ISTQB Certification Exam-Sample Papers Q. 1 to 600
Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution? A. Implementation and execution. B. Planning and control. C. Analysis and design. D. Test closure.
A
Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE? A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes. B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects. C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes. D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.
A
Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID? Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4 Conditions Age [<21 yrs] [21-29] [yrs 30-50yrs] [> 50yrs] Insurance Class [A] [A or B] [B. C or D] [C or D] Actions Premium [100] [90] [70] [70] Excess [2,500] [2,500] [500] [1000] A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500. B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500. C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500. D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.
A
Q. 22: When should configuration management procedures be implemented? A. During test planning. B. During test analysis. C. During test execution. D. When evaluating exit criteria
A
Q. 24: Which of the problems below BEST characterize a result of software failure? A. Damaged reputation B. Lack of methodology C. Inadequate training D. Regulatory compliance
A
Q. 28: Which of the following can be considered as success factors when deploying a new tool in an organization? A. Providing coaching to users and defining usage guidelines B. Monitoring tool usage and reducing the need for risk analysis C. Improving processes and focusing more on component testing D. Assessing testing completion and minimizing code reviews
A
Q. 29: What is the purpose of exit criteria? A. To define when a test level is complete. B. To determine when a test has completed. C. To identify when a software system should be retired. D. To determine whether a test has passed.
A
Q. 33: Match the following terms and statements. 1.Decision Table Testing 2.Decision Testing 3.State Transition Testing 4.Exploratory Testing W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to complement structured testing. X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re depending on current conditions or previous history. Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise have been exercised during testing. Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes. Options: A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W. B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y. C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y. D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.
A
Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component? A. Black Box Techniques. B. White Box Techniques. C. Glass Box Techniques. D. Experience Based Techniques.
A
Q. 39: The above diagram represents the following paths through the code. A. vwy B. vwz C. vxy D. vxz What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full statement coverage? Exhibit: A. A B. ABD C. ABCD D. ACD
A
Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning? A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks. B. Initiating corrective actions. C. Monitoring progress and test coverage. D. Measuring and analyzing results.
A
Q. 482: Analyze the following highly simplified procedure: Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?" IF the customer wants �return� Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?" IF the customer replies �Cheap-day� Say: "That will be 11:20" ELSE Say: "That will be 19:50" ENDIF ELSE Say: "That will be 9:75" ENDIF Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
A
Q. 486: Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester? i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur. ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script. iii Expected results must be added to the captured script. iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester. v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn't play correctly. Ans: A. i, iii, iv, v. B. ii, iv and v. C. i, ii and iv. D. i and v.
A
Q. 488: The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities: i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques. ii. Specify the order of test case execution. iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions. iv. Specify expected results. According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities? A. iii, i, iv, ii. B. iii, iv, i, ii. C. iii, ii, i, iv. D. ii, iii, i, iv.
A
Q. 496: Which of the following is a major task of test planning? A. Determining the test approach. B. Preparing test specifications. C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. D. Measuring and analyzing results.
A
Q. 4: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829 - 1998), which of the following sections are part of the test summary report? a) Summary b) Test incident report identifier c) Test deliverables d) Risks and contingencies e) Variances f) Approvals g) Output specifications A. a, e and f B. a, c and d C. a, b and f D. a, d and e
A
Q. 500: When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that A. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product B. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail C. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system
A
Q. 525: In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun? A. After the software or system has been produced. B. During development. C. As early as possible. D. During requirements analysis.
A
Q. 526: Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE? A. Expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour B. Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code C. Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run D. Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
A
Q. 530: Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE? A. Black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique B. White box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique C. Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique D. Black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
A
Q. 537: Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment? I. Ease of use II. Capacity for incremental implementation III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project IV. Inclusion of advanced tools Ans: A.I, II &III B.I, II &IV C.II, III&IV D.I, III&IV
A
Q. 538: When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as: A. Equivalence partitioning B. Boundary value analysis C. Decision table D. Hybrid analysis
A
Q. 547: "The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation" done by A. Horizontal tracebility B. Depth tracebility C. Vertical tracebility D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities
A
Q. 548: How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 % condition coverage? if ((temperature < 0) or (temperature > 100)) { alert ("DANGER"); if ((speed > 100) and (load <= 50)) { speed = 50; } } else { check = false; } A. 5 B. 4 C. 2 D. 3
A
Q. 556: Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability? A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applications B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system
A
Q. 559: "Defect Density" calculated in terms of A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system
A
Q. 560: Test charters are used in ________ testing A. Exploratory testing B. Usability testing C. Component testing D. Maintainability testing
A
Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities? A. Developers. B. Analysts. C. Testers. D. Incident Managers
A
Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which statement BEST details those for developers i) Performance testing tools. ii) Coverage measurement tools. iii) Test comparators. iv) Dynamic analysis tools. v) Incident management tools. A. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers. B. ii. and iv. are more for developers. C. ii, iii and iv. are more for developers. D. ii. and iii. are more for developers.
B
Q. 15: What is beta testing? A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location. B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations. C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location. D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.
B
Q. 16: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage? if width > length then biggest_dimension = width if height > width then biggest_dimension = height end_if else biggest_dimension = length if height > length then biggest_dimension = height end_if end_if A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 1
B
Q. 23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ? i) Regression testing is run ONLY once ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made iii) Regression testing is often automated iv) Regression tests need not be maintained Options: A. ii, iv. B. ii, iii. C. i, iii, iv. D. iii.
B
Q. 26: What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle? A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases. B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code. C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later. D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy
B
Q. 30: Which test design technique relies heavily on prior thorough knowledge of the system? A. Data driven testing technique B. Experience-based technique C. White-box technique D. Structure-based technique
B
Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning? i) Developing test cases. ii) Defining the overall approach to testing. iii) Assigning resources. iv) Building the test environment v) Writing test conditions. A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false. B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false. C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false. D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.
B
Q. 37: What principle is BEST described when test designs are written by a third party? A. Exploratory testing B. Independent testing C. Integration testing D. Interoperability testing
B
Q. 484: Enough testing has been performed when: A. Time runs out. B. The required level of confidence has been achieved. C. No more faults are found. D. The users won't find any serious faults.
B
Q. 492: What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk? A. Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the project's capability to deliver its objectives. B. Project risks are the risks that surround the project's capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system. C. Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages. D. Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.
B
Q. 493: During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed? A Test implementation and execution. B Evaluating test exit criteria. C Test analysis and design. D Test planning and control.
B
Q. 494: What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan? A. To communicate how incidents will be managed. B. To communicate how testing will be performed. C. To produce a test schedule. D. To produce a work breakdown structure.
B
Q. 495: Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed? A. Test plan. B. Test procedure specification. C. Test case specification. D. Test design specification.
B
Q. 498: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10%. The next $28000 after that is taxed at 22%. Any further amount is taxed at 40%. To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case? A. $28000. B. $33501. C. $32001. D. $1500.
B
Q. 499: Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator? A. Dynamic Analysis tool. B. Test Execution tool. C. Static Analysis tool. D. Security tool.
B
Q. 521: Which of the following will NOT be detected by static analysis? A. Parameter type mismatches. B. Errors in requirements. C. Undeclared variables. D. Uncalled functions.
B
Q. 531: Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective: A. To find faults in the software B. To prove that the software has no faults C. To give confidence in the software D. To find performance problems
B
Q. 533: What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics: A. Walkthrough B. Inspection C. Management review D. Post project review
B
Q. 534: Maintenance means A. Updating tests when the software has changed B. Testing a released system that has been changed C. Testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need D. Testing to maintain business advantage
B
Q. 535: A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:- i. Test Items ii. Test Scripts iii. Test Deliverables iv. Responsibilities Ans: A. I,ii,iii are true and iv is false B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true
B
Q. 536: All of the following might be done during unit testing except A. Desk check B. Manual support testing C. Walkthrough D. Compiler based testing
B
Q. 539: The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug. I. Phase injected II. Phase detected III. Phase fixed IV. Phase removed Ans: A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, III and IV
B
Q. 541: A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements,or both are combined all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages. A. System Testing B. Big-Bang Testing C. Integration Testing D. Unit Testing
B
Q. 546: Which of the following statements is true about white-box testing? A. It includes functional testing B. It includes loop testing C. It is usually done after black-box testing D. It is usually done during the integration testing phase
B
Q. 551: An expert based test estimation is also known as A. Narrow band Delphi B. Wide band Delphi C. Bespoke Delphi D. Robust Delphi
B
Q. 554: A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to A. Establish a relationship with the customer B. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan C. Modify the project's organizational structure to meet the manager's management style D. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace
B
Q. 6: Who typically use static analysis tools? A. Customers and users B. Developers and designers C. Business and systems analysts D. System and acceptance testers
B
Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system design? Exhibit: A. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout. B. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout. C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout. D. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
C
Q. 17: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for the following fragment of code. if width > length then biggest_dimension = width else biggest_dimension = length end_if The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above. print "Biggest dimension is " & biggest_dimension print "Width: " & width print "Length: " & length How many more test cases are required? A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage. B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be used to provide 100% decision coverage. C. None, existing test cases can be used. D. One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage.
C
Q. 18: Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove? A. Usability defects found by customers B. Defects in infrequently used functionality C. Defects that were detected early D. Minor defects that were found by users
C
Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test tools? i) Easy to access information about tests and testing. ii) Reduced maintenance of testware. iii) Easy and cheap to implement. iv) Greater consistency of tests. Options: A. ii and iv B. ii and iii C. i and iv D. i and iii
C
Q. 2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?: i) Identifying the version of software under test. ii) Controlling the version of testware items. iii) Developing new testware items. iv) Tracking changes to testw are items. v) Analysing the need for new testware items. A. ii, iv and v. B. ii, iii and iv, C. i, ii and iv. D. i, iii and v.
C
Q. 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY associated? A. Tool support for performance and monitoring. B. Tool support for static testing. C. Tool support for test execution and logging. D. Tool support for the management of testing and tests.
C
Q. 38: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence? A. It does not require familiarity with the code. B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code. C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests. D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers.
C
Q. 40: Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification based (black-box) techniques? A. Test cases can be easily automated. B. Test cases are independent of each other. C. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system . D. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.
C
Q. 481: Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria? A. Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite. B. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered. C. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found. D. Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
C
Q. 485: Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts? A. Actual results B. Program specification C. User requirements D. System specification
C
Q. 487: Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model? A. All document reviews involve the development team. B. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities. C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level. D. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.
C
Q. 490: Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition? If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount. A. 17, 18, 19. B. 29, 30, 31. C. 18, 29, 30. D. 17, 29, 31.
C
Q. 522: Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress? A. Number of undetected defects. B. Total number of defects in the product. C. Number of test cases not yet executed. D. Effort required to fix all defects.
C
Q. 524: Which of the following test activities can be automated? i Reviews and inspections. ii Metrics gathering. iii Test planning. iv Test execution. v Data generation. Ans: A. i, iii, iv. B. i, ii, iii. C. ii, iv, v. D. ii, iii, v.
C
Q. 527: Functional system testing is: A. Testing that the system functions with other systems B. Testing that the components that comprise the system function together C. Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole D. Testing the system performs functions within specified response times
C
Q. 528: Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management? A. Operating systems B. Test documentation C. Live data D. User requirement documents
C
Q. 529: What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process? A. Setting up forms and databases B. Analysing metrics and improving processes C. Writing the documents to be inspected D. Time spent on the document outside the meeting
C
Q. 540: Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications? A. Baseline identification B. Configuration auditing C. Change control D. Version control
C
Q. 542: You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources( work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time. A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time. B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided
C
Q. 543: There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works on multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would not do on the first application? A. Integrity, Response time B. Concurrency test, Scalability C. Update & Rollback, Response time D. Concurrency test, Integrity
C
Q. 545: Which of the following assertions about code coverage are correct? A. Statement coverage usually requires more test case suites B. 100 % statement coverage guarantees 100 % decision coverage C. 100 % decision coverage implies 100 % statement coverage D. Decision tables cannot be used to list statement coverage values
C
Q. 550: Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program? I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software. II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project. III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed. IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities. Ans: A. I, II&III B.II, III&IV C.I, II&IV D.I, III&IV
C
Q. 552: A test harness is a A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test
C
Q. 553: "Be bugging" is known as A. Preventing the defects by inspection B. Fixing the defects by debugging C. Adding known defects by seeding D. A process of fixing the defects by tester
C
Q. 557: Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system? I. Record keeping II. System design III. Evaluation scheduling IV. Error reporting Ans: A.I, II&III B.II, III &IV C.I, III &IV D.I, II & IV
C
Q. 8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report? A. The name and / or organisational position of the person raising the problem. B. Version of the Software Under Test. C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem. D. Actual and expected results.
C
Q. 11: Which of the following is correct? A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing. B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team. C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been fixed correctly. D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much regression testing to do.
D
Q. 12: In software testing what is the main purpose of exit criteria? A. To enhance the security of the system B. To prevent the endless loops in code. C. To swerve as an alternative or "Plan-B" D. To define when to stop testing
D
Q. 14: Which of the following is a KEY test closure task? A. Ensuring proper environment setup B. Writing a test summary report C. Assessing the need for additional tests D. Finalizing and archiving testware.
D
Q. 1: How many test cases are required to cover 100% 0 - switch coverage respectively from X2? A. 4 B. 1 C. 3 D. 2
D
Q. 25: Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a testing tool? i) Investigate the organisation's test process. ii) Conduct a proof of concept. iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool. Options: A. i, ii, iii. B. ii, iii, iv. C. i, iii, iv. D. i, ii, iv
D
Q. 35: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful? A. Supporting reviews. B. Validating models of the software. C. Testing code executed in a special test harness. D. Enforcement of coding standards.
D
Q. 36: Which test approaches or strategies are characterized by the descriptions below? S. Process-compliant approaches T. Heuristic approaches U. Consultative approaches V. Regression-averse approaches 1. Includes reuse of existing test material 2. Listens to suggestions from technology experts 3. Adheres to industry-specific standards 4. Runs test execution and evaluation concurrently A. S4, T3, U2, V1 B. S1, T2, U3, V4 C. S2, T3, U1, V4 D. S3, T4, U2, V1
D
Q. 483: Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test? A. To find faults in the software. B. To assess whether the software is ready for release. C. To demonstrate that the software doesn't work. D. To prove that the software is correct.
D
Q. 489: Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing? A. An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software. B. An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote the software. C. An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software than the person who wrote it. D. An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.
D
Q. 491: Consider the following statements: i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage. iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. Ans: A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False B. i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False C. ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False D. ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
D
Q. 497: What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers? A. To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes. B. To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested. C. To determine how much the planned changes will affect users. D. To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
D
Q. 523: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10%. The next $28000 after that is taxed at 22%. Any further amount is taxed at 40%. To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes? A. $4000; $5000; $5500. B. $32001; $34000; $36500. C. $28000; $28001; $32001. D. $4000; $4200; $5600.
D
Q. 532: Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most? A. Component testing B. Non-functional system testing C. User acceptance testing D. Maintenance testing
D
Q. 544: Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing. A. Error Guessing B. Boundary Value Analysis C. Decision Table testing D. Equivalence partitioning
D
Q. 549: Big bang approach is related to A. Regression testing B. Inter system testing C. Re-testing D. Integration testing
D
Q. 555: "This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks" This statement is best suited for A. Water fall model B. Spiral model C. Incremental model D. V-Model
D
Q. 558: System test can begin when? I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the system testing III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control Ans: A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III
D
Q. 5: Which is a potential product risk factor? A. Failure of third party vendor B. Training issues C. Problems requirements definition D. Poor software functionality
D
Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test? A. Test case specification. B. Test design specification. C. Test procedure specification. D. Test results.
D
