Individual RAT #2

Which of the following patient assessment data would represent preeclampsia? A. B/P- 146 /92, protein 350 mg/ 24 hours B. B/P- 130/88, protein negative C. B/P- 132/76, protein 100 mg/ 24 hours D. B/P 128/84, complains of heartburn

A. B/P- 146 /92, protein 350 mg/ 24 hours

The Center for Disease Control (CDC) recommends all pregnant women should be screened for Group B Strep at what time during pregnancy? A. Between 35 and 37 weeks' gestation B. During the initial prenatal visit C. Between 28-32 weeks' gestation D. During the first trimester

A. Between 35 and 37 weeks' gestation

Which of the following accurately defines eclampsia? A. Occurrence of seizures (convulsions) B. Extremely high blood pressure and vision changes C. Blood pressure 140/ 90 and proteinuria D. Blood pressure 160/ 100 and 3+ proteinuria

A. Occurrence of seizures (convulsions)

When preparing the room for an admission of a multigravida client at 36 weeks gestation diagnosed with severe preeclampsia, which item is the most important for the nurse to obtain? A. Padding for the side rails B. Portable Ultrasound machine C. Oxytocin infusion solution D. Disposable tongue blades

A. Padding for the side rails

The antenatal clinic nurse is educating a client with gestational diabetes soon after diagnosis. Evaluation for this client session will include what outcomes? Select all that apply. A. The client will strive to maintain a hemoglobin A1C of less than 6% B. The client will continue to take her prenatal vitamins, iron, and folic acid C. The client states she will need to maintain a caloric intake of less than 1400cal/day to prevent hyperglycemia D. The client states her blood sugars need to remain between 70 and 110mg/dL E. The client describes her planned walking program

A. The client will strive to maintain a hemoglobin A1C of less than 6% B. The client will continue to take her prenatal vitamins, iron, and folic acid D. The client states her blood sugars need to remain between 70 and 110mg/dL E. The client describes her planned walking program

A pregnant woman has Class II cardiac disease. Which of the following defines this complication during pregnancy? A. The patient is asymptomatic at rest but symptomatic with heavy physical activity. B. Patient is symptomatic at rest and symptomatic with any physical activity. C. Patient is asymptomatic with no limitations of physical activity. D. Patient is asymptomatic at rest, but symptomatic with minimal physical activity.

A. The patient is asymptomatic at rest but symptomatic with heavy physical activity.

Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate an ectopic pregnancy? A. one-sided severe abdominal pain, dizziness, vaginal bleeding B. headache with blurred vision and ankle edema C. hypertension, dizziness, nausea and vomiting D. urinary frequency, increased blood pressure, abdominal pain

A. one-sided severe abdominal pain, dizziness, vaginal bleeding

Imminent abortion

Abortion characterized by bleeding, cramping, and dilation of the cervical os

Complete abortion

Abortion characterized by complete passage of all conception products

Threatened abortion

Abortion characterized by vaginal bleeding and cramping, and a closed cervical os

Incomplete abortion

Abortion in which a portion of the products of conception is retained

A Glucose Challenge test (GCT) was completed with a woman who is 28 weeks pregnant. Which of the following results indicate further screening is needed? A. 98 mg/dL B. 142 mg/dL C. 126 mg/dL D. 110 mg/dL

B. 142 mg/dL

The correct definition of spontaneous abortion is "a pregnancy that ends": A. Between 20-28 weeks' gestation B. Before 20 weeks' gestation C. Before 28 week's gestation D. After 28 weeks' gestation

B. Before 20 weeks' gestation

The criteria for diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum include: A. Persistent vomiting and 1% weight loss from pre-pregnant weight B. Persistent vomiting with 5% weight loss from pre-pregnant weight C. Craving to eat non-nutritive foods or substances D. Periodic vomiting and diarrhea

B. Persistent vomiting with 5% weight loss from pre-pregnant weight

Which of the following signs and symptoms most accurately characterize a pregnant woman with Gestational Trophoblastic Disease? A. Inconsistency between uterine size and dates and high level of maternal alpha-fetoprotein B. Vaginal bleeding, inconsistency between uterine size and dates, elevated levels of hCG C. Nausea and vomiting, vaginal bleeding, high liver enzymes D. Vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, low levels of hCG

B. Vaginal bleeding, inconsistency between uterine size and dates, elevated levels of hCG

The pathophysiology of preeclampsia is a disease of the placenta, explained as an imbalance characterized by a: A. Increase of nitric oxide and increase of Prostacyclin B. Increase intravascular fluid volume and decrease of nitric oxide C. Decrease in Prostacyclin and increase of Thromboxane D. Decrease of Thromboxane and increase of Prostacyclin

C. Decrease in Prostacyclin and increase of Thromboxane

HELLP is defined as hemolysis and elevated liver enzymes. The last two letters describe which symptom of HELLP? A. Low plasma B. Low protein C. Low platelets D. Low placenta

C. Low platelets

In which of the following situations is Rh incompatibility a risk to the fetus? A. Mother Rh positive; Baby Rh positive B. Mother Rh negative; Baby Rh negative C. Mother Rh negative; Baby Rh positive D. Mother Rh positive; Father Rh negative

C. Mother Rh negative; Baby Rh positive

The indirect Coombs test is done with a pregnant woman who is Rh negative. What does this test measure? A. Presence of the Rh antigen in the mother's blood B. If the baby has Rh positive blood C. Presence of Rh antibodies in the mother's blood D. If the father's blood is Rh positive

C. Presence of Rh antibodies in the mother's blood

The priority treatment goal for a pregnant woman with gestational diabetes is: A. Weight gain B. Correct dehydration C. Prevent seizures D. Glucose control

D. Glucose control