBNA)? A. Recent (acute) infection B. Past infection (convalescent) period C. Reactivation of latent infection D. Past infection, reactivation of latent infection

B

Which of the following statements about the test for C-reactive protein (CRP) is true? A. It correlates with neutrophil phagocytic function. B. It is an indicator of ongoing inflammation. C. It is diagnostic for rheumatic fever. D. Levels decrease during heart disease.

C

Which of the following statements regarding infection with hepatitis D virus is true? A. Occurs in patients with HIV infection B. Does not progress to chronic hepatitis C. Occurs in patients with hepatitis B D. Is not spread through blood or sexual contact

C

Which of the following tests is positive during the WINDOW PERIOD of infection with hepatitis B? A. Hepatitis B surface antigen B. Hepatitis B surface antibody C. Hepatitis B core antibody D. Hepatitis C antibody

A

Which surface marker is a reliable marker for the presence of high levels of hepatitis B virus (HBV) and a high degree of infectivity? A. HBeAg B. HBsAg C. HBcAg D. Anti-HBsAg

A

Which technique is used to detect DNA containing a specific base sequence by applying a labeled probe to DNA bands immobilized onto nitrocellulose paper following electrophoresis? A. Southern blot B. Northern blot C. Western blot

A

Which technique represents a SINGLE-diffusion reaction? A. Radial immunodiffusion B. Ouchterlony diffusion C. Immunoelectrophoresis D. Immunofixation electrophoresis

B

Which test, other than serological markers, is most consistently elevated in viral hepatitis? A. Antinuclear antibodies B. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) C. Absolute lymphocyte count D. Lactate dehydrogenase